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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man is discharged after suffering a fractured neck of femur. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is discharged after suffering a fractured neck of femur. Upon follow-up, his progress is satisfactory, but there is a need to consider secondary prevention of future fractures. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange DEXA scan + start oral bisphosphonate if T-score < -1.5 SD

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache lasting 45 minutes associated with lacrimation...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache lasting 45 minutes associated with lacrimation and nasal stuffiness. A similar headache the previous day lasted for 60 minutes.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cluster Headache
      Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset of pain around one eye, accompanied by lacrimation, rhinorrhea, eyelid swelling, ptosis, myosis, facial sweating, and flushing. Attacks are unilateral and occur two to three times in a 24-hour period, lasting from 15 to 180 minutes untreated. Sufferers are restless during attacks, and treatment involves 100% oxygen and/or sumatriptan.

      Intracranial Tumour
      The chronic headache of an intracranial tumour or any other cause of raised intracranial pressure is usually worse in the morning, present on waking, and worse when lying down. The headache of raised intracranial pressure is not usually severe.

      Acute Glaucoma
      Acute glaucoma presents with a decrease in visual acuity, nausea, and a dull ache around the affected eye.

      Maxillary Sinusitis
      Maxillary sinusitis presents as constant dull pain over the maxillary sinus, worse on bending over, and may last up to two weeks.

      Trigeminal Neuralgia
      Trigeminal neuralgia presents with intense stabbing pain, usually lasting only a few seconds. Pain occurs in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve and is often precipitated by contact with the skin over the affected area. Pain is unilateral.

      Understanding the Characteristics of Different Headache Types

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old female presents at home with a few days of lower cramping...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents at home with a few days of lower cramping abdominal pain and some scanty brownish PV discharge. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago, and she typically has regular 28/5 cycles. She is sexually active but doesn't use any regular contraception.

      Upon examination, she is haemodynamically unstable and has generalised abdominal tenderness. A pregnancy test is not available, but her partner is willing to go to the Pharmacy to obtain one if necessary.

      What is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: Call 999

      Explanation:

      Urgent Action Required for Haemodynamically Unstable Patient

      The most appropriate course of action in this case is to call 999 and request an ambulance. This patient may have an ectopic pregnancy or may be miscarrying, and is therefore unstable and requires immediate resuscitation and transfer to hospital. While waiting for the ambulance, an attempt at IV cannulation and fluid resuscitation should be made.

      Arranging an assessment at the EPAU within 24 hours is inappropriate, as the patient is haemodynamically unstable and requires urgent admission via ambulance. Conducting a pelvic exam is not appropriate as this patient is haemodynamically unstable and has abdominal tenderness. Similarly, conducting a urine pregnancy test or taking blood for a serum βHCG would only cause unnecessary delay.

      It is crucial to prioritize the patient’s immediate medical needs and take urgent action to ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her health since starting first grade. The child has developed various new symptoms, and the parent suspects a food allergy as the symptoms improve during breaks from school. Which of the following symptoms would suggest a non-IgE-mediated allergy rather than an IgE-mediated allergy?

      Your Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      A non-IgE mediated food allergy is indicated by the presence of atopic eczema.

      Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      110.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old female presents to you with a pigmented skin lesion. She has...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old female presents to you with a pigmented skin lesion. She has come in because she has noticed that the brown-coloured lesion has grown in size. She denies any inflammation, oozing or change in sensation.

      On examination, there is an 8 mm diameter lesion on her right leg. The lesion is asymmetrical with an irregular notched border, it is evenly pigmented. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend using a '7-point weighted checklist' in order to evaluate a pigmented skin lesion.

      What is the score of this patient's skin lesion using the 7-point checklist based on the above clinical description?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions

      NICE guidance on Suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12) recommends using the ‘7-point weighted checklist’ to evaluate pigmented skin lesions. This checklist includes major and minor features of lesions, with major features scoring 2 points each and minor features scoring 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3 and the clinician strongly suspects cancer.

