00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to move his legs during the night. He recalls his mother also suffering from a similar condition, which she managed with magnesium salts.

      Which test is most probable to reveal an anomalous outcome?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Correct Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      The most important blood test for diagnosing restless legs syndrome is measuring the ferritin level, as it is commonly associated with iron deficiency. While a full blood count may be performed to ensure the patient is not anemic, it is not the most likely test to be abnormal. Magnesium levels are not the most likely abnormality in this condition, although it may be appropriate to check along with other tests for a comprehensive assessment. Nerve conduction studies would not be warranted for a patient with restless leg syndrome unless there was diagnostic uncertainty and concern for possible nerve damage.

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).

      There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.

      Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old insulin-dependent type 2 diabetic visits her GP with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old insulin-dependent type 2 diabetic visits her GP with a complaint of a burning sensation in her left leg. She mentions that the leg is very sensitive to touch as well.

      After diagnosis, the GP prescribes amitriptyline for neuropathic pain. However, after 12 weeks, the patient returns and reports no improvement despite taking the medication as directed.

      The GP decides to discontinue the use of amitriptyline. What alternative treatment options should the GP suggest next?

      Your Answer: Oral duloxetine

      Explanation:

      The initial drugs recommended for treating neuropathic pain are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these medications are ineffective, the next step is to try one of the remaining three drugs. Therefore, the correct option is duloxetine.

      According to NICE guidelines, lidocaine patches are not a recommended treatment for neuropathic pain.

      Topical capsaicin is only suitable for localized neuropathic pain. Using topical capsaicin for neuropathic pain affecting the entire leg would not be appropriate.

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, including oral naproxen, are not recommended for treating neuropathic pain.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.

      Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old boy, who has a known severe allergy to peanuts, comes to...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy, who has a known severe allergy to peanuts, comes to the emergency room after accidentally eating a peanut butter sandwich. He reports feeling itchy all over and his lips are starting to swell. He is having difficulty breathing and feels like he might pass out. His mother is in a panic, saying that she remembers a similar incident when he was younger.
      What is the initial treatment option that should be considered in this case?

      Your Answer: Administer 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis in General Practice: Importance of Emergency Knowledge

      There are few life-threatening situations that GPs encounter in their daily practice, but anaphylaxis is one of them. The RCGP emphasizes the need for examination candidates to be proficient in their knowledge of life-threatening emergencies such as this. An example of anaphylaxis could be a bee sting, medicine, or immunization reaction.

      Prompt injection of adrenaline is of paramount importance, and the preferred route of administration should be intramuscular. Other treatments may be supplemented, but adrenaline is the preferred first-line treatment. Chlorphenamine could be given by slow intravenous injection as an adjunctive treatment, as would be inhaled bronchodilators. Intravenous hydrocortisone is of secondary value because the onset of action is too slow compared to adrenaline.

      To issue a prescription for anything would be wholly inappropriate. This patient needs immediate treatment. Oral treatments are too slow in their action. Although we have not tested your wider knowledge of her management in this question, it is important to remember your basic resuscitation skills.

      It is crucial to carry emergency drugs in your doctor’s bag and know the correct dose of adrenaline to administer. Most vials of adrenaline come as 1 in 1000, but a 1 in 10,000 ampoule is available and this could lead to errors. It is essential to check the drug bag and ensure that all medications are within date. In case of an anaphylactic reaction to an immunization in a baby, the correct dose of adrenaline should be known.

      In conclusion, anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. GPs should be proficient in their knowledge of emergency management and carry emergency drugs in their doctor’s bag.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing frequent episodes of shortness of breath and a productive cough with purulent sputum. What is the most common trigger for these exacerbations?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza

      Explanation:

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of intravenous drug use and unprotected sex. During pre-test counselling, you have an in-depth conversation about the disease.
      Which of the following statements regarding HIV is inaccurate?
      Select ONE choice only.

