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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old female presents with a one-sided throbbing headache, along with photophobia and nausea. She has been experiencing these attacks several times a month for the past half-year. The patient has no comorbidities, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Prescribe an oral triptan and propranolol prophylaxis
Explanation:For the treatment of migraine, this patient should be prescribed an oral triptan along with either an NSAID or paracetamol for acute attacks. Additionally, prophylaxis should be considered as the patient experiences two or more attacks per month. Propranolol would be the most appropriate prophylaxis for this patient, as she is of childbearing age and topiramate may not be suitable. Pizotifen is no longer recommended for migraine prophylaxis due to its common side effects, while verapamil is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.Your Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease
Explanation:Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis
The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.
The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.
In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Correct
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You are requested to assess a 76-year-old male who complains of experiencing a recent onset of yellowish tint in his vision. He mentions being on multiple medications but cannot recall their names. His medical history includes heart failure, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and COPD. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Yellow-green vision may be a side effect of digoxin.
The use of digoxin carries a significant risk of toxicity due to its limited therapeutic range. One of the symptoms of toxicity is the appearance of yellow-tinted vision, also known as xanthopsia.
Similarly, sildenafil use may result in cyanopsia or blue-tinted vision.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.
Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.
If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a rash that came on about two weeks ago.
She tells you that it started with some 'itchy red lumps around the belly-button' and has progressed. She has an itchy blistering rash that is most prominent around her umbilicus, but over the last few days has spread to the surrounding trunk, back and proximal limbs.
You note a few tense, fluid-filled blisters. The rash appears slightly raised and plaque-like. Her head, face, hands and feet are spared; her mouth and mucous membranes are also unaffected. She is systemically well.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are specific dermatological conditions that should be considered when assessing a skin complaint. However, it is important to note that pregnancy doesn’t exclude the usual causes of rashes, and infectious causes must also be considered as they may pose a risk to the developing fetus.
One such condition is pemphigoid gestationis (PG), an autoimmune blistering condition that causes fluid-filled blisters on an itchy rash, typically starting around the umbilicus. Topical steroids and oral antihistamines are used for milder cases, while oral steroids may be necessary for more severe disease.
Cholestasis of pregnancy causes generalised pruritus, particularly affecting the palms and soles, and is typically seen in the latter half of pregnancy. Symptoms resolve after delivery, but recurrence occurs in up to 40% of pregnancies. Abnormal liver function tests are also seen.
Parvovirus, although uncommon in pregnancy, can cause serious fetal complications, including hydrops, growth retardation, anaemia, and hepatomegaly. It typically causes a slapped cheek rash followed by a lace-pattern rash on the limbs and trunk. Approximately 1 in 10 of those affected in the first half of pregnancy will miscarry, and in the remainder, there is a 1% risk of congenital abnormality.
Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, also known as pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), is characterised by an itchy rash of pink papules that occurs in the stretch marks of the abdomen in the third trimester. It clears with delivery and is thought to be related to an allergy to the stretch marks.
Varicella can cause a vesicular rash, but the description of tense blisters in combination with the rash distribution and other features are typical of PG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 68-year-old man has metastatic disease following a carcinoma of the lung. He has been discharged to be cared for at home as per his wishes and has a home visit from his general practitioner. He is not eating or drinking and has a syringe driver of morphine and cyclizine to manage symptoms. His conscious level is variable.
Which of the following signs would indicate that he is entering the last days of life?
Your Answer: Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms in Palliative Care: Indicators of End-of-Life
As a patient approaches the end of their life, it can be difficult to determine the exact moment of passing. However, certain symptoms may indicate that the end is near. Cheyne-Stokes breathing, characterized by cycles of increasingly deep and shallow respiration with possible periods of apnea, is a poor prognostic sign often seen in palliative care. Rectal bleeding may indicate progression of colorectal carcinoma, but doesn’t necessarily indicate the end of life. Abdominal distension may be related to the cancer or constipation caused by pain medication, but is not an indicator of prognosis. Grand mal seizures may require further investigation or treatment, but do not necessarily give an idea of prognosis. Pain management should be regularly reviewed, but the amount of pain doesn’t necessarily correlate with entering the end-of-life phase. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for patients and their families during this difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum follow-up. She is exclusively breastfeeding and has not had a menstrual period yet. She has heard about using lactational amenorrhoea as a form of contraception and wants to know more about its effectiveness. Assuming she is fully breastfeeding, under 6 months postpartum, and has not yet had a period, what is the approximate efficacy of the lactational amenorrhoea method of contraception?
Your Answer: 98%
Explanation:If a woman is fully or almost fully breastfeeding, under 6 months postpartum, and not experiencing periods yet, lactational amenorrhoea can be a highly effective form of contraception. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) recommends that if these conditions are met, there may be no need for an alternative contraceptive method at this time.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.
The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Correct
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Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear test. While conducting the test, a 2 cm lump was discovered just lateral to the introitus. Emma reported no accompanying symptoms.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Do nothing
Explanation:Bartholin’s cysts that are asymptomatic do not need any treatment and can be managed conservatively.
In cases where the cysts are recurrent or causing discomfort, marsupialisation or balloon catheter insertion can be considered as management options. These procedures have been shown to decrease the likelihood of recurrence.
If an abscess is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Symptoms of an abscess include pain, swelling, redness, and fever.
Women who are 40 years old or older should be referred for a biopsy to rule out the possibility of carcinoma.
Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.
Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.
Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.
References:
1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient with depression. What category of medication is most prone to interact with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
Your Answer: Beta-blocker
Correct Answer: Triptan
Explanation:Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with persistent fatigue, poor appetite, occasional sweats and a feeling of upper abdominal discomfort. He smokes 15 cigarettes per day, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week. He has no change in bowel habit. His records show that he injected heroin for a short period of time in his twenties.
He had an urgent ultrasound scan which shows a mass in his liver which has now been biopsied and reported as hepatocellular cancer of the liver.
What is the greatest risk factor for hepatocellular primary liver cancer in this 60-year-old man?Your Answer: Hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A infection
Explanation:Hepatitis C and Liver Cancer
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes undiagnosed for up to 20 years, making it a significant risk for those who engage in needle sharing and drug use. This infection can lead to cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the risk of developing primary liver cancer. In fact, around 80% of hepatocellular carcinoma cases are caused by viral infections with either hepatitis C or hepatitis B.
While gallstones and caffeine intake are not associated with an increased risk of liver cancer, previous cholecystectomy and chronic infection with hepatitis B can increase the risk. Statin use and hepatitis A infection, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk.
It is crucial to consider hepatitis C testing for at-risk populations and to maintain a low index of suspicion for liver cancer in those with a hepatitis C diagnosis. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for those with liver cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause.
Her last period was 14 months ago. She has been experiencing low mood, which has been attributed to the menopause, but there are no symptoms of overt depression. She has a past history of breast cancer, treated three years ago. She is currently taking Tamoxifen. She has no allergies. She would like treatment for her symptoms.
What is the most suitable course of action for her symptoms?Your Answer: Continuous combined hormone replacement therapy
Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Hormone Therapy Contraindicated in Breast Cancer Patient
Hormone therapies are not an option for a woman with a history of breast cancer due to contraindications. This rules out all hormone therapy options. Additionally, fluoxetine, which inhibits the enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, should not be used in this case. This is because it reduces the amount of active drug that is released.
The most appropriate treatment option for low mood in the absence of depression is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). While it may not help with menopausal flashes, it is recommended by NICE and is the best choice from the list of options provided.
Overall, it is important to consider a patient’s medical history and any contraindications before prescribing any treatment options. In this case, hormone therapy and fluoxetine are not suitable, and CBT is the recommended course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of recurrent episodes of dizziness, which she describes as a sensation of the room spinning. She has experienced five such episodes in the past month, each lasting for one or two days and accompanied by nausea, which has prevented her from going to work. She reports no symptoms between episodes and has a history of migraines in her 20s but is otherwise healthy. During these episodes, she is sensitive to loud noises but denies any hearing loss or tinnitus. Neurological examination, Dix-Hallpike, and examination of both ear canals are unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular migraine
Explanation:Consider vestibular migraine as a possible cause of episodic vertigo in patients with a history of migraines. The timing and duration of vertigo symptoms can help differentiate between different causes. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo typically causes brief episodes of vertigo, while Meniere’s disease causes longer episodes with accompanying hearing loss, tinnitus, or ear fullness. Labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis can cause sudden onset of constant vertigo, but not the episodic nature described in this case. Given the duration, episodic nature, phonophobia, and history of migraines, vestibular migraine is the most likely diagnosis. The International Classification of Headache Disorders provides diagnostic criteria for vestibular migraine, including a history of migraines and moderate to severe vestibular symptoms lasting between 5 minutes and 72 hours, with at least half of the episodes associated with migrainous features such as headache, photophobia, phonophobia, or visual aura. Other potential causes should be ruled out.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female patient is being treated by the paediatric team for obesity and has also been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The team has decided to include orlistat in her management plan for weight loss, which the patient has agreed to. The dietician has suggested some dietary supplements. What specific nutrients should be monitored to prevent deficiencies in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamins A, D, E and K
Explanation:In rare cases, Orlistat may be prescribed to children who have co-existing medical conditions such as type 2 diabetes, but only under the supervision of a specialist pediatric team and not in primary care. Orlistat works by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase, which reduces fat absorption from the gut. To avoid unpleasant side effects, patients must adhere to a low-fat diet. Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K is a significant concern, and all nutrients, including calcium for bone health, should be considered.
Understanding Obesity in Children
Childhood obesity is a complex issue that requires careful assessment. Unlike adults, defining obesity in children is challenging as body mass index (BMI) varies with age. To make an accurate assessment, BMI percentile charts are needed. According to recent NICE guidelines, the ‘UK 1990 BMI charts’ should be used to provide age- and gender-specific information.
NICE recommends tailored clinical intervention if BMI is at the 91st centile or above. If BMI is at the 98th centile or above, assessing for comorbidities is necessary. Lifestyle factors are the most common cause of obesity in childhood. However, other associations of obesity in children include being Asian, female, and taller than average.
There are several medical conditions that can cause obesity in children, such as growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, Down’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Obesity in children can lead to various consequences, including orthopaedic problems, psychological consequences, sleep apnoea, benign intracranial hypertension, and long-term consequences such as an increased incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease.
In conclusion, understanding obesity in children requires careful assessment and consideration of various factors. Early intervention and management can prevent long-term consequences and improve the overall health and well-being of children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following techniques is used in qualitative research to assess validity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Triangulation
Explanation:Subdividing participant data into smaller groups, known as subgroup analyses, is often used to compare and contrast different subsets. These subgroups can be based on various factors, such as gender or location, and may be used to explore inconsistent findings or to address specific research questions related to patient demographics, interventions, or study types.
Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research
Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.
Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her primary care physician complaining of neck pain and limited neck movement for the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she displays normal vital signs except for a mild tachycardia of 105 and neck stiffness with restricted range of motion. Her neck is involuntarily flexed to the right, but her facial movements are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torticollis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing acute dystonia, which is a sustained muscle contraction resulting in torticollis or oculogyric crisis. This is likely due to the recent initiation of a typical antipsychotic medication, specifically haloperidol. Torticollis, or a wry neck, is diagnosed when there is unilateral pain and deviation of the neck, restricted range of motion, and pain upon palpation.
While neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency that can occur in patients taking antipsychotics, this patient’s mild tachycardia is likely due to pain rather than altered mental state, generalised rigidity, fever, fluctuating blood pressure, and high temperature, which are the hallmark symptoms of this condition. However, it should still be considered in patients taking antipsychotics.
Another example of acute dystonia is an oculogyric crisis, which involves sustained upward deviation of the eyes, clenched jaw, and hyperextension of the back/neck with torticollis. However, since the patient doesn’t exhibit any facial signs or symptoms, torticollis alone is the more appropriate diagnosis.
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that occurs in patients on long-term typical antipsychotics and is characterised by uncontrolled facial movements, such as lip-smacking.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of worsening headaches. She mentions experiencing blurred vision and that her headaches intensify when she bends forward. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) as her only medication. During fundi examination, papilloedema is suspected. Her prolactin level is mildly elevated at 800 mU/l (normal range: < 400 mU/l). She is also obese. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
IIH is a condition that primarily affects obese young women. It is characterized by papilloedema, headaches, and visual disturbances. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills may worsen the condition. Lumbar puncture reveals elevated cerebrospinal fluid pressure, but there is no associated intracranial mass or ventricular enlargement. If left untreated, IIH can lead to irreversible optic neuropathy. Treatment options include serial lumbar punctures, prednisolone, thiazide diuretics, acetazolamide, weight loss, and surgical decompression or shunting.Microprolactinoma and Macroprolactinoma
Microprolactinoma is a pituitary tumor that is less than 10 mm in size. It can cause amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and galactorrhea, accompanied by high prolactin levels. Macroprolactinoma, on the other hand, is larger than 10 mm and can cause headaches and visual field defects. Persistent high prolactin levels may indicate a pathological cause and require further investigation.Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by ventricular dilation without raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure. It mainly affects the elderly and is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality, urinary incontinence, and dementia. It may be caused by meningitis, head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or a tumor. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a potentially reversible cause of dementia.Superior Sagittal Sinus Thrombosis
Thrombosis of the cerebral veins or venous sinuses can cause cerebral infarction or hemorrhage. Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis can cause headache, seizures, paralysis, visual disturbances, and neck stiffness. Symptoms are related to the area of thrombosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The nurse at your clinic is faced with a situation where a mother has brought in her 14-week-old son for his vaccinations. The vaccinations include one injection against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio and haemophilus influenza type b, one injection against meningococcal b and an oral application for rotavirus. The mother has given her consent for the immunisations, but the nurse is unsure about the appropriate way to obtain consent. What would be a suitable method of obtaining consent in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verbal consent from the mother
Explanation:According to the Green Book, a mother has parental responsibility for her children and written consent is not required for immunizations. Both parents’ consent is not necessary, but consent should be obtained before each immunization is administered.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
When it comes to obtaining consent in children, the General Medical Council has provided guidelines. For children aged 16 and above, they can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to decide. However, for those under 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines their capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
In terms of providing contraceptives to patients under 16, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency for contraception and Gillick competency for general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused. For consistency over competence in children, it is crucial to follow these guidelines when obtaining consent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.
Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.
What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size
Explanation:Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.
It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are reviewing your practice policy regarding the use of sharps and prevention of sharps injuries during procedures for pediatric patients.
Which of the following would be appropriate to include in the policy documentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Safer sharps' completely remove the risk of a sharps injury
Explanation:Safe Use of Sharps in Medical Procedures
Sharps are important tools in medical procedures, but it is important to use them only when necessary. For instance, obtaining urine samples from catheter bags can be done without using needles. In some cases, it may be appropriate to use needles provided by the patient, such as when a diabetic has needles at home for administering insulin.
To minimize the risk of sharps injuries, it is recommended to use safer sharps that have safety mechanisms, such as a cover that pivots to cover the needle after use. However, even with safer sharps, there is still a potential risk of injury during the procedure.
Recapping needles is a common source of sharps injury and should be avoided whenever possible. In specific instances where recapping is necessary, a full risk assessment and appropriate steps to minimize the risk of injury must be taken, such as using needle-blocks to remove and hold the needle cap. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe use of sharps in medical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for an urgent appointment. She has a diffuse headache, which she describes as severe. The headache is acute, having developed within the last three hours. She lost consciousness for a brief period. There is no significant past medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:When a patient presents with a sudden, severe headache, subarachnoid haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause, with or without loss of consciousness. Menigeal irritation may take some time to appear. In cases of epilepsy, postictal headaches are common, lasting between six and 24 hours. Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset and unilateral pain around the eye, temple or forehead, often accompanied by lacrimation or rhinorrhoea. Migraines are also unilateral and may be preceded by an aura, with associated nausea and vomiting. TIAs usually present with focal neurological symptoms, rather than headaches, and loss of consciousness is not typical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old multiparous woman presents to you with concerns about a lump she discovered in her breast three days ago. She is very conscious of her health and reports performing regular breast self-examinations. Her last menstrual period was four weeks ago, and she is expecting her next period in six days.
Upon examination, she reveals a smooth, soft, and mobile 1 cm lump that feels distinct from the other side. There are no associated lymph nodes, and she has no significant medical or family history.
What is your recommended course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her to come back in the first part of her next cycle to re-examine
Explanation:Breast Lumps and Referral to a Breast Clinic
Breast lumps are a common concern among women, and it is important to know when to seek medical attention. If a woman over the age of 30 has a discrete lump that persists after their next period or presents after menopause, referral to a breast clinic should be considered. However, if the lump is of very recent onset and the patient is premenstrual, referral may not be necessary at this stage.
Benign breast lumps tend to be firm or rubbery, often painful, regular or smooth, mobile, and have no nipple or skin signs. On the other hand, malignant lumps are hard, 90% painless, irregular, fixed, and may have skin dimpling, nipple retraction, or bloody discharge.
It is important to note that evening primrose oil is not a treatment for breast lumps, and there is little evidence to suggest it helps with mastalgia. Despite being marketed as a treatment for this condition, it is not a substitute for medical advice and evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Barbara is a 64-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a one-month history of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids. She also reports pain while swallowing. Barbara is otherwise feeling well. She has a past medical history of hypertension and is a non-smoker.
Upon examination, Barbara's throat appears normal, and there are no other abnormalities detected on neurological and abdominal examination.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing Barbara's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within 2 weeks
Explanation:Odynophagia is a worrying symptom that can be indicative of oesophageal cancer. According to NICE guidelines, individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should be urgently referred for direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within 2 weeks to assess for oesophageal cancer.
In Albert’s case, as he is presenting with dysphagia and odynophagia, urgent upper GI endoscopy within 2 weeks is the appropriate course of action. While blood tests such as FBC and CRP may provide some clues towards a cancer diagnosis, the priority is to rule out malignancy through endoscopy.
Referral to speech and language therapy would not be appropriate at this stage, as the focus is on diagnosing or ruling out cancer. Prescribing analgesia may provide some relief for odynophagia, but it would not address the underlying issue of dysphagia or the need to investigate for malignancy.
While a barium swallow may be useful in investigating dysphagia and odynophagia, urgent upper GI endoscopy is the most appropriate investigation to assess for oesophageal cancer.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.
To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary edema in a patient with a history of chronic heart failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil exhibits the strongest negative inotropic effect among calcium channel blockers.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A patient with type 1 diabetes who is 16 years old presents with diarrhoea and vomiting, along with reduced oral intake. In the past day, she has experienced increased thirst and urination. Her capillary blood glucose level is 19 mmol/L, and her blood ketones are 3.6 mmol/L.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition that can affect both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes patients. It is identified by blood ketone levels of ≥3 mmol/L (or urine ketones of ++ or greater) in individuals with a blood glucose level of ≥11 mmol/L or a known history of diabetes. It is important to check ketones in all diabetic patients who are unwell and admit them to the hospital if their ketone levels are ≥3 mmol/L. Blood ketones are preferred over urine ketones as they provide a more accurate representation of the true blood ketone level. Patients should never discontinue their insulin treatment, even if they are unwell and eating less. During intercurrent illness, they may require higher insulin doses and should have a ‘sick day’ management plan from their diabetes team.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What condition is characterized by a rash that causes itching?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningococcal purpura
Explanation:Common Skin Rashes and Their Associated Conditions
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin rash that causes vesicles and intense itching. It is often linked to coeliac disease. Erythema chronicum migrans is a rash that appears as a red macule or papule and grows into an annular lesion. It is associated with Lyme disease, which is caused by a spirochaete infection. Erythema nodosum is a painful nodular rash that typically appears on the shins. If it is accompanied by arthritis of the ankles and wrists and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, it is indicative of acute sarcoidosis. Granuloma annulare is a benign condition that produces firm nodules that merge to form ring-shaped lesions. Finally, the non-blanching purpuric rash of meningococcal disease is not itchy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to know more about HPV vaccination. Which of the following statements about HPV vaccination is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervarix has the advantage over Gardasil of offering protection against genital warts
Explanation:Protection against genital warts is an advantage offered by Gardasil, as opposed to Cervarix.