      For example, if a patient has a pigmented skin lesion that has changed in size and has an irregular shape, they would score 2 points for each major feature. Additionally, if the lesion has a diameter of 8 mm or more, it would score a single point for a minor feature. Therefore, the overall score for this lesion would be 5, indicating that it is suspicious and requires further evaluation.

      It is important for clinicians to use this checklist when assessing pigmented skin lesions to ensure that potential cases of skin cancer are not missed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A researcher is designing a study to investigate the impact of diet on...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is designing a study to investigate the impact of diet on the development of coronary artery disease in elderly individuals. They are aware that, depending on the type of study they choose, recall bias may affect the results. In which of the following types of study is this bias most likely to affect their results?

      Your Answer: Ecological study

      Correct Answer: Case-control studies

      Explanation:

      Types of Studies and the Risk of Recall Bias

      Recall bias is a common issue in research studies that rely on self-reported information from participants. Here, we will discuss different types of studies and their risk of recall bias.

      Case-Control Studies: In this type of study, groups of people with an illness are compared to control subjects to identify a causal factor. However, as participants are asked to self-report on their experiences, biases may creep in, leading to inaccurate reporting.

      Cohort Studies: Unlike case-control studies, cohort studies follow subjects through time, making them less susceptible to recall bias.

      Ecological Studies: These studies focus on populations rather than individuals, reducing the risk of recall bias as they do not rely on self-reported information.

      Randomized Controlled Trials: In this type of study, participants are randomly assigned to receive either the intervention being tested or an alternative treatment. As there is no reliance on retrospective self-reporting, the risk of recall bias is lower.

      Systematic Reviews: Systematic reviews summarize all available primary research on a topic. However, they may be confounded by the author’s own bias in selecting and interpreting evidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial bladder tumours and for regular surveillance. He complains of urinary frequency, a poor urinary stream, spraying of urine and dribbling at the end of micturition. These symptoms he has noticed for about a year. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is smooth, soft and normal in size. His prostate-specific antigen level is 2 ng/ml.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urethral stricture

      Explanation:

      Urethral Stricture: Causes, Complications, and Treatments

      Urethral strictures are commonly caused by injury, urethral instrumentation, and infections such as gonorrhoea or chlamydia. In this case, the repeated cystoscopies are a likely cause. This condition can lead to complications such as urinary retention and urinary infection.

      To treat urethral strictures, periodic dilation, internal urethrotomy, and external urethroplasty are common options. It is important to note that a normal feeling prostate, a normal prostate-specific antigen level, and regular bladder tumour surveillance make other diagnoses less likely in this case.

      In summary, understanding the causes, complications, and treatments of urethral strictures is crucial for proper management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back and bilateral leg pain. The lower...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back and bilateral leg pain. The lower back pain has been present for 6 months but gradually getting worse. Recently she has noticed that her legs ache when she walks further than about 300 meters. She is normally very active and enjoys hiking. The pain radiates to her buttocks, thighs and legs bilaterally (but her right leg is worse than the left). She describes the pain as 'aching' and 'tingling'. If she walks further than about 300 meters her legs become weak and numb. If she sits down and leans forward the symptoms go, and she can then carry on for another 300 meters. She says that the pain is better if she walks downhill. She finds standing exacerbates the symptoms but she can swim without any problems.

      The patient has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, but is otherwise healthy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case, and what is the first line investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spinal MRI

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with gradual onset leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness that is triggered by walking, spinal stenosis is the most probable diagnosis, especially if the clinical examination is normal. Patients with spinal stenosis typically experience relief from pain when sitting, leaning forward, or crouching, and walking uphill is less painful than walking on flat ground. Cycling doesn’t usually cause pain. The preferred imaging modality for spinal stenosis is an MRI.

      Peripheral vascular disease causing claudication is the most likely differential diagnosis, but this patient has good pulses and no risk factors. Lower limb dopplers would be used if vascular disease is suspected.

