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  • Question 1 - Samantha is a 26-year-old woman who complains of bilateral breast tenderness before her...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 26-year-old woman who complains of bilateral breast tenderness before her period. She also observes that her breasts feel lumpier than usual. The discomfort is unbearable, and she wants to know the best course of action. Since Samantha has just completed her menstrual cycle, there is no pain when her breasts are palpated, and there are no detectable lumps.

      What is the primary treatment option for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Cerazette

      Correct Answer: A supportive bra

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia involves wearing a supportive bra and taking simple analgesia, as stated by NICE guidelines. This type of breast pain is linked to hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle. Simple analgesia options include paracetamol and NSAIDs, while codeine is not advised. The use of Cerazette, a progesterone-only contraceptive pill, may exacerbate breast tenderness. NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of vitamin E or primrose oil.

      Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old woman who has undergone a hysterectomy seeks guidance regarding hormone replacement...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman who has undergone a hysterectomy seeks guidance regarding hormone replacement therapy. How does the use of a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation differ from an oestrogen-only preparation?

      Your Answer: Better control of symptoms

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      To minimize the risk of breast cancer, it is recommended to avoid adding progestogen in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Therefore, women who have had a hysterectomy are usually prescribed oestrogen-only treatment. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), the risk of stroke remains unchanged regardless of whether the HRT preparation includes progesterone.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the consultation, she reveals that she smokes around 12 cigarettes per day and has made two attempts in the past to quit smoking. What is the most effective intervention for achieving smoking cessation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brief advice from a physician

      Explanation:

      Effective Interventions for Smoking Cessation: Brief Advice and Lifestyle Changes

      Brief advice from a physician can be a powerful tool in helping people quit smoking. In less than 30 seconds, a physician can ask a person if they smoke and if they have considered quitting, while also offering help. This type of intervention has been proven effective for lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. However, acupuncture and hypnotherapy have little evidence to support their effectiveness in smoking cessation. While a prescribed exercise program may not be effective, short bouts of moderate exercise can help distract from cravings. Additionally, a low-calorie diet doesn’t impact a person’s ability to quit smoking successfully. By incorporating brief advice and lifestyle changes, physicians can help their patients successfully quit smoking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman presents to breast clinic with a hard painless lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to breast clinic with a hard painless lump in her left breast. After diagnosis of breast cancer, her clinician prescribe anastrozole. What are the potential side effects she should be cautioned about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer treatment often involves hormonal therapy, particularly for those with estrogen receptor-positive tumors (which account for about 80% of all breast cancers). Aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole are commonly used in postmenopausal women to target estrogen production.

      However, one of the major concerns with hormonal therapy is the risk of osteoporosis. Women should undergo bone mineral density testing before starting treatment and regularly thereafter.

      Tamoxifen, another drug commonly used to treat breast cancer, has been associated with side effects such as deep vein thrombosis, endometrial cancer, and vaginal bleeding. However, urinary incontinence is not a known side effect of anastrozole.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flashes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flashes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with deteriorating symptoms. You believe he is experiencing a UC flare-up but doesn't need to be hospitalized based on clinical indications. He is presently taking suboptimal oral mesalazine once a day. He has no IBD care plan in place but has been diagnosed with severe disease.
      What is the best course of action for managing his UC flare-up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start oral budesonide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis Flares

      Oral or rectal mesalazine (or rectal steroids) are the recommended first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) flares. The dose of oral mesalazine can be increased up to 4.8g daily for the treatment of flares. It is important to review the patient’s response to treatment after 2 weeks, or sooner if deterioration occurs.

      While oral steroids are a potential treatment for UC flare-ups, they are not considered first-line treatments. Alternatives to oral steroids are preferred where possible. Immunosuppressants such as azathioprine and mercaptopurine may be considered by secondary care.

      If a patient requires more than 2 courses of steroids in 12 months or is unable to reduce their oral steroid use below 15 mg prednisolone per day, escalation of IBD therapy may be necessary. It is important to inform the patient’s IBD team that a flare has occurred.

      The IBD toolkit developed with the RCGP provides helpful advice on flare management. To ensure effective treatment of UC flares, it is important to follow these guidelines and work closely with the patient’s healthcare team.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He has a past medical history of hypertensive heart disease and is currently taking amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide. He was recently treated for an infection at the hospital but cannot recall the name of the medication or the infection. What are some possible causes of heart failure in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Itraconazole

      Explanation:

      Itraconazole and Heart Failure Risk

      The use of itraconazole, a common antifungal medication, can increase the risk of heart failure in certain patients. Those most at risk include individuals with a history of heart disease, those taking calcium antagonists, and the elderly. Patients with liver disease or who are taking statins may also experience adverse effects from itraconazole. It is recommended that baseline liver function tests be performed before starting treatment. While dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and constipation are common side effects, the negative ionotropic effect of itraconazole can lead to heart failure in susceptible patients. Therefore, itraconazole should be avoided in patients with a history of heart failure unless the benefits outweigh the risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 7 - A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents with worsening abdominal distension and ankle swelling. Upon examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic area, but the abdomen is soft with no masses or rebound tenderness. The abdomen appears slightly distended with shifting dullness, and there is pitting edema up to mid-shin level. The patient is stable hemodynamically and shows no signs of jaundice or encephalopathy.

      What medication would be most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is the recommended diuretic for managing ascites, which is suggested by the patient’s history of cirrhosis and increasing abdominal distension. While bendroflumethiazide can be used for hypertension and edema, it is not licensed for ascites. Codeine should be avoided as it can cause constipation, which could increase the risk of encephalopathy. Furosemide is not licensed for ascites, but is used for heart failure and resistant hypertension. Ramipril is primarily used for hypertension, heart failure, chronic kidney disease, and post-myocardial infarction, but is not indicated for ascites management.

      Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.

      However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - You are evaluating a 26-year-old female who has a medical history of seborrhoeic...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 26-year-old female who has a medical history of seborrhoeic dermatitis and eczema, which have been well controlled for a few years. However, over the past two months, she has experienced a flare-up, particularly around her mouth. She attempted to alleviate the symptoms with an over-the-counter steroid cream, but it only made the condition worse.

      During the examination, you observed clustered erythematous papules around her mouth, but the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border was unaffected. Her cheeks and forehead were also unaffected.

      Based on the most probable diagnosis, which of the following management options is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline tablets

      Explanation:

      Peri-oral dermatitis cannot be treated with potent steroids as they are not effective. Emollients are also not recommended for improving the condition. Patients are advised to stop using all face care products until the flare-up of peri-oral dermatitis has subsided. The British Association of Dermatology (BAD) provides a useful leaflet on this condition that should be consulted.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 31-year-old farmer's wife presents with fever and malaise, feeling generally 'washed-out' and...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old farmer's wife presents with fever and malaise, feeling generally 'washed-out' and off her food. She has recently been helping out with lambing on the farm. On examination she has generalised lymph node swelling and a palpable liver edge. Her white blood cell count is just below the normal range.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brucellosis

      Explanation:

      Brucellosis: A Zoonotic Infection from Farm Animals

      Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection that occurs due to contact with farm animals such as sheep, goats, pigs, cattle, or dogs. It is most commonly seen in farmers, vets, or abattoir workers. Although rare in UK residents, it is prevalent worldwide and caused by Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus. The infection can be acquired through inhalation, ingestion, or a break in the skin.

      The incubation period ranges from 1 week to 3 months, and the symptoms include fever (usually undulant), sweating, weight loss, myalgia, arthralgia, and mild depression. Hepatosplenomegaly may also be present, and the white cell count may be normal or low. Antibody testing confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves a combination of doxycycline and rifampicin for at least 6 weeks. Shorter courses are associated with a high relapse rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his face that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved and the patient is becoming more self-conscious about them. He is seeking treatment. During examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, but no nodules.

      What is the best initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line management for acne is non-antibiotic topical treatment. For mild to moderate acne, a trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide, topical azelaic acid, or topical antibacterial is appropriate. Referral to dermatology is not necessary for mild to moderate acne. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if topical management options have failed. It is important to reassure the patient that treatment is available and necessary, and to review their progress in 2 months.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. On ultrasound examination, ascites is observed. Her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
      - Sodium (Na+): 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L)
      - Potassium (K+): 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
      - Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 8 mg/L (normal range: <5 mg/L)
      - Hematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48)

      What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy

      Explanation:

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a result of ovulation induction, as seen in this case with symptoms such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit. Different medications can be used for ovulation induction, with gonadotrophin therapy carrying a higher risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome compared to other options like clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. It is likely that the patient in question was given gonadotrophin therapy.

      Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories

      Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.

      There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

      One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner following an Occupational Health screen.
    Investigations...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner following an Occupational Health screen.
      Investigations have shown the following hepatitis B (HBV) serology:
      Test Result
      HBsAg
      (Hepatitis B surface antigen)
      Positive
      HBeAg
      (Hepatitis B e-antigen)
      Positive
      Anti-HBs
      (Antibody to HBsAg)
      Negative
      Anti-HBe
      (Antibody to HBeAg)
      Negative
      Anti-HBc IgG
      (Antibody to hepatitis B core-antigen immunoglobulin G)
      Positive
      Which of the following most accurately reflects this patient’s HBV status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Persistent carrier, high infectivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Understanding the results of hepatitis B tests is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here, we will discuss the different test results and what they mean.

      Persistent Carrier with High Infectivity:
      If a patient is positive for surface antigen, e-antigen, and core antibody, and negative for surface antibodies and e-antibodies, it suggests chronic carrier status. The presence of e-antigen confers high infectivity, indicating active viral replication. Core antibodies are a marker of past infection and will not be found in vaccinated individuals who have never been infected.

      Persistent Carrier with Low Infectivity:
      If a patient is positive for surface antigen and core antibody, but negative for e-antigen and e-antibodies, it suggests a moderately high viral load and elevated ALT levels. This is caused by a hepatitis B virus that has certain mutations (pre-core mutation) that allow the virus to replicate even when the e-antigen is absent.

      Previous Vaccination against Hepatitis B:
      If a patient has surface antibodies but not core antibodies, it indicates previous vaccination against hepatitis B.

      Spontaneously Cleared Infection:
      If a patient has lost surface antigen and developed surface antibodies, it marks seroconversion and indicates immunity. If IgM antibodies to core antigen (anti-HBc IgM) are present, it indicates recent infection.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis B test results is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for interpretation of test results and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 4-year-old boy has developed a maculopapular rash. His mother wants to know...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy has developed a maculopapular rash. His mother wants to know what condition he has developed.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a diagnosis of rubella rather than measles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suboccipital and post-auricular lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Identifying Rubella and Measles: Common Symptoms and Differences

      Since the introduction of the MMR vaccine, cases of rubella and measles have become rare. However, it is still important to be able to identify the symptoms of these illnesses. While rubella can be difficult to diagnose due to its fleeting symptoms, cervical, suboccipital, and post-auricular lymphadenopathy are characteristic of the illness and may precede the rash.

      Contrary to popular belief, both rubella and measles have a prodromal phase of lassitude, fever, headache, conjunctivitis, anorexia, and rhinorrhoea, which can be mistaken for a cold. However, symptoms are typically more severe in measles. Additionally, while the rash in rubella is pink and lasts about three days, the rash in measles is darker and fades in three to four days, often leaving a brown discoloration. Both rashes start on the face before spreading.

      It is important to note that patients with measles commonly have a high fever, which is not mentioned in this scenario. Furthermore, Koplik’s spots, small red spots with a white dot in the center, are often found on the mucosa inside the cheek opposite the second molar teeth during the prodromal illness in measles.

      In summary, being able to identify the common symptoms and differences between rubella and measles can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old female presents with a breast complaint. She has developed a patch...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female presents with a breast complaint. She has developed a patch of eczema on her right breast. She has no previous history of any skin conditions or anything similar.
      The patch of eczema has been present for four weeks. Two weeks ago, she was seen by a doctor who prescribed her a potent topical steroid and an emollient to use. She has been using these daily as directed but has not seen any improvement in her skin.
      On clinical examination, there is a unilateral patch of breast eczema affecting the right breast. There are no palpable breast lumps or nipple changes and no axillary lymphadenopathy.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her urgently to a breast specialist

      Explanation:

      Suspected Cancer Referral for Breast Cancer

      According to NICE guidance on suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12), individuals with certain symptoms should be considered for a suspected cancer pathway referral for breast cancer. These symptoms include skin changes that suggest breast cancer or an unexplained lump in the axilla for individuals aged 30 and over.

      It is important to note that a suspected cancer pathway referral means that the individual should be seen by a specialist within 2 weeks of referral. This allows for prompt diagnosis and treatment, which can greatly improve outcomes for individuals with breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old female has been experiencing headaches for a while. She reports having...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female has been experiencing headaches for a while. She reports having 2-3 headaches per month over the past few months, each lasting for 2-3 days. The headaches are usually pulsating and on one side. She is generally healthy, active, and takes the mini-pill for birth control. She lives with her partner and works as a teacher in a primary school.

      Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing recurrent migraines with classic symptoms such as unilateral and pulsating headache. However, topiramate is not the best option as it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception, including both the combined oral contraceptive pill and the progestogen-only pill (UKMEC 3 (disadvantages outweigh advantages)). Instead, alternative options such as triptans and NSAIDs can be used as monotherapy or in combination for acute treatment. Propranolol is also a suitable preventative treatment for women who are of childbearing age or those who are on hormonal contraceptives.

      Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations

      Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.

      Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.

      Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man is worried about the development of his breasts and suspects...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is worried about the development of his breasts and suspects that one of his medications may be responsible.

      Which of the following drugs is linked to gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SSRIs

      Explanation:

      Medications and their Side Effects

      Galactorrhoea is a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), according to the British National Formulary (BNF). On the other hand, gynaecomastia is not listed as a side effect of SSRIs. Tricyclics, however, are known to cause gynaecomastia by stimulating prolactin. Another medication that can cause gynaecomastia is anabolic steroids, which are not catabolic. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or alleviate these side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - You receive the blood results of an 80-year-old man who takes warfarin following...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the blood results of an 80-year-old man who takes warfarin following a pulmonary embolism three months ago. He recently completed a course of antibiotics.

      INR 8.4

      After reviewing the patient, you find that he is in good health with no signs of bleeding or bruising. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral vitamin K 5mg + stop warfarin + repeat INR after 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients Taking Warfarin

      When a patient taking warfarin experiences high INR levels, the management approach depends on the severity of the situation. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K should be administered along with prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma if available. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be administered. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      In cases where there is no bleeding but the INR is above 8.0, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K (1-5mg) can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0. If there is no bleeding, warfarin can be withheld for 1 or 2 doses and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.

      It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
      Free T4 35 pmol/L

      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.

      Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.

      On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.

      It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 33-year-old mother is worried about experiencing bilateral nipple pain for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old mother is worried about experiencing bilateral nipple pain for the past two weeks. She exclusively breastfeeds her 3-month-old daughter and has never had any issues before. The pain is most intense after feeds and can persist for up to 30 minutes. She reports severe pain and itching. During her visit to the clinic, she also requests that you examine her daughter's diaper rash. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miconazole 2% cream for the mother and miconazole oral gel for her infant

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 20 - You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours....

    Incorrect

    • You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours. Your patient is a 65-year-old lady who has Addison's disease and she has fallen down stairs and is unable to get up.

      Her husband says that her left lower leg is swollen, bruised, and deformed. She is in pain and cannot get up. There was no loss of consciousness and there is no vomiting. He has phoned 999 for an ambulance, which is on its way, but in the meantime, he would like advice about her steroids.

      What would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately

      Explanation:

      Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Disease

      The sick day rules for Addison’s disease are important to know and follow. In the case of a major injury, it is crucial to take 20 mg of Hydrocortisone immediately to prevent shock. If a patient has a fever of more than 37.5 C or an infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics, they should double their normal dose of hydrocortisone. For severe nausea with a headache, taking 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally and sipping rehydration/electrolyte fluids (e.g. Dioralyte) is recommended. In the event of vomiting, the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone should be used immediately, followed by calling a doctor and stating Addison’s emergency. It is also important to inform any medical professionals, such as anaesthetists, surgical teams, dentists, or endoscopists, of the need for extra oral medication and to check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover. By following these guidelines, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition and prevent potentially life-threatening situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - An overweight 35-year-old woman presents with a short history of right upper-quadrant pain,...

    Incorrect

    • An overweight 35-year-old woman presents with a short history of right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. There is no previous history of illness and, apart from the jaundice, she has no signs of chronic liver disease.
      Initial investigations are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 105 fl 80–100fl
      Bilirubin 162 µmol/l 5-26 µmol/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 145 U/l 5–34 U/l
      Alanine transaminase (ALT) 40 U/l < 55 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 126 U/l 30–130 U/l
      Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) 200 U/l 7–33 U/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Acute Right Upper-Quadrant Pain, Fever, and Jaundice: A Differential Diagnosis

      When a patient presents with acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, several conditions may be responsible. A differential diagnosis can help narrow down the possible causes based on the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results. Here are some potential conditions to consider:

      Alcoholic Hepatitis
      If the patient has a raised ALT or AST, alcoholic hepatitis may be the cause. An AST:ALT ratio >2 is typical of alcoholic liver disease or cirrhosis, and a macrocytosis and raised GGT further support this diagnosis.

      Autoimmune Hepatitis
      A short history of right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice may suggest autoimmune hepatitis. However, a raised AST:ALT ratio makes alcoholic liver disease more likely.

      Carcinoma of the Head of the Pancreas
      Painless obstructive jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools are typical of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. As the tumor grows, it may cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back. However, this condition should not present with a fever.

      Cholecystitis
      Cholecystitis can cause similar symptoms, but LFTs would show a different pattern, typically with a raised ALP and GGT and raised bilirubin if the patient is jaundiced. A normal ALP makes cholecystitis less likely.

      Hepatitis A Infection
      Hepatitis A infection can also cause acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. However, significantly raised ALT and AST levels are typical of this condition because the virus replicates within hepatocytes.

      In summary, a differential diagnosis can help identify the possible causes of acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. Laboratory results, such as AST:ALT ratio, macrocytosis, and GGT levels, can provide additional clues to narrow down the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A plan to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and decide goals to reduce the risk of harm and how to best protect the child while clarifying the responsibilities of the people involved

      Explanation:

      Child Protection Plans

      At an initial Child Protection conference, the decision to make a child subject to a Protection Plan is made. This plan is created if a child is at continuing risk of significant harm. The purpose of the Child Protection Plan is to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and to decide on goals to reduce the risk of harm and protect the child. It should also clarify the responsibilities of the people involved and actions to be taken. Additionally, the plan should outline how the processes will be monitored and evaluated.

      Overall, the Child Protection Plan is a crucial tool in ensuring the safety and well-being of vulnerable children. It provides a framework for all parties involved to work together towards a common goal of protecting the child from harm. By setting clear goals and responsibilities, the plan helps to ensure that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same objectives. Regular monitoring and evaluation of the plan also help to ensure that it remains effective and relevant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 23 - A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump on the upper central forehead that extends into the hairline. The lump has multiple small pustular areas on the surface and is of recent onset. Additionally, there is hair loss from the affected area of the scalp. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kerion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kerion: An Inflammatory Mass Caused by Zoophilic Dermatophyte Fungal Infection

      Kerion is a rare form of tinea infection that results in an inflammatory mass caused by a zoophilic dermatophyte fungal infection. Unlike the more common anthropophilic dermatophytes that produce a mild, chronic inflammation, zoophilic dermatophytes of animal origin produce an intense inflammatory response. The scalp is most commonly affected by zoophilic organisms such as Microsporum canis from domestic pets or Trichophyton verrucosum from cattle and horses.

      Kerion is often misdiagnosed as a bacterial infection, and failure to diagnose it early can result in permanent alopecia in the affected areas. Symptoms may include enlarged regional lymph nodes, fever, and malaise. Definitive diagnosis is made by isolating the fungus from culture of hair and scalp scales, but fungal culture is often negative due to the difficulty in isolating the fungus. In such cases, treatment may be initiated based on clinical suspicion.

      Treatment for kerion involves oral antifungal agents such as terbinafine, itraconazole, or griseofulvin for at least six to eight weeks. Antibiotics may also be needed if there is a bacterial infection present. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for kerion is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this uncommon fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of lower abdominal/pelvic pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of lower abdominal/pelvic pain and a raised temperature. She had an IUCD inserted two weeks ago. On examination, a pregnancy test is negative, she has a small amount of vaginal discharge, and there are white blood cells present on dipstick test of her urine. What is the probable cause of these symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of PID Following IUCD Insertion

      The most probable diagnosis in cases of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is following the insertion of an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). To support the diagnosis, swabs should be taken, although negative results do not necessarily rule out PID if there are clinical indications.