The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.
The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.
Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are assessing a senior gentleman with prostate cancer. Regrettably, his pain is presently uncontrolled with co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets qds and diclofenac 50 mg tds. Your plan is to transition him to oral morphine. Can you provide the conversion factor between oral codeine and oral morphine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Divide by 10
Explanation:Codeine can be converted to morphine by dividing its dosage by 10.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which trait is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Genetic Disorders
Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a single gene. Beta thalassaemia, on the other hand, is recessively inherited. If an individual has one copy of the abnormal gene, it is called ‘thalassaemia minor’, while having two copies of the abnormal gene results in ‘thalassaemia major’. Prader-Willi syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is characterised by insatiable appetite, hyperglycaemia, and short stature. Lastly, Down’s syndrome is also a chromosomal disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What were the primary care lessons highlighted in the Confidential Enquiry into Maternal Deaths 2018 report?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There has been a significant reduction in deaths from mental & medical causes over the last 10 years
Explanation:Key Points from the MBRRACE-UK Report for Primary Care
The MBRRACE-UK report is an important document that primary care practitioners should be familiar with. It is likely that AKT questions will be set on this report, so understanding the main take-home points is crucial. Here are some key points relating to epidemiology:
– There was a statistically non-significant increase in the overall maternal death rate in the UK between 2011-13 and 2014-16, indicating the need for implementation of the report’s recommendations to reduce maternal deaths.
– Maternal mortality rates are significantly higher among women from black and Asian ethnic backgrounds compared to white women, highlighting the need to address these disparities.
– Thrombosis and thromboembolism remain the leading cause of direct maternal death during or up to six weeks after the end of pregnancy.
– Maternal suicide is the third largest cause of direct maternal deaths, and eliciting any relevant history of mental health problems is essential for appropriate management of risk.
– Women with a high BMI should be given information about the symptoms of VTE, and those with a BMI ≥40 kg/m2 require postnatal thromboprophylaxis regardless of mode of delivery.
– Prescriptions for the entire postnatal course of low molecular weight heparin should be issued in secondary care to ensure women receive the full course without needing to visit their GP for another prescription.By understanding these key points, primary care practitioners can provide better care for pregnant and postnatal women, and help reduce maternal mortality rates in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient comes in for a follow-up appointment one week after being prescribed a combination antibiotic and steroid spray for otitis externa. Despite the medication, her symptoms have not improved and the redness has spread to her ear. What is the recommended course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:When the erythema spreads, it is a sign that oral antibiotics are necessary. The preferred initial treatment is Flucloxacillin.
Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management
Otitis externa is a prevalent condition that often prompts primary care visits in the UK. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and can be caused by bacterial or fungal infections, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger for otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal may appear red, swollen, or eczematous.
The recommended initial management for otitis externa is the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. If there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, and if the canal is extensively swollen, an ear wick may be inserted. Second-line options include taking a swab inside the ear canal, considering contact dermatitis secondary to neomycin, or using oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin if the infection is spreading. Empirical use of an antifungal agent may also be considered.
It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, they should be referred to an ENT specialist. Malignant otitis externa is a more severe form of the condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics. While some ENT doctors disagree, concerns about ototoxicity may arise with the use of aminoglycosides in patients with perforated tympanic membranes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer
Explanation:Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway
When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.
Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.
It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 31
Incorrect
-
A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have developed an egg allergy. The child is experiencing abdominal pain, constipation, and atopic eczema/erythema. What is the most appropriate test to explore the likelihood of a food allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elimination diet
Explanation:It is recommended to try eliminating egg as the symptoms indicate a non-IgE-mediated food allergy.
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient who has previously been hospitalized with ventricular tachycardia. What examinations are crucial to confirm that the patient has undergone before commencing the therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TFT + LFT + U&E + chest x-ray
Explanation:Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old girl has a temperature of 39.6ºC and a rash consisting of numerous dusky pink macules and papules. She became unwell 6 days ago, when her mother noticed that she had a dry cough, red eyes and a temperature. The rash started 2 days ago, appearing on her face initially, but then spreading to the trunk and limbs. She was in contact with a girl with a similar rash 2 weeks ago. There is no significant past medical history. She had not received all her childhood immunisations because of parental concerns regarding vaccine safety.
Select the single most likely cause of her rash.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measles virus
Explanation:Differentiating Measles from Other Childhood Illnesses
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that typically presents with a prodrome of coryzal symptoms, dry cough, conjunctivitis, and fever before the appearance of a rash. Koplik’s spots may also be present on the buccal mucosa. However, other childhood illnesses can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Rubella, for example, has a longer incubation period and is typically milder with no significant respiratory symptoms. Parvovirus B19 can mimic rubella with its slapped-cheek appearance. Infectious mononucleosis may present with a sore throat and lymphadenopathy, but any rash is fine and transient. Mumps may rarely cause a rash, but other symptoms are more prominent. It is crucial to accurately diagnose these illnesses to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has had intermittent heartburn and acid regurgitation over the past 10 years. He has previously had an H2 receptor antagonist and a proton pump inhibitor with good effect. He occasionally has bought preparations from the pharmacy with good effect. His body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2 and he smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His symptoms have been worse recently and are waking him at night.
Select from the list the single management option that is likely to be most effective in bringing about a QUICK resolution of his symptoms.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
Explanation:Management of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease-Like Symptoms
Explanation:
When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is recommended to manage it as uninvestigated dyspepsia, according to NICE guidelines. This is because an endoscopy has not been carried out, and there are no red flag symptoms that require immediate referral for endoscopy.
The first step in managing GORD-like symptoms is to advise the patient on lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, dietary changes, smoking cessation, and alcohol reduction. These changes may lead to a reduction in symptoms.
In the short term, a full dose of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for one month is the most effective treatment to bring about a quick resolution of symptoms. If the patient has responded well to PPI in the past, it is likely to be effective again. Testing for H. pylori may also be an option if it has not been done previously.
After the initial treatment, a low-dose PPI as required may be appropriate for the patient. Other drugs such as H2 receptor antagonists, antacids, and prokinetics can also be used in the management of uninvestigated dyspepsia. However, they are not the first choice according to the guidelines and are less likely to be as effective as a PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman decides to opt for an implantable contraceptive. What distinguishes Nexplanon from Implanon as its primary benefit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: New design makes the insertion of implants that are too deep less likely
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
You are seeing a 65-year-old lady with oestrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer.
She has been prescribed exemestane 25 mg daily by her oncologist and has been taking this for four months.
Which of the following is the most common side effect that this patient may experience?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal discomfort
Explanation:BNF and AKT: Common Side Effects of Medications
The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used as a reference for setting questions in the AKT exam. One common topic is the side effects of medications. The BNF categorizes side effects based on their frequency, ranging from very common to very rare. Gastrointestinal discomfort and dyspepsia are the most common side effects, while drowsiness and peripheral oedema are less common. Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia are considered common side effects, but sarcopenia is not listed. It is important for candidates to be familiar with the BNF and the frequency of side effects to perform well in the AKT exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy has pruritus ani. His mother has noticed what look like tiny pieces of cotton moving on his stool and around his anus.
Select from the list the single most suitable management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mebendazole
Explanation:Understanding Threadworm: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Threadworm, also known as pinworm or enterobiasis, is a common nematode infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis. This infection is exclusive to humans and doesn’t affect family pets. Female worms lay eggs outside the anus, causing irritation and discomfort. The eggs can easily spread through contaminated hands, food, clothing, and bedding, leading to re-infection.
Diagnosing threadworm involves examining adhesive tape applied to the anal area under a microscope, as stool examination is only positive in 5% of cases. Asymptomatic infection is common, so it is recommended that the entire family be treated together. Mebendazole is the preferred drug for treating threadworm in adults and children over 2 years old. It is given as a single oral dose and repeated after 2-3 weeks in case of re-infection. Piperazine, licensed for use in children as young as 3 months, paralyzes the worms but doesn’t kill them. It is often combined with senna as a powder (Pripsen) to expel the worms and is given as a single dose, repeated after 14 days.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of threadworm is crucial in preventing the spread of this common infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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You see an elderly patient who complains of facial erythema.
Which of the following is most suggestive of a diagnosis of rosacea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial skin thickening and irregular surface nodularities especially across the nose
Explanation:Clinical Features of Rosacea
A diagnosis of rosacea can be made based on the presence of at least one diagnostic clinical feature or two major clinical features. The two diagnostic clinical features are phymatous changes and persistent erythema. Phymatous changes refer to thickened irregular skin, which can affect the nose and is termed rhinophyma. Persistent erythema is centrofacial redness that can increase with certain triggers. Major clinical features include flushing/transient erythema, inflammatory papules and pustules, telangiectasia, and ocular symptoms. Minor clinical features such as burning sensation, stinging sensation, skin dryness, and oedema are subjective and not individually diagnostic of rosacea.
Facial skin thickening/surface nodularities, especially across the nose, is in keeping with phymatous change, which is a diagnostic clinical feature of rosacea. Itch and red papules can occur with rosacea, but these are usually seen in the centrofacial area. Rosacea can affect the chin area as well, but itchy and tender red papules specifically in a muzzle distribution are more in keeping with perioral dermatitis. Open and closed comedones across the forehead, cheeks, and chin are suggestive of acne vulgaris. Scaly disc-like plaques with scarring are suggestive of discoid lupus, while scaly pink ill-defined plaques in the skin folds on both sides of the face describe seborrheic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10-15% of adults fail to respond or respond poorly to 3 doses of the vaccine
Explanation:An anti-HBs check is necessary only for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease who are at risk of occupational exposure.
Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management
Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.
Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit smoking. What is the most probable condition that would contraindicate the use of varenicline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Past history of deliberate self-harm
Explanation:Patients with a history of depression should use varenicline with caution due to ongoing studies investigating the risk of suicidal behavior. The MHRA/CHM advises patients to seek medical attention immediately if they experience agitation, depressed mood, or suicidal thoughts while taking varenicline. Patients with a history of psychiatric illness should be closely monitored during treatment. Additionally, varenicline may exacerbate underlying illnesses, including depression, and should be used with caution in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or predisposition to seizures. Upon completion of a 12-week course, dose tapering should be considered to minimize the risk of relapse, irritability, depression, and insomnia.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden weakness on the right side of her face and difficulty with tears flowing from her right eye. She experienced some mild pain around her right ear the day before the weakness started.
Upon examination, there is evident right facial nerve palsy, and there are no indications of herpes zoster infection.
What can be said about this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-virals are of proven benefit
Explanation:Bell’s Palsy: Treatment and Symptoms
Bell’s palsy is a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, usually on one side of the face. While the cause of Bell’s palsy is unclear, it is thought to be a post-viral phenomenon in many cases. Interestingly, a family history is found in around 4% of patients with Bell’s.
Most patients with Bell’s palsy make a complete recovery, but to protect the cornea, artificial tears are absolutely required. Post-auricular pain is found in around 50% of patients and may occur 2-3 days before presentation.
When it comes to treatment, corticosteroids have demonstrated significantly improved outcomes in Bell’s palsy, in contrast to anti-virals where two recent RCTs were negative. It is important to note that early treatment is crucial for the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female is referred with a six month history of amenorrhoea and weight loss, for which no organic cause can be found.
Which of the following features would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa (AN)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypotrichosis
Explanation:Features of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder that is characterized by a phobic avoidance of normal weight, relentless dieting, self-induced vomiting, laxative use, excessive exercise, amenorrhoea, lanugo hair, hypotension, denial, concealment, over-perception of body image, and enmeshed families. Individuals with AN have an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, which leads to severe weight loss and malnutrition. They often engage in extreme behaviors to control their weight, such as restricting their food intake, purging, and over-exercising. AN can have serious physical and psychological consequences, including organ damage, osteoporosis, depression, and anxiety. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with AN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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You have conducted an audit of mammogram screening for women over the age of 50. After the initial audit cycle, you discover that only 35% of eligible women have had a mammogram within the past two years. You implement a program to improve mammogram screening and re-evaluate the percentage with mammogram results 12 months later.
Which statistical test would be most appropriate to determine if there has been a significant change in the number of women receiving mammograms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chi square test
Explanation:Statistical Tests for Comparing Proportions, Means, and Associations
The chi square test is the standard statistical test for comparing proportions. It involves comparing the number observed to have a certain characteristic with the number expected if there was no difference. ANOVA and ANCOVA are analyses used for statistical comparison between the means of several groups, with ANCOVA also taking into account continuous explanatory variables. The t test is used to compare the means of two groups, while Spearman’s rank correlation measures the degree of association between two numerical variables. These tests are useful for analyzing data in various fields, including healthcare, social sciences, and business. Proper understanding and application of these tests can lead to more accurate and reliable conclusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father. He is worried that she is not speaking as much as her peers, though she can say more than 60 words and uses them in short sentences. She prefers to play on her own and gets upset by changes in her daily routine.
On examination, she reacts to quiet speech, but is shy and avoids eye contact.
What is the most probable reason for her speech delay?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Austism spectrum disorder (ASD)
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Delayed Speech and Social Interaction in a 3-Year-Old Child
Delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is autism spectrum disorder (ASD), which affects around 1% of children in the UK, with symptoms developing before three years of age. Children with ASD may have absent or delayed speech, a lack of collaborative or imaginative play, or an impairment of non-verbal or social interactions. Another possible cause is deafness, which affects 1-2 per 1,000 newborns in the UK. Symptoms of hearing loss include speech impediments, delayed speech, or behavioural problems. However, deafness is not the most likely cause if the child reacts to quiet speech and exhibits other typical behaviours associated with autism. Learning disability is another possible cause, but with the classic additional features of autism in this case, it is not the most likely cause. Neglect and normal development can also be ruled out as possible causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child to provide appropriate interventions and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of green-brown nipple discharge. She reports no other breast changes and is in good health. She has breastfed three children and is not using any hormonal contraception. What is the primary cause of brown-green nipple discharge?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duct ectasia
Explanation:The most common cause of brown-green nipple discharge is duct ectasia. This condition is often found in women around menopause and is caused by the dilation of the milk duct due to aging. It may or may not be accompanied by a small lump under the nipple.
While breast cancer can also cause nipple discharge, it is usually bloody and only comes from one nipple. A prolactinoma, a benign pituitary tumor that produces prolactin, can cause bilateral lactation and a cream-colored discharge.
Fat necrosis of the breast is typically caused by blunt trauma to the breast, resulting in a hard lump, but no nipple discharge. Paget’s disease of the nipple is characterized by a change in the skin of the nipple and areola, but there is usually no associated nipple discharge.
Understanding Nipple Discharge: Causes and Assessment
Nipple discharge is a common concern among women, and it can be caused by various factors. Physiological discharge may occur during breastfeeding, while galactorrhea may be triggered by emotional events or certain medications. Hyperprolactinemia, pituitary tumors, mammary duct ectasia, and intraductal papilloma are other possible causes of nipple discharge.
To assess patients with nipple discharge, a breast examination should be conducted to determine the presence of a mass lesion. If a mass is detected, triple assessment is recommended to evaluate the condition. Reporting of investigations should follow a system that uses a prefix denoting the type of investigation, such as M for mammography, followed by a numerical code indicating the findings.
For non-malignant nipple discharge, endocrine disease should be excluded, and smoking cessation advice may be given for duct ectasia. In severe cases of duct ectasia, total duct excision may be necessary. Nipple cytology is generally unhelpful in diagnosing the cause of nipple discharge.
Understanding the causes and assessment of nipple discharge is crucial in providing appropriate management and treatment for patients. Proper evaluation and reporting of investigations can help in identifying any underlying conditions and determining the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man presents with left-sided shoulder pain. He has a medical history of hypertension, osteoarthritis, and COPD. During the examination, he shows good range of motion in the shoulder but experiences pain on the lateral aspect of the shoulder that radiates down to the upper arm and forearm. Additionally, he has some muscle wasting in his hand and a left-sided ptosis and miosis. What is the most suitable investigation to request next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest x ray
Explanation:Horner’s Syndrome and Shoulder Pain in a Patient with COPD
This patient with COPD, likely due to significant cigarette smoking, presents with shoulder pain, small muscle wasting in the hand, and Horner’s syndrome. These symptoms suggest a lesion affecting the cervical sympathetic plexus, which could be caused by an apical lung tumor invading the area. Therefore, an urgent chest x-ray should be requested to confirm the diagnosis of Pancoast’s syndrome.
In addition to Horner’s syndrome, the clinician should also be alert to the presence of a hoarse voice and bovine cough, which may indicate invasion of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and vocal cord paralysis. While brainstem disease can also cause Horner’s syndrome, CT or MRI scanning of the head would only be useful in such instances.
A plain film of the shoulder may reveal adjacent lung apex and reveal a tumor, but it is not designed to pick up chest pathology. Therefore, a chest x-ray is necessary based on the overall clinical picture. Syringomyelia can also cause Horner’s syndrome and wasting and weakness of the hands and arms, along with loss of pain and temperature sensation over the trunk and arms. An MRI scan can confirm this diagnosis. Nerve conduction studies have no role in this instance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his GP after receiving abnormal liver function test results from a private medical screening. Despite consuming approximately 40 units of alcohol per week, he is asymptomatic and in good health. The following results were obtained:
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
- ALP: 100 u/l
- ALT: 67 u/l
- γGT: 110 u/l
- Albumin: 40 g/l
All other blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, and fasting glucose, were normal. A liver screen was arranged, which revealed the following:
- Hepatitis B: Negative
- Hepatitis C: Negative
- Serum ferritin: 550 microg/L (normal range: 25-300 microg/L)
- Immunoglobulins: Normal
- Ultrasound liver: Fatty changes
- Transferrin saturation: 41% (normal range: <50%)
What is the most likely underlying cause of the elevated ferritin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:The elevated ferritin level can be attributed to the patient’s excessive alcohol consumption, as the typical transferrin saturation rules out iron overload as a potential cause.
Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body
Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it for later use. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be synthesized in larger quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.
There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of patients) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of patients). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (which can occur after repeated transfusions).
On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can be an indication of iron deficiency anemia. Since iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state. It is important to note that the best test for determining iron overload is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue and feeling cold all the time. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 9.8 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
- Free thyroxine (T4) 8.9 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
- Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (anti-TPO) 280 IU/ml (<100)
What other clinical symptom may be associated with his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Goitre
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this man with biochemical evidence of hypothyroidism and raised anti-TPO antibodies is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is characterized by hypothyroidism, goitre, and anti-TPO antibodies. Exophthalmos, hypercalcaemia, and onycholysis are not typically associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, but rather with other thyroid disorders such as Graves’ disease.
Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight with his best friend. He is found by his roommate and rushed to the hospital.
What is the most significant factor that suggests a high likelihood of successful suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Making efforts to not be found
Explanation:The risk of completed suicide is heightened when attempts are made to avoid being discovered. Additionally, the presence of certain factors such as writing a note, making plans, sorting out affairs, and using violent methods also increase the risk. However, there is no evidence to suggest that an overdose of paracetamol and alcohol increases the risk of completed suicide. While a history of deliberate self harm does increase the risk of suicide, it doesn’t necessarily increase the risk of completed suicide. Furthermore, an impulsive suicide attempt is considered less concerning than a meticulously planned one.
The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his general practice surgery as he has started experiencing diarrhoea, especially at night. He has also noticed that he feels dizzy when he stands up; he collapsed while standing at a bus stop a few days ago. On further questioning, he admits to having erectile problems for several years. He has chronic polyneuropathy.
On examination, his blood pressure is 160/88 mmHg when lying down and 136/60 mmHg when standing. He demonstrates signs of reduced knee jerks, absent ankle jerks and reduced pinprick and vibration sense to the knees. These are unchanged from his last examination six months ago.
What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:The patient is experiencing symptoms of autonomic neuropathy, such as bowel issues, postural hypotension, and erectile dysfunction. The most common cause of this condition is diabetes mellitus, which can also lead to other types of neuropathy. Vitamin E deficiency can also cause peripheral neuropathy, but it is less likely in this case. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is an inherited peripheral neuropathy that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. Paraneoplastic neuropathy is a rare syndrome that accompanies malignant disease and would be an unusual pattern of peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause peripheral neuropathy and should be checked in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.
If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.
It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness in both feet, which has worsened over a period of six months. She has hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and diabetes. She is currently taking amlodipine, aspirin, atorvastatin, gliclazide, metformin, ramipril and sitagliptin. She doesn't drink alcohol.
On examination, she has altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Femoral pulses are present, but those in the feet are absent.
What is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Symmetrical Polyneuropathy: Causes and Risk Factors
Chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy is a condition characterized by weakness and sensory symptoms such as burning and tingling. The most common cause of this condition is diabetic neuropathy, which is directly related to the duration of diabetes and poor blood sugar control. However, certain drugs such as isoniazid, vincristine, phenytoin, nitrofurantoin, gold, and excess vitamin B6 can also cause polyneuropathy.
Hyperlipidemia and hypertension are also associated with peripheral neuropathy, but they are not as common as diabetic neuropathy. Peripheral vascular disease, which is characterized by reduced blood flow to the limbs, can also increase the risk of polyneuropathy, especially in patients with diabetes and ischemic disease.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Patients with this condition may experience reduced sensation and balance issues, making it crucial to manage their symptoms and prevent falls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about developing Alzheimer's disease. He has been experiencing memory problems for the past few months, frequently repeating questions according to his wife. He struggles to recall recent events but has a good memory of things that happened a long time ago. What finding would be most indicative of an alternative diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Objective neurological deficits
Explanation:Understanding Cognitive Impairment in Alzheimer’s Dementia
Alzheimer’s dementia is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects cognitive function. While it doesn’t typically cause objective neurological deficits, it can manifest in a variety of cognitive impairments. These include an inability to plan activities, agnosia (the failure to identify objects despite intact sensory function), apraxia (the inability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function), and language disturbance (such as receptive or expressive dysphasia). These impairments are all related to executive function and can be seen in other forms of dementia as well. Understanding these symptoms can help with early detection and management of Alzheimer’s dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who has become acutely confused.
She has a past medical history of hypertension and hypothyroidism. These are well controlled on bendroflumethazide 2.5 mg OD and thyroxine 100 mcg OD.
On arrival she is disoriented to time and place; and the nursing staff report that earlier she seemed to be hallucinating. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C, pulse rate of 92 regular and a blood pressure of 108/88 mmHg. Blood sugar is 4.6.
What is the next most appropriate acute action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Think sepsis and check symptoms and signs using a local or national tool
Explanation:Management of Acute Confusional State in Elderly Patients
This patient is presenting with an acute confusional state and pyrexia, which is most likely caused by an underlying infection. An anxiolytic is not the appropriate treatment as it doesn’t address the underlying cause. Additionally, oral glucose is not necessary as the patient’s blood sugar is within the normal range. While a cerebrovascular accident should be considered in any elderly patient who is confused, this patient doesn’t exhibit any focal neurological signs and the clinical picture is more consistent with an infective cause. Therefore, administering aspirin is not recommended.
For elderly patients over 65 years old, a urine dipstick test should not be performed. Instead, healthcare providers should use the PINCH ME method to exclude other causes of delirium. In cases of an acutely confused, pyrexial, elderly patient, sepsis should be considered and managed accordingly.
When it comes to urinary tract infections, antibiotics should only be prescribed when appropriate. Factors such as the severity of symptoms, the presence of complicating factors, and the likelihood of bacterial infection should be taken into account before prescribing antibiotics. Overuse of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, so it is important to use them judiciously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal impaction. Despite receiving lactulose therapy, there has been no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrogol
Explanation:The primary treatment for faecal impaction and loading is macrogols.
Understanding Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.
After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.
In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Which option is the most effective in lowering LDL cholesterol?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pravastatin 10 mg daily
Explanation:Understanding Statin Intensity and LDL Cholesterol Reduction
Statins are a class of drugs that can have varying effects on reducing LDL cholesterol levels, depending on the specific statin used and its dosage. Low intensity statins typically reduce LDL cholesterol by 20-30%, while medium intensity statins can reduce it by 31-40%. High intensity statins, on the other hand, can produce a reduction greater than 40%.
To be considered a high intensity statin, a drug must cause an approximate 55% reduction in LDL cholesterol. Atorvastatin 80 mg daily is the only option listed that meets this criteria. The other options are either low or medium intensity, exerting a lesser effect on LDL cholesterol reduction.
Understanding the efficacy of different statins and dosages is important in determining which treatment options are recommended in guidelines and what results can be expected. The statin intensity table provided by NHS England is a helpful tool for comparing statins and their dosages in terms of their intensity. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old dairy farmer's son has been experiencing diarrhoea for 7 days. A stool sample is sent and it comes back positive for Cryptosporidium.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He can expect the diarrhoea to last longer with possible relapses
Explanation:Cryptosporidiosis is a type of infection caused by Cryptosporidium species, which are parasites that live inside cells and can affect both humans and animals. This illness is a significant cause of diarrhea worldwide, especially in young children and people with weakened immune systems. In the UK, there are around 5000-6000 cases reported each year. The infection can be spread through direct contact with infected livestock or people, or through contaminated food or water. Symptoms can last for up to a month, with over a third of patients experiencing a relapse. However, healthy individuals typically recover without treatment, although rehydration is important. People with cryptosporidiosis should avoid swimming pools for two weeks, but can return to nursery after 48 hours of symptom resolution. Routine hygiene measures are sufficient to prevent further spread of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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An 83 year old man presents to your clinic complaining of a painful and swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint on his right foot for the past four days. He has a medical history of hypertension, osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and hiatus hernia. Laboratory results reveal:
- Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.6 mmol/l
- Urea: 12 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 140 µmol/l
- Uric acid: 300 µmol/l (normal range: 200-420µmol/l)
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:The individual is experiencing a sudden and severe attack of gout. Despite this, their uric acid levels may appear normal as the acid is confined to the joint space. Allopurinol is effective in preventing gout but should not be administered during an acute flare-up. NSAIDs are not recommended due to the individual’s ischemic heart disease, renal dysfunction, and hiatus hernia.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A father asks for some advice regarding the hearing test result of his 6-month-old baby. He tells you that he was told that the baby's hearing was 'not clear' in both ears when it was tested at the pediatrician's office. He says that the hearing test was repeated at the office and the repeat test gave the same result.
You check the clinical record and the screening result sent to the office confirms 'not clear' responses in both ears on both screening tests. He says that he was given some information at the time about the result of the hearing test but cannot remember what was said and cannot find the leaflet he was given.
Which of the following should you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can be reassured that even with 'not clear' responses in both ears then the baby will be very unlikely have a hearing problem
Explanation:Newborn Hearing Screening in the UK
The newborn hearing screening is a routine test that takes place shortly after birth in hospitals across the UK. If a clear response is found in both ears, no further action is needed. However, if there is not a clear response in both ears, further testing may be required. The screening programmes differ between England, Scotland, and Wales. In Wales, a clear response in one ear doesn’t automatically prompt further investigation, but parents are given the option to have another hearing screening test or wait until their baby is nine months old for a hearing test. In England and Scotland, further testing is automatically arranged if there is a clear response in only one ear.
For newborns with ‘not clear’ responses bilaterally, further testing is necessary to determine if there is a significant hearing deficit. It is important to note that early detection and intervention for hearing loss can greatly improve a child’s language and communication skills. The UK National Screening Committee provides more information on newborn hearing screening across the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annually
Explanation:Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, her peak flow is measured at 300 l/min (normally 450 l/min) and she is able to speak in full sentences. Her pulse is 90 bpm and her respiratory rate is 18 / min. Upon chest examination, bilateral expiratory wheezing is detected, but there are no other notable findings. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nebulised salbutamol + prednisolone + allow home if settles with follow-up review
Explanation:Asthma Assessment and Management in Primary Care
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. In primary care, patients with acute asthma are stratified into moderate, severe, or life-threatening categories based on their symptoms. For moderate asthma, treatment involves the use of beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer. If the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is between 50-75%, prednisolone 40-50 mg may also be prescribed.
For severe asthma, admission may be necessary, and oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%. Beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer, and prednisolone 40-50 mg should also be administered. If there is no response to treatment, admission is recommended.
In life-threatening asthma cases, immediate admission should be arranged through a 999 call. Oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%, and nebulized beta 2 agonists (e.g. Salbutamol) + ipratropium should be administered. Prednisolone 40-50 mg or IV hydrocortisone 100 mg may also be prescribed.
In summary, the management of asthma in primary care involves stratifying patients based on their symptoms and administering appropriate treatment based on their category. It is important to closely monitor patients and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent exacerbations and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis. He is concerned that he might also have the condition and wants to undergo a blood test to confirm.
Initially, you order an iron study profile that includes ferritin, transferrin saturation, and total iron binding capacity (TIBC).
Which of the following blood test outcomes is most probable to suggest that John has the same ailment as Robert?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised transferrin saturation, raised ferritin, low TIBC
Explanation:To diagnose haemochromatosis, it is important to assess the patient’s risk factors and perform tests to determine their susceptibility. This includes evaluating their family history, age, and gender. Additionally, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be measured, and HFE mutation analysis may be recommended after genetic counselling.
In haemochromatosis, transferrin saturation and ferritin levels are typically elevated, while TIBC is low. Serum ferritin is a highly sensitive test for iron overload in this condition, and normal levels essentially rule out iron overload. However, it has low specificity, as elevated levels can also be caused by other conditions such as diabetes, alcohol consumption, and liver damage.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 37 weeks of pregnancy complaining of urinary frequency and urgency. She reports feeling generally well, with good fetal movements and no vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are within normal limits, with a temperature of 37.4ºC, heart rate of 85 bpm, respiratory rate of 18/min, and blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.
Upon performing a urine dipstick test, leukocytes are detected while nitrites, blood, and ketones are absent.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with seven days of amoxicillin
Explanation:For a pregnant woman in the third trimester with a UTI, the recommended antibiotic treatment is amoxicillin for seven days. Nitrofurantoin is the first-line antibiotic, but it should be avoided later in pregnancy due to potential harm to the baby. Cefalexin is also an appropriate second-line option. It is important to obtain a urine sample for testing before starting treatment and to confirm cure with a follow-up test. Hospital admission is not necessary unless there are signs of sepsis or pyelonephritis or pregnancy complications. Empirical therapy should be initiated promptly, and treatment can be adjusted based on sensitivity results if necessary.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with Tourette's and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents to you with concerns about intermittent chest pain on exertion. He drinks 21 units of alcohol per week and smokes 20 cigarettes a day. His father died of a myocardial infarction at the age of 56 years. You refer him for suspected angina, provide advice on what to do if he experiences chest pain, and prescribe a GTN spray for use as needed. While prescribing the GTN spray, you notice a medication on his prescription list that he should avoid taking while being investigated for chest pain or using the GTN spray. What medication is this referring to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:Sildenafil, a type of PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be used together with nitrates and nicorandil due to potential risks of significant hypotension and myocardial infarction. On the other hand, there are no known interactions between nitrates and metformin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, or atorvastatin according to the BNF.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Which of the following results is atypical in a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and livedo reticularis. Additionally, thrombocytopenia is a common feature of this syndrome.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.
Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic hepatitis B. The mother's recent test results indicate:
HBsAg Positive
HBeAg Positive
What is the best approach to decrease the rate of vertical transmission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Explanation:Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention
During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a woman is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, her baby should receive a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Studies are currently being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.
There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the transmission rates of hepatitis B from mother to baby. It is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. Therefore, mothers with hepatitis B can safely breastfeed their babies without fear of transmission.
Overall, screening for hepatitis B during pregnancy and taking appropriate preventative measures can greatly reduce the risk of transmission from mother to baby. It is important for healthcare providers to educate pregnant women about the importance of screening and prevention to ensure the health and safety of both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy. Routine blood testing reveals hypochromic microcytic anaemia with a low ferritin. Her haemoglobin level is 100 g/l. She has had no symptoms of abnormal bleeding, indigestion or change in bowel habit and there is no medication use of note. She is still menstruating and regards her menstrual loss as normal. She has a normal diet and there have been no recent foreign trips. Faecal occult blood tests are negative. There is no family history of colorectal cancer. Abdominal examination is normal.
What is most appropriate for this stage in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure tissue transglutaminase antibody
Explanation:Recommended Actions for Patients with Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Here are some recommended actions for patients with this condition:
Screen for Coeliac Disease: All patients with iron deficiency anaemia should be screened for coeliac disease using coeliac serology, which involves measuring the presence of anti-endomysial antibody or tissue transglutaminase antibody.
Refer for Gastrointestinal Investigations: Men of any age with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l or below, as well as women who are not menstruating with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l or below, should be urgently referred for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations. For other patients, referral for gastrointestinal investigation will depend on the haemoglobin level and clinical findings.
Prescribe Iron Supplements: Treatment for iron deficiency anaemia should begin with oral ferrous sulphate 200 mg tablets two or three times a day. Doctors should not wait for investigations to be carried out before prescribing iron supplements.
Check Vitamin B12 and Folate Levels: Vitamin B12 and folate levels should be checked if the anaemia is normocytic with a low or normal ferritin level, there is an inadequate response to iron supplements, vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is suspected, or the patient is in an older age bracket.
Avoid Inappropriate Tests: Pelvic ultrasound examination is not necessary for patients with iron deficiency anaemia unless they have gynaecological symptoms.
By following these recommended actions, patients with iron deficiency anaemia can receive timely and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus. She is unable to tolerate metformin and so takes sitagliptin. Given her poor control, pioglitazone is added. She has read some information online about pioglitazone and would like some more information.
What is the best advice you can provide her about the potential effects of pioglitazone use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitoring of liver function advisable
Explanation:Important Considerations for the Use of Pioglitazone in Diabetes Management
Pioglitazone is a medication approved for the treatment of poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus. It can be used alone or in combination with other medications, including metformin or sulphonylurea, or with insulin. However, there are several important considerations to keep in mind when using pioglitazone.
Liver function monitoring is advisable before starting treatment and periodically thereafter due to rare reports of liver dysfunction. Pioglitazone should not be used during pregnancy due to demonstrated toxicity in animal studies. Additionally, it is associated with a small increased risk of bladder cancer and should not be used in those with active bladder cancer, a history of bladder cancer, or those under investigation for haematuria.
While pioglitazone can be prescribed together with metformin as second-line management for diabetes, it should not be used in patients with heart failure or a history of heart failure. The incidence of heart failure is increased when pioglitazone is combined with insulin, especially in patients with predisposing illness such as myocardial infarction.
In summary, pioglitazone can be a useful medication for diabetes management, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits and monitor patients appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.
As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G1A2
Explanation:A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.
CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.
Which of the following features would suggest that further investigation or specialist referral is necessary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unilateral wheeze
Explanation:Unilateral Wheeze and Poor Asthma Control
All the symptoms of asthma are present, but a peak flow of less than 300 indicates poor control. However, a unilateral wheeze may indicate a foreign body or tumor, especially in children. Therefore, further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the wheeze.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with high blood pressure visits his GP for a check-up. His blood pressure has been consistently high, with a reading of 154/82 during his last visit. The GP arranged for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, which showed an average daytime blood pressure of 140/88 mmHg. Despite being on the highest dose of ramipril, his blood pressure remains elevated. What would be the most suitable second-line medication to add?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:In cases of poorly controlled hypertension where the patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the updated NICE guidelines (2019) recommend adding a calcium-channel blocker (CCB) or a thiazide-like diuretic like indapamide as the next step. If the patient’s potassium levels are greater than 4.5 mmol/L, bisoprolol and doxazosin can be added as 4th line agents for those with resistant hypertension. On the other hand, spironolactone can be added as a 4th line agent when potassium levels are lower than 4.5 mmol/L.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 72
Incorrect
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As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how frequently should lithium levels be monitored once a stable dose has been attained?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Every 3 months
Explanation:Once a stable dose has been achieved, lithium levels need to be monitored every 3 months.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Mrs. Waller, a patient with type 2 diabetes, comes to discuss her latest HbA1c result. It has gone up to 66 mmol/mol since the last check. She is already taking metformin and gliclazide. You advise adding in a third blood glucose lowering drug, and agree on trying canagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor. You counsel her that it will cause a slight increase in urine volume and risk of urinary and genital infections, including rare reports of Fournier's gangrene, but that it can have beneficial side effects of weight loss and possibly improves cardiovascular outcomes. You also mention that the MHRA have issued an alert about an uncommon but important possible hazard of treatment with SGLT2 inhibitors.
What specific aspect of routine diabetes care is crucial in preventing or detecting this potential side effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foot check
Explanation:Patients taking canagliflozin should have their legs and feet closely monitored for ulcers or infection due to the possible increased risk of amputation. It is important for these patients to attend regular foot checks and practice good foot care. Eye screening, influenza vaccination, and shingles vaccination are not affected by SGLT2 inhibitors and should be attended as normal.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fracture risk
Explanation:The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling, redness, and tingling after consuming apples for the past 2 months. The symptoms appear suddenly and last for approximately half an hour. However, they do not occur when the apples are cooked. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hayfever, and several food allergies, including peanuts, brazil nuts, and cashews.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Food allergy symptoms usually involve nausea and diarrhea, regardless of whether the allergen has been cooked or not. However, oral allergy syndrome is a specific type of reaction that causes tingling in the lips, tongue, and mouth after consuming raw plant foods like spinach or apples. This reaction doesn’t occur when the food is cooked. Patients with this syndrome often have a history of atopic diseases like asthma. Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, presents with wheezing, hives, low blood pressure, and even collapse. Angioedema, which is swelling of the upper airway’s submucosa, is usually caused by ACE inhibitors or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency and may be accompanied by urticaria.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with an episode of diarrhoea followed by jaundice.