      While a spinal CT can be used if an MRI is contraindicated, it is not the first choice. An abdominal USS and a spinal x-ray are not appropriate for evaluating a patient with suspected spinal stenosis, so both of these options are incorrect.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      82.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle aches all over. What is not considered a risk factor for myopathy caused by statins?

      Your Answer: Female gender

      Correct Answer: Large fall in LDL-cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A young man who abuses drugs typically exhibits certain behaviors. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A young man who abuses drugs typically exhibits certain behaviors. Which of the following options would be atypical for such a person?

      Your Answer: Excessive care in physical appearance

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Signs of Drug Abuse

      Drug abuse can manifest in various behavioural signs that can be observed by those around the individual. One common sign is a drop in attendance and performance at work or school. The individual may also engage in secretive or suspicious behaviours, such as hiding their drug use or lying about their whereabouts. They may frequently get into trouble, such as fights, accidents, or illegal activities.

      Another sign of drug abuse is a sudden change in friends, favourite haunts, and hobbies. The individual may distance themselves from their usual social circle and become involved with a new group of people who are also using drugs. Additionally, they may have an unexplained need for money and resort to borrowing or stealing to acquire it.

      Deterioration in physical appearance and personal grooming habits is also a common sign of drug abuse. The individual may neglect their hygiene and appearance, or they may take excessive care of their appearance if they have a partner who is unaware of their drug use.

      Recognizing these signs of drug abuse can help individuals intervene and seek help for themselves or their loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      342.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of hearing voices narrating his actions...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of hearing voices narrating his actions and strongly believes he has been sent by God as a prophet, despite it not aligning with his religious beliefs. He displays tangentiality and clanging during a mental state examination. After two weeks, his symptoms completely resolve. The patient had a history of depression during his late teenage years and no prior similar episodes. What was the diagnosis for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Drug abuse

      Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient was experiencing symptoms of psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorganization. The most likely diagnosis is brief psychotic disorder, which is characterized by a short episode of psychosis followed by a return to baseline functioning. Bipolar affective disorder, drug abuse, and schizoaffective disorder are less likely diagnoses based on the information provided. It is important to take a thorough history to rule out any potential underlying causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      66.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the purpose of a study that examines the knowledge and attitudes...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of a study that examines the knowledge and attitudes of general practitioners in the north east of England (35 GPs from five practices) towards impaired glucose tolerance, as evidenced by quotes such as I think we all probably fight shy of diagnosing too many people with impaired glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: Results of this sort of research are presented as themes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Attitudes: An Example of Qualitative Research

      Qualitative research is a valuable tool for exploring attitudes. Researchers conduct semi-structured interviews with individuals and focus groups to identify themes that emerge from the data. The number of participants needed is determined by the point at which no new themes arise. In this study, the researchers found 35 subjects to be sufficient. Selection bias is not a concern in qualitative research, as participants are chosen based on their interest in the topic. While generalizability may be limited, the north east of England is similar enough to the rest of the UK to draw meaningful conclusions. Unlike quantitative research, statistics are not used in qualitative research. However, the themes that emerge can be used to create variables for a formal survey, which can be used to further test the findings with numerical data. Overall, qualitative research provides a rich understanding of attitudes and can serve as a foundation for more quantitative studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old man has been in India on a business trip. He developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been in India on a business trip. He developed diarrhoea while he was there and it has persisted for 10 days after his return. He has not vomited and doesn't have a raised temperature.
      Select from the list the single most likely cause of his diarrhoea.

      Your Answer: Shigella spp

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      Identifying and Treating Giardia: Symptoms and Treatment

      Giardia is a parasitic infection that should be suspected if symptoms of traveller’s diarrhoea persist for more than 10 days or if symptoms begin after returning home. Weight loss may also be present. However, if diarrhoea lasts for less than a week, it is likely caused by something else, such as norovirus. Vomiting is a common symptom of most diarrhoeal illnesses, except for shigella and giardia. Both Salmonella and Shigella infections may also cause high fever. Treatment for Giardia involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A man of 45 years is concerned about his family history of ischaemic...