      Expert opinions differ on whether to remove the IUCD at the time of presentation. However, if symptoms persist after 72 hours, the IUCD should be removed. Proper diagnosis and management of PID following IUCD insertion are crucial to prevent complications and ensure the patient’s well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man comes to your clinic in the afternoon. He is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to your clinic in the afternoon. He is concerned about his risk of developing acral lentiginous melanoma after learning that his brother has been diagnosed with the condition. He has read that this subtype of melanoma is more prevalent in certain ethnic groups and wants to know which group is most commonly affected.

      Can you provide information on the ethnicity that is at higher risk for acral lentiginous melanoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asians

      Explanation:

      The acral-lentiginous melanoma is a subtype of melanoma that is often disregarded and not commonly seen in Caucasians. It is more prevalent in individuals from the Far East. This type of melanoma typically grows slowly and may not be noticeable in its early stages, presenting as pigmented patches on the sole. As it progresses, nodular areas may develop, indicating deeper growth. Sadly, the Jamaican musician Bob Marley passed away at the age of 36 due to complications from an acral lentiginous melanoma.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient known to be HIV positive.
      Select the single most appropriate immediate management after hand-washing for 10 minutes.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiretroviral therapy

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of HIV and Hepatitis B Transmission in Healthcare Workers

      Healthcare workers are at risk of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B through needlestick injuries or other percutaneous and mucous membrane exposures. The average risk of HIV infection after such exposure is 0.3%, while the risk of hepatitis B transmission is higher. The risk is greatest for deep injuries, visible blood on the device, direct cannulation of blood vessels, or advanced HIV disease in the source patient.

      To reduce the risk of HIV transmission, healthcare workers should receive post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) as soon as possible after exposure. A small study showed an 80% reduction in seroconversion with zidovudine, and current recommendations include two nucleoside inhibitors and a protease inhibitor for 1 month. Nevirapine is not recommended due to adverse reactions.

      In addition to PEP, healthcare workers should receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 72 hours if the source is HBeAg positive or unknown, and they have negative serology. All healthcare workers should also be offered hepatitis B immunisation if they have not been immunised or are non-immune, following baseline serology testing.

      A careful risk assessment and information provision are crucial in the management of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B in healthcare workers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old man presents with flu-like symptoms and subsequently develops haematuria. His urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with flu-like symptoms and subsequently develops haematuria. His urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein, and a urine culture is sent. He is prescribed trimethoprim but later reports feeling ill and coughing up blood. Urine microscopy reveals red cell casts. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goodpasture syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Goodpasture Syndrome: A Rare Autoimmune Disease with Pulmonary and Renal Complications

      Goodpasture syndrome is a rare autoimmune disease that typically occurs after an influenza infection. It is caused by a type II antigen-antibody reaction, resulting in circulating anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. This disease primarily affects young men, and smokers are at a higher risk of developing severe pulmonary complications. Pulmonary haemorrhage can be massive and lead to respiratory failure. Additionally, it causes rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which has a poor prognosis if left untreated. Urine microscopy shows casts, and blood testing is positive for anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. Chest X-ray typically shows blotchy shadowing. Treatment involves steroids and plasmapheresis.

      While other diseases can cause pulmonary and renal symptoms, they are unlikely to present in combination. Collagen diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, microscopic polyarteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and essential mixed cryoglobulinaemia can also cause pulmonary haemorrhage with renal failure. However, acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, resulting from an antecedent infection of the skin or throat caused by nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, doesn’t present with pulmonary haemorrhage. Symptoms of this disease include odema, gross haematuria, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, fever, abdominal pain, and headache. Red blood cell casts are commonly found in the urine.

      In conclusion, understanding Goodpasture syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. This rare autoimmune disease can cause severe pulmonary and renal complications, and prompt intervention is necessary to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 28 - A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30 pills during a weekend trip. She usually remembers to take her pill but has missed days 10, 11, and 12 of her packet, and it is now day 13. Despite taking the day 13 pill this morning, she is worried about the possibility of pregnancy as she had unprotected sex while away. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action needed but use condoms for next 7 days

      Explanation:

      The patient is protected for the next 7 days as she had taken the pill for 7 days in a row previously. According to the FSRH guidelines, emergency contraception is not required after taking seven consecutive pills. However, the guidelines suggest using condoms for the next 7 days in this scenario. Please refer to the provided link for more information.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is given subcutaneously

      Explanation:

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting in a distal radius fracture (Colles' fracture). She has a history of depression and osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions. What is the best course of action to address her risk of future fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start alendronate 70mg once weekly

      Explanation:

      Patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture should be initiated on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without the need for a DEXA scan, as they are presumed to have osteoporosis.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
      Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.

      In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.

      Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.

      Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 32 - A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He has hypertension, depression, type II diabetes and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
      On examination, he is found to have an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (normal range: > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2).
      What is the most appropriate medication to reduce given this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Renal Impairment: A Case Study

      In managing patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use. In this case study, we will review the medication regimen of a patient with an eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 and discuss any necessary adjustments.

      Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis and should be avoided if the patient’s eGFR is ≤ 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. The dose should be reviewed if the eGFR is ≤ 45 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Treatment should also be withdrawn in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function.

      Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, can be used with caution in renal failure and doesn’t require dose reduction.

      Finasteride, used to treat BPH, doesn’t require dose adjustment in those with renal failure.

      Tamsulosin, also used to treat BPH, should be used with caution in patients with an eGFR level < 10 ml/min per 1.73 m2. However, this patient's eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 doesn't meet this threshold, so no adjustment is necessary at this time. Nifedipine, used to treat hypertension and angina, doesn’t require dose modification in those with renal impairment. In conclusion, medication management in renal impairment requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual case and potential risks and benefits of medication use. Close monitoring and regular review of medication regimens are essential to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 33 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review. He has no daytime symptoms and occasionally uses his ventolin inhaler at night when suffering from a viral infection. His only other medical history is of urinary incontinence, for which he has been fully investigated, and three episodes of gout in the last five years.
      On examination, his respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, his heart rate 64 bpm and his blood pressure is 168/82 mmHg. Subsequent home blood pressure readings confirm isolated systolic hypertension.
      Which of the following is the single most suitable medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Management of Isolated Systolic Hypertension: Drug Options and Considerations

      Isolated systolic hypertension, characterized by elevated systolic blood pressure and normal diastolic blood pressure, is managed similarly to systolic plus diastolic hypertension. Amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, is the preferred first-line drug for treating isolated systolic hypertension in patients over 55 years old.

      Before starting any medication, a new diagnosis of hypertension should be confirmed through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home blood pressure monitoring. Additionally, an assessment for evidence of end-organ damage and 10-year cardiovascular risk should be conducted, along with a discussion about modifiable risk factors such as diet, exercise, sodium intake, alcohol consumption, caffeine, and smoking.

      Indapamide, a thiazide diuretic, is typically used as a second or third step in the treatment protocol. However, it may exacerbate gout and worsen urinary problems.

      Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, were previously recommended as second-line treatment for hypertension. However, they can cause hyperglycemia and are now at step 4 of the management plan. Beta-blockers are also contraindicated in asthma, making them unsuitable for some patients.

      Doxazosin, which is at step 4 of the hypertension management plan, may cause urinary incontinence and is not appropriate for all patients.

      Valsartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker, is a first-line option for patients under 55 years old, along with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It may be added at step 2 if necessary for patients over 55 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 34 - Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has a medical history of well-controlled osteoarthritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Currently, she takes Symbicort (budesonide with formoterol) 200/6, salbutamol, and uses senna and naproxen tablets as required.

      Her recent urine sample indicates an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 87 mg/mmol, which is higher than the previous sample taken 6 months ago, showing an ACR of 79 mg/mmol. Additionally, her serum urea and creatinine results have mildly deteriorated over the last 6 months.

      During her clinic visit, her blood pressure measures 129/76 mmHg.

      What medication changes would you suggest for Evelyn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start ramipril and atorvastatin, consider alternatives to naproxen

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, all patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. In the case of a patient experiencing a decline in renal function, it may be advisable to discontinue the use of naproxen, although this decision should be made in consideration of the patient’s symptoms and functional impairment. The recommended course of action would be to start the patient on ramipril and atorvastatin while exploring alternative treatments for osteoarthritis. The second option is only partially correct, as ramipril is advised regardless of blood pressure in CKD patients with this level of proteinuria. The third option doesn’t include ramipril or atorvastatin, while the fourth and fifth options do not include atorvastatin. Ultimately, the decision to discontinue naproxen use will depend on the healthcare professional’s clinical judgement, the patient’s preferences, and the frequency of use.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 35 - A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle aches all over. What is not considered a risk factor for myopathy caused by statins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large fall in LDL-cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 36 - A 55-year-old man presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. His medical history includes a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. His medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in his early adulthood. He currently takes mebeverine 135 mg TDS and loperamide 2 mg PRN for symptom relief. He reports intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and periodic bouts of diarrhea. His latest blood tests, done as part of his diabetic annual review, show a mild microcytic anemia and a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP. He has no new symptoms and follows a normal diet. On examination, there are no focal abnormalities. He is interested in trying a gluten-free diet as his mother found it helpful for her IBS. What advice should be given regarding testing for coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serological testing can be carried out appropriately at any time regardless of a person's dietary intake of gluten

      Explanation:

      Testing for Coeliac Disease

      Accuracy of testing for coeliac disease is dependent on the person following a gluten-containing diet. For at least six weeks prior to testing, a person should follow a normal diet containing gluten in more than one meal a day. This is the case for both serological and histological testing. If a diagnosis of coeliac disease is suspected and the person is reluctant to include or reintroduce gluten in their diet prior to any testing, then they should be referred to a gastrointestinal specialist.

      Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to indicate whether further investigation is needed. A positive test should prompt referral to a gastrointestinal specialist for intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. When serology is requested, the preferred first choice test is currently IgA transglutaminase (tTGA). If the result is equivocal, IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) testing can be used.

      IgA deficiency can lead to false negative results, so IgA deficiency should be ruled out if serology is negative. IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA serology can be used in those with confirmed IgA deficiency. Human leucocyte antigen (HLA) DQ2/DQ8 testing may be considered by gastrointestinal specialists in specific clinical situations; however, it doesn’t have a role in the initial testing for coeliac disease.

      It should be borne in mind that if serological testing is negative but there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease, then referral to a gastrointestinal specialist should be offered as serological tests are not 100% accurate. A clinical response to gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease. For example, some patients with irritable bowel syndrome may be gluten sensitive but not have coeliac disease. Implications of a positive test should be discussed prior to serological testing being performed, including the nature of the further investigations needed and the implications for other family members should the test be positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 37 - A 50-year-old man requests you to check his blood pressure after his colleague...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man requests you to check his blood pressure after his colleague had a heart attack. Upon measurement, his blood pressure is 142/82 mmHg, and five minutes later, it is 134/74 mmHg in the same arm. According to NICE guidelines, what is the best next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure him that the second reading is normal and suggest he has it checked in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If the clinic reading is equal to or greater than 140/90 mmHg, it is recommended to offer ABPM/HBPM. However, if the lower reading in the consultation is below 140/90 mmHg, no immediate action is necessary according to NICE guidelines.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old woman from Kenya informs you that she has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman from Kenya informs you that she has been diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. She underwent testing due to a family history of the condition.
      What is the most probable characteristic that this patient possesses? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No symptoms at all

      Explanation:

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency: Symptoms and Characteristics

      G6PD deficiency is a common enzyme-deficiency disease that affects 400 million people worldwide. It is inherited as an X-linked disorder and has more than 300 reported variants. The disease protects against malaria, which may explain its high gene frequency. The enzyme is crucial in red blood cell metabolism, and G6PD enzyme activity is the definitive test for diagnosis.

      Most individuals with G6PD deficiency are asymptomatic, but symptomatic patients are almost exclusively male due to the X-linked pattern of inheritance. Female carriers may also be affected, as inactivation of an X chromosome in certain cells creates a population of G6PD-deficient red blood cells co-existing with normal red cells.

      While neonatal jaundice is not a symptom of G6PD deficiency, it may occur in some cases. It usually appears within 24 hours of birth and may require exchange transfusions. Abdominal pain is not a typical symptom, but back pain, abdominal pain, and jaundice may occur during a haemolytic crisis. Gallstones are more common in individuals with G6PD deficiency, and splenomegaly may be present in severe cases of haemolysis.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of G6PD deficiency is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 39 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit. She has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit. She has noticed that over the past four to six weeks she has been opening her bowels two to three times a day with very loose stools. On a few occasions there have been small amounts of fresh blood in the stools. She has attributed this fresh blood to haemorrhoids which she has had in the past. Prior to this recent four to six week period she had typically opened her bowels once a day with well-formed stools.

      There is no reported family history of bowel problems. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory two to three weeks after the looser stools started and stool microscopy was normal, as are her recent blood tests which show she is not anaemic. Clinical examination is unremarkable with normal abdominal and rectal examinations. Her weight is stable.

      She tells you that she is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about a month ago she submitted her bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that her screening tests were negative.

      What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient that in view of the negative bowel screening she doesn't require any further investigation but should continue to participate in screening every two years

      Explanation:

      Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms

      Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in at-risk populations. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to falsely reassure themselves with negative screening results. In the case of a 68-year-old woman with persistent changes in bowel habit and rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary.

      It is important to note that relying on recent negative screening results can be inadequate and should not delay necessary medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 40 - Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Prohibited Substances in Sports

      Beta-blockers and diuretics are among the substances prohibited in certain sports. In billiards and archery, the use of beta-blockers is not allowed as they can enhance performance by reducing anxiety and tremors. On the other hand, diuretics are generally prohibited as they can be used as masking agents to hide the presence of other banned substances. It is important to note that diuretics can be found in some combination products, such as Cozaar-Comp which contains hydrochlorothiazide. Athletes should be aware of the substances they are taking and ensure that they are not violating any anti-doping regulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 41 - What proportion of the population in the United Kingdom has coeliac disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of the population in the United Kingdom has coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 1000

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease Prevalence and Risk Factors

      The prevalence of coeliac disease in the United Kingdom is approximately 1 in 100. However, this can vary significantly between different countries, with Finland and Northern European countries having higher rates.

      If a patient has a first degree relative with coeliac disease, their risk of having the condition increases to 1 in 10. In such cases, it is advisable to offer testing, even if the patient is not experiencing symptoms. This is because untreated coeliac disease can increase the risk of other diseases, including lymphoma and gut malignancy.

      It is important to be aware of these risk factors and prevalence rates in order to identify and diagnose coeliac disease early, and to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 42 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner complaining of hearing loss. He served...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner complaining of hearing loss. He served in the military and was exposed to loud noises, which he thinks is the reason for his hearing loss.
      What is the accurate statement regarding noise-induced hearing loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is usually bilateral and symmetrical

      Explanation:

      Understanding Noise-Induced Hearing Loss and Its Unique Characteristics in Shooters

      Noise-induced hearing loss is a gradual and symmetrical hearing loss that typically affects both ears. However, in the case of shooters, the loss occurs in the opposite ear to where they hold their gun, as the gun side is shielded. The damage is permanent and greatest at high frequencies. Examination of the tympanic membrane is usually normal, except in cases of glue ear. Prolonged exposure to excessive noise can result in permanent damage, but the loss doesn’t progress once exposure is discontinued. Patients with occupational exposure should be referred for further evaluation, as there may be legal implications. Employers have a duty to protect employees from noise under the Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005. Compensation may be available under the Armed Forces Compensation Scheme for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 43 - A 29-year-old woman who initially complained of abdominal discomfort and irregular bowel movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who initially complained of abdominal discomfort and irregular bowel movements is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. What dietary advice should be avoided in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the intake of fibre such as bran and wholemeal bread

      Explanation:

      IBS patients should steer clear of insoluble sources of fiber like bran and wholemeal.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 44 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the curb and landing on his right arm. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and takes bisoprolol and warfarin, with a recent INR of 2.2. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient to hospital for a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for investigating head injuries in adults. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine which patients need further CT head imaging and which patients can be safely discharged.

      The guidelines divide patients into two groups: those who require an immediate CT head scan and those who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. Patients who require an immediate CT head scan include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, a suspected open or depressed skull fracture, or any sign of basal skull fracture. Other indications for an immediate CT head scan include post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      Patients who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury include those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, or have experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury. Patients with more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury also require a CT head scan within 8 hours.

      It is important to note that patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine the appropriate course of action for investigating head injuries in adults, ensuring that patients receive the necessary care and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 45 - A 45-year-old lady comes to see you regarding her copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD)....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old lady comes to see you regarding her copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD). The device contains >300 mm² of copper. She had it inserted 2 years ago and would like to know how long it can be used for before it needs removing.

      What sentence below is correct regarding removing the Cu-IUD and this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Cu-IUD can remain in situ until 1 year after the last menstrual period (LMP) if it occurs when the woman is 50 or older

      Explanation:

      The copper IUD can be used until menopause if inserted at age 40 or over, according to the FSRH. It can remain in place for 1 year after the last menstrual period if the woman is over 50, or 2 years if she is under 50. It should not be left in place indefinitely due to the risk of infection.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 46 - A 25-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea.

    What is the most appropriate...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea.

      What is the most appropriate first investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Secondary Amenorrhoea with Galactorrhoea

      Any patient who presents with secondary amenorrhoea, the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months, should first have pregnancy ruled out before further investigation. This is because pregnancy can cause secondary amenorrhoea and may also lead to galactorrhoea, the production of breast milk in a non-lactating individual.

      If pregnancy is ruled out, the next step is to measure prolactin levels. Hyperprolactinaemia, a condition where there is an excess of prolactin in the blood, can cause both secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyperprolactinaemia, which can include pituitary tumors, medication side effects, or other medical conditions.

      In summary, investigating secondary amenorrhoea with galactorrhoea requires ruling out pregnancy and measuring prolactin levels to determine the underlying cause of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 47 - A 67-year-old man with metastatic squamous cell lung cancer visits the surgery with...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with metastatic squamous cell lung cancer visits the surgery with a complaint of sudden pain in his right arm, where a skeletal metastasis is known to exist. He is currently on slow-release morphine sulphate (MST) 90mg bd, along with regular naproxen and paracetamol, to manage his pain. What medication would be the best choice to alleviate his acute pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral morphine solution 30 mg

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing break-through pain and bisphosphonates are not appropriate for acute pain relief. The recommended break-through dose is 30 mg, which is 1/6th of their total daily morphine dose of 180mg.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old man with Down syndrome undergoes his annual health check and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with Down syndrome undergoes his annual health check and a cardiac abnormality is discovered. Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most commonly found in adults with Down syndrome? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Adults with Down Syndrome

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 babies born in the United States. While congenital defects are common in children with Down syndrome, affecting 47%, most babies born with these defects will have surgery at an early age. However, around 40-50% of adults with Down syndrome will develop valvular disease, even if they did not have a defect at birth.

      Atrial fibrillation, a common heart condition characterized by an irregular heartbeat, doesn’t have a significant increase in risk among the Down syndrome population compared to the general population. However, the risk of infective endocarditis, a potentially life-threatening infection of the heart’s inner lining, is increased in individuals with Down syndrome who have a structural cardiac abnormality.

      Interestingly, rates of ischaemic heart disease, a condition caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, are lower among people with Down syndrome when compared to the general population. Ventricular septal defect, a hole in the wall separating the heart’s lower chambers, occurs in 32% of babies born with Down syndrome, but it is relatively rare in adults due to early surgical correction.

      In conclusion, while adults with Down syndrome may be at an increased risk for certain cardiac abnormalities, early surgical intervention and lower rates of ischaemic heart disease suggest that proper medical care can help manage these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 49 - A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of low libido, erectile dysfunction and loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of low libido, erectile dysfunction and loss of early-morning erections. His testes appear normal but his serum testosterone is 10 nmol/l (reference range 11–36 nmol/l).
      Which of the following statements regarding this patient's presentation is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A recent acute illness such as pneumonia could explain a low testosterone result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypogonadism: Interpreting Testosterone Results and Treatment Considerations

      Hypogonadism, or low testosterone, can present with a variety of symptoms including low libido, erectile dysfunction, and loss of early morning erections. When low testosterone is detected, further testing with follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and prolactin measurements can help distinguish primary from secondary hypogonadism.

      There are several factors that can contribute to reversible hypogonadism, including concurrent illness, certain medications, and lifestyle factors such as excessive alcohol consumption and stress. However, it is important to note that hypogonadism should be treated with testosterone replacement therapy, regardless of age, but only after confirming the diagnosis with repeat testing.

      It is also important to consider age-related declines in testosterone levels, which typically occur after the age of 30. However, this decline may be a result of deteriorating general health rather than the cause. Therefore, it is crucial to interpret testosterone results in the context of the patient’s symptoms and overall health status.