Select the single most likely pathogen.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A virus
Explanation:Hepatitis A: A Self-Limiting Liver Infection
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that causes acute and self-limiting hepatitis. It is often preceded by flu-like symptoms and a brief diarrheal illness, especially in children. Unlike other forms of hepatitis, there is no chronic viral carriage or long-term liver damage associated with hepatitis A. The virus is transmitted orally and has an incubation period of 2 to 6 weeks. The most common mode of transmission is through the ingestion of contaminated food or water that has been contaminated with fecal matter from an infected person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man was diagnosed with a melanoma six weeks after being referred to the Dermatology Department by his General Practitioner (GP). His friends call his GP, concerned that he has withdrawn to his room over the last four weeks, has stopped playing basketball, has appeared to lose weight, and has missed his hospital appointments. There is a letter in his medical records informing the practice that he has missed two surgery appointments.
He later attends the surgery with a friend. He is dressed scruffily and doesn't make eye contact during your conversation. His Patient Health Questionnaire-9 score is 15.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Major depression
Explanation:Mental Health Issues in Young Cancer Patients: Understanding the Symptoms
Young cancer patients often experience mental health issues that can affect their treatment, survival, and quality of life. Depression and anxiety are common, affecting up to 20% and 10% of patients, respectively. In diagnosing major depression, symptoms such as depressed mood, diminished interest in activities, and significant weight changes are present. Brain metastases typically present with symptoms such as headaches, seizures, or neurological disease, which this patient doesn’t have. Acute psychotic reactions involve symptoms of delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorders, which are not present in this case. Phobic anxiety disorder involves anxiety out of proportion with the threat posed, which is not present in this patient. PTSD involves recurrent intrusive thoughts about a traumatic event, which this patient doesn’t exhibit. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and treatment for young cancer patients with mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has severe athlete's foot. His toenail is also infected. He is taking griseofulvin. He tells you that he has read something about fathering children when taking this drug.
Which of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should not father a child within six months of finishing griseofulvin
Explanation:Medications to Avoid for Prospective Fathers
When prescribing medication, it is crucial to consider the potential effects on both men and women who may be trying to conceive. While women are often advised to avoid certain drugs during pregnancy, it is easy to overlook the impact on prospective fathers. For instance, men taking griseofulvin should not father a child during treatment and for six months afterward.
It is important to be aware of other medications that may present problems for men who are trying to conceive. While not an exhaustive list, some examples include chemotherapy drugs, certain antibiotics, and medications for autoimmune disorders. It is essential to discuss these risks with male patients and encourage them to inform their healthcare provider if they are trying to conceive. By taking these precautions, we can help ensure the health and well-being of both parents and their future children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman began to stumble when walking. Her right leg was slightly stiff and weak, especially after exercise and hot showers. These symptoms developed over 3 days and gradually disappeared over 4 weeks. She was on the college swimming team before these symptoms arose. There, she developed a unique and extreme type of fatigue that was different from the usual fatigue she experienced when swimming. This disappeared after several weeks, but reappeared again 6 months before her current presentation.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Sclerosis and its Symptoms
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that often presents with symptoms that worsen with exercise and heat, and profound fatigue. These symptoms are not consistent with chronic fatigue syndrome, as MS symptoms are separated by time and can vary in intensity. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, and diabetic neuropathy tend to have symmetrical neurological impairment, which is not typical of MS.
Fatigue is a common symptom experienced by about 70% of MS patients. It is different from regular tiredness or exhaustion and is often out of proportion to any activity performed. Primary fatigue is caused by MS itself, while secondary fatigue is caused by other factors that affect MS patients more than those without the condition, such as depression, pain, and sleep disturbance. Understanding the symptoms of MS can help patients manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 5-year-old daughter into surgery as she suspects she may have head lice. Which of the following statements about head lice is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children should be excluded from school until treatment has been started
Explanation:It is not recommended to exclude children from school due to head lice.
Understanding Head Lice: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs, which are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead, are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits, on the other hand, are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.
Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. It is important to note that head lice cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.
To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. It is important to note that school exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of head lice is crucial in preventing its spread. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, we can effectively manage this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine check up following a car accident. He claims he did not see a cyclist emerging from a road to his left while driving his car. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to bumping into door frames in his house more frequently than usual, but attributes it to his general clumsiness. His medical history includes hypertension, which is managed with ramipril, and erectile dysfunction, for which he has recently been prescribed sildenafil. During the examination, he displays bilateral peripheral field visual loss. What would be the most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent pituitary MRI
Explanation:Pituitary Tumour and Peripheral Vision Loss
The combination of peripheral visual field loss and erectile dysfunction is a cause for concern as it may indicate the presence of a pituitary tumour. While pituitary function tests are important, the urgent need to protect the patient’s sight requires an immediate pituitary MRI scan to check for possible compression of the optic chiasma. The availability of this scan may vary depending on local arrangements, but it is crucial to understand the necessary steps to take in order to act accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion. She is interested in getting an intra-uterine device inserted. What is the recommended waiting period after a surgical termination of pregnancy before getting an IUD fitted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An intra-uterine device can be fitted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity
Explanation:The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare recommends that an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted right after the evacuation of the uterine cavity following a surgical abortion, provided that it is the woman’s preferred method of contraception.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He is shivering and writhing in pain on the trolley. Despite previous investigations for abdominal pain, no cause has been found. The patient insists that he will harm himself unless he is given morphine for the pain. Which of the following best describes this behavior?
Hypochondrial disorder
4%
Conversion disorder
3%
Malingering
73%
Munchausen's syndrome
11%
Somatisation disorder
10%
Is it appropriate to label this patient as malingering, considering that he may be an opiate abuser experiencing withdrawal symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Fabricating or inflating symptoms for financial benefit is known as malingering, such as an individual who feigns whiplash following a car accident in order to receive an insurance payout.
This can be challenging as the individual may be experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid abuse. Nevertheless, among the given choices, the most suitable term to describe the situation is malingering since the individual is intentionally reporting symptoms to obtain morphine.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 84
Incorrect
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What substance can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:MAOIs and Paracetamol: Safe Combination
Paracetamol is a safe medication to take with MAOIs. However, it is important to avoid other drugs, foodstuffs, and alcoholic beverages that can trigger the cheese reaction. This reaction can be caused by consuming food high in tyramine, which is listed in the accompanying leaflet of the prescribed drug. It is worth noting that MAOIs are not commonly prescribed in general practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea, diarrhoea and headache. On examination the patient looks unwell and has red/bluish petechiae on the extensor surfaces of both legs that do not blanch on pressure.
Select the single most important immediate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Prehospital Antibiotic Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Infection
Health authorities in many countries recommend that general practitioners initiate prehospital antibiotic treatment, such as benzylpenicillin, in suspected cases of meningococcal infection. The primary objective of this strategy is to halt the rapid growth of meningococci in the bloodstream before intravascular inflammation becomes irreversible or causes severe complications. Patients who live far from the hospital and experience rapidly progressing symptoms, resulting in compromised circulation and extensive haemorrhagic skin lesions, are most likely to benefit from this approach if implemented early enough. Retrospective studies conducted in England and Wales indicate that prehospital penicillin treatment can reduce case fatality. In cases of penicillin allergy, cefotaxime is a viable alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up of his atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation and it was successful.
The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. His most recent blood pressure reading was 150/92 mmHg.
What is the optimal approach for managing his anticoagulation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term
Explanation:Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation must continue with long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. According to the guidelines of the American College of Cardiology, the decision to discontinue anticoagulation after two months of catheter ablation should be based on the patient’s stroke risk profile, not on the outcome of the procedure. There is no published evidence that it is safe to stop anticoagulation after ablation if the CHA2DS2-Vasc score is equal to or greater than 1. Therefore, in the given scenario, since the CHA2DS2-VASc score indicates moderate to high risk (3 points), anticoagulation should be continued.
Although monitoring heart rhythm is crucial due to the risk of recurrence, anticoagulation should still be continued even if the patient remains in sinus rhythm. Blood pressure readings do not provide any indication to stop anticoagulation.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother from cancer of the colon. She is anxious to know the risks of familial tendency, and would like access to her mother's records.
You know this young woman was fathered by someone else (not her mother's husband) who still lives in the village, but this fact is unknown to her. Her mother stipulated before death that her records should be confidential.
In accordance with the access to medical records act of 1990, which one of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You may not charge a fee for access
Explanation:Confidentiality of Deceased Person’s Information
When dealing with the records of a deceased person, it is important to respect their wishes regarding the disclosure of information. If the deceased person had explicitly stated that certain information should remain confidential, or if the record contains sensitive information that the deceased person expected to remain private, then it must be kept confidential.
However, if the mother of the deceased person requests that certain information be kept confidential, then the rest of the records can be released. It is up to the record holder to make a judgement call on whether the information could be harmful to the applicant or if it would identify a third party. In any case, it is crucial to handle the information with care and respect the wishes of the deceased person and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 88
Incorrect
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Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells you that his wife is concerned about his family history of bowel cancer.
On questioning, Tom denies any history of abdominal discomfort, changes in bowel habit or rectal bleeding. He is generally fit and well, and rarely attends your surgery.
Which one of the following is the single most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take a full family history
Explanation:Understanding Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer
Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. If you or a family member have been diagnosed with HNPCC, it is important to take the necessary precautions to manage the risk.
If you are a reluctant clinic-attendee, it is important to take your concerns seriously. Reassurance should not be given prematurely without knowing the full family history, including the ages of cancer diagnoses. A full family history can help determine if there is evidence of a genetic susceptibility. The modified Amsterdam criteria are widely recognized for assessing this risk.
It is important to understand the clinical presentation of HNPCC and to take proactive measures to manage the risk. By working with healthcare professionals and staying informed, individuals with HNPCC can take steps to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2 diabetes mellitus last year. After shedding some weight and taking metformin, his HbA1c has dropped from 74 mmol/mol (8.9%) to 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What would be the most appropriate course of action for further management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add pioglitazone
Explanation:The most suitable choice for him would be Pioglitazone as it doesn’t pose a risk of hypoglycemia, which could be hazardous considering his profession. Additionally, the utilization of a DPP-4 inhibitor (such as sitagliptin or vildagliptin) would be supported by the NICE guidelines in this scenario.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking 10 mg of ramipril once a day, 10 mg of amlodipine once a day, indapamide 2.5 mg once a day, 500mg of Metformin twice a day, co-codamol PRN and atorvastatin 20 mg at night.
During her visit to the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is consistently elevated and today it is 160/98 mmHg. As per the NICE guidelines, you want to initiate another medication to help lower her BP. Her K+ level is 4.2 mmol/l.
What would be the most suitable additional medication to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The patient is suffering from poorly controlled hypertension despite being on three medications, including an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. If the patient’s potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l, the next step would be to add spironolactone to their treatment plan. However, if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, a higher dose of thiazide-like diuretic treatment should be considered. It is important to note that bendroflumethiazide is not suitable in this case as the patient is already taking indapamide, and chlortalidone is also a thiazide-like diuretic and should not be added. Additionally, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should not be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A six-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a two-day history of red eyes. There was no known injury to her eyes. She has clear discharge from both eyes and no symptoms of a cold. Upon examination, her visual acuity is normal, but both upper eyelids are swollen and the conjunctiva is red bilaterally. There is no lymphadenopathy and she is not running a fever. You suspect she has acute infective conjunctivitis.
What is the best course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise his symptoms should improve within 7 days without treatment
Explanation:Antimicrobial treatment is often unnecessary for most cases of infective conjunctivitis, regardless of whether it is caused by a virus or bacteria. It can be challenging to differentiate between the two, although bacterial conjunctivitis may present with purulent discharge instead of watery discharge. Patients can alleviate symptoms with self-care measures such as cold compresses and ocular lubricants. If symptoms persist after seven days, patients should seek further medical attention. In severe cases of suspected bacterial conjunctivitis, chloramphenicol ointment can be purchased over the counter, while fusidic acid may be used as a second-line antimicrobial. Herpetic conjunctivitis, which causes a painful red eye with vesicular eyelid lesions, can be treated with aciclovir. Swabs are not useful in diagnosing conjunctivitis.
Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping abdominal pain of several months’ duration. She underwent a hysterectomy and radiotherapy 2 years ago for endometrial carcinoma.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic radiation enteropathy
Explanation:Chronic Radiation Enteropathy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Chronic radiation enteropathy is a progressive disease that can occur months or even years after radiation therapy. It is characterized by transmural bowel damage, obliterative endarteritis, and altered intestinal transit, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea (which may be blood-stained), malabsorption, and dysmotility. Patients with a history of pelvic or abdominal radiation therapy are at risk for developing chronic radiation enteropathy, which can lead to intestinal obstruction, fistula formation, or perforation. Corrective surgery is associated with high morbidity and mortality, and long-term symptoms are common.
Diagnosis of chronic radiation enteropathy is based on the persistence of symptoms for three or more months following irradiation. Differential diagnosis includes irritable bowel syndrome, lymphoma, pseudomembranous colitis, and ulcerative colitis. However, the history of pelvic radiation is a key factor in distinguishing chronic radiation enteropathy from other conditions. While irritable bowel syndrome may cause diarrhea, blood in the stool is not a typical symptom. Lymphoma and ulcerative colitis may also present with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain, but the history of radiation therapy makes chronic radiation enteropathy more likely. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by infection with Clostridium difficile and is not typically associated with bloody stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
Samantha is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Samantha has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet.
What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Samantha?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms
Explanation:If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she doesn’t have a uterus.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite regular intercourse for 9 months. The patient is in good health and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Menstrual periods have always been irregular, with months between menses. The patient's BMI is 20 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable.
Semen analysis shows normal results. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
Reference Range (female)
Day 21 progesterone (nmol/L) 16 >30
LH (mUI/mL) 22 3.3-100
FSH (mUI/mL) 8 <30
Total testosterone (nmol/L) 3.6 <2.7
Prolactin (mIU/L) 325 <700
SHBG (nmol/L) 20 19-145
What is the most appropriate initial step to enhance the couple's chances of conceiving?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:Couples, including those with fertility issues, have a 15-20% chance of conceiving naturally within a year through regular unprotected sexual intercourse. However, this patient’s PCOS condition, which causes ovulation insufficiency, may prolong the process. Hence, a referral is necessary for assistance, and treatment with clomifene to stimulate ovulation would be suitable.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.
Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting to discuss any problems and there are many questions from all members of staff.
Which one of the following statements about confidentiality is correct?
Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting to discuss any problems and there are many questions from all members of staff.
Which one of the following statements about confidentiality is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The rules about the confidentiality of data do not legally apply to emails
Explanation:Confidentiality of Data: Applicable to All Storage and Transmission Methods
The confidentiality of data is a crucial aspect of information security. It is important to note that the rules regarding data confidentiality apply to all means of storage and transmission, whether it is done manually or electronically. This means that regardless of how data is stored or sent, it must be kept confidential and protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. Therefore, it is essential to implement appropriate security measures to ensure the confidentiality of data, such as encryption, access controls, and secure transmission protocols.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic for a consultation. He recently had a splenectomy following a sports injury and wants to know what this means for him.
For how long is he at risk of pneumococcal infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: > 10 years
Explanation:Understanding the Lifelong Risk of Infection After Splenectomy
Splenectomy, the surgical removal of the spleen, is a common procedure for various medical conditions. However, it comes with a lifelong risk of overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), which can be fatal. The risk of OPSI is highest in the first year after surgery, but it remains a lifelong complication.
The most common causative organism is the pneumococcus, but other bacteria, viruses, and parasites can also cause severe infections. Children and patients with immunosuppressive disorders are at the greatest risk, but even those who underwent splenectomy due to trauma carry a lifelong susceptibility.
To reduce the risk of infection, patients should receive vaccinations against pneumococcus, meningococcus, Haemophilus influenza, and influenza. These immunizations should be given before or after the surgery, and additional doses may be needed. Lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended.
Infections related to splenectomy can occur early on, but they can also occur many years after the procedure. The risk of infection doesn’t significantly decrease even five years post-splenectomy. Therefore, patients should be aware of the lifelong risk of infection and take necessary precautions to prevent OPSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of intense pain radiating through her left sciatic nerve, which is not being managed by her current pain medication. The pain is so severe that it is disrupting her sleep. She has recently been diagnosed with spinal metastases from a primary breast cancer. She has been prescribed 20 mg oral morphine sulphate twice daily for her back pain. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add 10 mg amitriptyline at night and increase the dose if tolerated after three to seven days
Explanation:Managing Pain in Palliative Care: Medication Recommendations
When it comes to managing pain in palliative care, there are several medication options available. For neuropathic pain, amitriptyline is recommended as a starting dose of 10-25 mg at night, with the option to increase after three to seven days. Tricyclic antidepressants can also be used alongside standard analgesics for mixed pain.
Liquid oral morphine can be added as needed, with a starting dose of 5 ml and no more than a dose every two hours. If the patient requires further morphine, titrating the dose with liquid morphine is recommended.
While non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents like naproxen can be used for pain management, they are not first-line for neuropathic pain. Sedating benzodiazepines like diazepam are not recommended for neuropathic pain, but may be used for sleeping problems or anxiety.
Overall, a combination of medication options may be necessary to effectively manage pain in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 98
Incorrect
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How should folic acid be prescribed for elderly patients taking methotrexate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once weekly at least 24 hours after methotrexate dose
Explanation:According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, methotrexate is typically prescribed once a week and is often accompanied by a co-prescription of folic acid. This is done to minimize the risk of adverse effects and toxicity. Folic acid is taken on a day when methotrexate is not being taken. The British National Formulary recommends a weekly dose of 5mg for adults to prevent methotrexate-induced side effects in rheumatic disease. It is important to take the folic acid dose on a different day than the methotrexate dose.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after a prolonged period of heavy drinking. He reports experiencing moderate withdrawal symptoms in the past, but has never had seizures or delirium tremens. His wife is supportive and he is in good health. What is the most suitable medication to use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal program?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Medications for Alcohol Withdrawal: Types and Uses
Alcohol withdrawal can be a challenging process, and medications are often used to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some common medications used for alcohol withdrawal:
Chlordiazepoxide: This long-acting benzodiazepine is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in people with moderate alcohol dependence.
Lorazepam: For people with liver impairment, lorazepam is suggested as it requires limited liver metabolism. It is also used intravenously for alcohol withdrawal seizures.
Acamprosate: This medication is effective in preventing relapse in patients with alcohol dependence.
Clomethiazole: While licensed for use in acute alcohol withdrawal, benzodiazepines are preferred. Clomethiazole should only be used in an inpatient setting and not prescribed if the patient is likely to continue drinking alcohol.
Haloperidol: Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be prescribed as adjunctive therapy to benzodiazepines for patients with marked agitation or hallucinations and those at risk of delirium tremens.
It is important to note that these medications should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and in conjunction with other forms of treatment, such as therapy and support groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 101
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.
Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types
Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.
Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.
Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.
Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two years, states that he drinks alcohol on his way into work as he suffers from anxiety attacks.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding his anxiety?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and after initial worsening with withdrawal usually will improve after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol
Explanation:Understanding Mild Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms
This individual is struggling with alcohol dependence and is currently experiencing anxiety during the morning withdrawal period. Anxiety is a common symptom of mild alcohol withdrawal, which can also lead to agitation, fever, sweats, and tremors. While alcohol initially provides relief for these symptoms, continued abstinence can cause them to peak after approximately 72 hours and last for up to a week or more. However, most patients find that these symptoms have resolved within three weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 103
Incorrect
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The wife of a middle-aged patient has called the clinic for guidance. Her husband has fallen down the stairs and suffered a head injury. You gather information about the fall and the patient's present state.