    Correct

    • A man of 45 years is concerned about his family history of ischaemic heart disease. His father was a non-smoker and passed away due to a myocardial infarction at the age of 44 years. His paternal grandfather and a paternal uncle both suffered from myocardial infarcts in their forties.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Inherited Cardiovascular Conditions: Understanding the Genetics Behind Familial Hypercholesterolaemia, Haemochromatosis, Factor V Leiden Mutation, Homocystinuria, and Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

      Inherited cardiovascular conditions can significantly increase the risk of heart disease and other related health issues. Here are some key genetic factors to consider:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia affects approximately 1 in 500 people and is linked to a higher risk of cardiovascular disease. If a first-degree relative has died before the age of 60, measuring serum cholesterol is recommended.

      Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition that leads to excess iron accumulation in the liver and other tissues. While it is not associated with increased ischaemic heart disease, it may cause cardiomyopathy.

      Factor V Leiden mutation is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and affects clotting factor V. People with this mutation have an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

      Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal-recessive inborn error of methionine metabolism. While elevated plasma homocysteine levels are associated with ischaemic heart disease, it is less likely to be responsible for a strong family history compared to familial hypercholesterolaemia. Individuals with homocystinuria may have a marfanoid habitus and downward lens dislocation.

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and may cause sudden death at a young age due to arrhythmia or left ventricular outlet obstruction. While heart muscle is abnormal, it is not due to ischaemia. It is important to note that myocardial infarctions are not typically associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions?...

    Correct

    • Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions? Choose ONE option from the list.

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Anti-Ro (Anti-SSA) Autoantibodies in Various Autoimmune Diseases

      Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) autoantibodies are a type of antinuclear antibody (ANA) that bind to the contents of the cell nucleus. These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune diseases, including systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and Sjögren syndrome. In SLE, up to 50% of ANA-positive patients have the anti-Ro subtype, particularly if there is cutaneous involvement. In Sjögren syndrome, up to 90% of patients have anti-Ro antibodies. Anti-La (anti-SS-B) is also typically present in Sjögren syndrome but only in about 15% of SLE patients. Inflammatory myopathy, rheumatoid arthritis, and seronegative arthropathy have lower rates of anti-Ro presence, while vitiligo is not typically associated with these antibodies. Understanding the role of anti-Ro antibodies in different autoimmune diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      11
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and currently has a BP of 155/95 mmHg. She has noted that her face has become more rounded over the years and she is having increasing trouble with both acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has revealed impaired glucose tolerance. There has also been increasing trouble with abdominal obesity and she has noticed some purple stretch marks appearing around her abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing Syndrome: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Cushing syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by hypercortisolaemia, which leads to a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common features include a round, plethoric facial appearance, weight gain (especially truncal obesity, buffalo hump, and supraclavicular fat pads), skin fragility, proximal muscle weakness, mood disturbance, menstrual disturbance, and reduced libido. Hypertension is present in more than 50% of patients, impaired glucose tolerance in 30%, and osteopenia, osteoporosis, and premature vascular disease are common consequences if left untreated.

      The annual incidence of Cushing syndrome is approximately two per million, and it is more common in women. The cause of the disease is hypercortisolaemia, and in 68% of cases, it is due to a pituitary adenoma producing adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Ectopic ACTH production is the cause in 12% of cases (most commonly small-cell carcinoma of the lung and bronchial carcinoid tumours), adrenal adenoma in 10%, and adrenal carcinoma in 8%.

      Diagnosis of Cushing syndrome is made based on the results of the 24-hour urinary free-cortisol assay or the 1 mg (low-dose) overnight dexamethasone suppression test.