      In cases where hypogonadism is suspected, referral to an endocrinologist may be necessary if there are suggestive clinical symptoms and chronic androgen deficiency. However, it is important to note that testosterone replacement therapy should not be initiated solely based on age or a single low testosterone result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - A 28-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum seeks advice. She had unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum seeks advice. She had unprotected sex with her partner two nights ago. She is currently breastfeeding her baby and her partner gives a formula feed at night. She has not had any periods since giving birth and is concerned about the possibility of becoming pregnant again, which she considers not an option at the moment. The incident of unprotected sex occurred approximately 50 hours ago, and she is not open to considering an intrauterine device. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe levonorgestrel

      Explanation:

      The lactational amenorrhea method is most effective for women who are less than 6 months postpartum, fully breastfeeding, and not experiencing menstrual periods. However, if the baby is receiving formula at night, this method may not be completely reliable. Additionally, ulipristal, a medication used for emergency contraception, is excreted in breast milk for up to 5 days after use, so it is recommended to avoid breastfeeding for a week after taking it, which could significantly impact a woman’s ability to breastfeed.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 51 - You are seeing a young adult patient who frequently attends the clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a young adult patient who frequently attends the clinic and is being treated for depression. She has come today with her mother feeling low, helpless and 'lost'. Looking back at her medical records you can see that the patient has had several suicide attempts and a long history of self harm. She is known to be an impulsive person and has had problems due to this with substance misuse and personal relationships.

      Her mother tells you that she has had a series of sexual relationships that have been very intense and often violent. The latest of these relationships ended a few days ago. Her mood tends to vary markedly and is quite unstable. She has been involved in physical fights on a frequent basis which she puts down to feeling angry and having a 'short fuse'.

      On talking to her she has a fear of abandonment and a distorted self-image of herself. You are aware that as a child she was sexually abused by a close male family member.

      Which of the following personality disorders correlate with her history and the clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Borderline Personality Disorder: Understanding the Challenges

      Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a complex mental health condition that can present significant challenges in managing both the mental and physical needs of those affected. BPD is the most commonly presenting personality disorder in primary care, and it is important to recognise the signs and symptoms to provide appropriate support.

      Individuals with BPD often exhibit a pervasive pattern of behaviour characterised by unstable interpersonal relationships, problems with self-image and mood, and impulsive behaviour. They may experience suicidal tendencies, self-harm, depression, and even psychotic symptoms. Patients can fluctuate rapidly between periods of confidence and complete despair, and they often show fear of abandonment and rejection.

      Recognising the signs and symptoms of BPD is crucial in providing appropriate support and treatment for those affected. With the right care and management, individuals with BPD can lead fulfilling lives and achieve their full potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 52 - A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels of iron in his blood. You suspect coeliac disease and want to investigate further.
      Choose from the options below the immunoglobulin that may be deficient in individuals with coeliac disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Selective IgA Deficiency

      Coeliac disease is more common in individuals with selective IgA deficiency, which affects 0.4% of the general population and 2.6% of coeliac disease patients. Diagnosis of coeliac disease relies on detecting IgA antibodies to transglutaminase or anti-endomysial antibody. However, it is crucial to check total serum IgA levels before ruling out the diagnosis based on serology. For those with confirmed IgA deficiency, IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA are the appropriate serological tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 53 - A study of individuals with cognitive impairment was conducted. The 112 participants who...

    Incorrect

    • A study of individuals with cognitive impairment was conducted. The 112 participants who underwent program A demonstrated an average increase of 6 points in their IQ score. On the other hand, the 115 participants who underwent program B showed an average increase of 4 points in their IQ score. The p value was greater than 0.05. What is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Even though the difference between the means is not significant it would be appropriate to calculate confidence intervals

      Explanation:

      Importance of Confidence Intervals in Data Analysis

      Even though the difference between means may not be significant, it is still important to calculate confidence intervals. This is because confidence intervals provide an idea of the distribution of the data, which can give more meaningful insights into the study. Additionally, the chances of obtaining results by chance are greater than 1 in 20 if the p-value is greater than 0.05.

      To compare data, a t-test can be used, and larger sample sizes generally provide more meaningful results. However, it is important to note that repeating an IQ test or using a different test (such as test A or B) may not necessarily provide more useful information. Overall, confidence intervals are a valuable tool in data analysis and should be considered even when the difference between means is not significant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 54 - A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been diagnosed with thyroid eye disease and is being evaluated for radiotherapy. In the last few days, she has experienced redness and pain in her left eye. Upon examination, there is erythema and proptosis of the left eye. Her visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. What is the most probable complication she has developed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure keratopathy

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 55 - A 38-year-old smoker requests advice on contraception. She smokes 12 cigarettes per day,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old smoker requests advice on contraception. She smokes 12 cigarettes per day, has a stable partner, and two children. She doesn't want any more children. She also reports heavy periods and would like to address this issue. During examination, her BMI is 30, and her blood pressure is 140/85. What is the best contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Contraceptive for a Smoker with Elevated BMI

      Combined oral contraceptive pills are not recommended for smokers over 35 years old due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. This risk is further elevated in women with an elevated BMI. While the progesterone-only pill is an alternative, its effectiveness is reduced due to poor compliance. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this patient would be an IUD or IUS. The IUS may result in reduced menstrual flow after the first few months, and in some cases, periods may become very light or stop altogether. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and lifestyle is necessary when selecting the most appropriate contraceptive method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 56 - A 75-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica presents to her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica presents to her General Practitioner with a sudden loss of vision in her right eye. For the previous few days, she had been suffering from right-sided temporal headache, muscle aches and tiredness. She also noticed her jaw was getting painful after a few minutes of chewing.
      What single investigation would most strongly support the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant cell infiltrate on temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnostic Features of Giant Cell Arteritis

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a type of vasculitis that affects medium- and large-sized arteries. The gold standard for diagnosing GCA is a biopsy of the temporal artery, which will show vasculitis characterized by a predominance of mononuclear cell infiltration or granulomatous inflammation, usually with multinucleated giant cells. A positive biopsy is a strong indicator of GCA.

      While there are other tests that may be performed, such as the Treponema pallidum haemagglutination (TPHA) test for syphilis and the C-reactive protein (CRP) level test, these are not specific to GCA. However, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is often elevated in GCA, with levels usually exceeding 50 mm/hour and sometimes exceeding 100 mm/hour.

      One of the most concerning symptoms of GCA is homonymous hemianopia, a visual field defect that affects either the two right or two left halves of the visual fields of both eyes. This is caused by lesions in the retrochiasmal visual pathways, which are located anterior to the optic chiasm in GCA patients.

      Overall, understanding the diagnostic features of GCA is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 57 - A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.

      Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression

      Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 58 - A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating, and her husband, while archiving photos from recent years, noticed an increased prominence of her jaw now. Last year she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Other past history of note is that she has recently been operated on for carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growth-hormone levels are likely to remain above 1 µg/l after a 75 g glucose load

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. A diagnosis is confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test, as growth hormone levels remain elevated above 1 µg/l. Symptoms include coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, and soft tissue swellings. Nerve compression, hypertension, and cardiovascular complications may also occur. Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are elevated in patients with acromegaly and can be used to monitor treatment efficacy. Random growth hormone testing is unsuitable due to episodic secretion. Treatment involves trans-sphenoidal resection of the pituitary tumor. Additionally, some patients with acromegaly may have increased levels of 1,25-OH vitamin D, which can cause hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 59 - Which of the following is not a recognized approach used in qualitative research?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognized approach used in qualitative research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Census survey

      Explanation:

      Quantitative research involves the use of surveys as a method.

      Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research

      Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.

      Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 60 - A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic. Despite maintaining a stable INR for the past 3 years on the same dose of warfarin, his INR is found to be 5.4. What is the most probable cause of this sudden change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranberry juice

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort induces the P450 enzyme system, which results in a decrease in the INR instead of an increase.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 61 - A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in...

    Incorrect

    • A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in clinical trials. One hundred participants are administered the new medication. Over a three-month period, 10 of the participants experience a shingles outbreak. Meanwhile, in the control group, 300 participants are given a placebo. During the same time frame, 50 individuals in the control group experience a shingles outbreak. What is the relative risk of experiencing a shingles outbreak while taking the new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      The experimental event rate (EER) is calculated as 10 events out of 100, resulting in a rate of 0.10. The control event rate (CER) is calculated as 50 events out of 300, resulting in a rate of 0.166. The relative risk is then calculated as the ratio of EER to CER, which is 0.6.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 62 - A male patient is prescribed oral testosterone replacement therapy. A Mirena® IUS has...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient is prescribed oral testosterone replacement therapy. A Mirena® IUS has been fitted and will be used for protection against endometrial hyperplasia.

      For what length of time is the Mirena® licensed for use as protection against endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      Mirena® License for Contraception and Endometrial Hyperplasia Protection

      At the moment, question stats are not available, but it is likely that many people will choose 5 years as the answer for Mirena®’s duration of use for contraception. However, it is important to note that while Mirena® is licensed for up to 5 years for contraception and idiopathic menorrhagia, it is only licensed for 4 years for protection against endometrial hyperplasia during oestrogen replacement therapy. This means that individuals using Mirena® for this purpose should have it replaced after 4 years to ensure continued protection. It is crucial to follow the recommended duration of use for Mirena® to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 63 - A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a flare-up of symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a flare-up of symptoms, including diarrhoea which is occasionally bloody, up to four times a day. He has diffuse ulcerative colitis and has been in remission; he takes 1.5 g of mesalazine a day.
      On examination, his blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, while his pulse is 75 bpm. Abdominal examination is normal.
      What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Ulcerative Colitis

      When a patient experiences a moderate exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, there are several treatment options available. The most appropriate choice is a dose of 20-40 mg of oral prednisolone per day, which should be continued until the patient enters remission. If there is an inadequate response after 2-4 weeks, ciclosporin tablets can be added to the regimen to induce remission. However, these should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care. Anti-motility drugs such as co-phenotrope should not be used as they may precipitate paralytic ileus and megacolon in active ulcerative colitis. Topical mesalazine is only effective for distal disease, so it is not appropriate for patients with diffuse disease. Topical corticosteroids in the form of prednisolone retention enemas can be used to induce remission in patients with proctitis, but for diffuse disease, oral corticosteroids are more effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 64 - A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for possible vulval cancer. She inquires about any initial indications.

      How does vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) typically manifest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: VIN can present with vulval itching or burning or flat/slightly raised vulval skin lesions

      Explanation:

      Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia, a type of skin lesion that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma, often presents with vulval skin lesions accompanied by burning and itching. While VIN can be asymptomatic, most women with this condition experience raised or flat discolored lesions on the labia majora, labia minora, and posterior fourchette in shades of brown, pink, or red.

      Understanding Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia

      Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a condition that affects the skin of the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a pre-cancerous lesion that can lead to squamous skin cancer if left untreated. VIN is more common in women who are around 50 years old, and there are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition.

      One of the main risk factors for VIN is infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18. Other factors that can increase the risk of developing VIN include smoking, herpes simplex virus 2, and lichen planus. Symptoms of VIN may include itching and burning, as well as raised and well-defined skin lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 65 - A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition. She has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for several months. Upon urinalysis, microscopic haematuria and 2-3 white cells per high power field are detected, but the urine culture is sterile. What is the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Atrophic Urethritis/Vaginitis in Postmenopausal Women: Symptoms and Treatment

      Postmenopausal women often experience symptoms of atrophic urethritis/vaginitis due to dryness and atrophy of the urethral tissue. This condition can cause discomfort, pain during intercourse, and urinary incontinence. However, topical oestrogen cream can have a dramatic response in improving or curing these symptoms.

      It is important to note that atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is not caused by an infection, so antibiotic therapy or alkalinisation of the urine will not be effective. Corticosteroids are also not helpful in treating this condition.

      In addition to improving urinary incontinence, topical oestrogen may also reduce the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections in postmenopausal women. However, it is important to rule out other underlying pathology before using oestrogen for this indication.

      Overall, atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is a common condition in postmenopausal women, but it can be effectively treated with topical oestrogen cream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 66 - Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with inadequate weight gain (75th to 25th centile), during examination she has a blanching, erythematous rash on her abdomen, colicky abdominal pain and regurgitation after feeds. She has been breastfed with additional 'Cow & Gate' formula. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cows' milk protein intolerance

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the given history is cows’ milk protein intolerance. This is suggested by the involvement of multiple systems, the introduction of top up feeds at 7 months (which coincides with the onset of symptoms), and faltering growth. Charlie’s age also makes pyloric stenosis an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents between 2 to 8 weeks and is very rare above 6 months. The presentation is also atypical for eczema, infantile colic, and reflux due to the involvement of multiple systems.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 67 - A 29-year-old female comes to ask you about cervical screening.

    She recently received...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female comes to ask you about cervical screening.

      She recently received a letter inviting her to make an appointment at the surgery for a cervical smear. She tells you that she is in a relationship with another woman and has never had sexual intercourse with a man. Her partner had told her that as this was the case she doesn't need to have a smear.

      Which of the following patient groups are not eligible for routine cervical screening as part of the national cervical screening programme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Women over the age of 65

      Explanation:

      Cervical Screening in the UK

      Cervical screening is recommended for all women in England aged 25-64, and from 20 onwards in Wales and Scotland. This screening is important because certain human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes underlie the development of almost all cases of cervical cancer. HPV is transmitted during sexual intercourse and intimate sexual contact, and even homosexual women can still pass the virus on to female partners.

      Women who have been vaccinated as part of the national HPV programme will be protected against the main two HPV subtypes that cause the majority of cervical cancers, but there are other less common subtypes that can lead to cervical cancer that they are not vaccinated against. Women with a previously abnormal smear require follow up either with further smears or referral for colposcopy/treatment depending on the exact abnormalities detected.

      Women who have never been sexually active would be very low risk so following discussion with their GP often may decide not to participate in cervical screening. However, they are eligible to be screened routinely and would be offered screening. The only group above who are not eligible for routine cervical screening are women over the age of 65. Routine screening runs up to the age of 64. However, if a woman has abnormalities that require further follow up smears then this would of course be done beyond the age of 65 if clinically indicated.

      In summary, cervical screening is an important part of women’s health in the UK, and all women should consider participating in routine screening to help prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 68 - A 28-year-old man, who regularly injects drugs, presents to the General Practice clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man, who regularly injects drugs, presents to the General Practice clinic with a four-day history of a painful swelling in his groin.

      During examination, a 5 cm tender, hot, fluctuant mass with overlying erythema is observed. Tympanic temperature is 38 oC (normal range: 36.5-37.5 oC).

      What is the most suitable initial management option for this case? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Groin Abscess in Injecting Drug Users

      Groin abscesses are a common complication of injecting drug use, characterized by a tender fluctuant mass, overlying erythema, and fever. The first-line treatment for an abscess is incision and drainage, followed by antibiotics if necessary. Risk factors for infection at injection sites include frequent drug use, reusing equipment, and poor nutrition.

      Co-amoxiclav 625 mg three times daily for seven days may be prescribed as a second-line treatment for cellulitis if first-line treatment, such as flucloxacillin, has failed. It is important to check local guidelines on antibiotic regimens. Flucloxacillin 1 g four times daily for seven days is the first-line treatment for cellulitis.

      Laparoscopic hernia repair is the gold standard treatment for an inguinal hernia, which presents as a reducible mass with a cough impulse. Open hernia repair may be indicated for larger herniae. Risk factors for inguinal hernia include obesity, constipation, chronic coughing, and heavy lifting.

      Treatment Options for Groin Abscess and Inguinal Hernia in Injecting Drug Users

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 69 - A 65-year-old man complains of increasing stiffness and pain in his right knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of increasing stiffness and pain in his right knee and seeks medical attention. He denies any history of trauma, locking, or giving way. Upon examination, an x-ray reveals the following findings:

      Plain film: right knee

      Moderate degenerative changes indicative of osteoarthritis. Intra-articular calcification, possibly a loose body.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue to manage as per osteoarthritis guidelines

      Explanation:

      According to the recent guidelines by NICE, there is no requirement to refer a patient with x-ray evidence of a loose body if they are asymptomatic and not experiencing locking.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Glucosamine is a natural component found in cartilage and synovial fluid. Several double-blind randomized controlled trials have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee osteoarthritis, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness. Despite this, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for osteoarthritis management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 70 - Which one of the following would invalidate the use of the Student's t-test...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following would invalidate the use of the Student's t-test when performing a significance test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Using it with data that is not normally distributed

      Explanation:

      The data should be normally distributed and parametric.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 71 - A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal illness and a sore throat last week, which has now improved. The rash has spread extensively, but it is not itchy. On examination, you observe erythematous 'tear drop' shape, scaly plaques covering his whole torso and upper legs. You estimate that guttate psoriasis covers 25 percent of the patient's total body surface area. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology for phototherapy

      Explanation:

      Referral is the most appropriate option if the psoriatic lesions are widespread and affecting a large area of the patient’s body. However, if the lesions are not widespread, reassurance may be a reasonable management option as they may self-resolve in 3-4 months. In cases where the psoriatic lesions are not widespread, treatment similar to that used for trunk and limb psoriasis can be applied, including the use of topical steroids, emollients, and vitamin D analogues.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 72 - A 65-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer has noticed an increase in nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer has noticed an increase in nausea and vomiting as her opioid dose has been raised. She is currently experiencing persistent and severe vomiting with minimal relief of her nausea.
      Which medication is most likely to provide relief for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Medications to Consider

      Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, and can be caused by a variety of factors such as drug toxicity or metabolic disturbances. To manage these symptoms, several medications can be considered.

      Haloperidol is often the first-line drug for opioid-induced nausea, renal failure, and hypercalcaemia. Metoclopramide and levomepromazine are alternative options. For nausea caused by cytotoxic therapy or radiotherapy, ondansetron can be used.

      Ranitidine may be beneficial if gastric or oesophageal stasis is an issue. Cyclizine is useful for managing vagally-mediated nausea and vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, vestibular disturbance, and Intracranial disease. Dexamethasone can be added to cyclizine in scenarios where Intracranial pressure is raised.

      Finally, hyoscine butylbromide can be used for managing bowel colic and excessive gastrointestinal secretions. When selecting medications, it is important to consider the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting, as well as the patient’s individual needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 73 - Baby Oliver has been brought for numerous appointments since he was born, with...

    Incorrect

    • Baby Oliver has been brought for numerous appointments since he was born, with symptoms of colic. He is now on simethicone drops. His mum, who was previously exclusively breastfeeding, has just introduced a bottle of formula in the evening, and Oliver has now developed a rash. You suspect a possible allergy to the formula and consider prescribing a hypoallergenic infant formula for Oliver, along with some emollient and steroid cream. What other treatments should you consider prescribing for Oliver today?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D for mum

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to consider prescribing calcium supplements and vitamin D for breastfeeding mothers whose babies have or are suspected to have CMPI. This is to prevent deficiency while they exclude dairy from their diet, which puts them at risk of deficiency. Soya milk is not advised for infants due to its phyto-oestrogen content, and lactase enzyme products are not relevant as lactose intolerance is a different condition. Lactulose is also not indicated based on the given history.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 74 - A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes a decade ago. Although his control has not always been optimal, he has no cardiovascular risk factors except for his diabetes. His blood pressure has consistently been within the normal range, and he is not taking any medication for it. However, his most recent yearly urine albumin: creatinine ratio was elevated, and microalbuminuria has been verified with two additional samples. What course of action should be advised now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diuretic

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Microalbuminuria

      In cases of confirmed microalbuminuria, even if the patient is normotensive, it is recommended by NICE guidance to start an ACE inhibitor. The dose should be gradually increased until the full dose is reached. If the patient experiences poor tolerance, an Angiotensin receptor blocker can be used as an alternative. It is important to maintain blood pressure below 130/80 mmHg (140/80 if there is no kidney involvement).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 75 - During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion...

    Incorrect

    • During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion measuring 30x20mm over the baby's nape. The lesion blanches on pressure and has been present since birth without any significant changes. The baby is developing normally. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmon patch

      Explanation:

      Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own. If a person has a flat birthmark that was present from birth, it could only be a port-wine stain or a salmon patch. Salmon patches are more common and often appear as a pink discoloration on the back of the neck. Atopic dermatitis, a type of eczema, doesn’t appear at birth but may develop later in life, often on the neck and other areas that bend. Strawberry birthmarks, on the other hand, usually appear shortly after birth and are raised above the skin’s surface. They can either disappear, shrink, or remain the same over time.

      Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns

      Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 76 - A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye....

    Incorrect

    • A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE test to detect retinoblastoma in a child? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red reflex test

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Eye Examinations: Tests and Their Significance

      Pediatric eye examinations are crucial for detecting eye diseases and disorders in children. Here are some common tests and their significance:

      Red Reflex Test: This test involves shining a light source from an ophthalmoscope about 50 cm away from the child’s eyes. A bright and equal red reflex should be seen from each pupil. An abnormal red reflex could indicate serious eye diseases such as cataract or retinoblastoma.