      Your Answer: It is estimated that about a quarter of HIV-positive people in the UK are unaware of their status

      Correct Answer: HIV testing may give false positive results in the first 3 months after exposure

      Explanation:

      HIV Testing Guidelines and Statistics in the UK

      The BHIVA/BASHH/BIS UK National Guidelines for HIV Testing recommend using the latest 4th generation tests, which detect HIV antibodies and p24 antigen simultaneously. These tests can detect HIV in the majority of individuals 4 weeks after exposure. However, a further test at 8 weeks should be considered for events with a high risk of infection. It is important to note that false negative results can occur in the first 8 weeks, but false positive results are not common during this time. In 2011, around 96,000 people were living with HIV in the UK, and approximately 25% of them were unaware of their infection. It is crucial to follow the recommended testing guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who is concerned that she has another episode of tonsillitis. A locum sent a throat swab 3 days earlier, which is reported as showing a Group A streptococcus.
      Select the single most appropriate management.

      Your Answer: 7 days amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: 10 days penicillin V

      Explanation:

      Throat Swabs and Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat

      Throat swabs are not always reliable in differentiating between infection and carriage, and their results take up to 48 hours to be reported. However, they may be useful in high-risk groups to guide treatment choices in case of treatment failure. Symptomatic treatment and a delayed prescription may be reasonable options for sore throat, but after three days, a prescription for antibiotics may be necessary. Penicillin V is the recommended antibiotic for a 10-day course, while erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given for 5 days if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s condition and risk factors is necessary in determining the appropriate treatment for sore throat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to...

    Incorrect

    • A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to provide concerning sperm collection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She reports difficulty gripping objects and has spilled her tea on herself multiple times. The woman also mentions feeling extremely fatigued and describes her legs as feeling heavy. She has experienced a few falls, including one where she hit her head. After a neurological exam, the GP suspects motor neurone disease but is considering other diagnoses based on which of the following symptoms or signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction in eye movements

      Explanation:

      Motor neurone disease typically spares eye movements, as extraocular eye muscles are often unaffected. The disease is characterized by progressive paralysis, with a mix of upper and lower motor neurone signs that can result in increased or decreased tone and weakness. Fasciculations are a common lower motor neurone sign, while foot drop is an early manifestation of the disease. Patients with MND may also develop bulbar symptoms, such as speech and swallowing difficulties, which can increase their risk of aspiration and pneumonia.

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.

      Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it doesn’t affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed...

    Incorrect

    • A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed fracture of the tibia following a playground accident and is expected to wear a cast for 8 weeks.

      The child's father says that he will need help with bathing and transport to school and wonders about financial assistance because domestic finances are tight.

      Regarding the Disability Living Allowance (DLA) for under 16s, what advice would you give him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The child must have needed care for the preceding month to be eligible

      Explanation:

      Disability Living Allowance (DLA) and Personal Independence Payment (PIP)

      Disability Living Allowance (DLA) is a tax-free benefit that assists with the additional expenses of caring for a child who requires assistance due to a disability or health condition. The benefit is paid to the child’s parent or caregiver, such as a step-parent, guardian, grandparent, foster parent, or older sibling over the age of 18. To qualify for DLA, the child must require more day-to-day assistance than other children of the same age without a disability, and the assistance must have been necessary for at least three months and expected to continue for at least six months. DLA is made up of a care component and a mobility component, with varying rates for each.

      Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is gradually replacing DLA for individuals aged 16 or older who have not yet reached State Pension age. PIP is designed to assist with the additional expenses of living with a disability or health condition and is based on an individual’s ability to carry out daily living activities and mobility. PIP is also tax-free and is made up of two components: daily living and mobility. The daily living component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate, while the mobility component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate.

      Overall, both DLA and PIP are essential benefits that provide financial assistance to those who require additional support due to a disability or health condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pandemic

      Explanation:

      Key Terms in Epidemiology

      Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health and disease in populations. In this field, there are several key terms that are important to understand. An epidemic, also known as an outbreak, occurs when there is an increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is expected in a given population over a specific time period. On the other hand, an endemic refers to the usual or expected level of disease in a particular population. Finally, a pandemic is a type of epidemic that affects a large number of people across multiple countries, continents, or regions. Understanding these terms is crucial for epidemiologists to identify and respond to disease outbreaks and pandemics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG had shown sinus tachycardia.