She owns a car, and their neighbor has offered to take him to the hospital if necessary.
As per NICE guidance CG176, which of the following details in the history would prompt you to recommend transfer to the hospital emergency department via the emergency ambulance service (i.e., 999 response):Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient has difficulties with understanding
Explanation:NICE Guidance on prehospital Management of Head Injury
NICE has issued guidance on the management of head injury, including prehospital management for health professionals who may be giving advice about attending the emergency department and whether to travel by 999 ambulance. Patients should be transferred to the emergency department by emergency ambulance service if they have any of the following: unconsciousness or lack of full consciousness, any focal neurological deficit since the injury, any suspicion of a skull fracture or penetrating head injury, any seizure since the injury, a high-energy head injury, or the injured person or their carer is incapable of transporting the injured person safely to the hospital emergency department without the use of ambulance services. A focal neurological deficit is defined as a problem restricted to a particular part of the body or activity. It is important to identify patients who should attend the hospital emergency department, those who should be advised to transfer by the emergency ambulance service, and those who may simply need transfer by the ambulance service. Health professionals should be familiar with the definition of certain terms, such as focal neurological deficit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 104
Incorrect
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For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan
Explanation:Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.
To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.
Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
The school had spoken to them because despite good educational progress they had noticed that she spends a lot of time on her own and doesn't really make friends with the other children or engage in group activities. She has quite restricted interests both at home and at school. The parents report that she has 'always been like this' and that at home she likes to read and write a lot but other than that doesn't really engage and play with other children.
During the consultation the child seems to have appropriate language skills and be of normal intelligence but doesn't engage fully with your attempts at conversation and play, and avoids eye contact with you.
What is the likely underlying problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asperger's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Asperger’s Syndrome
Asperger’s Syndrome is a type of autism that affects social interaction, behavior patterns, and interests. However, unlike other forms of autism, individuals with Asperger’s have normal or even above-average language and intelligence skills. This condition is characterized by impaired social skills, repetitive behavior, and restricted interests.
On the other hand, Childhood Disintegrative Disorder is a rare condition that affects less than 5 in 10,000 children. It is characterized by the sudden loss of acquired skills in motor, language, and social development between the ages of 3 and 4. The cause of this disorder is still unknown.
A mood disorder is not likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms, given their age and general features. Meanwhile, Rett’s Syndrome is an X-linked disorder that primarily affects females. It typically occurs between 6 and 18 months of age and is characterized by developmental regression, loss of motor skills, and loss of social and language skills. Other symptoms such as spasticity and seizures may also develop, leading to significant disability.
In summary, understanding the differences between Asperger’s Syndrome and other developmental disorders is crucial in providing appropriate support and interventions for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. She had a right mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging brain (MRI) and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis are normal.
What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s ataxia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, cerebellum metastasis, malignant meningitis, and multiple sclerosis are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is a rare complication of a carcinoma, mediated by antibodies that attack similar proteins on Purkinje cells in the cerebellum. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, usually associated with chronic alcoholism, and has the classic triad of symptoms of mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellum metastasis and malignant meningitis are more likely if there are positive radiological and cytological findings, respectively. Multiple sclerosis is also in the differential diagnosis, but typically shows MRI lesions and CSF abnormalities. A comprehensive evaluation, including a detailed history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies, is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease becomes more breathless and looks anaemic.
Test Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 130-170 g/l
Reticulocyte count 0.85% 0.5%-1.5%
Mean cell volume (MCV) 120.6 fl 82-102 fl
Vitamin B12 90.0 ng/l 130-700 ng/l
Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
He is commenced on injections of hydroxocobalamin with blood tests to be repeated in seven days.
What is the most likely change at 1 week which would suggest that the patient is responding to treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A rise in the reticulocyte count
Explanation:Monitoring Response to Vitamin B12 Treatment in Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a condition caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to a range of symptoms including fatigue, weakness, and neurological problems. Treatment involves intramuscular injections of hydroxocobalamin, with the frequency and duration of treatment depending on the severity of the deficiency.
To monitor the response to treatment, several indicators can be measured. A rise in the reticulocyte count and haemoglobin level within 7-10 days indicates a positive effect. The mean cell volume (MCV) may initially increase due to the increased reticulocyte count, but should return to normal within 25-78 days. Intrinsic factor antibodies may remain present despite treatment. Measuring cobalamin levels is not always necessary, but can be done 1-2 months after starting treatment if there is no response.
Overall, monitoring these indicators can help confirm a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia and ensure that treatment is effective in addressing the deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is seen in surgery with malaise and a rash.
What features would lead you to suspect that this child has measles?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Violaceous papules on the wrists
Explanation:Understanding Koplik Spots in Measles Diagnosis
Koplik spots are a crucial clinical sign of measles infection, named after the American Paediatrician, Henry Koplik, who first described them in 1896. These spots appear as red spots with a bluish-white central dot on erythematous buccal mucosa, often described as looking like grains of salt on a wet background. They typically appear 1-2 days before the rash and may persist for a further 1-2 days afterwards.
It is essential for healthcare professionals to recognize Koplik spots as a pathognomonic feature of measles infection. However, fewer doctors may know how to identify them. Other clinical signs, such as herald patches, sub occipital lymph nodes, oral ulceration, and violaceous papules on the wrist, are not specific to measles and may lead to misdiagnosis.
In addition to accurate diagnosis, infection control measures should be considered in the GP surgery/OOH setting. For example, scheduling appointments for suspected measles patients at the end of surgery to avoid sharing a waiting room with vulnerable individuals. It is also crucial for healthcare workers and carers to ensure they are immune or have received 2 × MMR vaccines themselves to prevent the spread of measles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for treatment of her asthma. She is otherwise well and has no significant previous medical history. During the consultation, it transpires that her sister died of cystic fibrosis and she is worried about having a child affected with the same disease. Her chest X-ray is normal. Her partner has no family history of cystic fibrosis.
Assuming a population carrier frequency of 1 in 25, what is the chance of this patient having an affected child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:Understanding the Probability of Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that affects many individuals worldwide. The probability of inheriting this condition can be calculated based on the carrier status of the parents. Here are some examples of how to calculate the chance of having an affected child with cystic fibrosis:
1. 1 in 150: If one parent has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier and the other has a 1 in 25 chance, the overall chance of having an affected child is 1 in 150.
2. 1 in 10: If one parent has an affected sibling but is not affected themselves (2 in 3 chance of being a carrier), and the other parent has an unknown carrier status, the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 10.
3. 1 in 50: If one parent has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier and the other has a 1 in 25 chance, the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 4. Therefore, the overall chance is 2 in 3 x 1 in 25 x 1 in 4, which equals 1 in 50.
4. 1 in 100: If both parents are carriers (2 in 3 chance for one and 1 in 25 chance for the other), the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 4. Therefore, the overall chance is 2 in 3 x 1 in 25 x 1 in 4, which equals 1 in 100.
5. 1 in 200: The chance of being a carrier is not always 1 in 2, as it depends on the individual’s family history. If one parent has an affected relative but is not affected themselves (2 in 3 chance of being a carrier), the chance of having an affected child with a partner who has a 1 in 25 chance of being a carrier is 1 in 200.
Understanding the probability of cystic fibrosis inheritance can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for follow up; he recently suffered a myocardial infarction (MI). He is a non-smoker with no past medical history of note; he is not diabetic. His father died of a MI aged 43.
His total cholesterol is 10.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.10–4.11 mmol/l). His triglycerides are just above the normal range, while his high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is normal. He has a markedly raised non-HDL cholesterol.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s raised cholesterol?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:There are several types of genetic dyslipidaemia that can cause high levels of cholesterol and/or triglycerides in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. One such condition is heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia, which is caused by mutations in the LDLR gene or the gene for apolipoprotein B. This can result in extremely high levels of cholesterol and VLDL, and may lead to premature coronary heart disease. Familial combined hyperlipidaemia is another common genetic dyslipidaemia that can cause moderate-to-severe mixed hyperlipidaemia and may be polygenic in origin. Familial hypertriglyceridaemia is an autosomal-dominant condition that causes elevated triglyceride levels and is associated with premature coronary disease. Remnant hyperlipidaemia is an autosomal-recessive trait that can cause high levels of both cholesterol and triglycerides, and is often associated with obesity, glucose intolerance, and hyperuricaemia. Finally, there are several secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia, including certain medical conditions, medications, pregnancy, obesity, and alcohol abuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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Among the patients listed below, which one is the most probable candidate for having their Group 1 driving license denied or taken away?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 40-year-old woman who is taking a supra-therapeutic dose of diazepam as part of a benzodiazepine withdrawal programme
Explanation:Benzodiazepines and Driving: Guidelines for Licensing
Benzodiazepines, particularly long-acting ones, are known to impair driving performance, especially when combined with alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) has set guidelines for licensing regarding the use of these drugs.
For Group 1 vehicles, persistent misuse or dependence on benzodiazepines will result in license refusal or revocation until a minimum of one year free of use has been achieved. For Group 2 vehicles, this period is extended to three years. The DVLA may require independent medical assessment and urine screening, as well as a favorable report from a consultant or specialist upon reapplication.
The non-prescribed use of benzodiazepines or the use of supra-therapeutic doses, whether in a substance withdrawal/maintenance program or not, is considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes. However, occasional misuse doesn’t constitute persistent misuse or dependence.
Prescribed use of benzodiazepines at therapeutic doses, without evidence of impairment, is not considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes, although clinical dependence may exist. It is important to note that any patient taking benzodiazepines may become unfit to drive at some point, but the guidelines are clear regarding licensing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to see you because she is concerned about her family history of breast cancer. She has no symptoms at present.
Which of the following family histories should be referred for additional genetic evaluation to determine their risk of developing breast cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A sister who has been diagnosed with breast cancer at 39
Explanation:Factors to Consider for Referral for Genetic Assessment for Breast Cancer
When deciding whether to refer a patient for genetic assessment for breast cancer, several factors need to be considered. These include the age of the patient, their sex, their relationship to the patient, and whether the relative’s breast cancer was bilateral. Additionally, any history of ovarian cancer in first degree relatives should be noted.
For sex, any patient with a first degree male relative with breast cancer at any age should be referred. Age is also an important factor, with a referral recommended for first degree female relatives diagnosed with breast cancer under 40. If their breast cancer was bilateral, referral may be considered if the first primary relative was diagnosed under the age of 50.
When it comes to the number of cases in relatives, focus on first and second degree relatives. If two first degrees or a first and second degree relative are diagnosed at any age, referral is recommended. Finally, a family history of ovarian cancer should also be taken into account. If a first or second degree relative has been diagnosed with breast cancer and another first degree relative has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age, referral for genetic counselling is warranted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student comes to you in January complaining of flu-like symptoms. She has been experiencing an on-and-off fever for the past few weeks, but no other physical symptoms are present. Interestingly, she completed an elective period in India nine months ago. What is the most likely cause of her illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vivax malaria
Explanation:This case highlights the significance of obtaining a thorough travel history when diagnosing illnesses. In this scenario, the patient presented with symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea. While influenza is a common cause of winter illnesses, meningococcal meningitis and trypanosomiasis did not fit the chronology, and cryptosporidium infection typically presents with watery diarrhoea within days of infection.
Upon further investigation, it was discovered that the patient had recently travelled to India, where malaria is prevalent. Falciparum malaria typically presents within three months of infection, but Vivax malaria can take up to a year to manifest. The symptoms of malaria include cyclical fever and chills, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea, and patients may also present with splenomegaly.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to obtain a detailed travel history when evaluating patients with symptoms of infectious diseases. This information can aid in the timely and accurate diagnosis and management of illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes to the clinic with an enlarged and discoloured filiform papillae on his tongue. The upper surface of his tongue appears black in colour, with the tip and sides being spared. Although he has no symptoms, he is worried about the appearance. The patient has no significant medical history, takes no medication, and is in good health. There are no oral cavity or tongue-related focal lesions. What is the best initial management strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide advice on good oral hygiene
Explanation:Black hairy tongue is a harmless condition that causes enlargement and discoloration of the filiform papillae of the tongue, resulting in a hairy appearance. Also known as lingua villosa nigra, this condition can be caused by certain medications, poor oral hygiene, tobacco and alcohol use, colored drinks, dehydration, and hyposalivation. The use of chlorhexidine or peroxidase-containing mouthwashes can also aggravate the condition. However, hairy tongue is typically self-limiting and can be managed by advising good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing, gentle tongue scraping, and avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 65-year old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in his vision over the past month. He reports difficulty reading small print and noticing that straight lines appear distorted. Additionally, he has noticed a grey spot in the center of his vision. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes. Ophthalmoscopy reveals choroidal neovascularization. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:If an individual experiences a combination of age, gradual loss of vision, blurring of small words, and straight lines appearing ‘curvy’, it is important to consider the possibility of age-related macular degeneration. It is possible for visual acuity to remain normal in this case. Wet age-related macular degeneration is characterized by neovascularization.
Acute closed angle glaucoma is typically accompanied by pain, headache, red eye, and the classic symptom of ‘halos around objects’. Retinal artery occlusion is an acute event that usually results in dense central visual loss (if the central retinal artery is occluded) or a sectional visual field defect (if a branch retinal artery is occluded). Diabetic retinopathy is typically seen in individuals with a known diagnosis of diabetes. They may be asymptomatic for a significant period before experiencing symptoms such as floaters, blurring, and distortion. A macular hole presents similarly to age-related macular degeneration, with slow onset central visual loss and sometimes distortion. However, ophthalmoscopy would reveal a well-defined round or oval lesion in the macula with yellow deposits at the base. Choroidal neovascularization is not a characteristic symptom in the scenario described.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old Caucasian lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of left vision becoming wavy and blurry for the past week. She reports that her venetian blinds appear distorted with her left eye. She has no other medical issues. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral
Explanation:Macular Degeneration: A Common Cause of Distorted Vision in Elderly Patients
An elderly patient complaining of wavy distorted vision should raise suspicion of macular degeneration, a common age-related eye condition. There are two types of macular degeneration: dry and wet. Unfortunately, there is no treatment for the dry type, but patients can be advised on good lighting and the use of magnifying glasses to aid their vision. However, patients should be aware that there is a 10% chance of the dry type converting into the more aggressive wet type.
The wet type of macular degeneration can be treated with anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injections, which are given directly into the eye. This treatment aims to stabilize the condition and prevent further loss of central vision. While it is not a cure, a large minority of patients may experience some improvement in their vision. Therefore, it is crucial to refer patients with suspected macular degeneration to an ophthalmologist urgently, as delays may impact the prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thickness of the lesion
Explanation:Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma
Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.
To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.
The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.
In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of a first degree relative of someone with coeliac disease also having the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 50
Explanation:Importance of Testing First Degree Relatives for Coeliac Disease
The prevalence of coeliac disease is high in individuals who have a first degree relative with the condition, with a rate of 1 in 10. This highlights the significance of offering testing to first degree relatives, even if they do not exhibit any symptoms. This recommendation is supported by NICE, as untreated coeliac disease can lead to an increased risk of various diseases, such as lymphoma and gut malignancy. Therefore, early detection and treatment of coeliac disease in first degree relatives can help prevent the development of these serious health complications. It is crucial to raise awareness about the importance of testing for coeliac disease in families with a history of the condition to ensure that individuals receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A parent is concerned about her 9-month-old child’s prominent ears.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delay operation until the age of 8
Explanation:Prominent Ears: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Prominent ears affect a small percentage of the population and are usually inherited. This condition arises due to the lack or malformation of cartilage during ear development in the womb, resulting in abnormal helical folds or lateral growth. While some babies are born with normal-looking ears, the problem may arise within the first three months of life.
Before six months of age, the ear cartilage is soft and can be molded and splinted. However, after this age, surgical correction is the only option. Pinnaplasty or otoplasty can be performed on children from the age of five, but the ideal age for the procedure is around eight years old. This allows enough time to see if the child perceives the condition as a problem, while also avoiding potential teasing or bullying at school.
While some prominent ears may become less visible over time, it is best not to delay corrective procedures. Younger ears tend to produce better results after surgery, and waiting too long may increase the risk of bullying at school. Overall, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment options for prominent ears can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 120
Incorrect
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The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic. They all have atrial fibrillation (AF) and are taking multiple medications.
Which patient should discontinue anticoagulation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An 80-year-old man who has undergone left atrial appendage closure, surgically preventing clots from entering the bloodstream
Explanation:Even after undergoing catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation, patients must continue taking anticoagulants for an extended period based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past eight weeks. He has also experienced fresh rectal bleeding on multiple occasions during this time. The patient has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and haemorrhoids. On examination, his abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, and a normal rectal exam is noted.
What would be the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe loperamide and review in three to four weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Colorectal Cancer
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, individuals under the age of 50 who experience a change in bowel habit to looser and/or more frequent stools, along with rectal bleeding, should be urgently referred for suspected colorectal cancer.
In addition, NICE recommends considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for adults under 50 with rectal bleeding and unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. These referrals should result in an appointment within two weeks to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without any associated bleeding. She has also experienced weight loss and has abdominal pain with malaise and fever. During the examination, she has oral ulcers, sore red eyes and tender nodules on her shins. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa and a vague right iliac fossa mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms and Other Complications
Crohn’s Disease, Appendicular Abscess, Ileocaecal Tuberculosis, Ovarian Cyst, and Ulcerative Colitis are possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with gastrointestinal symptoms and other complications. In women over 60 years of age, Crohn’s disease may even be the most likely diagnosis. This condition can cause episcleritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, vasculitis, gallstones, kidney stones, or abnormal liver function tests. The predominantly right-sided symptoms suggest terminal ileitis, which is more common in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis. Fever can occur in Crohn’s disease due to the inflammatory process, ranging from high fever during acute flare-ups to persistent low-grade fever. Appendicular abscess is a complication of acute appendicitis, causing a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa and fever. Ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant and complications of obstruction, perforation, or malabsorption, especially in the presence of stricture. A large ovarian cyst may be palpable on abdominal examination, but it is unlikely to cause oral ulcers, sore eyes, or erythema nodosum. Ulcerative colitis, which has similar clinical features to Crohn’s disease, is usually diagnosed from the biopsy result following a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. However, rectal bleeding is more common in ulcerative colitis, while fever is more common in Crohn’s disease. A right lower quadrant mass may be seen in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis unless complicated by bowel cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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What is a contraindication for pregnant women receiving the pertussis vaccination to protect their unborn infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaphylactic reaction to neomycin
Explanation:Pertussis Vaccine Information
Most combined vaccine formulations for pertussis contain neomycin. However, the only reason an individual cannot receive the vaccine is if they have an anaphylactic reaction. Boostrix-IPV is an inactivated vaccine that will not be affected by anti-D treatment. Even if a pregnant woman has a feverish illness or suspected whooping cough, the pertussis vaccine should still be offered to provide optimal antibody levels for the baby. Evidence shows that immunization during pregnancy can increase pertussis antibodies in breast milk, potentially protecting the baby from the illness. However, this doesn’t replace the need for the infant to complete the recommended primary immunization schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 55 year-old man with haemophilia A has just become a grandfather. He is curious about the likelihood of his grandson inheriting haemophilia. His daughter's partner is healthy and has no medical history.