      Differential diagnosis includes multiple endocrine neoplasia, essential hypertension, phaeochromocytoma, and simple obesity. However, multiple endocrine neoplasia is less likely due to the rarity of the syndrome and lack of other features. Essential hypertension may respond to two agents but cannot explain the other symptoms and signs. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that secretes catecholamines and presents with headache, sweating, palpitations, tremor, and hypertension. Simple obesity is a differential diagnosis but cannot explain the other features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old man presents with hypogonadism and infertility. He had a normal puberty...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with hypogonadism and infertility. He had a normal puberty and there is no significant family history. On physical examination, he has gynaecomastia, small testes, and is tall. His sense of smell is normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: XYY syndrome

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Syndromes and Their Characteristics

      Klinefelter Syndrome: The Most Common Sex-Chromosome Abnormality

      Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra X chromosome (XXY) due to non-disjunction. It is the most common sex-chromosome abnormality, affecting 1 in 600 male births. Men with Klinefelter syndrome tend to be tall and may have mild learning difficulties, although many have normal intellect. This syndrome is also the most common cause of male hypogonadism and infertility.

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Learning Disability Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both sexes. In males, it is associated with macro-orchidism, but not hypogonadism or infertility. Females with Fragile X syndrome may experience premature ovarian failure. People with this syndrome have moderate-to-severe learning disabilities and average height.

      Kallmann Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism

      Kallmann syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, where levels of luteinising hormone and follicular stimulating hormone are low. It has several inheritance patterns, including dominant, recessive, and X-linked. People with Kallmann syndrome fail to go through puberty and are usually infertile. They also have anosmia, but most have normal or above normal height.

      Marfan Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Tall Stature

      Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes people to be tall and thin with long arms and legs compared to their trunk. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility, and intelligence is normal.

      XYY Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder

      XYY syndrome is a rare genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra Y chromosome in males due to non-disjunction. Symptoms are few but may include being tall, having acne, and a risk of learning difficulty. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      24.3
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  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of headaches that have been...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of headaches that have been bothering her for the past four months. She reports that the pain is located over the right fronto-parietal area and describes it as a constant dull ache that is worse at night and sometimes wakes her up from sleep. She has tried taking paracetamol, but it hasn't provided much relief. She denies experiencing any nausea, vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, forgetfulness, or tinnitus. Her medical history includes breast cancer at the age of 35, which required a right mastectomy. She has been managing her hypertension with amlodipine 10 mg daily for the past ten years. On examination, there is evidence of mild osteoarthritis in several joints, a right-sided mastectomy scar, and no neurological abnormalities or papilloedema. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for further investigation

      Explanation:

      In patients previously diagnosed with cancer, urgent referral is necessary if they develop any new neurological symptoms such as recent onset seizure, persistent headache, progressive neurological deficit, new mental or cognitive changes, or new neurological signs. Although amlodipine can cause headaches, if the patient has been taking the medication for a long time without problems, it is unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms.

      The referral pathway may vary by region, but the NICE guidance on suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12) recommends direct access for urgent MRI instead of referral to a neurologist. This is because it results in a faster diagnostic process for adults with a tumor, as they will be referred straight to a neurosurgeon after the scan instead of first to neurology, then for a scan, and then to neurosurgery.

      It is important to note that these recommendations are not requirements and do not override clinical judgment. Primary care clinicians have expertise in recognizing patients who are ill and knowing when something is wrong. Therefore, clinicians should trust their clinical experience where there are particular reasons that this guidance doesn’t pertain to the specific presentation of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250 µmol/l (50-110) before admission to hospital for radiographic investigation including intravenous contrast medium visualisation. Two days after discharge home his creatinine concentration is now 470 µmol/l and he has only passed small amounts of urine.
      Select from the list the single most correct option.