      Cover Test: This test is used to detect squint. The child focuses on a near object while a cover is placed briefly over one eye and then removed. The squinting eye will deviate inwards or outwards.

      Corneal Light Reflex Test: This test involves the reflection of a light source off the cornea. In people with normal fixation, its position will be symmetrical in each eye. It is used in an examination for squint.

      Eye Movements: Eye movement testing is used to assess ocular motor function, particularly cranial nerve palsies.

      Visual Acuity: In babies, the ability to follow objects is a guide to visual acuity. In a child with retinoblastoma, visual acuity in the affected eye(s) may be reduced. However, there are other reasons for reduced vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 77 - A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for a check-up. Upon routine examination, he is discovered to have hypertension with a blood pressure of 166/82 mmHg, which is confirmed by two separate readings. His urine dipstick is negative and his renal function is normal. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity may be caused by diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. According to the BNF, the combination of lithium with diltiazem or verapamil may increase the risk of neurotoxicity, but there is no significant interaction with amlodipine. Although alpha-blockers are not known to interact with lithium, they are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension. The NICE guidelines for hypertension suggest that amlodipine could be a suitable initial option, even if the patient is taking lithium.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 78 - A 25-year old female patient has come to you seeking advice on alternative...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old female patient has come to you seeking advice on alternative contraception. She recently received a diagnosis of epilepsy and has been prescribed a new medication by a neurologist. The neurologist informed her that her current method of contraception, the combined oral contraceptive pill, will be less effective with the new medication. Can you identify which medication she may have started taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine induces P450 enzymes.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 79 - A 55-year-old male with diabetes is seeking sildenafil for his erectile dysfunction. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with diabetes is seeking sildenafil for his erectile dysfunction. What medications or conditions should be avoided when taking sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Contraindication of Sildenafil with Nitrates

      Sildenafil should not be taken by patients who are also taking nitrates or nitrate derivatives such as nicorandil. If a patient is taking nitrates, they should stop taking them during the period when they are using sildenafil. This is because the combination of sildenafil and nitrates can cause a dangerous drop in blood pressure, which can lead to serious health complications. It is important for patients to inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking before starting sildenafil to avoid any potential contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 80 - A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing a seizure earlier. He has a history of epilepsy since childhood. While waiting to be seen, he has another seizure, which has lasted for more than five minutes.
      What is the most suitable initial pharmacological treatment option for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      When someone experiences a prolonged or repeated convulsive seizure, immediate emergency care is necessary. The first step is to ensure general protective measures and maintain an open airway. Buccal midazolam is the preferred first-line treatment in the community, administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum. If this is not effective, rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam or diazepam may be used. If the seizure continues despite medication or there is a history of repeated seizures, an ambulance should be called. In the hospital setting, intravenous lorazepam is the first-line treatment, with midazolam or diazepam used as alternatives if necessary. For refractory convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous midazolam or thiopental sodium may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 81 - A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his son may have anorexia nervosa.
      Select from the list below the single option that is a feature of this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by a fear of weight gain, relentless dietary habits, and a distorted perception of body weight and shape. To diagnose anorexia nervosa, doctors rely on a patient’s medical history and physical symptoms, such as fatigue, loss of muscle mass, and growth impairment. While secondary amenorrhea (cessation of menstruation) was once considered essential for diagnosis, it is no longer required under the DSM-5 criteria. Instead, a patient’s weight must be below 85% of predicted, or a body mass index below 17.5 kg/m2. Binge eating may also be present, leading to purging behaviors and a cycle of guilt and binging. It is important to recognize the signs of anorexia nervosa and seek professional help for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 82 - A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia six weeks ago after experiencing flu-like symptoms and a productive cough. Despite having no history of asthma, she quit smoking three years ago due to hypertension. A chest x-ray was performed and showed consolidation in the left lower zone, but no pleural effusion or abnormal heart size. She was treated with amoxicillin for a week and her symptoms improved. Now, six weeks later, a follow-up x-ray shows that the consolidation has improved but not completely resolved. Her cough is mostly gone and is no longer productive, and she has not experienced any coughing up of blood or weight loss. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic

      Explanation:

      As an ex-smoker, this woman is experiencing a gradual improvement in her consolidation, but she still has a persistent cough. It is recommended that she be referred for further evaluation under the 2 week wait rule to rule out the possibility of lung cancer.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 83 - A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital two weeks ago with a myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital two weeks ago with a myocardial infarction. He is now readmitted complaining of breathlessness on minimal exertion.

      He is diagnosed with left ventricular failure, and given furosemide, which produces a marked improvement. Echocardiogram shows poor left ventricular function and wall motion abnormalities.

      Which of the following drugs would be most expected to improve survival in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ace inhibitors

      Explanation:

      The Benefits of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors in Heart Failure Management

      Studies have shown that the use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can increase survival rates in heart failure patients. These inhibitors work by blocking the action of angiotensin converting enzyme, which leads to a reduction in peripheral vascular resistance. This results in a decrease in left ventricular afterload, an increase in cardiac output, and a decreased tendency towards left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors are believed to encourage vascular remodelling. However, it is important to note that first dose hypotension may occur, particularly when diuretics are also being administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 84 - A visit is requested for a 49-year-old man with Huntington’s dementia who is...

    Incorrect

    • A visit is requested for a 49-year-old man with Huntington’s dementia who is unwell, with a 3-month history of progressive weight loss, lethargy and cough. The patient made an advance decision to refuse treatment (ADRT) nine years ago when he was diagnosed with Huntington’s, refusing hospital treatment. Chest X-rays and intravenous antibiotics are included as treatments he would refuse in his ADRT. He is now uncommunicative, but his sister who is his next of kin is present and says that the advance directive is not valid as he was depressed and emotional when he made it and begs for acute admission as she feels her brother is uncomfortable and should not be left like this.
      What is the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient to the community palliative care team

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of Advanced Decisions in Medical Care

      When a patient loses capacity to make decisions about their medical care, it is important to have a plan in place to guide decision-making. One such plan is an Advanced Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT), which is a legal document that sets out a patient’s wishes for medical treatment in the event that they are unable to make decisions for themselves.

      It is important to note that an ADRT is legally binding and cannot be overruled. This means that healthcare professionals must respect the patient’s wishes as set out in the ADRT, even if family members or others disagree with those wishes.

      In cases where there is doubt over the validity of an ADRT or where there is conflict between family members, it may be helpful to seek advice from a medical defence union or an Independent Medical Capacity Advocate (IMCA). However, ultimately, the patient’s wishes as set out in the ADRT must be the guiding principle in decision-making.

      By understanding the importance of advanced decisions in medical care, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the care they want and deserve, even when they are no longer able to make decisions for themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 85 - You operate a clinic for smoking cessation and respiratory disease intervention at your...

    Incorrect

    • You operate a clinic for smoking cessation and respiratory disease intervention at your practice in northern England. Concerning inequalities, what is accurate regarding the emergence of bronchial carcinoma and related risk factors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The incidence is higher in patients from higher socio-economic groups

      Explanation:

      Inequalities in Lung Cancer Rates in the UK

      Unfortunately, there are significant inequalities in lung cancer rates across the UK. Scotland, Northern Ireland, and Wales have higher rates compared to England, with the north of England having higher rates than the south. These disparities are concerning and require attention to ensure that all individuals have access to the same level of care and resources.

      Furthermore, patients from lower socio-economic groups have lower survival rates from bronchial carcinoma than those from higher socio-economic backgrounds. This highlights the need for additional resources in areas with substantial deprivation, particularly in terms of smoking cessation services and management of associated respiratory diseases. By addressing these inequalities, we can work towards improving outcomes for all individuals affected by lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 86 - A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small spots on her shoulder. She reports seeing small lesions with several tiny blood vessels emanating from the center. During the examination, you can press on them, causing them to turn white and then refill from the middle.

      What is the condition associated with this type of lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be found on the upper part of the body and blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are more common in childhood, with around 10-15% of people having one or more of these lesions.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge.

      Spider naevi can also be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. It is important to understand the characteristics and associations of spider naevi for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 87 - Who is recommended to receive the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) immunisation according to the...

    Incorrect

    • Who is recommended to receive the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) immunisation according to the January 2020 UK immunisation update?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Boys aged 10 to 12

      Explanation:

      Changes to UK Immunisation Schedule in 2020

      In January 2020, the UK immunisation schedule was updated with a few minor changes. It is important to stay up-to-date with these changes as they may be tested in exams. One change to note is that both boys and girls should receive the HPV immunisation at the age of 12 to 13. This is an important step in protecting against certain types of cancer caused by the human papillomavirus. It is recommended that parents and healthcare providers ensure that children receive this immunisation at the appropriate age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 88 - Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable to tolerate metformin due to nausea. She has been doing some of her own research into other options and suggests an SGLT-2 inhibitor, empagliflozin, because she has read it might help her lose weight and improve her blood pressure, as well as improve her blood sugar.

      What is the mechanism of action of empagliflozin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase urinary glucose excretion

      Explanation:

      SGLT-2 inhibitors function by enhancing the urinary excretion of glucose, which is the root cause of their primary side effects such as increased urine output, weight loss, and UTI. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide, on the other hand, work by increasing insulin release from the pancreas. Acarbose, which is not commonly prescribed in the UK, reduces glucose absorption in the gut. DPP4-inhibitors, which reduce the breakdown of incretins, decrease glucagon secretion by reducing glucagon release from the pancreas. Empagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, reduces glucose reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule, leading to an additional excretion of approximately 70g of glucose per day. This not only improves blood sugar levels but also causes weight loss, unlike other diabetic medications such as sulphonylureas and insulin, which cause weight gain. The slight diuresis caused by increased glucose excretion may also improve blood pressure. However, the increased glucose in the urine can also lead to adverse events such as urinary tract or genital infections. SGLT-2 inhibitors do not slow gastric emptying.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 89 - A 62-year-old woman with a history of myasthenia gravis and COPD presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with a history of myasthenia gravis and COPD presents with increasing fatigue and shortness of breath despite inhaled therapies. She denies chest pain or cough and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. There are no notable occupational exposures. On examination, her cardiorespiratory system appears normal. Blood tests and chest x-ray are unremarkable, but spirometry reveals the following results:

      FEV1 (L): 3.5 (predicted 4.5)
      FVC (L): 3.8 (predicted 5.4)
      FEV1/FVC (%): 92

      What is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuromuscular disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 90 - You see a 35-year-old lady who reports episodes of paresthesia in her right...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old lady who reports episodes of paresthesia in her right thumb, index and middle finger. This often happens at night time. Examination is unremarkable but the patient can recreate the symptoms by keeping her wrists at the extreme of flexion for about 30 seconds.

      What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wrist splint

      Explanation:

      Management of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be managed through lifestyle modifications and wrist splinting in the neutral position. Lifestyle modifications involve avoiding repetitive tasks that may trigger symptoms. Wrist splints can be purchased over-the-counter and are the first line of management. Nerve conduction studies are not typically necessary unless there is uncertainty in the diagnosis. Referral is advised in cases of severe symptoms, unclear diagnosis, recurrence after surgery, failure of conservative management, or if the patient requests a referral. For a full list of referral criteria, please refer to the link below.

      Overall, the management of carpal tunnel syndrome involves simple lifestyle changes and the use of wrist splints. Referral is only necessary in certain cases, as outlined by NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 91 - A 66-year-old man is experiencing difficulty starting to urinate and frequently wakes up...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man is experiencing difficulty starting to urinate and frequently wakes up at night to use the bathroom. His PSA level is normal and a prostatic biopsy did not show any signs of cancer. What is the quickest treatment option to relieve his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are the first-line pharmacological treatment as they relax the smooth muscle of the bladder neck and improve urinary flow rates. Improvement in symptoms can be seen within a few days of therapy. Finasteride, an inhibitor of 5-alpha-reductase, can also be used to reduce prostatic volume over a period of around 6 months. However, it doesn’t provide rapid relief of symptoms. Cyproterone acetate and goserelin are not used in the treatment of BPH, as they are indicated for advanced prostate cancer. Oxybutynin, an antimuscarinic drug, can worsen symptoms of BPH and is not recommended for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 92 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a painful face that started gradually over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a painful face that started gradually over the past day and has now become severe. The pain is localized around one of her lower molars, which is tender to touch and sensitive to temperature. Upon examination, an abscess is visible around the affected tooth and the surrounding tissues are inflamed. The patient has a temperature of 37.1 ºC and is otherwise healthy with no medication use or allergies.

      What is the initial treatment approach for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient to see her dentist today

      Explanation:

      Brant Daroff exercises

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 93 - A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over the past two months. On examination, you palpate a diffuse midline swelling which moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. There are no other neck lumps or focal nodules, and the patient's voice is normal with no hoarseness. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy or stridor. The patient has no significant past medical history or family history.
      He reports feeling slightly more fatigued and has gained some weight over the past few months but otherwise feels well. He notes that the swelling in his neck has not changed in size since he first noticed it.
      Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the thyroid function test in four to six weeks

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Swelling: Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer

      Note that it is important to clarify descriptions and findings during a patient’s history and examination. For instance, a patient may describe a lump when it is actually a diffuse swelling. According to NICE guidelines, an unexplained thyroid lump warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. However, other factors to consider during the assessment include a solitary nodule increasing in size, a history of neck irradiation, family history of an endocrine tumor, unexplained hoarseness or voice changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, very young or elderly patients. Patients with symptoms of tracheal compression should be admitted immediately to the hospital.

      In cases where a thyroid swelling doesn’t meet any of the urgent or immediate referral criteria, a thyroid function blood test should be conducted. If the test reveals hypothyroidism, it may explain the patient’s weight gain and tiredness. Patients with abnormal thyroid function and a goitre are unlikely to have thyroid cancer and can be managed in primary care. Those with a goitre and normal thyroid function tests can be referred non-urgently to a thyroid surgeon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 94 - A new oral-hypoglycaemic is being developed. A number of different study types are...

    Incorrect

    • A new oral-hypoglycaemic is being developed. A number of different study types are considered to demonstrate efficacy in reducing the HbA1c. Which one of the following study designs would require the most participants to produce a significant result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superiority trial

      Explanation:

      Since a superiority trial involves comparing a new drug with an already existing treatment that can also reduce HbA1c, a substantial sample size is necessary to establish a noteworthy distinction.

      When a new drug is introduced, there are various study design options available. One of these options is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be considered unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it doesn’t offer a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, if a drug is to be compared to an existing treatment, a statistician must determine whether the trial is intended to show superiority, equivalence, or non-inferiority.

      Superiority trials may seem like the natural aim of a trial, but they require a large sample size to demonstrate a significant benefit over an existing treatment. On the other hand, equivalence trials define an equivalence margin (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within the equivalence margin, the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). These trials require smaller sample sizes. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, large studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent or even non-inferior, they may compete on price or convenience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 95 - A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her recent blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her recent blood test results. She reports feeling unwell for the past month, experiencing rapid heart rate, hot flashes, and tremors. She also notes sweating and an inability to sit still during these episodes. She reports that these symptoms began after an episode of shingles. Thyroid function tests, full blood count, fasting glucose, and renal function are all normal. On examination, she appears slightly agitated with a pulse of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 155/98. She has a history of severe depression, which has been in remission for two months, and post-herpetic neuralgia. She denies alcohol use and has never had elevated blood pressure in the past. Her current medications include Sertraline 200 mg, Gaviscon as needed, topical ibuprofen cream for osteoarthritis, paracetamol for osteoarthritis, and carbamazepine 100 mg four times daily for post-herpetic neuralgia. How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her to a neurologist

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest serotonin syndrome, which can be caused by excessive stimulation of serotonergic receptors due to interactions or overdosage of serotonergic drugs. The offending drug in this case is carbamazepine, which should be withdrawn. Other drugs that can interact with SSRIs include lithium, triptans, codeine, and St John’s wort. It is not appropriate to withdraw the patient’s Sertraline or prescribe nifedipine for her mildly elevated blood pressure. There is no basis for stopping the paracetamol. Referring to a neurologist or repeating her thyroid function is also not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 96 - Regarding confounding, which of the following statements is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding confounding, which of the following statements is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation

      Explanation:

      Stratification can control for confounding in the analytic stage of a study.

      Understanding Confounding in Statistics

      Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.

      Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 97 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica has been taking prednisolone...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica has been taking prednisolone 10 mg for the past 6 months. A DEXA scan shows the following results:

      L2 T-score -1.6 SD
      Femoral neck T-score -1.7 SD

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D + calcium supplementation + oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Supplementation of vitamin D and calcium along with oral bisphosphonate.

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 98 - A 44-year-old marketing executive presents for the first time with symptoms of dyspepsia....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old marketing executive presents for the first time with symptoms of dyspepsia.

      He is otherwise fit and well and takes no regular prescribed medication.

      With reference to NICE guidance, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full dose PPI for a month is an appropriate initial treatment

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia in Patients Under 55 Years Old

      Patients under the age of 55 who do not exhibit alarm symptoms should not be referred for upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Instead, raising the head of the bed may alleviate symptoms. Psychological therapies, such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), have been shown to provide short-term relief, but their routine provision by primary care teams is not currently recommended due to their costly and intensive nature. After a medication review, lifestyle advice, including promoting the continued use of antacids, should be given.

      It is unclear whether to treat first with a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for a month or test for H. pylori. However, it is reasonable to start with a full dose PPI and only test for H. pylori if symptoms persist or return. By following these management strategies, patients under 55 years old with dyspepsia can receive appropriate care and symptom relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 99 - A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of his glans penis and foreskin, and his mother reports a foul odor and slight discharge. What is the most frequently isolated organism in cases of balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C. albicans

      Explanation:

      Balanitis is most commonly caused by C. albicans, with group B beta-haemolytic streptococci being a less frequent cause among bacterial infections. The other options listed may also cause balanitis, but are not as commonly isolated.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 100 - A 23-year-old female presents with a painful left calf. She has been on...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents with a painful left calf. She has been on the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past two years and her mother had a pulmonary embolus during the postpartum period. Upon clinical examination, a DVT is suspected and confirmed. A thrombophilia screen reveals a factor V Leiden mutation. What recommendations would you make regarding future contraception and pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barrier contraception is the only potential option

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Patients with Medical Conditions

      The use of a LNG-IUS is considered safe for patients with medical conditions, falling under UKMEC category 2. While the use of a copper-IUD is a UKMEC category 1, it may not be an option for some patients. Patients with the factor V Leiden mutation may experience a four-fold increase in the risk of venous thromboembolism when using the combined oral contraceptive pill. Homozygosity for the mutation may increase the risk of clots in pregnancy by 50-100 fold, while heterozygosity may increase the risk by 5-10 fold. Warfarin, which can cause fetal bleeding and teratogenicity, is not recommended for pregnant patients. Instead, low molecular weight heparin is used when necessary. Other contraceptive options for patients with medical conditions include the levonorgestrel intrauterine system and progesterone-only pill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 101 - Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits her GP after experiencing a 10-minute episode where she couldn't move her left arm. Her arm function has since returned to normal and her neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most accurate diagnosis for Sophie based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurological dysfunction caused by a transient episode of brain ischaemia

      Explanation:

      The definition of a TIA has been updated to focus on the affected tissue rather than the duration of symptoms. It is now defined as a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction resulting from restricted blood flow to the brain, spinal cord, or retina, without causing acute tissue damage. An ischaemic stroke, on the other hand, is characterized by neurological dysfunction caused by cerebral infarction, while multiple sclerosis is defined by neurological dysfunction caused by demyelination. Finally, a functional neurological disorder is characterized by transient symptoms of psychological origin.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 102 - One of your GP colleagues in their 50s asks you what impact revalidation...

    Incorrect

    • One of your GP colleagues in their 50s asks you what impact revalidation will have on their practice. What areas will be evaluated during the revalidation process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fitness to hold a medical licence + fitness to be on the GP Register

      Explanation:

      Understanding Revalidation for UK Doctors

      Revalidation is a process introduced in 2012 that changed the way UK doctors are licensed and certified. Previously, doctors automatically received their license to practice if they paid their annual fee and had no limitations on their registration. However, with revalidation, doctors are required to prove their fitness to practice every five years to continue working as a doctor. This process combines licensing and certification, and annual appraisals will continue as before, with a focus on progress towards the revalidation portfolio.

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) is creating an ePortfolio for the process, which will contain various elements such as a description of work, special circumstances, previous appraisals, personal development plans, continuing professional development, significant event audits, formal complaints, probity/health statements, multi-source/colleague feedback, patient questionnaire surveys, and clinical audit/quality improvement projects.

      To meet the requirements for revalidation, doctors must earn at least 50 learning credits per year, with one credit for each hour of education. However, if the education leads to improvements in patient care, it will count as two credits. The ePortfolio will be submitted electronically for review by a Responsible Officer, who will be based in one of the 27 Area Teams. The Responsible Officer will be advised by a GP assessor and a trained lay person.