What is the probability of his grandson having haemophilia A?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to you with a question about a long-standing visual symptom. He reports having floaters in both eyes for many years, which have remained unchanged. He has no significant medical history and has never had any previous eye problems or visual aids. He denies any other ocular or systemic symptoms.
Upon examination, both eyes appear normal with white and quiet sclera and normal pupillary reactions. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and fundoscopic examination reveals no abnormalities.
What would be the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and advise to seek review if any new or changing symptoms
Explanation:Understanding Floaters: Causes and When to Seek Medical Attention
Floaters are a common occurrence caused by changes in the vitreous gel. If they have been present for a long time, they do not require referral. However, sudden changes in their appearance or density may indicate vitreous haemorrhage or retinal tear, and prompt referral is necessary.
Intermittent floaters are usually not clinically significant, but if other high-risk associations co-exist, such as high myopia, recent intraocular surgery, known diabetic retinopathy, or a family history of retinal detachment, examination is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.5
2 15.1
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A seven-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever, urinary frequency, and dysuria. A urine dipstick test is done on a fresh urine sample which shows positive for nitrites and negative for leucocytes. She has no signs of systemic illness and no abdominal or loin symptoms. The child has been healthy in the past and has never had a urinary tract infection. What is the best initial management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat as a UTI with antibiotic but do not send urine for culture
Explanation:Managing Urinary Tract Infections in Children
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common issue in children, but managing them can be challenging. To effectively manage UTIs in children, it is important to know when to use urine dipstick testing and when to send urine for culture.
In infants and children over 3 months old with suspected UTIs, a urine dipstick test should be performed on a fresh urine sample. If the test is positive for nitrites and negative for leukocytes, antibiotics should be started, and a fresh urine sample should be sent for culture to confirm the diagnosis. The results should be reassessed.
If the dipstick test is positive for nitrites and leukocytes, antibiotics should be started for a UTI. Urine should only be sent for culture if the child is under 3 years old, there is suspected pyelonephritis, there is a risk of serious illness, there is a past history of UTI, or there is no response to treatment and a urine sample has not already been sent.
By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage UTIs in children and ensure appropriate use of urine dipstick testing and urine culture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man has a BMI of 32.6 kg/m2, smokes thirty cigarettes daily, and drinks four pints of beer in his local pub every week. He is on the pub darts team and claims it is the only exercise he wants or needs.
He has recently been diagnosed with diabetes by his GP and has been commenced on a diet. He has been told to see you for information regarding foot care.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Types of Diabetes
There are two major types of diabetes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin and typically affects children. Patients with type 1 diabetes are thin, lose weight, and are treated with insulin. On the other hand, type 2 diabetes affects an older age group and is associated with weight gain (obesity). It is usually treated with diet and/or drugs. Although not inherited in any mendelian fashion, type 2 diabetes has a familial occurrence due to the body type of the family. Iatrogenic diabetes is caused by medical treatments, while mitochondrial diabetes is a very rare form of diabetes resulting from damage to mitochondrial DNA. Finally, secondary diabetes occurs as a consequence of another disease.
It is important to differentiate between the types of diabetes as this guides treatment. Patients with type 1 diabetes require insulin, while those with type 2 diabetes may initially be treated with diet and/or drugs but may eventually require insulin. Understanding the cause of diabetes is also important in determining the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned that she is not making the required progress with respect to speech development.
What could you tell the parents about speech and language expectations in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 20-30 words vocabulary would be expected by this age
Explanation:Speech Delay in Children: Possible Causes and Exclusions
Speech delay is a common issue that affects 3-10% of all children, with boys being 3-4 times more likely to experience it than girls. One possible cause of speech delay in older children is elective mutism, which can be assessed through proper diagnosis. However, before progressing to other investigations, it is important to exclude deafness as a possible cause. Other factors that should be excluded include social and environmental deprivation, disorders of metabolism, and degenerative nervous diseases, which are rare possibilities. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of speech delay, children can receive the necessary support and intervention to improve their communication skills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is worried about having asthma. What factor in his medical history would decrease the likelihood of this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral tingling during episodes of dyspnoea
Explanation:According to the British Thoracic Society, if a patient experiences peripheral tingling, it is less likely that they have asthma. However, the patient’s smoking history doesn’t rule out asthma as a diagnosis, and given his age, it is highly unlikely that he has COPD.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 131
Incorrect
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You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.
During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.
What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Lichen Sclerosus
Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.
Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.
According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 92 µmol/l
You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.
He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.
You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.
What is the correct information to give this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.
Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents who are worried about her constant tugging on her left ear and increased fussiness over the past 24 hours.
During the examination, the child's temperature is found to be 38.5ºC, and the left tympanic membrane appears red. There is no discharge in the ear canal, the right ear is normal, and there are no signs of mastoiditis. The child has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular analgesia, call back in 3 days time if the symptoms are not resolving
Explanation:Parents should be informed that antibiotics are not always necessary for treating acute otitis media in children. The condition typically resolves on its own within 24-72 hours without the need for antibiotics. Pain relief medication can be used to alleviate discomfort and reduce fever during this time. However, if symptoms persist for more than 4 days or worsen, parents should seek medical attention. Immediate antibiotic prescription is not recommended unless the child is under 2 years old, has bilateral otitis media, otorrhoea, or is immunocompromised. Amoxicillin is the first-line therapy, while erythromycin and clarithromycin are alternative options for children allergic to penicillin. Topical antibiotics are not recommended for treating otitis media, and oral antibiotics should be used if necessary. Referral to the emergency department is not necessary unless there are signs of complications such as acute mastoiditis, meningitis, or facial nerve paralysis. Swabbing the ear is not useful, even if there is discharge present, as the condition is likely to have resolved before culture results become available.
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman has been referred for a fasting glucose test following the discovery of 2+ glucose on dip testing. She is 32 weeks pregnant and had a BMI of 32 before her pregnancy.
What is the threshold level of fasting plasma glucose for diagnosing gestational diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7.8
Explanation:Diagnosing Gestational Diabetes
For pregnant women, a fasting glucose level of 5.6 mmol/l or above is the threshold for diagnosing gestational diabetes. This differs from the threshold level for diagnosing diabetes in non-pregnant individuals, which is 7 mmol/l. If an oral glucose tolerance test is performed, a level of 7.8 mmol/l or above represents gestational diabetes. It is important to be familiar with the risk factors for gestational diabetes, what to do if a pregnant woman tests positive for glucose on urine dip, and the values that represent gestational diabetes for both fasting samples and glucose tolerance tests. This information is frequently tested in exams and is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of gestational diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man and his wife have come to the clinic with concerns about a new treatment he has recently started. He has a lengthy history of severe and debilitating depression that has not responded well to treatment with various selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. He was referred to specialist mental health services for further management.
His wife reports that he has been prescribed a new medication called 'phenelzine'. Unfortunately, she was unable to attend the psychiatry appointment with him. He informed her that the psychiatrist had advised him to avoid certain foods, but he cannot recall them and left the information leaflet he was given on the bus by mistake.
What is the best way to advise them?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should avoid citrus fruits and bananas
Explanation:Dietary Restrictions for Certain Medical Conditions
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed in general practice due to the risk of hypertensive crisis when combined with certain foods or medications. Patients taking MAOIs must avoid tyramine-containing foods and should not take tricyclic antidepressants. Haemodialysis patients are advised to limit their intake of potassium-rich foods such as citrus fruits and bananas. Those with gout should avoid purine-containing foods like offal and shellfish. Patients with coeliac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods like wheat, barley, rye, and sometimes oats. Individuals with oxalate renal stones should avoid oxalate-containing foods like spinach, rhubarb, nuts, and chocolate. By following these dietary restrictions, patients can better manage their medical conditions and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presented with palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the left arm. These symptoms had started seven weeks ago, following the death of her father from a heart attack. Over the last decade, she had undergone investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause was identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Explanation:Somatisation Disorder: A Likely Diagnosis
Somatisation disorder is a condition characterized by recurrent physical complaints such as pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist over a period of years. Although the brief scenario doesn’t provide enough criteria to make a definitive diagnosis, the symptoms described suggest that somatisation disorder is the most likely answer.
To meet the diagnostic criteria for somatisation disorder, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear in adolescence, and the full criteria are met by 30 years of age.
Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely, while the other three are possible but not as probable as somatisation. Overall, the scenario suggests that somatisation disorder should be considered as a potential diagnosis, and further evaluation is necessary to confirm or rule out this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
At what stage of pregnancy is the ideal timing for administering the pertussis vaccine to protect infants prior to their initial primary immunisation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: As soon as the pregnancy is confirmed
Explanation:Pertussis Vaccination for Pregnant Women
Pregnant women are now recommended to receive a pertussis vaccination during late pregnancy, between 16-32 weeks, to protect their unborn infants against pertussis. Antibody levels in adults reach their peak two weeks after the booster but then significantly decline. Therefore, immunizations given early in pregnancy would likely be less effective and could be falsely associated with any adverse effects identified at the anomaly scan. Additionally, transplacental antibody transfer is minimal after 34 weeks of pregnancy. Immunization after 16 weeks would also provide protection to infants born prematurely who may be particularly vulnerable. The vaccine can be offered up until labor, but just prior to labor is not the optimal time as antibody levels peak at two weeks after the booster. It is important for pregnant women to consider receiving the pertussis vaccine to protect their unborn infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a sleep disorder. He reports experiencing a creeping, crawling sensation in his legs, which is so intense that he feels the need to constantly rub his legs together to relieve the sensation. He also has an irresistible urge to move around. He feels chronically sleep deprived, only able to sleep in the early hours of the morning and often falling asleep during the day. He recently started taking thyroxine replacement and has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and steatohepatitis, for which he takes amlodipine, ramipril, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 145/82 mmg, and his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological examinations are normal. What is the most likely factor in his medical history associated with his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Restless Legs Syndrome: Causes and Treatment
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by uncomfortable sensations. While RLS may be idiopathic, it can also be caused by underlying conditions such as hypothyroidism, anaemias, renal failure, polyneuropathies, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren’s syndrome, and amyloidosis. Treating any underlying secondary cause can improve symptoms, as can dopamine agonists. However, clinicians may dismiss the seriousness of RLS in the absence of demonstrable neurology, despite the significant impact on quality of life that sleep disturbance can have. It is important to recognize and address RLS to improve patients’ overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-month history of progressive difficulty with speech and swallowing. During examination, she exhibits dysarthria and a brisk gag reflex. There is increased tone in all four limbs, with weakness distributed pyramidally. Sensation is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: Types, Symptoms, and Characteristics
Motor neurone disease, also known as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a degenerative condition that affects motor neurones, leading to increasing disability and death. It usually occurs after the age of 50 and has a focal onset, with a particular group of muscles affected first. Rare variants include primary lateral sclerosis and progressive muscular atrophy.
Brainstem gliomas are diagnosed in children and young adults under the age of twenty, with common symptoms including double vision, weakness, unsteady gait, difficulty in swallowing, dysarthria, headache, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. Physical examination commonly elicits long tract signs such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, and abnormal reflexes.
Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is a serious consequence of cervical intervertebral disc degeneration, with clinical signs and symptoms depending on which spinal cord level is affected and the extent of the pathology. There may be upper and lower motor neurone signs, sensory changes, and bladder and bowel involvement.
Guillain-Barré syndrome presents within 3 weeks of a respiratory or bowel infection, due to immune damage to the peripheral nervous system. Early symptoms include nerve root type pain and paraesthesia of the legs and feet, followed by proximal muscle weakness of the lower extremities progressing over hours to days. Tendon reflexes are lost but plantar responses remain normal.
Multiple sclerosis is characterized by symptomatic neurological episodes, motor, sensory, or autonomic, that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the duty doctor. He reports experiencing severe chest pain on the right side, along with fever and malaise for the past three days. Upon examination, there are red papules and vesicles closely grouped on the affected area. No abnormalities are noted in his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological assessments.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise the patient that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over and prescribe a course of antivirals
Explanation:The patient should be informed that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, which usually takes 5-7 days following onset of shingles. Therefore, a course of antiviral therapy should be prescribed to reduce the risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Analgesia should also be given to alleviate severe pain. Prescribing antibiotics or emollients would not be useful in this case.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 50-year-old woman who has recently started experiencing pain in her fingers bilaterally when exposed to cold temperatures. She has also observed that her fingers change colour from white to blue and then red. Apart from blepharitis, she has no significant medical history. However, she does report some stiffness in her hands upon waking up.
What would be the optimal approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to rheumatology
Explanation:Patients who are suspected to have secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon should be referred to secondary care, particularly if they exhibit joint stiffness and dry eyes. Rheumatology, not orthopaedics, is the appropriate specialty for referral.
To manage Raynaud’s symptoms, it is important to keep the hands and feet warm. If lifestyle changes are not effective, nifedipine (not amlodipine) may be considered as a treatment option.
If an underlying autoimmune disease is present, prednisolone may be prescribed as a treatment.
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.
If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of switching to dabigatran to eliminate the requirement for regular INR testing.
What would be a contraindication to prescribing dabigatran in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mechanical heart valve
Explanation:Patients with mechanical heart valves should avoid using dabigatran due to its increased risk of bleeding and thrombotic events compared to warfarin. The MHRA has deemed it contraindicated for this population.
Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications
Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran doesn’t require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a change in bowel habit. He reports that over the last two to three months he is opening his bowels four to five times a day and the consistency of his stools has become very loose. He has noticed small amounts of blood in his faeces but put this down to 'piles'.
Previously, he used to open his bowels on average once a day and has no personal history of any gastrointestinal problems. There is no family history of bowel problems, he has not lost any weight and he denies any rectal blood loss. Stool mc&s is normal as are his recent blood tests which show that he is not anaemic. Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.
He tells you that he is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about two months ago he submitted his bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that his screening tests were negative. What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him urgently to a specialist for investigation of his lower gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms
Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in an at-risk population. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to mention that they are not worried as they have done their bowel screening and it was negative.
In the case of a 66-year-old man with persistent changes in bowel habit towards looser stools with some rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary. It is important to note that relying on recent bowel screening results may falsely reassure patients and delay necessary medical attention.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient’s current symptoms and promptly refer them for further evaluation, regardless of their previous screening results. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients with bowel symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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You see a 68-year-old widow in your clinic for a routine blood pressure check. While you chat she mentions that she misses her old role as a volunteer at the local library from which she had to retire when she reached 65. However, she mentions that she has kept in touch with some of the young adults from the library and that they come around to her house to help out with errands and other tasks. How should you respond to this disclosure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You ask the patient about this arrangement, and as it seems to you that there is nothing to be concerned about, you take no further action
Explanation:Safeguarding Children in Healthcare
Safeguarding children has undergone significant changes in recent years, following the Children Act 2004 and the Victoria Climbié Inquiry. As a result, healthcare professionals must navigate a complex landscape of guidance documents, terminology, and organizational changes. The Royal College of General Practitioners offers a useful toolkit for those seeking an introduction to the topic.
According to the General Medical Council, the safety of children and young people must be a healthcare professional’s first concern. If there is reasonable concern that a child is at risk of abuse or neglect, the appropriate person or authority must be informed promptly. If there is no cause for concern, it is still important to discuss and record the decision, as well as any concerns, discussions, and reasons for not sharing information.
While confidentiality is important, it can be breached in limited circumstances, such as safeguarding children at risk. Healthcare professionals must avoid making discreet enquiries, as this can lead to unfounded rumors, breaches of confidentiality, and potentially prejudicing further enquiries. Overall, safeguarding children is a critical responsibility for healthcare professionals, and they must stay informed and vigilant in their efforts to protect vulnerable children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 145
Incorrect
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From which organization does a doctor need to obtain a license to prescribe diamorphine to an addict?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magistrate's court
Explanation:Prescription Guidelines for Medications and Controlled Drugs
The prescription for medications is valid for 28 days from the date stated on the prescription. The quantity of medication prescribed should not exceed 30 days supply, unless there are exceptional circumstances, which should be clearly stated in the patient’s notes. Controlled drugs are subject to regulations regarding their prescription, storage, records, and disposal.
Prescriptions for controlled drugs that are subject to prescription requirements must be indelible and must be signed by the prescriber, be dated, and specify the prescriber’s address. The prescription must always state the name and address of the patient, the form and strength of the preparation in the case of a preparation, either the total quantity or the number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the total quantity of the controlled drug to be supplied.
It is important to note that a pharmacist is not allowed to dispense a controlled drug unless all the information required by law is given on the prescription. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they receive the correct medication and that controlled drugs are handled safely and appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 146
Incorrect
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At what age would a typical toddler develop the capability to squat down and retrieve a toy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 18 months
Explanation:Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor developmental milestones refer to the physical abilities that a child acquires as they grow and develop. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s overall development and can help parents and healthcare professionals identify any potential delays or concerns. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a sitting position and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to crawl and pull themselves to a standing position. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. Finally, at 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.
It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. By monitoring a child’s gross motor developmental milestones, parents and healthcare professionals can ensure that they are meeting their developmental goals and identify any potential concerns early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
A study is being planned to investigate the association between environmental exposure to pesticides and the incidence of cancer in elderly individuals. The researchers have limited funding for the study and need to keep the length and cost of the trial to a minimum.
What is the most appropriate study design?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:Different Study Designs and Their Suitability for Investigating Pesticide Exposure and Cancer Risk
When investigating the potential link between pesticide exposure and cancer risk, various study designs can be used. A case-control study involves comparing the history of pesticide exposure in a group of cancer patients (cases) with that in a group of individuals without cancer (controls). This design is useful for answering the study question without the need for a long and expensive follow-up.
A cohort study, on the other hand, involves following up on an entire population over time, measuring exposure to pesticides and observing the incidence of cancer. While this design can provide valuable information, it is likely to be time-consuming and costly.
A case series involves studying a group of cancer patients with a history of pesticide exposure, but this design provides a low level of evidence.
A cross-sectional survey involves looking at data from a population at a specific point in time, providing information on the prevalence of a condition but not the incidence.
Finally, a randomized controlled trial, which is considered the gold standard study design, is not suitable for investigating the link between pesticide exposure and cancer risk as it would be neither practical nor ethical to expose subjects to pesticides.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old multiparous lady has been referred for a 75 g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test by the midwife. She is 34 weeks pregnant on her 3rd pregnancy. Her urine tested 1+ to glucose on two occasions and her midwife arranged for her to undergo further testing.
What is the threshold plasma glucose level for diagnosing gestational diabetes following a 75 g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7.8
Explanation:Diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes
Gestational diabetes is a common condition that affects pregnant women. It is important to be familiar with the threshold levels of plasma glucose for diagnosing gestational diabetes using both a fasting and 75g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test. The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is different from that of non-pregnant or male patients.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, a woman should have either a fasting plasma glucose level of 5.6 mmol/litre or above or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of 7.8 mmol/litre or above. For non-pregnant or male patients, the figures are 7 mmol/l and 11.1 mmol/l.