      Your Answer: He has acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is diagnosed through decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), increased serum creatinine or cystatin C, or oliguria. AKI is categorized into prerenal, renal, and postrenal. Prerenal AKI occurs when a normally functioning kidney responds to hypoperfusion by decreasing the GFR. Renal AKI refers to a condition where the pathology lies within the kidney itself. Postrenal failure is caused by an obstruction of the urinary tract. The most common cause of AKI in the renal category is acute tubular necrosis (ATN), which is usually due to prolonged ischaemia or nephrotoxins. Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as a significant increase in serum creatinine after a radiographic examination using a contrast agent. Preexisting renal insufficiency, preexisting diabetes, and reduced intravascular volume are associated with an increased risk of CIN. Adequate hydration is an important preventative measure. In most cases, renal function returns to normal within 7-14 days of contrast administration. Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and in those undergoing primary coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. However, in patients with diabetes and pre-existing severe renal failure, the rate of dialysis can be as high as 12%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic hepatitis B. The mother's recent test results indicate:

      HBsAg Positive
      HBeAg Positive

      What is the best approach to decrease the rate of vertical transmission?

      Your Answer: Give the mother hepatitis B immunoglobulin shortly before birth + the newborn hepatitis B vaccine

      Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a woman is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, her baby should receive a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Studies are currently being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the transmission rates of hepatitis B from mother to baby. It is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. Therefore, mothers with hepatitis B can safely breastfeed their babies without fear of transmission.

      Overall, screening for hepatitis B during pregnancy and taking appropriate preventative measures can greatly reduce the risk of transmission from mother to baby. It is important for healthcare providers to educate pregnant women about the importance of screening and prevention to ensure the health and safety of both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father was diagnosed with a malignant melanoma at the age of 49. He has worked in construction since leaving school and has spent many years working outside. He tells you that he has spent about 10 years working in North Africa, the majority of the time he spent outside in the sun.

      The patient has fair hair and blue eyes. You examine his skin and he has about 60 common naevi 2 mm or less in diameter. He also has four atypical naevi (naevi with flat and raised areas, oval in shape, with some colour variation) which are all 6 mm or more in diameter. He reports no changes in any of the moles but as he has so many is worried about his risk of skin cancer.

      What is the greatest risk factor for this patient to develop a melanoma?

      Your Answer: His history of high sun exposure

      Explanation:

      Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions and Identifying Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. The number and characteristics of naevi are the greatest risk factors for melanoma, with individuals who have more than 50 melanocytic naevi, of which 3 or more are atypical in appearance, classified as having atypical mole syndrome. This syndrome occurs in about 2% of the population and increases the risk of developing melanoma by 7 to 10 fold. The risk is further increased if there is a family history of melanoma in a first or second degree relative, known as familial atypical mole syndrome. Other risk factors include light-colored eyes, unusually high sun exposure, and red or light-colored hair.

      It is important to understand the extent of risk associated with these factors, as identifying high-risk patients presents an opportunity to advise them accordingly. Patients at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, and organ transplant recipients. Patients with giant congenital pigmented naevi also require long-term follow-up by a specialist, usually a dermatologist. By understanding these risk factors and providing appropriate guidance, healthcare professionals can help prevent and detect melanoma in high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are conducting a review of your repeat prescribing system due to a...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a review of your repeat prescribing system due to a recent complaint following a prescribing error involving a pediatric patient.
      What are the recommended best practices for repeat prescribing in order to reduce the occurrence of prescribing or monitoring errors in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Update medication from discharge summaries within 4 weeks of receipt

      Correct Answer: Request repeat prescriptions from any staff member by telephone

      Explanation:

      Practice-wide Defences Against Prescribing Errors

      A study conducted by GMC has identified several practice-wide defences against prescribing errors. These defences include strongly discouraging verbal repeat requests, performing face to face medication reviews, having blood tests one week before scheduled reviews, and updating records within 48 hours with hospital correspondence.

      To prevent prescribing errors, it is important to discourage verbal repeat requests as they can lead to confusion and mistakes. Face to face medication reviews can also help identify any potential errors and ensure that the patient is receiving the correct medication. Having blood tests one week before scheduled reviews can help monitor the patient’s health and ensure that the medication is working effectively. Finally, updating records within 48 hours with hospital correspondence can help ensure that all healthcare providers are aware of any changes in the patient’s medication or health status.