      Before recommending a doctor for revalidation, the Responsible Officer must be confident that the doctor has participated in an annual appraisal process, submitted appropriate supporting information to their appraisals, and has no unresolved issues regarding their fitness to practice. Overall, revalidation ensures that UK doctors continue to provide safe and effective care to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 103 - A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner during the summer. She has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner during the summer. She has suffered from mild asthma for many years, controlled with an inhaled short-acting beta-agonist (SABA). She has started working at a construction site and has noticed that her asthma is much worse, with daily symptoms. She has to use her current inhaler several times a day.
      On examination, her chest is clear. Her best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 480 l/min. Today, her PEFR is 430 l/min.
      What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Managing Worsening Asthma Symptoms: Starting Inhaled Corticosteroids

      This patient’s asthma symptoms have worsened, likely due to exposure to allergens at the stable. While her chest is clear and her PEFR has only mildly dropped, her daily symptoms and use of SABA indicate poorly controlled asthma. The first step in managing her symptoms is to start an inhaled corticosteroid as part of the stepwise approach to asthma management. Urgent allergy testing or a home allergy testing kit are not necessary at this stage, and oral steroids are not yet indicated. Instead, allergen avoidance measures can be discussed. It is not necessary for the patient to stop working at the stable at this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 104 - A 27 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, pain and diarrhea...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, pain and diarrhea for the past 3 months. She denies any rectal bleeding, weight loss or family history of bowel disease. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. Along with a full blood count (FBC), urea & electrolytes (U&E), coeliac screen, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP), what initial investigation would be most helpful in differentiating between irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in a primary care setting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal calprotectin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends the use of faecal calprotectin in primary care to distinguish between IBS and IBD. This protein is released in the bowel during inflammation and can be detected in a stool sample. Its use can reduce the need for invasive diagnostic testing and referral of patients with typical IBS symptoms. However, a positive result doesn’t confirm IBD and patients should be referred to secondary care for further investigation.

      NICE has also provided guidance on the diagnostic criteria for IBS and the necessary investigations. They suggest conducting FBC, ESR, CRP, and coeliac screen (TTG). However, they advise against performing ultrasound, sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy, barium study, thyroid function test, stool microscopy and culture, and faecal occult blood and hydrogen breath test.

      Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics

      Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.

      Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridioides difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.

      Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 105 - A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Causes of Rectal Infections

      Rectal infections can have various symptoms and causes. Gonorrhoea, for instance, is often asymptomatic but may cause anal discharge or perianal/anal pain, pruritus, or bleeding. Primary syphilis, on the other hand, is characterized by a painless ulcer or chancre. Candidiasis is associated with a perianal intertrigenous rash, while Crohn’s disease may lead to perianal pendulous skin tags, abscesses, and fistulas. Salmonella infection, meanwhile, causes acute diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 106 - Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 107 - A 54-year-old overweight woman with type 2 diabetes wants to modify her eating...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old overweight woman with type 2 diabetes wants to modify her eating habits. What food item has the greatest glycaemic index?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Baked potato

      Explanation:

      Brown rice has a lower glycaemic index (GI) of 58 compared to white rice GI of 87.

      Understanding the Glycaemic Index

      The glycaemic index (GI) is a measure of how quickly a food raises blood glucose levels compared to glucose in individuals with normal glucose tolerance. Foods with a high GI are believed to increase the risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus due to their association with postprandial hyperglycaemia.

      Foods are classified into three categories based on their GI: high, medium, and low. Examples of high GI foods include white rice, baked potatoes, and white bread. Medium GI foods include couscous, boiled new potatoes, and digestive biscuits, while low GI foods include fruits, vegetables, and peanuts.

      The GI is expressed as a number in brackets, with glucose having a GI of 100 by definition. Understanding the GI of different foods can help individuals make informed choices about their diet and manage their blood glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 108 - A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided frontotemporal headache over the past few days. The headache seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day, and lasts between 15 minutes to 2 hours. He feels sick at the time and is unable to lie still. He had a similar episode last year.

      During a headache-free period, a complete neurological examination is entirely normal.

      What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s demographics, description of pain, and duration of symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing a cluster headache. These headaches typically last between 15 minutes to 2 hours and occur in clusters over a period of time. The fact that the patient had a similar headache a year ago also supports this diagnosis.

      A carotid artery dissection would cause persistent symptoms, including neck pain and neurological symptoms, and would not explain the same symptoms occurring a year ago.

      Migraines usually present with unilateral, episodic headaches, but patients tend to want to lie still during an attack, which is the opposite of what is seen in cluster headaches. Additionally, migraines typically last longer than 15 minutes to 2 hours and do not occur in clusters over a period of time.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is more common in women over the age of 50 and tends to have a specific trigger, such as brushing teeth. The pain is typically more facial in distribution rather than frontotemporal.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 109 - A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney

      Explanation:

      Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion

      Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.

      Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 110 - You are monitoring a 40-year-old male patient who has recently finished a two-week...

    Incorrect

    • You are monitoring a 40-year-old male patient who has recently finished a two-week Helicobacter pylori treatment for dyspepsia. If he has ceased his eradication therapy today and is not on any other medication, what is the earliest time frame for conducting a urea breath test to confirm eradication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In 4 weeks time

      Explanation:

      To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 111 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headaches that she has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headaches that she has experienced since her teenage years. Lately, she has noticed an increase in the frequency of her headaches. She attributes this to her stressful job, which has caused her to feel more anxious. She reports a bilateral frontal headache that is moderate in intensity and feels like a tightening sensation. She denies any prodrome, visual symptoms, or vomiting. On examination, she appears well and has a blood pressure of 118/68 mmHg. Her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there are no focal neurological deficits. Which of the following treatments should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate

      Explanation:

      Managing Tension Headaches

      Tension headaches are a common type of headache that can be episodic or chronic. Episodic tension headaches can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers such as paracetamol, aspirin, or NSAIDs. However, chronic tension headaches may require a regular prescription of amitriptyline or nortriptyline. Acupuncture may also be a treatment option for some patients.

      It is important to note that codeine and dihydrocodeine should be avoided in the treatment of tension headaches due to the risk of medication overuse headache. Patients who respond to amitriptyline should continue treatment for at least 2 months before slowly reducing the dose to stop. Those who cannot tolerate amitriptyline may be prescribed nortriptyline instead. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage tension headaches and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 112 - Which of the following anti-epileptic medications poses the highest risk of neurodevelopmental delay...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anti-epileptic medications poses the highest risk of neurodevelopmental delay when taken by expectant mothers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      The use of sodium valproate in pregnant women poses a considerable threat of causing neurodevelopmental delay.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 113 - The husband of a 70-year-old woman who passed away at home after a...

    Incorrect

    • The husband of a 70-year-old woman who passed away at home after a prolonged battle with liver cancer contacts you for guidance. You have recently filled out the death certificate. The woman's spouse is inquiring about the next course of action. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should collect the death certificate from the surgery and take it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office

      Explanation:

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 114 - A 3-month-old formula-fed baby, born at 37 weeks, has been experiencing symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old formula-fed baby, born at 37 weeks, has been experiencing symptoms of cow's milk protein allergy for the past 2 weeks. The baby is increasingly unsettled around 30-60 minutes after feeds, with frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhoea. Mild eczema is present on examination, but the baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. The baby was started on an extensively hydrolysed formula, but there is still some persistence of symptoms reported by the parents. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amino-acid based formula trial

      Explanation:

      Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 115 - Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear...

    Incorrect

    • Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear test. While conducting the test, a 2 cm lump was discovered just lateral to the introitus. Emma reported no accompanying symptoms.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do nothing

      Explanation:

      Bartholin’s cysts that are asymptomatic do not need any treatment and can be managed conservatively.

      In cases where the cysts are recurrent or causing discomfort, marsupialisation or balloon catheter insertion can be considered as management options. These procedures have been shown to decrease the likelihood of recurrence.

      If an abscess is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Symptoms of an abscess include pain, swelling, redness, and fever.

      Women who are 40 years old or older should be referred for a biopsy to rule out the possibility of carcinoma.

      Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.

      Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.

      Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.

      References:
      1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
      2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
      3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 116 - A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following a recent weaning off of high dose steroids. After two weeks, he experiences intense discomfort in his epigastrium and upper right quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      When it comes to the risk of pancreatitis, mesalazine is more likely to cause it than sulfasalazine. Although oral aminosalicylates can cause gastric side-effects such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and colitis exacerbation, acute pancreatitis is a rare but possible complication.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 117 - You have a follow-up appointment with a 4-year-old boy. He was seen two...

    Incorrect

    • You have a follow-up appointment with a 4-year-old boy. He was seen two weeks ago for left-sided ear pain and discharge, for which you prescribed amoxicillin. Today, his mother reports that he has improved and she has been able to keep his ear dry. However, upon examination of the left ear, a tympanic membrane perforation is observed. What should be done next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise to keep ear dry and see in a further 4 weeks time

      Explanation:

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.

      If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 118 - A 50-year-old man presents for his annual diabetic review. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents for his annual diabetic review. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes for the past 10 years and is currently taking metformin and insulin for glycemic control. He holds a group 1 driving license.

      During the consultation, you inquire about any episodes of hypoglycemia. He reports experiencing three or four episodes of low blood sugar since his last review, but he has good awareness of this and checks his blood sugar regularly. He also takes a dextrose tablet when necessary. He checks his blood sugar before driving and maintains a close record of his glycemic control.

      Upon reviewing his records, you note that his blood sugar has dropped to less than 4 mmol/L four times in the past year. However, he has awareness of hypoglycemia and reports feeling slightly nauseated when his sugars drop below 4 mmol/L. He takes a dextrose tablet when this happens, and he has not experienced any episodes of collapsing, confusion, or significant illness associated with low glucose levels. His lowest recorded glucose level is 3.4 mmol/L.

      Given his driving status, what advice should you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He can continue driving but he should be provided with the DVLA guidance on insulin treated diabetes and driving

      Explanation:

      New Medical Driving Standards for Diabetic Drivers

      The medical driving standards for individuals with diabetes have recently been updated. For those with a group 1 entitlement who are managed with insulin, it is required that they have awareness of hypoglycaemia and have not experienced more than one severe hypoglycaemic episode within the past 12 months. Appropriate blood glucose monitoring is also necessary. Severe hypoglycaemia is defined as an episode that requires external help, indicating that the individual is unable to treat the hypoglycaemia themselves.

      It is important for these individuals to be informed of the DVLA guidance regarding insulin-treated diabetes and driving. They should also be advised to carry dextrose with them in case of an emergency. The DVLA has provided clear guidelines for patients on how diabetes can affect their ability to drive and what self-monitoring they should undertake. These guidelines are available as part of the ‘At a Glance Guide to the Current Medical Standards of Fitness to Drive for Medical Practitioners’, which is freely available online.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 119 - A 38-year-old woman contacts the surgery regarding an ESA113 form for employment support...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman contacts the surgery regarding an ESA113 form for employment support allowance.

      She has type 1 diabetes, has had a partial amputation of her left leg and is having to attend the haemodialysis clinic.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to completing the form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You are obliged to fill in the form under terms of service

      Explanation:

      Importance of Completing Employment Support Allowance Form

      The Employment Support Allowance (ESA) form is included in Schedule 9 of the BMA’s guidance document on medical certificates and reports. This means that GPs are required to complete the form as part of their terms and conditions of service. Refusing to complete the form or charging for it would greatly disadvantage the patient.

      It is important for GPs to complete the ESA form as it is a crucial document for patients who are unable to work due to illness or disability. Without this form, patients may not be able to receive the financial support they need to cover their living expenses. Therefore, it is essential that GPs fulfill their obligation to complete the ESA form and do not charge patients for it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 120 - A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a trip to Kenya.

      On examination, he has multiple eroded genital ulcers, as well as a tender, enlarged lymph node present in the right inguinal region. He is systemically well.

      Swabs of a genital ulcer are taken and a sexually-transmitted infection screen is performed. The results are shown below.

      NAAT test: negative
      Swab culture: Haemophilus ducreyi grown

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital ulcers in tropical regions. The ulcers are multiple, have ragged edges, and a granular base. Painful, unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy may also be present. The bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi is responsible for this condition.

      Syphilis, on the other hand, is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Chancres, which are similar to chancroid ulcers, are painless, singular lesions with bilateral lymphadenopathy. They can heal without treatment.

      Herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 are common causes of sexually transmitted ulceration in the UK.

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It presents with a singular, painless ulcer that resolves spontaneously.

      Klebsiella granulomatis is responsible for granuloma inguinale, which presents with painless genital ulceration and inguinal node abscesses.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 121 - You see a 65-year-old man with vertigo. He describes the repeated sensation that...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man with vertigo. He describes the repeated sensation that his surroundings are spinning when he moves his head. This has been occurring for the last 2 weeks and the episodes last approximately 30 seconds. He has hypertension but no other past medical history. He had a viral illness 3 weeks ago. You believe the history is consistent with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).

      Which statement is correct regarding BPPV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BPPV often has a relapsing and remitting course

      Explanation:

      BPPV can have a recurrent pattern of symptoms that come and go. To diagnose BPPV, the Dix-Hallpike maneuver is used, which can trigger vertigo and a specific type of eye movement called torsional upbeating nystagmus. Treatment for BPPV includes the Epley maneuver and Brandt-Daroff exercises, but medication is typically not effective. While many people recover from BPPV within a few weeks, symptoms can persist and return over time.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 122 - A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been experiencing the pain for the past two months and has come in for an emergency appointment today because he has not had a bowel movement in a week. He cannot recall the last time he passed gas.

      He mentions that his stools have been significantly looser over the past few months and that he has noticed blood in his feces on occasion. Upon examination, it is discovered that he has lost over two stone in weight since his last visit to the practice six months ago. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a soft but distended abdomen with a mass in the left lower quadrant. A rectal examination shows an empty rectum with no abnormalities.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Likely Diagnosis for a 69-Year-Old with Weight Loss and Constipation

      A 69-year-old man with a history of weight loss, blood in his stool, and a palpable abdominal mass is likely suffering from bowel carcinoma. His symptoms have now progressed to absolute constipation due to an obstructing tumor. Other potential diagnoses, such as diverticular abscess, faecal impaction, and inflammatory bowel disease, are less likely based on his history and examination.

      A diverticular abscess typically presents with a tender mass and fever, while faecal impaction may cause a palpable mass but doesn’t typically result in weight loss or blood in the stool. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in patients of this age and would not typically cause such significant weight loss. Overall, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with a diagnosis of bowel carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 123 - A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior...

    Incorrect

    • A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior due to the awareness of being monitored is referred to as what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 124 - A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour,...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour, his wife has also noticed a few aggressive outbursts over the past months. His mini-mental test score is 20.
      Which patterns of cognitive deficit would favour a dementia of subcortical origin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced verbal output

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differences between Cortical and Subcortical Dementia

      Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many different types of dementia, two of the most common are cortical and subcortical dementia. Understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in diagnosing and treating the condition.

      Cortical dementia is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex, which is the outer layer of the brain. This area is responsible for memory and language, so patients with cortical dementia often experience severe memory loss and difficulty with language. Alzheimer’s, frontotemporal dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are all common causes of cortical dementia.

      Subcortical dementia, on the other hand, is caused by damage to areas beneath the cortex and disruption in the frontostriatal connections. This can result in early frontal lobe problems such as planning difficulties, poor verbal fluency, personality change, and task switching. While complex motor functions are typically preserved in subcortical dementia, patients may experience psychomotor slowing, reduced verbal output, and reduced alertness. Parkinson’s disease, vascular dementia, and multiple sclerosis are all common causes of subcortical dementia.

      It’s important to note that the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is not always clear-cut, and as the condition progresses, patients may experience symptoms of both types of dementia. However, understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in identifying the underlying cause of the condition and developing an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 125 - A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and a lopsided smile. On examination, he has lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy.
      Select the single correct statement regarding his management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be prescribed high-dose prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Facial nerve palsy, also known as Bell’s palsy, is a condition that affects the muscles of the face and can cause drooping, weakness, or paralysis. Lower motor neurone (LMN) facial nerve palsy is the most common type and has a good prognosis, with most cases resolving spontaneously within three weeks. While the cause is often unknown, it is believed to be related to a viral infection. Treatment with high-dose prednisolone has been shown to improve outcomes, with up to half of patients who do not spontaneously recover achieving full resolution with steroids.

      Upper motor neurone palsies, on the other hand, are associated with preservation of frowning and should be urgently referred for imaging and possible thrombolysis if a stroke is suspected. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared, allowing the patient to wrinkle their forehead.

      It is important to carefully examine the ear in cases of LMN palsy, as it may be a sign of zoster or middle ear infection (Ramsay-Hunt syndrome). In these cases, a combination of prednisolone and acyclovir is typically given.

      Overall, while facial nerve palsy can be a concerning condition, the prognosis is generally good for LMN palsy and prompt treatment can improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 126 - A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic after a three month trial of omeprazole 20 mg. Further investigations have revealed that he has a hiatus hernia. The decision is made to continue his omeprazole treatment and he is advised to lose weight as his BMI is 32.

      Despite losing 5 kg over the past six months, he has visited the clinic twice for antibiotics due to lower respiratory tract infections. He has also been experiencing a nocturnal cough and possible asthma symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase his omeprazole to 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Indications for Surgical Repair of Hiatus Hernia

      Indications for surgical repair of hiatus hernia include recurrent respiratory tract infection due to reflux. It is also considered in patients who have a para-oesophageal hernia because of the risk of strangulation.

      Given this patient’s young age and the fact that he has attended twice in six months with symptoms of respiratory tract infection, surgical referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is advised. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms of reflux and prevent further respiratory tract infections. It is important to consider surgical intervention in cases where conservative management has failed or when there is a risk of complications such as strangulation. Proper evaluation and management of hiatus hernia can improve the quality of life for patients and prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 127 - A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis (UC) is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis (UC) is found to have sigmoid adenocarcinoma on surveillance colonoscopy. He was diagnosed with UC at the age of 14, with the disease mostly confined to the sigmoid colon and rectum. Although his symptoms have generally been well controlled on mesalazine, he has had relapses associated with poor compliance every 1–2 years.
      Which single factor is this patient’s history most associated with the risk of developing colonic cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Onset of disease in childhood

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors for Colonic Adenocarcinoma in Ulcerative Colitis Patients

      Colonic adenocarcinoma is a serious complication that can develop in 3-5% of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC). The cancer tends to be multicentric and atypical in appearance, and it can rapidly metastasize. To prevent this, it is important to understand the risk factors associated with the onset of the disease in childhood.

      One of the main risk factors for colon cancer in colitis is the early age of onset, which is before the age of 15 years. Other risk factors include extensive disease (pancolitis), duration (more than ten years), and unremitting disease. Colonoscopic surveillance is recommended for all patients, starting about ten years after the onset of symptoms.

      It is important to note that annual relapses are not a risk factor for colonic carcinoma since there is remittance in between episodes. Chronic active inflammation and unremitting disease are the main risk factors.

      Left-sided colitis is also a risk factor, but extensive disease and pancolitis carry a higher risk of developing colon cancer. Poor compliance with therapy is not a risk factor in itself, but unremitting disease is a risk factor for colon cancer in UC.

      Finally, patients with proctitis alone do not need colonoscopy surveillance, as they are not at increased risk of developing colon cancer compared to the general population. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the onset of colonic adenocarcinoma in UC patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 128 - A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have noticed that he has developed a skin rash and bruising over last 24-36 hours.

      The parents report that he has previously been a well child with no serious past medical problems or hospital admissions. The only time they have sought medical attention in the past has been for the occasional upper respiratory tract infection but these have been infrequent.

      He last had a viral upper respiratory tract infection about 7-10 days ago. The parents managed this at home without the need for medical assessment as the symptoms were not severe.

      On examination he appears well in himself with no temperature, and is interacting and playful. However there is marked superficial bruising and purpura over his trunk and legs. You also note four blood blisters on his tongue. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly and the remainder of the clinical examination is unremarkable with normal urine on dipstick testing.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      This condition is the most common cause of low platelets in children and occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction. It typically affects children between 2 and 10 years of age, with onset occurring one to two weeks after a viral infection. Children with this condition develop purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. While intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it is serious. However, in the vast majority of cases, ITP is an acute and self-limiting condition.

      While acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) can also present with abnormal bruising, the history and clinical features of this child are more suggestive of ITP. Other features of ALL include malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, which are not present in this case.

      Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome is a triad of acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Patients are typically very unwell. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) typically presents with a palpable purpura that affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces, along with arthralgia, abdominal pain, and renal problems. Meningococcal septicaemia can also cause purpura, but affected patients are seriously unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 129 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain in her right cheek that causes her to wince. The pain lasts for about 20 seconds and then gradually subsides over a few minutes. It is often triggered by hot food or drinks. She has experienced several episodes recently, but is otherwise healthy. She recalls having similar episodes two years ago that resolved after a few weeks.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Facial Pain Syndromes: Types and Characteristics

      Facial pain syndromes are a group of conditions that cause pain in the face and head. Here are some of the most common types and their characteristics:

      Trigeminal Neuralgia: This syndrome causes recurrent and chronic pain that is usually unilateral and follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often accompanied by a brief facial spasm or tic and is triggered by activities such as eating, brushing teeth, or exposure to cold air. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for treatment.

      Atypical Facial Pain: This syndrome is more common than trigeminal neuralgia and is characterized by mild-to-moderate throbbing dull pain that can last for hours or days. It is precipitated by stress or cold and tends to occur along the territory of the trigeminal nerve. Patients are often misdiagnosed or attribute the pain to a prior event such as a dental procedure. Depression and anxiety are common.

      Cluster Headaches: These headaches are usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by conjunctival injection and a watering eye.

      Migraine: Migraines are also usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by photophobia and gastrointestinal symptoms.

      Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction: This syndrome is relatively common and is characterized by facial pain, restricted jaw function, and joint noise. Pain located in front of the tragus, projecting to the ear, temple, cheek, and along the mandible is highly diagnostic for TMJ dysfunction. Pain is chronic rather than spasmodic.

      In conclusion, facial pain syndromes can be difficult to diagnose and treat. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing any type of facial pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 130 - A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling. The diagnosis was benign prostatic hyperplasia and he was prescribed finasteride. What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LHRH antagonist

      Explanation:

      Finasteride: A 5-alpha-reductase Inhibitor

      Finasteride is a medication that inhibits the enzyme 5-alpha-reductase, which is responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). By blocking this conversion, finasteride opposes the effects of testosterone, leading to common side effects such as gynaecomastia and reduced libido.

      In addition to its use as a treatment for these side effects, finasteride is also prescribed orally as Propecia to treat male pattern hair loss. Despite its potential side effects, finasteride has been shown to be an effective treatment for hair loss in many men.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 131 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father who reports that he has been experiencing nocturnal coughing for the past three months. The father has observed that his son frequently wakes up at night due to coughing fits. Despite two previous rounds of antibiotics, the cough has not improved. The child is generally healthy, has a good appetite, and has met all developmental milestones for his age. On examination, there are no notable findings. What would be your plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitored initiation of metered dose inhaler (short acting beta agonist ) with spacer

      Explanation:

      Managing Suspected Asthma in Children

      Asthma is a possible diagnosis in children with a family history of atopy. If a child cannot perform spirometry, management options depend on their symptoms. Asymptomatic children may be monitored, while symptomatic children may be offered a carefully monitored trial of treatment. Oral bronchodilators and cough suppressants are not effective, and further antibiotics are futile. Nebulised bronchodilators are only appropriate during an acute attack. A trial of inhaled bronchodilators (MDI with spacer) may be justified, but establishing the diagnosis should be the top priority. It is unlikely that a four-year-old child would be able to perform spirometry successfully with reversibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 132 - A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern about her facial acne. She has a combination of comedones and pustules, but no significant scarring. Despite using a topical retinoid, she is hesitant to try another oral antibiotic after experiencing no improvement with three months of lymecycline. She has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, her blood pressure is normal, and her cervical screening is up to date. She is interested in exploring hormonal treatments for her acne. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microgynon

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate acne that doesn’t respond to topical treatments, it may be appropriate to add an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline for up to three months. If there is no improvement, the acne worsens, or the patient cannot tolerate side effects, a different antibiotic can be tried. However, if the patient doesn’t want to try a different antibiotic, combined oral contraceptives can be considered as long as there are no contraindications. Second or third-generation combined oral contraceptives are typically preferred, such as Microgynon. It is important to note that Cerelle, a progesterone-only contraceptive, can worsen acne due to its androgenic activity. Dianette (co-cyprindiol) is a second-line contraceptive option for moderate to severe acne, but it comes with an increased risk of VTE and should only be used after careful discussion of the risks and benefits with the patient. It should be discontinued three months after acne has been controlled. Similarly, Cerazette is not a suitable option due to its androgenic activity.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 133 - A 6-year-old boy is admitted to surgery with a worsening of his asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is admitted to surgery with a worsening of his asthma symptoms. According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines, it is classified as a moderate attack. How should his salbutamol inhaler and spacer device be used correctly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 1 puff every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs

      Explanation:

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 134 - What specific information should you provide to a patient regarding the use of...

    Incorrect

    • What specific information should you provide to a patient regarding the use of varenicline for smoking cessation during counselling?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment should be discontinued and prompt medical advice sought if they develop suicidal thoughts

      Explanation:

      Caution and Monitoring for Varenicline Use in Patients with Mental Illness

      Patients with a history of mental illness should exercise caution when taking varenicline and be closely monitored during treatment. This medication may worsen underlying psychiatric conditions. Patients should be advised to discontinue use and seek medical attention immediately if they experience suicidal thoughts, depressed mood, or agitation.

      Varenicline treatment typically begins one to two weeks before the target stop date. The initial dose is 500 micrograms once daily for three days, followed by 500 micrograms twice daily for four days, and then 1 mg twice daily for 11 weeks. If the 1 mg dose is not well-tolerated, the patient may continue with 500 micrograms twice daily.

      It is important to note that there is no disulfiram-type reaction between alcohol and varenicline. However, patients should be aware that bupropion is associated with an increased risk of seizures and requires blood pressure monitoring before and during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 135 - A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both solids and liquids, and inflamed cervical lymph nodes.
      Select the most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to hospital for admission

      Explanation:

      When to Admit a Patient with a Sore Throat: Indications and Recommendations

      Admission to the hospital for a sore throat is necessary in certain cases. One such case is when the patient cannot swallow, making oral treatments ineffective. A Paul-Bunnell test may be considered, but it is not the first-line management. An ultrasound scan is only necessary for unexplained cervical lymphadenopathy.

      According to NICE, hospital admission is recommended for sore throat cases that are immediately life-threatening, such as acute epiglottitis or Kawasaki disease. Other indications include dehydration or reluctance to take fluids, suppurative complications like quinsy, immunosuppression, and signs of being markedly systemically unwell.

      It is important to be aware of these indications and recommendations to ensure proper management and treatment of sore throat cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 136 - A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment has a success rate of 75% whilst the second treatment has a success rate of 82%. What type of significance test should be used for comparing the two results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The chi-squared test is appropriate for comparing percentages.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 137 - You assess a 32-year-old female patient who complains of recurrent tension-type headaches. She...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 32-year-old female patient who complains of recurrent tension-type headaches. She reports partial relief with paracetamol and ibuprofen but inquires about preventive measures. What is the best course of action to address her concerns?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for acupuncture

      Explanation:

      Tension-type headache is a type of primary headache that is characterized by a sensation of pressure or a tight band around the head. Unlike migraine, tension-type headache is typically bilateral and of lower intensity. It is not associated with aura, nausea/vomiting, or physical activity. Stress may be a contributing factor, and it can coexist with migraine. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as occurring on 15 or more days per month.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has produced guidelines for managing tension-type headache. For acute treatment, aspirin, paracetamol, or an NSAID are recommended as first-line options. For prophylaxis, NICE suggests up to 10 sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks. Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the UK for prophylaxis, but the 2012 NICE guidelines do not support this approach. The guidelines state that there is not enough evidence to recommend pharmacological prophylactic treatment for tension-type headache, and that pure tension-type headache requiring prophylaxis is rare. Assessment may uncover coexisting migraine symptomatology with a possible diagnosis of chronic migraine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 138 - A 40-year-old woman presents with progressively worsening headaches over the past four months....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with progressively worsening headaches over the past four months. The headaches are more severe in the morning, when she lies flat, and when she coughs or strains. She also experiences brief episodes of blurred vision.
      Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and her heart rate is regular at 72 bpm. Her BMI is 36 kg/m2.
      An image of the left retina is displayed below:
      The right retina has a similar appearance.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension from Other Headache Disorders

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that primarily affects obese young women and is characterized by headaches and blurred vision due to increased intracranial pressure. To diagnose IIH, imaging is necessary to rule out other potential causes such as space-occupying lesions or cerebral venous sinus thrombosis. A lumbar puncture is then performed to measure cerebrospinal fluid opening pressure, which can provide short-term relief if the pressure is reduced.

      It is important to differentiate IIH from other headache disorders such as atypical migraine, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural hematoma, and tension headache. Atypical migraine typically presents with unilateral headache and nausea, while normal pressure hydrocephalus is associated with dementia, incontinence, and gait disturbance in the elderly. Subdural hematoma may cause fluctuating consciousness and focal neurological signs, and is more commonly seen in alcoholics and elderly patients on anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy. Tension headaches, on the other hand, are usually frontal or bitemporal and not positional or worsened by activities that increase intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 139 - A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of post-coital bleeding. What is not considered a known risk factor for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is associated with obesity, while cervical cancer is not.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.

      While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 140 - A 16-year-old girl with a learning disability has been exhibiting aggressive behavior without...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl with a learning disability has been exhibiting aggressive behavior without any identifiable physical, psychological, or environmental triggers. Despite attempts at behavioral interventions, there has been no improvement. Recently, she attacked one of her caregivers, causing concern for their safety. The caregivers are considering medication as a possible solution. Which medication would be the most suitable option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic and Melatonin Medications for People with Learning Disabilities and Autism

      Concerns about the overuse of antipsychotic and antidepressant medications in people with learning disabilities and/or autism have been raised. Instead, a full assessment of physical, psychological, and environmental factors should be conducted when a person presents with challenging behavior. Psychological and behavioral interventions should be considered first.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that antipsychotic medication should only be used if other interventions do not produce change within an agreed time, treatment for coexisting mental or physical health problems has not led to a reduction in behavior, or the risk to the person or others is severe. Olanzapine is the only antipsychotic medication offered in the option list, but other antipsychotic drugs may also be appropriate. Antipsychotic medication should only be offered in combination with psychological or other interventions and initiated by a specialist.

      Melatonin, a pineal hormone that affects sleep patterns, may be of value for treating sleep-onset insomnia and delayed sleep phase syndrome in children with conditions such as visual impairment, cerebral palsy, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, autism, and learning difficulties if behavioral measures fail. Clinical experience supports this use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 141 - A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary care to seek prophylactic antibiotics. Her brother, with whom she shares a home, has been hospitalized with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis, particularly those living in the same household. It is important to administer the prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Amoxicillin is not used for prophylaxis in close contacts, but may be used in combination with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone to treat bacterial meningitis in hospitalized patients over 50 years old. Benzylpenicillin and cefotaxime are not used as prophylactic treatments for close contacts, but are used to treat suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 142 - A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine presents with temperature of 38.5oC, headache, orchitis and unilateral parotitis.
      Select the single most appropriate initial response.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise symptomatic treatment only

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Mumps

      Mumps is a viral infection that is usually diagnosed clinically without the need for further investigations. However, in cases where meningitis is present without parotitis, mumps-specific antibodies in the serum can confirm the diagnosis. Salivary IgM against mumps can also be detected, but it may take several days for antibody levels to rise. If the initial test is negative, it is recommended to repeat the test.

      There is no specific treatment for mumps, but symptomatic relief can be achieved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. Meningism, which occurs in about 10% of patients, is usually mild and self-limiting, even without parotitis. Orchitis, which occurs in approximately 25% of post-pubertal men, can be mistaken for testicular torsion in someone of this age. However, based on the given symptoms, hospital admission is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 143 - A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7 mmol/l on testing by the GP. His father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 60-years old. He has no other risk factors and is well. However, he himself has three daughters.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a lipid specialist

      Explanation:

      Management of Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Here are some management options for a patient suspected of having FH:

      Refer to a lipid specialist: If there is strong evidence of FH, NICE recommends referral to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and cascade testing. This is important to identify affected relatives and provide appropriate management.

      Prescribe atorvastatin: Atorvastatin 20 mg daily is the drug of choice for a patient with confirmed heterozygous FH. It is a high-intensity statin that effectively lowers cholesterol levels.

      Provide dietary advice: Patients with FH should be offered individualised advice from a dietician to help manage their cholesterol levels. This may include reducing saturated fat intake and increasing consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

      Avoid simvastatin: Simvastatin is only a moderate-intensity statin and is not recommended as the first-line treatment for FH. High-intensity statins such as atorvastatin and rosuvastatin are preferred.

      Avoid combination therapy with a fibrate: While fibrates can lower cholesterol levels, they are not recommended for use in FH management. Statins and/or ezetimibe are the drugs of choice, and treatment should be initiated by a lipid specialist if needed.

      In summary, FH requires careful management to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Referral to a lipid specialist, prescribing atorvastatin, providing dietary advice, and avoiding certain medications can all help to effectively manage FH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 144 - What is a Roger Neighbour 'checkpoint'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a Roger Neighbour 'checkpoint'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Safety Netting

      Explanation:

      Neighbour’s Consultation Model for Telehealth

      Roger Neighbour’s consultation model for doctors has been adapted for telehealth consultations. The model breaks down the consultation into five checkpoints that doctors should consider during the consultation.

      The first checkpoint is connecting, which involves building rapport with the patient. This is especially important in telehealth consultations where the doctor and patient may not have met before. The second checkpoint is summarising, which involves listening and eliciting information from the patient. This is important in all consultations, but particularly in telehealth where non-verbal cues may be missed.

      The third checkpoint is handing over, which involves explaining and negotiating with the patient. This is important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may need to explain complex medical information to the patient. The fourth checkpoint is safety netting, which involves anticipating potential issues and dealing with uncertainty. This is particularly important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may not have access to all the patient’s medical information.

      The final checkpoint is housekeeping, which involves addressing the doctor’s own needs. This is important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may be working from home and need to ensure they have a suitable environment for the consultation. By following these checkpoints, doctors can ensure that their telehealth consultations are effective and provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 145 - What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene: A Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator

      Raloxifene is a medication that belongs to the class of selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). It works by selectively binding to oestrogen receptors in different parts of the body, acting as an agonist or antagonist depending on the location.

      There are two types of oestrogen receptors, alpha and beta, which are found in various locations such as the breast, uterus, bone, and vasculature. Raloxifene acts as an oestrogen agonist in the bone, promoting mineralisation, while acting as an antagonist in the uterus and breast, preventing hyperplasia.

      This is different from tamoxifen, another SERM, which acts as a partial agonist in the endometrium and can promote endometrial hyperplasia. Raloxifene’s selective action makes it a useful medication for treating osteoporosis and reducing the risk of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 146 - A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder and was initially prescribed sertraline, but this was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side effects. He has since been taking venlafaxine for a week but has reported experiencing headaches and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to pregabalin

      Explanation:

      For generalised anxiety disorder, pregabalin is suggested as a third line treatment option. If the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs and SNRIs, pregabalin can be considered as an alternative. However, amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition.

      Dealing with anxiety and depression is a common issue, and initial treatments may not always be effective. It is important for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about second and third line treatments, which may be initiated by some GPs or prescribed after specialist advice. The GP is responsible for ongoing monitoring and safety, including being aware of potential drug interactions.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 147 - A 65-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with atrial fibrillation, hypertension, reduced renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with atrial fibrillation, hypertension, reduced renal function and hypercholesterolaemia. She suddenly experiences a hot, swollen, painful right great toe. Which medication is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Medications and Gout: Understanding the Relationship

      Gout is a painful condition caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. While there are various factors that can contribute to the development of gout, medications can also play a role.

      Loop and thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, can increase uric acid levels and trigger gout attacks. Other medications that can raise uric acid levels include nicotinic acid, low-dose aspirin, and ciclosporin. On the other hand, xanthine oxidase inhibitors like allopurinol and uricosuric agents like probenecid can help lower uric acid levels and prevent gout attacks.

      Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor used to treat hypertension, is not known to interfere with urate metabolism and is therefore unlikely to cause gout attacks. However, it can cause electrolyte imbalances and a decline in renal function, so monitoring is necessary.

      Warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist used for conditions like atrial fibrillation, is also not known to cause gout attacks.

      Understanding the relationship between medications and gout can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and prevent unnecessary pain and discomfort for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 148 - A middle-aged man presents with a lesion on his penis - clinically this...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man presents with a lesion on his penis - clinically this is suggestive of syphilis. On questioning he is in a relationship with another man.

      With regard to syphilis, which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be managed in primary care setting

      Explanation:

      Syphilis on the Rise Among Men Who Have Sex with Men

      There has been a recent increase in syphilis cases, particularly among men who have sex with men. Confirming the diagnosis requires multiple tests and thorough contact tracing, making it important to refer cases to a specialist center. Testing for HIV is also recommended, as the two conditions are often associated. While serology can be conducted in a primary care setting if syphilis is suspected, secondary syphilis can present with a range of different rashes, including a non-itchy macular-papular rash that often affects the palms and soles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 149 - You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden episodes where the room spins uncontrollably, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. Additionally, she feels as though her hearing is impaired on the right side and experiences a ringing sound and a feeling of fullness on that side. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that she may have Meniere's disease. What is a true statement about this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss is a symptom of Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, which can worsen over time and eventually result in profound bilateral hearing loss.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 150 - A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also suffers from stable angina,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also suffers from stable angina, gout and peripheral vascular disease. He doesn't have diabetes.
      Which one of the following antihypertensives is best suited for him initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modified release nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Medication for Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      When it comes to managing hypertension, it’s important to choose the right medication based on the patient’s age, medical history, and other factors. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line therapy for hypertension in patients over the age of 55 without diabetes is a calcium-channel blocker, such as modified release nifedipine. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered in younger patients or those with certain contraindications, while ACE inhibitors are recommended for patients under 55. Thiazide-like diuretics can also be used in certain cases, such as when a calcium channel blocker is not tolerated or in cases of resistant hypertension. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 151 - A 35-year-old man and his wife come in with concerns about infertility. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man and his wife come in with concerns about infertility. The man is tall and has bilateral gynaecomastia. Upon examination of the testes, bilateral small firm testes are found. Klinefelter syndrome is suspected.
      What is the most suitable test for diagnosing the underlying condition in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Klinefelter Syndrome

      Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects males and is characterized by an extra X chromosome, resulting in a genotype of XXY. Diagnosis is often made in late puberty or early adulthood due to delayed sexual development or infertility. Here are some diagnostic tests used to identify Klinefelter syndrome:

      Genetic Test: The only specific test for Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic test for the XXY genotype.

      Serum Gonadotrophins: Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) levels will be elevated, particularly FSH, due to low testosterone. However, this test is not specific.

      CT Scan of the Pituitary Gland: A CT scan of the pituitary gland is usually performed if a pituitary tumor is suspected. In Klinefelter syndrome, the scans will be normal. An MRI scan is more commonly used.

      Serum Testosterone: Serum testosterone level will be low or low-normal in a person with Klinefelter syndrome at this age. However, this test is not specific for the condition.

      Semen Analysis: Oligozoospermia or azoospermia are the usual findings in men with Klinefelter syndrome. However, some with XY/XXY mosaics may father children. This test is supportive of the diagnosis but not specific enough.

      In conclusion, a combination of these tests can help diagnose Klinefelter syndrome, but genetic testing is the most specific and reliable method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 152 - In your morning clinic, a 25-year-old man presents with a complaint about his...

    Incorrect

    • In your morning clinic, a 25-year-old man presents with a complaint about his penis. He reports noticing some lesions on his glans penis for the past few days and stinging during urination. After taking his sexual history, he reveals that he has had sex with two women in the last 3 months, both times with inconsistent condom use. Additionally, he mentions experiencing sticky, itchy eyes and a painful, swollen left knee.

      During the examination, you observe a well-defined erythematous plaque with a ragged white border on his penis.

      What is the name of the lesion on his penis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circinate balanitis

      Explanation:

      A man with Reiter’s syndrome and chronic balanitis is likely to have Circinate balanitis, which is characterized by a well-defined erythematous plaque with a white border on the penis. This condition is caused by a sexually transmitted infection and requires evaluation by both a sexual health clinic and a rheumatology clinic. Zoon’s balanitis, on the other hand, is a benign condition that affects uncircumcised men and presents with orange-red lesions on the glans and foreskin. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is an in-situ squamous cell carcinoma that appears as red, velvety plaques and may be asymptomatic. Squamous cell carcinoma can also occur on the penis and may present as papillary or flat lesions, often associated with lichen planus or lichen sclerosus.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 153 - A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for her routine 4-month immunisations, which includes the new Meningitis B vaccine, introduced in 2015. What guidance should be provided regarding post-vaccination care at home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give paracetamol post-vaccination

      Explanation:

      It is common for individuals to experience a fever of over 38 degrees after receiving the Meningitis B vaccine. To prevent this from occurring, it is recommended that infants receive three doses of paracetamol, with the first dose administered immediately after vaccination. If necessary, parents should continue to administer paracetamol every 4-6 hours for up to 48 hours after vaccination. It is believed that the use of paracetamol doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the vaccine.

      Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation

      Children in the UK have been receiving immunisation against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years. However, this led to meningococcal B becoming the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. To address this, a vaccine against meningococcal B called Bexsero was developed and introduced to the UK market.

      Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero after conducting a cost-benefit analysis. However, this decision was eventually reversed, and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation. Children will receive three doses of the vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months.

      Moreover, Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. With the inclusion of meningitis B vaccine in the routine NHS immunisation, the UK hopes to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis and protect more children and high-risk patients from the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 154 - A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability, tremors, unexplained weight loss, diarrhoea, palpitations and fatigue. On examination, her pulse rate is 120/min and regular. Her thyroid gland is also noted to be symmetrically enlarged but non-tender.

      Blood tests reveal the following:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb) 16 IU/L (<1.7)

      What medication can be prescribed to manage the patient's symptoms quickly while she awaits her appointment with the endocrinologist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is an effective non-selective beta-blocker that can be used to control the symptoms of hyperthyroidism in new cases of Graves’ disease. While carbimazole is also an anti-thyroid medication that can improve thyroid levels in the long-term, it may not provide rapid symptom relief compared to beta-blockers. Metoprolol, a selective beta-blocker for beta-1 adrenergic receptors, is not as effective as propranolol in this situation. Propylthiouracil is another anti-thyroid medication that can be used instead of carbimazole, but may not provide quick symptom relief. Radioactive iodine is a specialist treatment option used by endocrinologists for patients who do not respond to anti-thyroid medications, but it doesn’t provide short-term symptom relief.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 155 - You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with urological symptoms in elderly women.
      Which of the following presentations of urinary symptoms in elderly women requires urgent referral?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 44-year-old patient with urinary incontinence symptoms and feeling of a 'lump down below'

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria

      Painless macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, is a concerning symptom that should be urgently referred for suspicion of bladder or renal cancer. However, it is important to note that if the patient also experiences pain or symptoms of a urinary tract infection, these should be assessed and managed separately.

      Prompt referral for painless visible haematuria is crucial in order to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer. Patients should be advised to seek medical attention immediately if they notice blood in their urine, even if they do not experience any pain or other symptoms. Healthcare providers should also be vigilant in identifying and referring these cases for further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 156 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss the results of some recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss the results of some recent blood tests she had done due to ongoing symptoms of chronic fatigue. She has a previous diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) from a few years ago, but is otherwise healthy and has never had her blood checked before. She reports experiencing intermittent abdominal bloating, constipation, and abdominal pains. She is not taking any medications, her weight is stable, and her blood tests show microcytic anemia with low ferritin levels. Which of the following tests is most likely to lead to an accurate diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue transglutaminase (TTG)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms: A Case Study

      A 28-year-old female patient presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, constipation, abdominal pains, and persistent fatigue. She has never had any blood tests before. The following diagnostic tests are available:

      Tissue Transglutaminase (TTG) Test: This test is used to diagnose coeliac disease, an immune-mediated disorder triggered by exposure to dietary gluten. The patient’s symptoms and history suggest coeliac disease, and a TTG test should be requested. If the result suggests possible coeliac disease, the patient should be referred to gastroenterology for endoscopic intestinal biopsy.

      Faecal Immunochemical Testing (FIT): FIT testing can be used to look for occult faecal blood if colorectal cancer is suspected. However, the patient’s young age and stable weight make colorectal cancer less likely.

      Cancer-Antigen 125 (CA-125) Test: This test is used to diagnose ovarian cancer, which is difficult to diagnose due to nonspecific symptoms. However, the patient’s age makes ovarian cancer less likely than other options.

      Faecal Calprotectin Test: This test is used to distinguish between inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). However, the patient’s symptoms do not suggest IBD, and faecal calprotectin may not be the most likely test to lead to the correct diagnosis.

      Haemochromatosis Gene (HFE) Testing: This test is used to detect hereditary haemochromatosis, which presents with iron overload rather than deficiency. The patient’s symptoms suggest iron-deficiency anaemia, and HFE testing may not be necessary.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, a TTG test for coeliac disease is the most appropriate diagnostic test to request.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 157 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged cause of vertigo? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged cause of vertigo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 158 - You have been feeling unwell with weight loss and lethargy over the past...

    Incorrect

    • You have been feeling unwell with weight loss and lethargy over the past few months; a few weeks ago you had a needle stick and are worried you may have HIV. Unfortunately, a subsequent HIV test proves positive.

      Which of the following is true with respect to your obligations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should consult a suitably qualified colleague and take their advice on practice restrictions

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines on Prescribing for Patients with Chronic Illnesses

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has set clear guidelines regarding the prescribing of medication for patients with serious chronic illnesses. According to these guidelines, it is not appropriate for a doctor or a member of their family to prescribe medication for a patient with a serious chronic illness.

      Furthermore, if a doctor has a serious condition that could potentially be passed on to their patients, they must consult with a qualified colleague and follow their recommendations. It is not acceptable for a doctor to rely solely on their own assessment of potential infection risks.

      In summary, the GMC guidelines emphasize the importance of ensuring that patients receive appropriate and safe care, particularly when it comes to prescribing medication for those with chronic illnesses. Doctors must always act in the best interests of their patients and seek advice from qualified colleagues when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 159 - A 6-year-old girl comes to see you with her father. She is known...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to see you with her father. She is known to have a mild learning disability but he is now more concerned about her behaviour.

      She tends to speak very little and when she does it is in a monotonic way. She doesn't seem to understand jokes. She spends a lot of time alone and rarely seeks out the company of others. He says he finds it difficult to engage her in play; she just wants to play alone with her dolls.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Down syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a condition that is often accompanied by a learning disability. Children with ASD typically experience difficulties with social communication, interaction, and imagination. These challenges can manifest in a variety of ways, such as difficulty making eye contact, trouble understanding social cues, and a lack of interest in imaginative play.

      Despite the challenges that come with ASD, there have been significant advances in diagnosis and evaluation in recent years. With early intervention and support, children with ASD can learn to navigate the world around them and lead fulfilling lives. It is important for parents, caregivers, and educators to understand the unique needs of children with ASD and provide them with the resources and support they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 160 - A 45-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of lower back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness that has been gradually developing over the past month. He reports using a hot water bottle for some relief, but the pain persists. He denies any loss of bladder or bowel control and his neurological exam is unremarkable.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NSAIDS should be the first choice for treating lower back pain. Codeine, which is part of the opioid pain ladder, should not be used for managing nonspecific lower back pain as it can lead to dependence and dose escalation. Additionally, administering codeine via IM is only recommended for patients who cannot tolerate oral medication, which is not applicable in this case. Therefore, oral codeine should not be considered as a primary treatment option for nonspecific lower back pain.

      Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.

      According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.

      Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.

      Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 161 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that has been troubling him for the last six months. His wife has brought him in as he has coughed up small amounts of blood on several occasions and has lost about a stone in weight over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker of 40 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years and has developed noisy breathing over the last few days. He also complains of a persistent headache and feeling a little dizzy. On examination, he has a soft stridor at rest and dilated veins on his chest wall. His oxygen saturations are 98% in room air, blood pressure is 128/88 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 regular. He is alert, oriented, and afebrile with clear chest sounds on auscultation. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit as a medical emergency

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by extraluminal compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncopal attacks, and headache due to pressure effect. Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO is considered a medical emergency.

      Management of SVCO involves treatment with steroids and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy and stent insertion may also be indicated. It is important to address the underlying cause of SVCO to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 162 - What is commonly linked to delayed puberty? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is commonly linked to delayed puberty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital absence of the uterus

      Explanation:

      Causes of Delayed Puberty

      Delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including normal variation and systemic diseases such as malnutrition, cystic fibrosis, renal failure, heart disease, and malabsorption. Pituitary dwarfism, thyroid deficiency, Turner’s syndrome, primary testicular failure, and androgen receptor defects can also contribute to delayed puberty. Additionally, anorexia nervosa, emotional deprivation, and excessive exercise can delay the onset of puberty. It is important to note that young people with Down’s syndrome typically reach puberty at the same age as their peers, while Triple X syndrome doesn’t cause delayed puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 163 - A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual assault 10 months ago. What symptoms are indicative of post traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypervigilance

      Explanation:

      PTSD symptoms include re-experiencing, avoidance of reminders, hypervigilance, poor concentration, exaggerated startle responses, and sleep problems. People may also have recurrent distressing images, flashbacks, nightmares, and may constantly re-think the event.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 164 - A 27-year-old man attends clinic rather worried because he has heard that one...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man attends clinic rather worried because he has heard that one of his friends has got mumps.

      He says that he did not have mumps as a child and doesn't think he has had any immunisations against it. He has heard that adult men can become infertile following mumps and wants to know if he is at risk of this if he gets mumps.

      What percentage of post-pubertal males who contract mumps will develop orchitis as a complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less than 1%

      Explanation:

      Mumps Orchitis: Symptoms and Complications

      Mumps orchitis is a common complication affecting around 25% of adult males who develop mumps. The condition is treated symptomatically with analgesia and scrotal support. Although up to 50% of those affected may experience some testicular shrinkage, it doesn’t necessarily lead to infertility. Other complications include pancreatitis (4%) and oophoritis (5% of post-pubertal women). Deafness, either unilateral or bilateral, is also a well-recognized complication, but it is less common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 165 - A 4-year-old boy presents with croup to the out-of-hours centre. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents with croup to the out-of-hours centre. He has a temperature of 38.2°C, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and a croupy cough. There is no intercostal recession.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for him? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Croup: Choosing the Right Approach

      Croup is a common respiratory illness in children that can cause coughing, difficulty breathing, and other symptoms. When it comes to treating croup, there are several options available, but not all of them are appropriate for every child. Here’s a breakdown of some common treatment options and when they might be used:

      Oral Dexamethasone: For mild-to-moderate croup, a single oral dose of dexamethasone is often the best choice. This medication can help reduce inflammation in the airways and alleviate symptoms. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide may be used instead.

      Nebulised Epinephrine: For children with moderate-to-severe distress, nebulised epinephrine can be effective in reducing swelling in the trachea. However, this treatment only lasts for a few hours, so close monitoring is necessary.

      Inhaling Humidified Air: While inhaling humidified air may help reduce a child’s anxiety, there is little evidence to suggest that it provides any significant symptomatic relief.

      IM Hydrocortisone: IM hydrocortisone is not typically used to treat croup. However, IM dexamethasone may be used as an alternative to oral dexamethasone.

      Nebulised Salbutamol: Salbutamol is not an appropriate treatment for croup, as it is typically used to treat asthma.

      In summary, the best treatment for croup will depend on the severity of the child’s symptoms and their overall health. If you suspect that your child has croup, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly to ensure that they receive the appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 166 - A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and lethargic, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history but admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals bi-basal consolidation, and her blood tests show the following results:

      - White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
      - Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
      - C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
      - Sodium: 125 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l

      Which pathogen is responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophilia

      Explanation:

      Legionella is often characterized by flu-like symptoms, a dry cough, relative bradycardia, and confusion, with blood tests indicating hyponatremia and abnormal liver function. Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia are commonly associated with communal water supplies, as hinted at in the question’s reference to a recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia often results in bi-basal pneumonia. The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 167 - The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which...

    Incorrect

    • The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which type of tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Small-Cell Carcinoma of the Lung and SIADH

      Small-cell carcinoma of the lung is a type of lung cancer that has been found to cause SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion) in 18.9% of cases. SIADH is a condition where there is an abnormal release of ADH, leading to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This condition can cause symptoms such as headaches, weakness, confusion, drowsiness, and seizures. While SIADH can also occur in other types of cancer, it is reported as a rare event in breast cancer and occurs in pancreatic cancer, duodenal cancer, and colon cancer. Patients with malignancy-associated SIADH have poor outcomes, making early detection and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 168 - A 57-year-old insulin-treated diabetic complains of severe burning pain in his feet, particularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old insulin-treated diabetic complains of severe burning pain in his feet, particularly at night, pins and needles, and hyperaesthesia for several months. On examination his feet have normal pulses, sensation and reflexes.
      Select the single correct statement regarding his management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine should be prescribed

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Painful Diabetic Neuropathy

      Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes that can significantly impact a person’s quality of life. While there is no cure for neuropathy, there are several treatment options available to manage the symptoms.

      Improved diabetic control is the first line of defense in preventing the progression of neuropathy. However, it is important to note that good control doesn’t reverse neuropathy. In cases where diabetic control alone is not enough, medications such as duloxetine, amitriptyline, gabapentin, or pregabalin may be prescribed. These drugs are suggested by NICE as options for managing neuropathic pain.

      For localized neuropathy, capsaicin 0.0075% cream can be used. Tramadol may also be prescribed on a short-term basis while a patient awaits an appointment with a specialized pain service.

      In cases of Raynaud’s phenomenon, calcium antagonists are used. Epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid may be used for acute sciatica. However, fluoxetine is not recommended as a treatment option.

      Overall, there are several treatment options available for managing painful diabetic neuropathy. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

      Managing Painful Diabetic Neuropathy: Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 169 - A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your clinic after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your clinic after being exposed to a child with Chickenpox, for the second time. She had received VZIG 29 days ago due to being non-immune. What is the appropriate course of action for her now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for second administration of VZIG

      Explanation:

      In the event that a pregnant patient who is not immune is exposed to Chickenpox, it is recommended that she receive VZIG as soon as possible. VZIG can still be effective if administered within 10 days of contact, with the definition of continuous exposure being 10 days from the appearance of the rash in the initial case. If there is another exposure reported and at least 3 weeks have passed since the last dose, a second dose of VZIG may be necessary.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 170 - A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically controlled with maximal inhaled corticosteroid and LABA. He has presented with worsening symptoms of cough and wheeze, which his partner reports began two days ago with a heavy cold. What is the appropriate clinical management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal heart rate is always associated with a good prognosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tachycardia and Bradycardia in Acute Asthma

      Tachycardia is a common symptom in acute asthma, but severe attacks may also lead to episodes of bradycardia. A peak flow measurement of only 30% of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires immediate admission and aggressive treatment. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide information on CO2 retention or acid-base status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be administered in the management of acute asthma.

      Understanding the symptoms and measurements associated with acute asthma is crucial for effective management. Tachycardia and bradycardia are two possible heart rate changes that may occur during an asthma attack. Additionally, a peak flow measurement of 30% or less of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires prompt medical attention. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide a complete picture of the patient’s respiratory status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be given to patients with acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 171 - A 55-year-old woman presents following a fall. She reports pain and weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents following a fall. She reports pain and weakness in her hands for several months, stiff legs and slurred speech and has bilateral wasting of the small muscles of her hands. Reflexes in the upper limbs are absent. Tongue atrophy and fasciculations are present and both legs show increased tone, pyramidal weakness and hyper-reflexia with extensor plantars. Pain and temperature sensation is impaired in the upper limbs.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syringobulbia

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing signs of a spinal cord lesion, with LMN signs in the arms and UMN signs in the legs. There is also a loss of thermal and pain sensation, indicating involvement of the spinothalamic tracts but not the posterior columns. This is typical of a syrinx, which is a fluid-filled hole in the spinal cord. The patient is experiencing dysesthetic pain in the hands, which is a common symptom of syringomyelia/syringobulbia. The presence of twelfth nerve atrophy and slurred speech indicates that the lesion extends into the brainstem, ruling out syringomyelia. Cervical spondylosis can produce similar symptoms, but there should also be neck pain. Motor neurone disease is unlikely due to the sensory involvement, and multiple sclerosis is not a likely explanation given the other clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 172 - A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of upper left gumline pain, accompanied by a loss of appetite and a temperature of 38.2ºC. On examination, there is tenderness over the gum, and a dental abscess is suspected. Urgent referral to a dentist is recommended, along with antibiotic therapy. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics may be necessary in cases of fever or delayed presentation to a dentist. The BNF recommends amoxicillin as the first-line treatment for dental abscesses, followed by metronidazole for more invasive dental conditions.

      Since GPs have limited knowledge of dental issues, it is best for the patient to be treated by their dentist. The most effective treatment for an abscess is prompt drainage. Antibiotics are generally not recommended for healthy individuals unless there are signs of spreading infection or if the person is systemically unwell. According to NICE CKS guidelines, antibiotics should only be prescribed for severe infections (e.g. fever, lymphadenopathy, cellulitis, diffuse swelling) or for high-risk individuals (e.g. those who are immunocompromised, diabetic, or have valvular heart disease) to reduce the risk of complications.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 173 - A 36-year-old woman is under evaluation. She is seeking exemption from job search...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is under evaluation. She is seeking exemption from job search due to weakness in her right leg. During the examination, the clinician instructs her to lift her unaffected leg against pressure while placing a hand under her affected leg. The clinician feels pressure pushing down against the hand under the unaffected leg.

      What is the name of this sign and what does it indicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoover's sign suggesting malingering

      Explanation:

      Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool for distinguishing between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when lifting the unaffected leg against resistance, due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.

      In this particular case, the patient is exhibiting Hoover’s sign, which suggests that she may be feigning a unilateral lower limb weakness in order to obtain financial gain. However, this sign doesn’t indicate a somatisation disorder, which is characterized by persistent symptoms and a refusal to accept negative test results for serious conditions.

      Lhermitte’s sign, on the other hand, is a sudden electric shock sensation that occurs when the head is bent forward towards the chest in patients with multiple sclerosis. This sign doesn’t suggest malingering or somatisation disorder.

      Similarly, Uhthoff’s sign in multiple sclerosis, where symptoms worsen with heat, doesn’t indicate somatisation disorder.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 174 - A 54-year-old car driver seeks guidance. He's an insulin-dependent diabetic who frequently drives...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old car driver seeks guidance. He's an insulin-dependent diabetic who frequently drives long distances. He monitors his blood sugars regularly while driving but needs advice on when to take action. In the absence of hypoglycemia symptoms, what is the minimum blood glucose level for safe driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 mmol/litre

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance for Drivers with Diabetes

      The DVLA provides guidance for drivers with diabetes, which is summarized by the BNF. For insulin-treated drivers, it is recommended to check blood glucose levels every two hours while driving. If the blood glucose level is 5 mmol/litre or less, a snack should be taken. However, if the level is less than 4 mmol/litre, driving should be stopped. After the blood sugar level has returned to normal, drivers should wait at least 45 minutes before driving again. It is crucial for insulin-treated drivers to carry a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with them at all times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 175 - A 25-year-old patient has recently obtained her driver's license. She is an insulin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient has recently obtained her driver's license. She is an insulin dependent diabetic and plans to embark on a lengthy road trip. She comprehends the significance of hypoglycemia symptoms and frequent blood sugar monitoring. She has been instructed to keep fast-acting carbohydrates with her at all times while driving but seeks guidance on when to pull over and consume a snack after checking her blood glucose levels.
      At what blood glucose level should she have a snack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 mmol/litre

      Explanation:

      Practical Management of Insulin in AKT Exam

      Questions about the practical management of insulin are common in the AKT exam, but have been poorly answered in previous exams. Therefore, it is likely to be a recurrent theme. To ensure that you are adequately prepared, we have extracted the learning points from the reference sources used by examiners.

      The guidance suggests that drivers should ensure that their blood glucose is above 5 mmol/litre when driving, but they should stop driving if it drops below 4 mmol/litre. If the blood glucose drops below 5 mmol/litre, they are advised to take a snack. Therefore, it is important to clarify which threshold applies when answering questions related to this topic.

      Learning points that may be tested include the advice about testing frequency, thresholds for driving, thresholds for taking a snack or stopping driving, and when the journey can be safely resumed. Don’t worry, we have questions that will test you on all of these learning points.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 176 - A 52-year-old patient presents with another episode of gout. She has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old patient presents with another episode of gout. She has been experiencing pain in her left big toe for the past 5 days which has not improved with paracetamol. The patient has a history of gout which is usually well managed with allopurinol 100 mg. Additionally, she has atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin. Her INR was 2.9 last week and her warfarin dose has been stable.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option for her current acute gout attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin prescription

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Gout Attacks in Patients on Warfarin

      Gout is a condition that can be prevented with allopurinol, but patients may still experience acute attacks. However, patients taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, so non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablets and steroid tablets are not recommended if they can be avoided. Aspirin is also not indicated in gout. Increasing the dose of allopurinol will not provide symptomatic relief for the acute attack. After treating the acute attack, it is important to check the uric acid level and adjust the allopurinol dose accordingly. Colchicine can be used in patients receiving anti-coagulants.

      Examiner’s comment: This question emphasizes the importance of selecting the most appropriate treatment option. In general practice, it is often necessary to choose the best option from several possibilities. The best questions will have multiple possible answers, but one will be the most appropriate. In this case, Colchicine is the better choice because NSAIDs are not recommended for patients on warfarin. Remember to prioritize your answers based on the patient’s specific circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 177 - You have recommended a 60-year-old patient to purchase over-the-counter vitamin D at a...