It is recommended that patients should be offered a 75 g 2-hour OGTT if they have risk factors for diabetes or if they had gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy. In 2015, NICE offered new advice that glycosuria of 2+ or above on one occasion or of 1+ or above on two or more occasions detected by reagent strip testing during routine antenatal care may indicate undiagnosed gestational diabetes. If this is observed, further testing should be considered to exclude gestational diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Grave's disease and is now seeking a review 3 months after commencing a 'block and replace' regimen with carbimazole and thyroxine. She is worried about the possibility of developing thyroid eye disease. What measures can be taken to minimize her risk of developing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Smoking is the primary controllable risk factor for thyroid eye disease.
Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.
Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.
Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of diplopia on left, right and down gaze for the past three months. He reports that this symptom worsens towards the end of the day. Additionally, he mentions that his family members have noticed that his speech has become more slurred over the last three months. He also reports difficulty drinking water over the past month. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this man's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to a physician urgently
Explanation:Myasthenia: A Medical Emergency
This case presents with diplopia that worsens towards the end of the day, without following any pattern of cranial nerve palsies. This suggests fatigue and raises the possibility of myasthenia. The patient also experiences slurring speech and difficulties in swallowing, indicating that the extraocular muscles and bulbar function are affected.
Myasthenia is a medical emergency that requires urgent referral to a physician or neurologist for further investigations and treatment. Failure to do so may result in aspiration pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He reports a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine
Explanation:Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary unless there are red flag features or evidence of a septic joint. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man has asthma and depression. He is dissatisfied with the treatment he has received for his asthma and files a complaint. He requests to view his medical records. Upon reviewing the records, you notice that another healthcare provider has written insufficient personality in the notes. You believe that if the patient were to read this, it would be devastating.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients cannot see results of investigations
Explanation:Restricting Access to Patient Medical Records
You have the ability to limit access to certain parts of a patient’s medical record if you believe that it could cause harm to the patient or another person. Additionally, you can restrict access to any references to named third parties, such as a spouse’s recent treatment. However, it is important to note that there is no requirement to limit access to paper records, results, or x-rays. It is not acceptable to completely obstruct access to all of a patient’s records without a valid reason. By carefully considering the potential consequences and taking appropriate action, you can ensure that patient privacy is protected while still providing necessary medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes a decade ago. Although his control has not always been optimal, he has no cardiovascular risk factors except for his diabetes. His blood pressure has consistently been within the normal range, and he is not taking any medication for it. However, his most recent yearly urine albumin: creatinine ratio was elevated, and microalbuminuria has been verified with two additional samples. What course of action should be advised now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diuretic
Explanation:Treatment for Microalbuminuria
In cases of confirmed microalbuminuria, even if the patient is normotensive, it is recommended by NICE guidance to start an ACE inhibitor. The dose should be gradually increased until the full dose is reached. If the patient experiences poor tolerance, an Angiotensin receptor blocker can be used as an alternative. It is important to maintain blood pressure below 130/80 mmHg (140/80 if there is no kidney involvement).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old teacher presents to you with concerns about her Depo-Provera injectable contraceptive. She has been experiencing irregular bleeding since starting the contraceptive 4 months ago. This is causing her personal inconvenience and putting a strain on her relationship. She denies any vaginal discharge and is in a stable relationship. She has had regular cervical smears and her last one was normal 2 years ago. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of a short-term combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Unscheduled Bleeding in a Young Lady on Depo-Provera Injection
This patient is a young lady who has been experiencing unscheduled bleeding after being put on the Depo-Provera injection. However, she has no red flag symptoms and is up-to-date with her cervical smears, which provides reassurance to her history. At this stage, blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are not necessary, but may be considered later on. Referral to a gynaecologist is not indicated as there are no alarming symptoms present.
It is important to follow advice from the cervical screening hub regarding cervical smears and not order one sooner than indicated. If any alarming symptoms arise, referral to a gynaecologist is recommended. For women experiencing unscheduled bleeding while on a progesterone-only injectable and who are medically eligible, a combined oral contraceptive can be offered for three months in the usual cyclic manner. The longer-term use of the combined contraceptive pill with the injectable progesterone is a matter of clinical judgement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person doesn't have capacity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to weigh up information and make a decision
Explanation:Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions: The Test and Criteria
The Mental Capacity Act provides a clear and concise test to determine whether a person lacks capacity to make a decision at a particular time. The test involves assessing whether the person has an impairment or disturbance of mental function that prevents them from making the decision in question.
To have capacity, a person must be able to understand the relevant information, retain it, use it to make a decision, and indicate that decision through communication. Age, appearance, and behavior are not factors in determining capacity.
Overall, understanding the criteria for capacity is crucial in ensuring that individuals are able to make informed decisions and have their rights protected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A consultant pediatrician creates a new survey for use in schools that aims to identify children with developmental delays. What term refers to the degree to which the survey accurately identifies its intended purpose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Validity
Explanation:Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 157
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.
Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.
For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of numbness and tingling in his left hand. He is a right-handed construction site manager and denies any history of trauma. This is the first time he has experienced such symptoms.
The patient reports that the numbness and tingling wake him up at night and are primarily felt in his 4th and 5th fingers. Upon examination, there are no observable neurological deficits, but Tinel's sign is positive.
The GP suggests a splint and refers the patient to physiotherapy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome is the correct answer as it is caused by compression of the ulnar nerve and can result in tingling or numbness of the 4th and 5th fingers. Tinel’s sign, which involves tapping on the affected nerve to reproduce symptoms, is often positive. Brachial plexus injury is not a likely cause as the question specifies that the issue is atraumatic and the neurological examination is normal. Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, which provides sensation to the first, second, and part of the third digit, but Tinel’s sign can also be used to check the ulnar nerve. Medial epicondyle fracture may cause similar symptoms due to the path of the ulnar nerve, but it is unlikely as there is no history of trauma.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off as intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, but nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In resistant cases, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial nerves are not involved
Explanation:Guillain-Barré Syndrome: A Brief Overview
Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a polyneuropathy that can affect cranial nerves, particularly the facial nerves. It is a lower motor neurone lesion that is often preceded by lumbar or intracapsular pain. While full recovery is possible, some residual weakness is common. In the acute phase, muscle wasting doesn’t occur, but it may develop in the long term. Respiratory muscle involvement can cause reduced peak flow, which may require ventilation. Additionally, sensory disturbance is typically present. Overall, Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 161
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old lady with symptoms fitting with a UTI.
Her notes mention an allergy to Septrin.
Which of the following treatment options is contraindicated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Allergy to Septrin
Patient notes may indicate an allergy to Septrin, which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim. This medication is also known as co-trimoxazole. It is important to note that it is not possible to determine which component of Septrin the patient is allergic to. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient avoids both trimethoprim and sulfonamides to prevent any potential allergic reactions. Proper communication with healthcare providers is crucial to ensure that the patient receives appropriate treatment without any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has been referred to you by her dentist. She underwent a tooth extraction 12 days ago and experienced excessive bleeding, requiring transfer to the maxillofacial unit for suturing. She denies any prior history of bleeding and is in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease
Explanation:Von Willebrand’s disease is a commonly inherited clotting disorder that is often characterized by prolonged bleeding after minor injuries, particularly mucosal membrane injuries. This autosomal dominant condition is caused by a reduction or structural abnormality of von Willebrand’s factor, which plays a crucial role in promoting normal platelet function and stabilizing coagulation factor VIII. Although screening tests may yield normal results, a specialist investigation and assay of von Willebrand Factor may be necessary for diagnosis. While most patients with mild disease respond well to desmopressin (DDAVP), clotting factor concentrates may be required for a minority. It is important to note that prolonged bleeding following dental extraction may be a sign of von Willebrand’s disease.
Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.
The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is seen with his father. The father reports that for the last few weeks, the child has been persistently scratching his bottom, particularly at night. The father has noticed some scratch marks around his anus, but nothing else. He is otherwise well and takes no regular medications.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threadworm infestation
Explanation:Understanding Threadworm Infestation: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Threadworm infestation is a common parasitic infection in the United Kingdom, particularly among children. The threadworm, a small white worm that tapers at both ends, can cause itching around the anus and vulva due to the mucous accompanying the eggs it lays at night. Scratching can lead to skin infection and re-infection with the worms. While pre-pubertal girls with certain symptoms should also be investigated for threadworm, other conditions such as hookworm infestation, eczema, psychological pruritus, and tapeworm infestation should be ruled out through differential diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of threadworm infestation can help healthcare providers provide appropriate treatment and care for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 164
Incorrect
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Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead of the winter. She asks you about storage of the intranasal influenza vaccination for adults.
Which of the following is the correct advice to give?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be stored specifically between +2°C and +8°C in line with the storage of the intramuscular influenza vaccines
Explanation:Vaccine Storage and Sensitivity
To maintain the potency and effectiveness of vaccines, it is important to store them properly. Vaccines can be sensitive to changes in temperature and exposure to light, which can reduce their shelf life and potency. Excessive heat can cause a decline in potency, while freezing can increase reactogenicity and reduce vaccine potency. Freezing can also lead to cracks in vaccine containers, which can result in contamination.
The nasal influenza vaccine should be stored between +2°C and +8°C and protected from light, similar to the intramuscular influenza vaccine. Refrigeration with close temperature monitoring is necessary to achieve this. However, the nasal influenza vaccine can be left out of the refrigerator for up to 12 hours before use, as long as it is not exposed to temperatures above 25°C. If it has not been used within 12 hours, it should be disposed of rather than re-refrigerated for future use. Proper vaccine storage is crucial to ensure their effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a consultation after a routine health check revealed an elevated level of γ-glutamyltransferase (γ-GT). He confesses to regularly consuming over 30 units of alcohol per week but doesn't exhibit any signs of alcohol dependence. What is the most accurate statement regarding brief interventions in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They involve giving information, advice and support
Explanation:Brief Interventions for Hazardous or Harmful Drinking
Brief interventions are a valuable tool in addressing hazardous or harmful drinking. These interventions aim to identify potential problems and motivate individuals to take action. They are targeted at those who are not dependent on alcohol but may be at risk of developing problems. Brief interventions can range from a short 5-10 minute conversation to multiple sessions of motivational interviewing or counseling.
During a brief intervention, patients are encouraged to consider both the negative and positive aspects of their drinking. If a patient decides to reduce their drinking, they are provided with support. These interventions are often opportunistic, meaning they are given when a patient is attending for another reason and has not necessarily expressed concern about their drinking.
Brief interventions can be given by a variety of healthcare professionals, including general practitioners, nurses, hospital doctors, social workers, and probation officers. By providing early intervention and support, brief interventions can help prevent the development of more serious alcohol-related problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 166
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation
Explanation:To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: What percentage of patients taking ACE inhibitors have their U&E checked in a year?
Explanation:Clinical Care Audit
A clinical care audit is a process that evaluates the performance of healthcare providers against specific guidelines on therapy. The aim is to determine if the care provided meets a pre-specified standard. For instance, a typical audit may assess if all patients taking ACE inhibitors have had at least a yearly U&E. The standard is set high, at around 90%+, and if not met, measures are implemented to improve performance. These measures may include adding reminders to GP prescription systems, education sessions on the use of ACE inhibitors, and more.
Closing the loop is an essential part of the audit process. This involves reassessing the percentage of clinical episodes that meet the audit standard to determine if improvements have been made. By conducting clinical care audits, healthcare providers can identify areas for improvement and implement measures to enhance the quality of care provided to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A geriatric patient with terminal illness is currently receiving 60mg of modified release morphine every 12 hours. Due to difficulty in swallowing, you plan to switch to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine. The morphine ampoules available are of 10 mg/ml strength. What would be the required volume of morphine (in ml) to be added to the syringe driver for a 24 hour period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6
Explanation:Converting Oral Morphine to Subcutaneous Infusion
In order to convert oral morphine to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the total 24 hour oral dose must be calculated. For example, if the patient is taking a 12 hour release preparation of 60mg, the total daily dose of oral morphine is 120mg. To convert this to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the figure must be divided by two. For diamorphine, the figure would be divided by three. Therefore, the patient needs 60mg morphine over 24 hours.
It is important to note that the question asks for the volume of morphine over 24 hours, not the dose. If the ampoules are 10 mg/ml, then to deliver 60mg in 24 hours, 6 x 10 mg/ml = 6 ml is needed. It is crucial to read the question carefully to ensure the correct answer is given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
A new medication for reducing joint pain in elderly patients is being tested compared to a standard pain medication. A total of 1500 elderly patients were enrolled in the trial with 750 taking the new medication and 750 taking the standard pain medication.
After completing the same treatment period, 50 patients within the new medication group reported experiencing joint pain, giving an experimental event rate (EER) of 0.067, compared to 150 patients within the standard pain medication group, giving a control event rate (CER) of 0.2.
What is the numbers needed to treat (NNT) for this new medication in reducing joint pain in elderly patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The NNT (number needed to treat) is a measure of how many patients need to receive an intervention or medication to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. In this case, we want to determine the NNT for the new antiemetic to reduce the number of individuals who suffer from travel sickness. The formula for NNT is 1/absolute risk reduction (ARR), which can be calculated by subtracting the experimental event rate (EER) from the control event rate (CER).
Using the data from the experiment, we can calculate the NNT as follows:
NNT = 1/ARR
NNT = 1/(CER – EER)
NNT = 1/(0.3 – 0.1)
NNT = 5This means that for every 5 patients who receive the new antiemetic, one patient will be prevented from experiencing travel sickness.
If we wanted the NNT to be 1, the ARR would need to be 1, which is not the case in this experiment. If we wanted the NNT to be 10, the ARR would need to be 0.1. However, the ARR in this experiment is 0.2. To achieve an NNT of 2, the ARR would need to be 0.5.
Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
For which drugs is it advised to prescribe the brand name instead of the generic name, as a general exception to the rule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperdal (risperidone)
Explanation:When to Prescribe Brand Name Drugs
Prescribing drugs generically can save time for patients and allow pharmacists to find the cheapest supplier. However, there are certain cases where it is advisable to prescribe according to brand name. This is particularly important for drugs with a narrow therapeutic index, such as lithium and ciclosporin. Additionally, modified release preparations, like theophylline/aminophylline and diltiazem/nifedipine, have different bioavailability depending on the formulation, making it important to prescribe by brand name. Anticonvulsants, oral contraceptives, HRT preparations, and combination medications are also best prescribed by brand name. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure the safety and efficacy of the medication for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.
He has a mild early Alzheimer's dementia and type 2 diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin 500 mg tds. On examination, he has sats of 96% on air, has a pulse of 90 bpm, blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg, a temperature of 37.6°C and a respiration rate of 32/min. There is no neck stiffness nor abnormal neurology.
Chest examination reveals bibasal crackles and decreased breath sounds in the left lung base.
Blood samples were taken that morning and a call to the lab reveals the following:
Haemoglobin 129 g/L (115-165)
White cell count 16.6 ×109/L (4-11)
93% neutrophils -
5% band forms -
2% lymphocytes -
Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)
Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Scoring Systems for Decision Making in Pneumonia Treatment
When it comes to deciding whether to treat or admit a patient with pneumonia, scoring systems can be helpful. The CURB-65 severity score and the CRB-65 score are two commonly used systems. The CRB-65 score is recommended for use in primary care and assigns one point for each of confusion, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg (or diastolic below 60 mmHg), and age 65 years or older. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk of death and do not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 1 or 2 are at increased risk and should be considered for referral and assessment. Patients with a score of 3 or more are at high risk and require urgent hospital admission. The CURB-65 score is used for patients with a score of 2 or more to be admitted, while those with a score of 0-1 may be admitted if there are other issues. While an experienced GP may admit a patient regardless of the score, understanding these systems is important for medical exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has advanced ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases and ascites. She is experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic and constipation. During examination, her General Practitioner notes hyperactive bowel sounds. Which treatment option is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:The woman in question is likely suffering from intestinal obstruction, a condition that affects 3% of all cancer patients and up to 25% of those with advanced ovarian cancer. This can be caused by peristaltic failure due to opioid drugs or nerve damage, or by mechanical factors such as bowel wall infiltration, compression, or constipation. The presence of painful colic and hyperactive bowel sounds suggests a mechanical obstruction. To address her nausea and vomiting, a sequence of subcutaneous infusions of cyclizine, haloperidol, and levomepromazine may be tried until the most effective agent is found. However, stimulant laxatives like senna should be avoided due to the patient’s colic, and all oral laxatives should be stopped if there is complete obstruction. Bisacodyl, another stimulant laxative, should also be avoided in patients with colic, with sodium docusate being the preferred laxative for constipation. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is the drug of choice for functional obstruction but is contraindicated in the presence of colic and mechanical obstruction. For pain relief, continuous subcutaneous morphine/diamorphine or a fentanyl patch may be used, but the patient would benefit more from an antiemetic and addressing the underlying cause if possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl collapses and dies during a track meet at school. She had no significant medical history. Upon post-mortem examination, it is discovered that she had asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum. What is the probability that her sister also has this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia
Explanation:Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options
Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.
First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.
Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.
Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During which phase of clinical trials is the drug's effectiveness specifically evaluated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phase IIb
Explanation:Phases of Clinical Trials
Clinical trials are conducted to determine the safety and efficacy of new treatments or drugs. These trials are commonly classified into four phases. The first phase involves determining the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of the drug, as well as any potential side effects. This phase is conducted on healthy volunteers.
The second phase assesses the efficacy and dosage of the drug. It involves a small number of patients affected by a particular disease. This phase may be further subdivided into IIa, which assesses optimal dosing, and IIb, which assesses efficacy.
The third phase involves assessing the effectiveness of the drug. This phase typically involves a larger number of people, often as part of a randomized controlled trial, comparing the new treatment with established treatments.
The fourth and final phase is postmarketing surveillance. This phase monitors the long-term effectiveness and side effects of the drug after it has been approved and is on the market.
Overall, the phases of clinical trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments and drugs. They provide valuable information that can help improve patient outcomes and advance medical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the possibility of pregnancy after engaging in consensual, unprotected sexual intercourse last night. She is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had taken the morning-after-pill seven days ago after a similar incident. She had stopped taking her combined oral contraceptive pill four weeks ago and was scheduled to have a levonorgestrel intrauterine system inserted next week. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she has a height of 180cm and a weight of 74kg (BMI 22.8). What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel at double dose by mouth
Explanation:The correct answer is to double the dose of levonorgestrel to 3 mg by mouth for this patient, as she has a weight of over 70kg, despite having a healthy BMI. This information is based on the BNF guidelines.
Inserting a copper intrauterine device would not be the best option for this patient, as she already has plans for levonorgestrel device insertion and may be using it for additional hormonal benefits, such as reducing the heaviness of her bleeding.
Inserting the levonorgestrel uterine system would not provide the emergency contraception required for this patient, as it takes about 7 days to become effective. Therefore, it is not appropriate in this situation.
The standard dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg would be given to females who weigh less than 70 kg or have a BMI less than 26. However, in this case, it would be inappropriate due to the patient’s weight being over 70kg.