      By implementing these practice-wide defences, healthcare providers can help prevent prescribing errors and ensure that patients receive safe and effective care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A trial of a new cancer drug is taking place: 500 participants over...

    Correct

    • A trial of a new cancer drug is taking place: 500 participants over the age of 50 took part in the control arm and another 500 participants over the age of 50 took part in the experimental arm. The mortality in the control arm was 12.5% and the relative risk for patients receiving the new treatment was 0.8.
      What number of patients over the age of 50 must be treated with the new drug to save one life?

      Your Answer: 40

      Explanation:

      Understanding Absolute Risk Reduction and Number Needed to Treat

      Absolute risk reduction and number needed to treat are important concepts in clinical trials and medical research. Absolute risk reduction refers to the difference in the risk of an event occurring between two groups, such as a control group and an experimental group. The number needed to treat is the number of patients who need to be treated with a new intervention in order to prevent one adverse outcome compared to a control intervention.

      To calculate absolute risk reduction, one must first determine the mortality rate in each group and subtract the mortality rate in the experimental group from the mortality rate in the control group. The resulting number represents the absolute risk reduction. The number needed to treat can then be calculated by dividing 1 by the absolute risk reduction.

      It is important to understand these concepts in order to properly interpret the results of clinical trials and make informed decisions about medical interventions. By understanding absolute risk reduction and number needed to treat, healthcare professionals can make more informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He takes metformin and gliclazide.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mmHg. There are no signs of retinopathy. He feels well.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 53 mmol/mol < 43 mmol/mol
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 55 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) 5.4 mg/mmol (up from 3.0 mg/mmol three months ago) < 1.0 mg/mmol
      What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Kidney Disease in a Patient with Diabetes: Treatment Options

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common complication of diabetes, and early management is crucial to slow progression. In a patient with diabetic nephropathy and stage 3a CKD, the following treatment options are available:

      1. Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor: This is the most appropriate first-line treatment to reduce the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with diabetic kidney disease.

      2. Refer him to a Nephrologist: Management of CKD requires specialized care to slow progression.

      3. Optimise his diabetic control and repeat the test in six months: While important, diabetic control should not be the focus of immediate management in this patient.

      4. Start a direct renin inhibitor: This treatment is not a priority as the patient’s blood pressure is already below the target.

      5. Start a low-protein diet and repeat urinalysis in six months: Dietary protein restriction is not recommended in early-stage CKD, but high-protein intake should be avoided in stage 4 CKD under the guidance of a dietitian.

      In conclusion, early management of CKD in patients with diabetes is crucial to slow progression and reduce the risk of mortality. Treatment options should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and managed by a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - One of your elderly patients is prescribed denosumab for osteoporosis.

    What is a potential...

    Correct

    • One of your elderly patients is prescribed denosumab for osteoporosis.

      What is a potential adverse effect associated with denosumab therapy?

      Your Answer: Atypical femoral fractures

      Explanation:

      Although denosumab is usually well tolerated, it has the potential to cause atypical femoral fractures.

      Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.

      The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      8.1
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  • Question 26 - Olivia is a 27 year old who comes to you with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • Olivia is a 27 year old who comes to you with symptoms of severe obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first line pharmacological treatment for OCD?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      According to the 2005 NICE Guidance on the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder and body dysmorphic disorder, adults with OCD should be prescribed one of the following SSRIs as their first pharmacological treatment: fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline, or citalopram.

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.

      Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.

      The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.

      ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports feeling extremely hot and unable to concentrate, with a sensation of the world closing in on him. Although his symptoms have mostly subsided, he seeks medical attention. Upon examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 188/112 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. Fundoscopy reveals small retinal hemorrhages, but cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. The patient's PHQ-9 score is 15 out of 27. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit for a same day assessment of his blood pressure

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing severe hypertension, according to NICE guidelines, and is also exhibiting retinal haemorrhages. In such cases, NICE advises immediate referral and assessment. While the reported panic attack may be unrelated, it is important to rule out the possibility of an underlying phaeochromocytoma.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 2-year-old boy has cerebral palsy. He presents with profuse rhinorrhoea, pyrexia and...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old boy has cerebral palsy. He presents with profuse rhinorrhoea, pyrexia and noisy respiration. The noise is a heavy-snoring inspiratory sound. His tonsils are enlarged and inflamed.
      Which of the following describes the sound that this child is making?

      Your Answer: Stertorous

      Explanation:

      Stertorous refers to a noisy and laboured breathing sound, often heard during deep sleep or coma, caused by obstruction in the upper airways. Hypernasal speech is an abnormal voice resonance due to increased airflow through the nose during speech, caused by an incomplete closure of the soft palate and/or velopharyngeal sphincter. Rales, also known as crackles or crepitations, are clicking or crackling noises heard during auscultation, caused by the popping open of small airways and alveoli collapsed by fluid or exudate during expiration. Stridor is a high-pitched sound occurring during inhalation or exhalation, indicating respiratory obstruction, commonly caused by croup, foreign bodies, or allergic reactions. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound made while breathing, caused by narrowed airways, typically in asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old woman is diagnosed with locally invasive pancreatic cancer. She has decided...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is diagnosed with locally invasive pancreatic cancer. She has decided she doesn't want any oncological input. She lives with her husband of 50 years. She is clear she would like to be cared for at home as much possible. She comes alone to the appointment. She wants to discuss her care plans; in particular, she would like more information about a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?

      Your Answer: The LPA for Health and Welfare allows the attorney to make decisions about pensions and benefits if the donor no longer has mental capacity

      Correct Answer: The appointed attorney cannot always make decision about the donor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lasting Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare

      Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare is a legal document that allows a person to appoint one or more attorneys to make decisions on their behalf when they are unable to do so themselves. This LPA can only be invoked when the donor loses mental capacity, which may occur if they have a living will or have been sectioned.

      It is important to note that the LPA for Health and Welfare doesn’t give the attorney the right to make decisions about pensions and benefits. For such decisions, a separate LPA for Property and Financial Affairs must be considered.

      Once registered, the appointed attorney can make decisions about the donor’s health and care. It is not necessary for the appointed attorney to be a family member; they can be a friend, relative, or even a professional such as a solicitor.

      It is also important to renew the LPA every 12 months. The LPA will endure unless revoked by the donor while they still have mental capacity, revoked by the attorney, the donor loses mental capacity, they divorce or end a civil partnership, or they pass away.

      In summary, understanding the LPA for Health and Welfare is crucial for ensuring that a person’s wishes are respected and their best interests are protected when they are unable to make decisions for themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      17.7
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) in which he experiences a left hemiparesis. He is found to have a right carotid bruit, and carotid stenosis is suspected.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?

      Your Answer: A bruit is a sign of severe carotid stenosis

      Correct Answer: Surgery reduces the risk of stroke if he has severe carotid stenosis

      Explanation:

      Carotid Endarterectomy and Stenting for Severe Carotid Stenosis

      Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure recommended by NICE for patients with moderate or severe carotid stenosis. It is most beneficial for those with severe stenosis, reducing the risk of stroke by up to 30% over three years. However, the presence of a carotid bruit alone is not enough to confirm or exclude significant stenosis or its severity.

      Carotid endarterectomy is indicated for patients with recent stroke or transient ischaemic attack, but surgery should be carried out within seven days of symptom onset for maximum benefit. While stenting with an emboli protection device may be as effective as endarterectomy, there may be a higher risk of stroke initially post-procedure.

      In addition to surgical intervention, the best medical management includes lowering blood pressure, treatment with statins, and antiplatelet therapy. It is important to start treatment as soon as possible to maximize the benefits of surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (3/4) 75%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Population Health (2/3) 67%
Kidney And Urology (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (1/2) 50%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Passmed