    Incorrect

    • You have recommended a 60-year-old patient to purchase over-the-counter vitamin D at a dose of 10 micrograms. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the required dose in International Units since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.

      To convert Vitamin D dose from International Units to micrograms, divide the number of units by 40.

      What is the equivalent number of International Units for 10 mcg of Vitamin D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.25

      Explanation:

      Common Mistakes in AKT Exams

      A common mistake made by candidates in RCGP AKT exams is making silly errors when performing simple calculations. This often results in incorrect answers. However, at onExamination, we have noticed that candidates also tend to misread questions, leading to incorrect answers.

      For instance, in a dose conversion question, candidates were asked to convert mcg to IU, but some failed to notice this and divided the 10 mcg dose by 40, resulting in an incorrect answer of 0.25. The correct method would have been to multiply the 10 mcg dose by 40 to convert to IU, giving the correct answer of 400.

      To avoid such errors, the RCGP advises candidates to do a reality check after their calculation. For example, if you are familiar with the CKS NICE recommended adult intake of Vitamin D (which is 400 IU), you should be able to recognize that 0.25 is not the correct answer and double-check your calculation. By paying attention to details and doing a reality check, candidates can avoid making common mistakes in AKT exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 178 - What childhood condition can be a result of adenovirus infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What childhood condition can be a result of adenovirus infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Childhood Illnesses Caused by Adenovirus

      Adenovirus is a common cause of childhood illnesses, including upper respiratory tract infections, otitis media, acute bronchiolitis, obliterative bronchiolitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, meningitis, encephalitis, hepatitis, urinary tract infections, and nonspecific febrile illnesses. It is important to note that adenovirus is not the cause of glandular fever, Kawasaki disease, roseola infantum, or scarlet fever. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr virus, the exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, roseola infantum is caused by human herpesvirus 6, and scarlet fever is due to Streptococcus pyogenes infection. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the symptoms of these illnesses and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 179 - Which of the following reports cannot be charged for by the GP, as...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following reports cannot be charged for by the GP, as they are considered outside the scope of their work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unfit for jury form

      Explanation:

      GP Fees and Services

      Doctors offer a range of services that may come with fees. While most medical reports fall outside of a GP’s contract, the British Medical Association (BMA) provides guidance on reasonable fees for such work. However, there are certain certificates and services that GPs cannot charge for, including death certificates, stillbirth certificates, and notification of infectious diseases. Additionally, GPs cannot charge for providing evidence of bankruptcy, establishing patients unfit for jury service, and giving professional evidence in court. For more information on GP fees and services, refer to the BMA’s guidelines and the UK government’s Notification of Deaths Regulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 180 - A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of haloes and impaired vision when watching...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of haloes and impaired vision when watching television, often accompanied by headaches. The examination is normal, but she is routinely referred to the local ophthalmology clinic. The following day you receive a phone call from her husband to say that she has lost vision in her right eye and has a severe headache and eye pain and is vomiting. You visit her and find that she has a fixed pupil and a hazy cornea and the eye feels very hard.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma occurs when the iris blocks the drainage of aqueous humour, leading to a rise in intraocular pressure. Symptoms include visual disturbances in low-light situations, severe eye pain, and require immediate treatment with medication and surgery.

      Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a complication of facial or sinus infections, presenting with headache, fever, cranial nerve signs, and periorbital swelling.

      Acute anterior uveitis causes unilateral eye pain, redness, photophobia, and decreased vision. It develops over hours or days and requires urgent treatment.

      Chronic glaucoma leads to gradual visual field loss due to damage to the optic nerve head and can be managed with topical medication.

      Subacute closed-angle glaucoma should be treated urgently to prevent vision loss. Immediate admission is necessary.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 181 - A 35-year-old woman presents for contraceptive advice. She wishes to resume taking the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for contraceptive advice. She wishes to resume taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after a 12-year hiatus due to a new relationship. She is in good health with no significant medical history, but she does smoke occasionally, averaging 2-3 cigarettes per day. Her body mass index (BMI) is 26 kg/m².

      According to the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), what is the most appropriate advice to provide regarding the COCP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The disadvantages outweigh the advantages and alternative methods should be used

      Explanation:

      The FSRH has issued UKMEC recommendations for the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) due to the heightened risk of cardiovascular disease. According to these guidelines, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 2 for individuals under the age of 35. For those over the age of 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes per day, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 3. However, for those over the age of 35 who smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 4. Progestogen-only contraceptives, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and are therefore classified as UKMEC 1, regardless of the patient’s age or cigarette intake.

      The choice of contraceptive for women may be affected by comorbidities. The FSRH provides UKMEC recommendations for different conditions. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women under 35 and UKMEC 3 for those over 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes/day, but is UKMEC 4 for those who smoke more. Obesity increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² and UKMEC 3 for those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or more. The COCP is contraindicated for women with a history of migraine with aura, but is UKMEC 3 for those with migraines without aura and UKMEC 2 for initiation. For women with epilepsy, consistent use of condoms is recommended in addition to other forms of contraception. The choice of contraceptive for women taking anti-epileptic medication depends on the specific medication, with the COCP and POP being UKMEC 3 for most medications, while the implant is UKMEC 2 and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS are UKMEC 1. Lamotrigine has different recommendations, with the COCP being UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS being UKMEC 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 182 - A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth of her third child by emergency Caesarean section. After the birth, she needed a blood transfusion. She complained to the health visitor of increasing problems some seven days earlier but was told that this was to be expected after the birth of her child. She has a sodium concentration of 120 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l), a potassium concentration of 5.6 mmol/l (3.5–5.0 mmol/l) and a urea of 7.5 mmol/l (2.5–6.5 mmol/l.)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sheehan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sheehan Syndrome: A Rare Cause of Hypopituitarism

      Sheehan syndrome is a rare condition that occurs as a result of severe hypotension caused by massive hemorrhage during or after childbirth, leading to necrosis of the pituitary gland. This condition is more common in underdeveloped and developing countries. Patients with Sheehan syndrome have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency, which can present progressively with symptoms such as failure to lactate, breast involution, and amenorrhea.

      In this case, the patient suffered from hypotension and blood loss during an emergency Caesarean section, leading to pituitary infarction and symptoms of hypoadrenalism. Treatment includes fluid rehydration and emergency steroid replacement with intravenous hydrocortisone, as well as thyroxine replacement for pituitary-dependent hypothyroidism. Restoration of fertility may require pulsed delivery of pituitary sex-axis hormones.

      Other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms, such as dehydration, hypothyroidism, and postnatal depression, were ruled out based on the lack of relevant history and electrolyte abnormalities. While primary adrenal failure can also cause hypoadrenalism, the preceding events make Sheehan syndrome a more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 183 - A 73-year-old man presents with back pain that is most severe in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man presents with back pain that is most severe in his lumbosacral spine. He has a past medical history of prostate cancer but has been managing well and is able to walk his dog daily without difficulty. During the physical examination, there is no tenderness over the back, but there is significant weakness in his right leg, specifically in knee extension. This is a new development. What steps should be taken next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to hospital immediately

      Explanation:

      Spinal Cord Compression: A Serious Condition

      Spinal cord compression is a serious condition that needs immediate attention. It occurs when there is pressure on the spinal cord, which can lead to irreversible loss of power and bladder or bowel function. This condition is often seen in patients with a history of cancer and back pain and weakness.

      Symptoms and signs of spinal cord compression include radicular pain, limb weakness, difficulty in walking, sensory loss, and bladder or bowel dysfunction. Any delay in diagnosis and treatment can result in permanent damage to the spinal cord. An MRI scan is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 184 - A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.

      On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.

      What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.

      Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 185 - A 55-year-old man presents with a red eye. He complains of a one...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a red eye. He complains of a one day history of a painful 'ache' in his right eye and that his vision has become blurry.
      He is systemically well and has no significant ocular past medical history. His last optician check was eight months ago and he tells you that he was advised his vision was good and there were no issues.
      On examination he has an obvious red right eye. Visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/60 in the right eye. The right eye is markedly photophobic and watery.
      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer immediately to eye casualty

      Explanation:

      Acute Uveitis: A Medical Emergency

      The main issue at hand is the presence of an acute red eye with a significant reduction in visual acuity. Regardless of any other symptoms or diagnosis, this requires immediate referral for assessment in eye casualty. Acute uveitis is a possible diagnosis in this scenario, with patients over 20 years of age being affected in 90% of cases, with a mean age of onset at 40 years.

      It is important to note that the major histocompatibility complex antigen HLA-B27 is positive in approximately 50% of all patients with uveitis, and should be considered in cases where there are co-existing conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and reactive arthritis.

      According to the College of Optometrists, onset of acute uveitis is usually sudden at the first episode and gradual at subsequent episodes. It is typically unilateral, and if bilateral, it is more likely to be associated with systemic disease and more likely to become chronic. The main symptoms include pain (dull/ache), exacerbated on induced pupillary constriction (direct, near, or consensual), photophobia, redness, decreased vision, and lacrimation. It is important to note that if the condition is recurrent, the eye may be asymptomatic and white despite the presence of inflammation.

      In summary, acute uveitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate referral for assessment in eye casualty. It is important to consider co-existing conditions and to be aware of the main symptoms associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 186 - You encounter a client who is worried about having coeliac disease. They have...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a client who is worried about having coeliac disease. They have recently reintroduced gluten in their diet. How long should the client be consuming gluten before NICE suggests testing for coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Coeliac Disease Testing

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals who are being tested for coeliac disease should have consumed gluten-containing foods equivalent to at least 4 slices of bread over the previous 6 weeks. Additionally, they should be consuming these foods at least twice per day during this time. This is important because consuming gluten is necessary to trigger the immune response that leads to the production of antibodies, which are used to diagnose coeliac disease. Therefore, it is essential that individuals do not follow a gluten-free diet before being tested for coeliac disease. Following these guidelines can help ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for individuals with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 187 - What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for...

    Incorrect

    • What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for people nearing the end of their lives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It involves an anticipatory approach to care

      Explanation:

      The Gold Standards Framework: A Framework for Anticipatory End-of-Life Care

      The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) was originally designed for use in primary care, but has since been adapted for use in care homes and nursing homes. Its anticipatory approach to care has been shown to have positive effects on pain and symptom control, and improved planning has helped to prevent some hospital admissions. The GSF is not a prescriptive model, but rather a framework that can be tailored to meet local needs and resources. It can also be adapted for patients with non-cancer diagnoses who require end-of-life care. Ultimately, the GSF aims to help patients live and die well in their preferred place of care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 188 - What is the most suitable medication for preventing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable medication for preventing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such as seizures or delirium tremens?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acamprosate

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal

      Acamprosate is a medication that can be helpful in maintaining abstinence in individuals with alcohol dependence. Buprenorphine, on the other hand, is an opioid analgesic. Bupropion is commonly used as a supplement for smoking cessation, but it is contraindicated in patients who are experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Long-acting benzodiazepines are the preferred treatment for preventing symptoms of acute withdrawal. Diazepam is a commonly used benzodiazepine, but chlordiazepoxide is recommended as the first choice because it has less of a market for illicit use.

      By using these medications, individuals with alcohol dependence can receive the support they need to maintain abstinence and manage withdrawal symptoms. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual’s unique needs. Proper medication management, along with therapy and support, can greatly improve the chances of successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 189 - A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her planned pregnancy, estimated to be at 6 weeks gestation. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her mild asthma is well-controlled with inhaled beclomethasone. The GP recommends taking folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.

      What would be a reason for prescribing high-dose folic acid for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient's body mass index (BMI)

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a BMI of ≥30 kg/m² should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid to help prevent neural tube defects (NTD) in the first trimester of pregnancy. This is in addition to patients with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD. Folic acid should ideally be started before conception to further reduce the risk of NTD.

      However, a history of asthma, smoking, patient age, and Asian ethnicity are not indications for high-dose folic acid prescribing in pregnancy. Smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of prematurity, low birth weight, and cleft lip/palate, but there is currently no recommendation for high-dose folic acid prescribing for pregnant smokers. While asthma and extreme maternal age may carry some NTD risk, there is no current recommendation for high-dose folic acid prescribing for these patient groups.

      In addition to folic acid, all pregnant patients should take vitamin D 10mcg (400 units) daily throughout their entire pregnancy, according to NICE guidelines.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 190 - A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a serum creatinine level of 160 µmol/l (60-120 µmol/l).
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome rather than nephrotic syndrome.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic and Nephritic Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, oedema, and hyperlipidaemia, while nephritic syndrome is defined by acute kidney injury, hypertension, oliguria, and urinary sediment. Both syndromes can be caused by various renal diseases and are a constellation of several symptoms.

      In nephritic syndrome, increased cellularity within the glomeruli and a leucocytic infiltrate cause an inflammatory reaction that injures capillary walls, leading to red cells in urine and decreased glomerular filtration rate. Hypertension is likely due to fluid retention and increased renin release. Examples of conditions causing nephritic syndrome include diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, and lupus nephritis.

      Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious and requires immediate referral to secondary care, while patients with nephrotic syndrome will also be referred but usually do not require acute admission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 191 - A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric unit by her GP due to recurrent fatigue and paleness. The parents report no other symptoms such as fever, pain, or poor appetite. She had received treatment with a course of amoxicillin for a throat infection three weeks ago. Upon admission, her blood tests reveal:

      Hb 5.5 g/dl
      WBC 11.2 *109/l
      Platelets 320 *109/l
      Reticulocytes 4%

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency may experience haemolysis as a result of taking ciprofloxacin.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 192 - A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine check up following a car accident. He claims he did not see a cyclist emerging from a road to his left while driving his car. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to bumping into door frames in his house more frequently than usual, but attributes it to his general clumsiness. His medical history includes hypertension, which is managed with ramipril, and erectile dysfunction, for which he has recently been prescribed sildenafil. During the examination, he displays bilateral peripheral field visual loss. What would be the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent pituitary MRI

      Explanation:

      Pituitary Tumour and Peripheral Vision Loss

      The combination of peripheral visual field loss and erectile dysfunction is a cause for concern as it may indicate the presence of a pituitary tumour. While pituitary function tests are important, the urgent need to protect the patient’s sight requires an immediate pituitary MRI scan to check for possible compression of the optic chiasma. The availability of this scan may vary depending on local arrangements, but it is crucial to understand the necessary steps to take in order to act accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 193 - A 42-year-old woman reports to her General Practitioner with complaints of lateral left...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman reports to her General Practitioner with complaints of lateral left elbow pain while lifting books at work with her forearm pronated. She experiences tenderness at the insertion of the common extensor tendon and pain with resisted wrist extension. What is the most suitable course of action to enhance this patient's long-term prognosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reducing lifting

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: Managing Symptoms and Long-Term Prognosis

      Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is a painful condition that can be triggered by certain activities, such as lifting objects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends modifying these activities to alleviate symptoms. However, in severe cases, other treatment options may be necessary.

      Botulinum toxin A injections can be effective in paralyzing the affected fingers, but the resulting paralysis can significantly impact daily activities and is only recommended for severe cases. Corticosteroid injections can provide short-term pain relief, but the high relapse rate at three months makes them less suitable for long-term management.

      Glyceryl trinitrate patches have shown short-term benefits in managing pain, but their long-term efficacy is uncertain. Ibuprofen may provide temporary pain relief, but it doesn’t affect the long-term prognosis. Overall, managing symptoms and preventing further injury through activity modification is the most important aspect of treating tennis elbow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 194 - A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor feeding. The baby was born at 37 weeks gestation without any complications. No central cyanosis is observed, but the baby has a slightly elevated heart rate, rapid breathing, and high blood pressure in the upper extremities. Oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on air. Upon chest auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Additionally, the baby has weak bilateral femoral pulses. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta: A Narrowing of the Descending Aorta

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that affects the descending aorta, causing it to narrow. This condition is more common in males, despite its association with Turner’s syndrome. In infancy, coarctation of the aorta can lead to heart failure, while in adults, it can cause hypertension. Other features of this condition include radio-femoral delay, a mid systolic murmur that is maximal over the back, and an apical click from the aortic valve. Notching of the inferior border of the ribs, which is caused by collateral vessels, is not seen in young children. Coarctation of the aorta is often associated with other conditions, such as bicuspid aortic valve, berry aneurysms, and neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 195 - You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly 2 weeks ago. He says that it is uncomfortable and painful. He has no other relevant past medical history. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day.

      On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like veins. It is separate from his right testicle and situated above it. The swelling is palpable when standing and lying down.

      You discuss the fact that you think this is a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This patient requires urgent referral to a urologist

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, varicocele is present in approximately 40% of men who are diagnosed with infertility. However, it is not recommended to refer men with a left-sided varicocele for ultrasonography as a routine measure to detect any underlying tumor.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 196 - An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he is diagnosed it has spread to the liver.

      The oncologist feels that palliative care is best in this situation and the patient is started on painkillers and other treatments to relieve his symptoms. He has a past history of osteoarthritis and bipolar disorder and takes lithium for this.

      He comes to you a few weeks later with a range of symptoms that he thinks may be side effects of lithium. His lithium levels are within the therapeutic range.

      Which of the following is most likely to be a side effect of lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Lithium Side Effects

      A common side effect of lithium is a fine tremor, which can occur even when lithium levels are within the therapeutic range. However, a coarse tremor suggests that lithium levels are toxic. It is important to monitor lithium levels regularly to avoid toxicity. While tinnitus is not a side effect of lithium, vertigo can occur. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure the safe and effective use of lithium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 197 - A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a complete molar pregnancy.
      She wants to discuss when she can consider trying to become pregnant again.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should avoid pregnancy for at least one year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring hCG Levels After Molar Pregnancy

      After a molar pregnancy, it is important to monitor hCG levels to detect any persistent gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) that may require treatment. During this monitoring period, women should avoid becoming pregnant as it is difficult to differentiate between hCG levels that are increasing due to a new pregnancy or persistent GTD. The first hCG measurement is taken four weeks after uterine evacuation.

      For complete hydatidiform mole, hCG monitoring is required for six months from the first normal hCG level or six months from evacuation of the uterus if the hCG level normalizes by eight weeks after evacuation. On the other hand, partial molar pregnancy has a lower risk of persistent GTD, and hCG follow-up is only necessary until two consecutive monthly levels are normal.

      If a woman undergoes chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, she should avoid pregnancy for at least one year. It is crucial to monitor hCG levels after molar pregnancy to ensure early detection and treatment of any persistent GTD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 198 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion. She is interested in getting an intra-uterine device inserted. What is the recommended waiting period after a surgical termination of pregnancy before getting an IUD fitted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An intra-uterine device can be fitted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare recommends that an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted right after the evacuation of the uterine cavity following a surgical abortion, provided that it is the woman’s preferred method of contraception.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 199 - A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She tells you she is going to attend a carbohydrate counting course. She asks you what that involves.
      Select from this list the single correct statement about carbohydrate counting.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is suitable for those who inject insulin with each meal

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrate Counting for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Management

      Carbohydrate counting is a recommended method for managing blood glucose levels in adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. It involves counting the grams of carbohydrates in a meal and matching it with an individual’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio to determine the necessary insulin dose. This method is particularly useful for those who inject insulin with each meal or use an insulin pump. While foods with a low glycaemic index can help manage glucose levels in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, there is less evidence for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Carbohydrate counting doesn’t mean total freedom to eat whatever one wishes, as food excesses are unhealthy for anyone. However, most ready meals indicate the amount of carbohydrate on the food label, making carbohydrate counting easier. It is important for adult patients with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus to receive advice on issues beyond blood glucose control, such as weight control and cardiovascular risk management, and to increase the amount of fiber in their diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 200 - A 57-year-old male presents with generalised fatigue and upper abdominal discomfort with some...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents with generalised fatigue and upper abdominal discomfort with some weight loss over the last six months.

      He has otherwise been well but admits to consuming 10 units of alcohol per day.

      On examination you note 2 cm hepatomegaly.

      Liver function tests show an:
      ALT 100 IU/L (5-35)
      AST 210 IU/L (1-31)
      Alkaline Phosphatase 250 IU/L (45-105)
      MCV 110 fL (80-96)

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcoholic Hepatitis

      Alcoholic hepatitis is a condition that occurs due to prolonged and heavy consumption of alcohol, leading to progressive liver inflammation. The symptoms of this condition include a subacute onset of fever, hepatomegaly, leukocytosis, and marked impairment of liver function. The liver exhibits characteristic centrilobular ballooning necrosis of hepatocytes, neutrophilic infiltration, large mitochondria, and Mallory hyaline inclusions. In addition, steatosis (fatty liver) and cirrhosis are common in patients with alcoholic hepatitis.Proper management and cessation of alcohol consumption can help improve the prognosis of patients with alcoholic hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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