It would be risky to suggest to this patient that she doesn’t need to take another form of emergency contraception, as the initial pill may not have prevented ovulation during this cycle.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with mouth issues. He is currently undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer. Upon examination, the doctor observes an ulcerated, erythematous, and sore mouth. The patient mentions that he can still consume solid food. What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral mucositis
Explanation:Common Oral Conditions in Myelosuppressed Patients
Myelosuppressed patients, particularly those undergoing cancer treatment, are at a high risk of developing oral complications. One of the most common conditions is oral mucositis, which can occur in up to 70% of patients undergoing stem cell transplantation. This painful condition is caused by a combination of factors, including chemotherapy or radiotherapy damage, the oral environment, myelosuppression, and genetic predisposition. Symptoms include burning, erythema, and ulcerations in the mouth, which can impact the patient’s nutritional status and require supportive treatment with oral hygiene, mucosal-coating agents, and analgesia.
Other oral conditions that may affect myelosuppressed patients include herpes zoster infection, candidiasis, herpes simplex infection, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Candidiasis is the most frequent oral infection in myelosuppressed patients, presenting as white patches on the gums, tongue, and inside the mouth. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) is another common viral infection that causes ulcers on the lips. Herpes zoster infection can involve the mouth and skin, while Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a potentially fatal skin reaction caused by drugs, presenting with macules, target lesions, and bullae affecting the skin and mucosal surfaces.
In conclusion, myelosuppressed patients are at a high risk of developing various oral complications, which can impact their quality of life and require supportive treatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these conditions and provide appropriate management to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old girl comes in with a unilateral purulent nasal discharge and worsening bad breath over the past few days. However, she doesn't exhibit any systemic symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic rhinitis
Explanation:Unilateral Discharge in Children: A Possible Sign of Foreign Body
The occurrence of unilateral discharge in an otherwise healthy child may indicate the presence of a foreign body, especially in this age group. It is important to consider the child’s history to determine the possible cause of the discharge. If a foreign body is suspected, prompt removal is necessary to prevent further complications. Fortunately, removal of the foreign body is usually curative and can alleviate the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 179
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of worsening voiding-predominant lower urinary tract symptoms for the past year, including poor flow, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. There are no red flag features present. The patient's international prostate symptom score is 15, and prostate examination reveals a slightly enlarged, smooth prostate. Urine dipstick results are normal, and blood tests show normal renal function and a normal prostate-specific antigen level.
What is the most appropriate class of medication to consider starting for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonists
Explanation:For patients with troublesome symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia, alpha-1 antagonists are the first-line medication to consider. This is particularly true for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms, such as the patient in this case who has an IPPS of 15. Alpha-1 agonists like tamsulosin and alfuzosin are recommended for patients with moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms (IPSS ≥ 8) and are likely to provide relief for this patient’s troublesome symptoms.
However, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are only indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates, which is not the case for this patient. Therefore, they are not currently appropriate for him.
Antimuscarinic medication is only appropriate if there is a combination of storage and voiding symptoms that persist after treatment with an alpha-blocker. Since this patient only describes voiding symptoms and is not currently on any treatment, this class of medication is not indicated at this time.
Finally, GnRH analogues are commonly used in prostate cancer treatment, but they were previously investigated as a potential treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy and found to have a side effect profile that outweighed any clinical improvement. Therefore, they are not appropriate for this patient.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 5-year old healthy girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her parents who are concerned about some darker skin patches they have noticed on her legs, arms and back. They think they have been present since she was a small baby but seem to be more noticeable over the last few months. They have counted six in total.
On examination, you observe several hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and variable diameter on the limbs, abdomen and lower back. You believe these to be café au lait spots. She also has some freckly pigmentation under both arms.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a genetic disorder that causes lesions in the skin, nervous system, and skeleton. It is usually diagnosed in children under the age of eight, with 80% of cases being identified by age six. The condition is characterized by the presence of café au lait spots, which are hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and a diameter of over 0.5 cm in children or 1.5 cm in adults. To be diagnosed with NF1, a patient must have at least two of the following seven presentations: six or more café au lait macules, two or more cutaneous/subcutaneous neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma, axillary or groin freckling, optic pathway glioma, two or more Lisch nodules, bony dysplasia, or a first-degree relative with NF1. Other skin conditions, such as acanthosis nigricans, childhood lentigines, Sturge-Weber syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis, have different symptoms and are not associated with café au lait spots.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an erythematous rash, mild fever and enlarged glands in her neck. You suggest taking a blood test to check if she is immune to rubella since there is no record of her being immunised. She asks about the potential risk to her baby if she does have rubella. What is the percentage of infants that may develop congenital rubella syndrome and potential birth defects if a woman contracts rubella at ten weeks gestation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Up to 90%
Explanation:Maternal Rubella Infection in Pregnancy
Maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to fetal loss or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). CRS is characterized by various abnormalities such as cataracts, deafness, cardiac defects, microcephaly, retardation of intrauterine growth, and inflammatory lesions in the brain, liver, lungs, and bone marrow.
If the infection occurs within the first eight to ten weeks of pregnancy, up to 90% of surviving infants may experience damage, often with multiple defects. However, the risk of damage decreases to about 10-20% if the infection occurs between 11 and 16 weeks of gestation. Infections after 16 weeks of pregnancy are rare and typically only result in deafness, with no other fetal damage reported up to 20 weeks of pregnancy.
Overall, maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can have severe consequences for the developing fetus, highlighting the importance of vaccination and prevention measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man who is a type II diabetic presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about persistent premature ejaculation. He also reports occasional erectile dysfunction. The only medication he takes is metformin. His recent glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) result is 72 mmol/l (normal: 48 mmol/l).
What is the most appropriate medication alteration required to improve this man’s symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start sildenafil
Explanation:Treatment Options for Premature Ejaculation and Erectile Dysfunction in Diabetic Patients
Premature ejaculation affects a small percentage of men, while over 50% of diabetic men experience erectile dysfunction. When both conditions are present, it is recommended to treat erectile dysfunction first with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor like sildenafil. This medication prevents the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), leading to smooth-muscle relaxation and increased blood flow to the penis for an erection. There is no conclusive evidence that reducing HbA1c levels improves erectile dysfunction. Gliclazide is not the most suitable medication for improving symptoms. Citalopram, an off-licence selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI), can treat premature ejaculation but should not be used when erectile dysfunction is present. Dapoxetine is the initial treatment for isolated premature ejaculation in those under 65. Stopping metformin is not recommended as it is not a known cause of premature ejaculation and may still be necessary for diabetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. What is the most significant retinal feature that would indicate the presence of proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: New vessel formation
Explanation:Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy: Symptoms and Stages
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness if left untreated. It affects up to 80% of patients who have had diabetes for ten years or more. The longer a person has diabetes, the higher the chance of developing diabetic retinopathy.
The exact mechanism by which diabetes leads to retinopathy is not fully understood. However, it is known that microvascular occlusion causes retinal ischaemia, leading to arteriovenous shunts and neovascularisation. Leakage results in intraretinal haemorrhages and localised or diffuse oedema. These are characteristic features that appear at various stages of diabetic retinopathy.
As retinopathy progresses, it enters an advanced or proliferative stage. At this stage, blood vessels proliferate/grow (neovascularisation). These can bleed, leading to vitreous haemorrhage and blurring of vision.
There are several symptoms and stages of diabetic retinopathy that should be recognized. Haemorrhages result from rupture of weakened capillaries and appear as small dots or larger blots. Cotton-wool spots are due to a build-up of axonal debris and have a white fluffy appearance. Hard exudates are precipitates of lipoproteins and other proteins leaking from retinal blood vessels. They form white or yellow deposits usually with sharp margins. Microaneurysms are an early feature of diabetic retinopathy appearing at the non-proliferative stage. They appear as red dots.
General practitioners should be able to use an ophthalmoscope and recognize significant abnormalities. Fundus photography examines larger areas of the fundus and has the advantage of photo documentation for future reference. It is important to monitor and treat diabetic retinopathy to prevent blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman has had type 2 diabetes for six years.
She is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2. There is no family history of diabetes and she is otherwise well. She is highly motivated to gain control of her diabetes. She has managed to lose about 4 kg in weight over the last year with a combination of calorie restriction and exercise; she enjoys swimming and yoga.
Her current medication is:
Metformin 500 mg qds
Gliclazide 80 mg daily
Aspirin 75 mg OD
She says she would prefer not to take any additional medication.
Her BP is 135/90 mmHg. She has a good record of self-monitoring of blood glucose with an average fasting glucose of about 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). She attends for review and her current HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol (7.8%).
What would be the best advice for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase gliclazide
Explanation:Management of Type 2 Diabetes in Adults
According to NICE guidelines, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be based on the effectiveness, safety, and tolerability of drug treatment, as well as the individual’s clinical circumstances, preferences, and needs. In the case of a patient who has had success with lifestyle changes, adding anti-obesity treatment may not be the most appropriate option. Instead, strategies for maintaining the changes already made should be considered. Increasing the dosage of gliclazide may be a better option than increasing Metformin, which can often be difficult for patients to tolerate. However, careful monitoring is necessary as gliclazide can increase weight. Insulin is also an option, but only if the patient is not on maximum oral hypoglycaemic agents. Overall, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be tailored to the individual’s specific circumstances and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A researcher calculates various statistical values for a randomized controlled trial of a new drug vs an old drug that treats heart failure in elderly patients. She finds that the probability of type 1 error is 31%, the probability of type 2 error is 26%, the p-value is 0.04 and the confidence interval of 95%.
What is the power of this study for elderly patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.74
Explanation:Power is the ability of a study to accurately identify an effect or difference, regardless of whether the hypothesis is accepted or rejected. It is calculated as 1 minus the probability of a type II error, which is the likelihood of failing to detect a true effect or difference. A study with high power has a low probability of type II error and can therefore more reliably detect real effects or differences. Conversely, as the probability of type II error decreases, the power of the study increases.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic with progressive dyspnea. She has been taking medication for her rheumatoid arthritis for an extended period. During examination, her oxygen saturation levels on room air are found to be at 89%. Further investigations reveal bilateral interstitial shadowing on her chest x-ray. Which medication is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman with polymyalgia rheumatica was started on prednisolone 15 mg daily and had a great therapeutic response. The steroid dose has now been reduced to 10 mg daily, and the plan is to continue tapering the prednisolone dose by 1 mg per month, aiming to discontinue prednisolone in one year's time. Routine bloods are normal except for mild anaemia and a significant elevation in erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
What is the best approach to osteoporosis prophylaxis for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alendronic acid and calcium carbonate and vitamin D
Explanation:Bone Protective Therapy for Patients on Long-Term Corticosteroids
Patients on long-term corticosteroids are at an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, even at low doses of 5 mg daily. The loss of bone mineral density is most significant in the first few months of therapy, but fracture risk decreases rapidly after stopping. Patients over 65 years of age or with a prior fragility fracture are considered high risk and should begin bone protective therapy at the start of corticosteroid treatment.
Bisphosphonate monotherapy is not sufficient for long-term steroid patients, and combination therapy with calcium and vitamin D is necessary. Alendronic acid is a commonly prescribed bisphosphonate for bone protection. Calcium carbonate is also important in preventing osteoporotic fractures when combined with alendronic acid and vitamin D.
A dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is not necessary before starting bone protection treatment for long-term corticosteroid patients. However, a DEXA scan is recommended for patients over 50 years of age with a history of fragility fracture or those under 40 years of age with a major risk factor for fragility fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show:
- Sodium: 146 mmol/L
- Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
- Bicarbonate: 34 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 78 µmol/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.
The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner reporting a weight loss of 10 kg in the past four months. He has been experiencing increased fatigue but has not made any changes to his diet or exercise routine.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate cancer
Explanation:Possible Causes of Unexplained Weight Loss in Older Adults
Unexplained weight loss in older adults is a symptom of malignancy and should be investigated promptly. The most prevalent cancer among men in the UK is prostate cancer, which frequently presents with no specific symptoms. Other symptoms of prostate cancer include lower urinary tract symptoms, anorexia, haematuria, erectile dysfunction, lethargy, and low back pain. Lung cancer and colorectal cancer can also cause weight loss, but they are less common among men than prostate cancer. Lung cancer may present with fatigue, shortness of breath, cough, chest pain, haemoptysis, or recurrent chest infections, and may be associated with finger clubbing or lymphadenopathy. Colorectal cancer may cause a change in bowel habit, rectal bleeding, fatigue, and abdominal pain, and may be accompanied by an abdominal or rectal mass. Frailty is another possible cause of unintentional weight loss, but it is usually associated with other indicators, such as slow gait speed, loss of grip strength, exhaustion, and low levels of physical activity. Type I diabetes mellitus can also cause weight loss, but it is more commonly diagnosed in young people, while Type II diabetes is more likely to occur in older age and is associated with weight gain rather than weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a two month history of mild nausea and upper abdominal discomfort after eating. You suspect gallstones so arrange an ultrasound scan of the abdomen along with a full blood count and liver function tests. Her BMI is 36.
The ultrasound scan doesn't show any stones in the Gallbladder and her liver function tests are normal. Her haemoglobin level is 95 g/L with a microcytic picture. When it was checked 18 months ago her haemoglobin level was 120 g/L. She has no history of vaginal bleeding or melaena. Her BMI is now 32.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine barium meal and swallow
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in a Woman with Recent Onset Anemia and Weight Loss
This woman, aged over 55, has recently developed anemia and has also experienced weight loss. According to the latest NICE guidelines, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is necessary in such cases. Routine referrals for CT scan and barium meal are not appropriate. Treating with iron without referral is not recommended as it may delay diagnosis.
The loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of anemia, and the symptoms experienced by this woman suggest an upper GI cause. Therefore, it is important to refer her for an upper GI endoscopy as soon as possible to identify the underlying cause of her symptoms and provide appropriate treatment. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve the woman’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter who has biliary atresia. He has been informed by the paediatric gastroenterologist that her condition has deteriorated and she requires a liver transplant. The father is feeling anxious and upset and is seeking further information about the procedure. As his GP, what is the best advice you can provide him regarding liver transplantation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C
Explanation:Myth-busting Facts about Pediatric Liver Transplantation
Pediatric liver transplantation is a complex medical procedure that involves replacing a diseased liver with a healthy one from a donor. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this life-saving surgery. Here are some myth-busting facts about pediatric liver transplantation:
– The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C: A potential living donor with antibodies to hepatitis B and C would usually be ruled out as a donor.
– HLA matching is necessary for kidney, heart, and lung transplants, but not for liver transplants: Blood-group compatibility is necessary, and a relative is more likely to be a match.
– Immunosuppression is usually required for life, not just 12 months after transplant: While the regimen can be reduced with time, complete withdrawal is only successful in a small number of individuals.
– Prednisolone is not the only immunosuppressant needed after transplant: A combination of drugs, including prednisolone, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, and sirolimus, are commonly used.
– Survival at one year after liver transplantation is higher than 50% in children: One-year survival is 80% for all children transplanted and may reach 90% for children with biliary atresia.It is important to dispel these myths and provide accurate information about pediatric liver transplantation to help families make informed decisions about their child’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who has been diagnosed and treated for malaria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Travellers visiting friends and family are more at risk of malaria than tourists
Explanation:Malaria Risk and Prevention
Travellers visiting friends and family are at a higher risk of contracting malaria compared to tourists due to their likelihood of visiting rural areas. To accurately diagnose malaria, repeat blood films should be taken after 12-24 hours and again at 24 hours. The gold standard for diagnosis is the thick and thin blood films, while the antigen test is less sensitive. It is important to note that even with full adherence to prophylaxis, it is still possible to develop malaria. While most cases of P.falciparum present within 6 months of exposure, infection with other species can present months or even years after exposure due to reactivation of the dormant liver stage. By taking preventative measures and seeking prompt medical attention, the risk of contracting and spreading malaria can be greatly reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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Mrs. Johnson is a type 2 diabetic who is scheduled to see the Community Diabetes Nurse because of poorly controlled HbA1c despite taking three different oral medications for her diabetes. The nurse discusses the options of starting either a GLP-1 mimetic like exenatide or starting insulin therapy. As she is an active senior citizen, she chooses to start a GLP-1 mimetic. The nurse advises her that this class of drug may cause some gastrointestinal side effects, but if she experiences severe abdominal pain, she should seek immediate medical attention.
What acute abdominal issue can arise from taking a GLP-1 mimetic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:GLP-1 mimetics have been linked with an increased risk of severe pancreatitis, according to an alert issued by the MHRA in 2014. It is important to suspend GLP-1 mimetics immediately if pancreatitis is suspected. However, they do not cause appendicitis, drug-induced hepatitis, or acute mesenteric ischaemia.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 194
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What is the least probable reason for this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed GP training. A teenage patient presents in a very poor state of health. She is very thin and has multiple injection site marks. She tells you she has previously been prescribed methadone and is seeking to restart this.
What is your most appropriate response?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not prescribe and refer to specialist service
Explanation:Safe Prescribing of Methadone
It is crucial that doctors do not feel pressured to prescribe methadone without proper evaluation and consideration of the patient’s history. Methadone is a potent drug that can be dangerous if not prescribed correctly. Therefore, the prescriber must be experienced and competent in handling such cases.
Before prescribing methadone, the patient should undergo a drug screening, and their previous GP or drug team should be contacted. It is also advisable to involve a local drug worker in the patient’s care. Only after these steps should methadone be prescribed, and at a low dose, gradually increasing under the supervision of a pharmacist. The principle of start low, go slow should be followed to ensure the patient’s safety.
By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that methadone is prescribed safely and effectively, minimizing the risks associated with this potent drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 197
Incorrect
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Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak
Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.
Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.
It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, worried about potential hepatitis C infection. He has received multiple tattoos, all of which were done in the United Kingdom (UK). He has previously been vaccinated against hepatitis B. Upon examination, there are no indications of liver disease. What is the most suitable management advice to give this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be tested for anti-hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV)
Explanation:Screening and Testing for Hepatitis C Infection
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can cause liver damage and other serious health problems. It is important to screen and test for hepatitis C in certain individuals, particularly those with unexplained abnormal liver function tests or who have undergone procedures with unsterilized equipment.
Testing for anti-hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) serology is recommended for those suspected of having HCV infection, although false negatives can occur in the acute stage of infection. A liver ultrasound (US) may be used to look for evidence of cirrhosis, but is not a diagnostic tool for hepatitis C.
Screening for hepatitis C is necessary for those who have undergone tattooing, ear piercing, body piercing, or acupuncture with unsterile equipment, as these procedures can put a person at risk of acquiring the infection.
Testing for HCV deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is necessary to confirm ongoing hepatitis C infection in those with positive serology. Chronic hepatitis C is considered in those in whom HCV RNA persists, which occurs in approximately 80% of cases. Normal liver function tests do not exclude hepatitis C infection, and deranged LFTs should be a reason to consider screening for the virus.
In summary, screening and testing for hepatitis C is important for those at risk of infection or with unexplained abnormal liver function tests. Testing for HCV DNA is necessary to confirm ongoing infection, and normal LFTs do not exclude the possibility of hepatitis C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date
Explanation:Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations
Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.
To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.
In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his hypertension. Despite being on atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, he was found to have grade II hypertensive retinopathy. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). Additionally, his ECG revealed left ventricular hypertrophy. What potential diagnosis should be considered as a cause of his resistant hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism
This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension and has a low potassium concentration despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should have increased their potassium levels. These symptoms are highly suggestive of primary hyperaldosteronism, which can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be challenging to diagnose, but it is essential to do so as it can lead to severe complications if left untreated. By identifying the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms, doctors can develop an effective treatment plan to manage their hypertension and potassium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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