      Her blood tests had showed:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 23 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      You had started her on a beta-blocker and referred her to secondary care for specialist treatment. However, the patient returns to you stating that her appointment is in 4 months' time and she cannot carry on with her symptoms for that long.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This young female patient is likely suffering from Graves’ disease, causing hyperthyroidism and symptoms such as sweating, palpitations, and restlessness. A low TSH and high T4 confirm the diagnosis, along with positive TRAbs. While waiting for secondary care, starting carbimazole is the appropriate course of action to alleviate symptoms. Seeking senior or remote specialist advice can help with prescribing. Referring to the emergency department is unnecessary as the palpitations are occasional and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Starting amiodarone is not recommended as it can cause thyroid dysfunction and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia, not atrial fibrillation. Continuing to wait for secondary care review doesn’t address the patient’s symptoms and concerns.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which medication is not suitable for subcutaneous administration and should not be used...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is not suitable for subcutaneous administration and should not be used in a syringe driver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levomepromazine

      Explanation:

      Medications for Syringe Drivers

      Not all medications can be used in syringe drivers for subcutaneous infusion due to the risk of injection site skin reactions. Diazepam, chlorpromazine, and prochlorperazine are contraindicated. Diamorphine is the most commonly used medication in syringe drivers, and it can be mixed with other medications such as cyclizine, dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide and hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides detailed information on mixing and compatibility of medications used in syringe drivers. It is important to note that phenobarbital and diclofenac are not compatible with diamorphine and should be given using a separate syringe driver. Understanding the appropriate medications for syringe drivers is crucial for healthcare professionals, and it is a common topic in the MRCGP examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high resting blood pressure.

      Ambulatory testing revealed a level of 146/84 mmHg. He has no signs of end organ damage on standard testing.

      According to the latest NICE guidance (NG136), what would be your most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of NICE Guidance on Hypertension

      This passage discusses the latest NICE guidance on hypertension and its importance in evaluating the long-term balance of treatment benefit and risks for adults under 40 with hypertension. However, it also highlights the criticism that the guidance has received from some clinicians, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring. It is important to have a balanced view and be aware of other guidelines and consensus opinions in medicine. While AKT questions may not contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to consider the bigger picture and not solely rely on the latest guidance. Remember that the questions test your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion. Proper understanding of NICE guidance on hypertension is crucial, but it is equally important to have a broader perspective on the matter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her left hand. She complains of a dull aching pain in her forearm, which is made worse by carrying a shopping bag. On examination you find weakness of the left abductor pollicis brevis and mild weakness of thumb flexion. Finger abduction and adduction appear to be within normal limits. There is sensory loss to pinprick mainly affecting the left thumb and index finger. Phalen's sign is positive. Sensorimotor examination of the right hand is normal. The deep tendon reflexes are symmetrical.
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of the right median nerve in the carpal tunnel

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can be caused by pregnancy, fluid retention, hypothyroidism, osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes, and hereditary tendency to pressure palsy. The symptoms include weakness and sensory loss in the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis. Phalen’s sign, which involves flexing the wrist for 60 seconds, can help diagnose the condition. Nerve conduction studies can confirm the diagnosis. Pronator teres syndrome, which is rare, can also cause forearm pain, but carpal tunnel syndrome is more likely in pregnant patients with a positive Phalen’s sign. Compression of the ulnar nerve produces symptoms at the medial side of the forearm and hand, while brachial plexopathy and C8 nerve root irritation usually involve the length of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to the 2014 NICE guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with mechanical knee locking symptoms should be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance for Managing Osteoarthritis Pain

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends exercise for all patients with osteoarthritis. When analgesia is necessary, paracetamol and topical NSAIDs should be the first line of treatment, followed by oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors if needed. However, a proton pump inhibitor should be used alongside these medications to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

      NICE doesn’t recommend the use of acupuncture or glucosamine for managing osteoarthritis pain. Arthroscopic debridement, a surgical procedure to remove damaged tissue from the joint, is only indicated if the patient has a clear history of mechanical locking, rather than morning joint stiffness, giving way, or X-ray evidence of loose bodies.

      Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of exercise and non-pharmacological interventions in managing osteoarthritis pain, while also providing recommendations for safe and effective use of analgesic medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
      Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased serum cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth. At 6 months, the testicle is palpable in the inguinal canal, but cannot be brought down into the scrotum.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgery at 6 months

      Explanation:

      Undescended Testicles in Infants: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Undescended testicles, also known as cryptorchidism, is a common condition in male infants where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. This can lead to potential complications such as infertility and an increased risk of testicular cancer.

      The recommended course of action is to refer the infant to paediatric surgery or urology before six months of age. The current recommended timing for surgery is before 12 months of life to preserve the stem cells for subsequent spermatogenesis. However, even with surgical treatment, long-term outcomes remain problematic with impaired fertility and an increased cancer risk.

      If one or both testicles are retractile, annual follow-up throughout childhood is advised due to the risk of ascending testis syndrome. Hormone treatment is an option, but it has a lower success rate and more adverse effects compared to surgery.

      For cases where a single testis is undescended, a referral to paediatric surgery or urology should be made by six months of age if the testis has not descended. It is important to review the surgical option after 12 months of age.

      Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing undescended testicles in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who is 29 weeks pregnant and has come for routine vaccinations. She reports experiencing ankle swelling and her blood pressure has increased from 117/74 mmHg at booking to 143/91 mmHg today. A urine dipstick test has revealed 1+ protein, - leukocytes, and - nitrites. What would be the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent admission to obstetric unit

      Explanation:

      Meera’s condition has progressed to pre-eclampsia, indicated by her blood pressure exceeding 140/90 mmHg and the presence of proteinuria at a level of 1+ or higher. As per NICE guidelines, it is imperative that she is promptly admitted to an obstetric unit for close observation and potential intervention.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The wife of a 65-year-old man contacts you urgently for a home visit....

    Incorrect

    • The wife of a 65-year-old man contacts you urgently for a home visit. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. According to his wife, he is experiencing severe dizziness due to labyrinthitis and is unable to leave his bed.

      Upon arrival, you find the patient in bed, complaining of intense dizziness that makes him feel like the room is spinning. He has vomited multiple times and cannot stand up. He has never experienced this before.

      During the assessment, the patient's vital signs are normal. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities. Neurological examination of the limbs shows normal power, tone, reflexes, and coordination. However, he cannot walk for a gait examination. Eye examination shows bidirectional nystagmus on lateral gaze bilaterally. A head impulse test is normal with no catch-up saccades seen. All other cranial nerves are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call ambulance and refer to on-call stroke team

      Explanation:

      The HiNTs exam is a helpful tool for differentiating between vestibular neuronitis and posterior circulation stroke in cases of acute vertigo. It consists of three steps, with a fourth step recently suggested for detecting AICA infarcts. The exam assesses for nystagmus, skew deviation, head impulse test, and new unilateral hearing loss. A normal head impulse test is concerning and warrants referral to the acute stroke team. While prochlorperazine may be useful for acute peripheral vestibular neuropathy, betahistine is only licensed for Meniere’s disease. As this patient’s symptoms are ongoing, a TIA clinic would not be appropriate, and urgent neuroimaging should be performed before considering high dose aspirin. If there is any diagnostic uncertainty, referral for same-day assessment is necessary.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old woman visits the local radiotherapy suite, where she is undergoing radiotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits the local radiotherapy suite, where she is undergoing radiotherapy treatment for endometrial cancer after a radical hysterectomy. She reports that both of her legs have been swollen for some weeks but that, in the last day, her right calf has become more swollen and is slightly painful on weight-bearing.
      On examination, she can weight bear and there is no change in the left leg. The right calf is 36 cm when measured 10 cm distal to the tibial tuberosity, compared with 32 cm on the left. There is mild pitting oedema on the right ankle and medial calf tenderness.
      What is the most appropriate scoring tool to use in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wells score

      Explanation:

      Scoring Tools in Clinical Practice

      In clinical practice, various scoring tools are used to aid in the diagnosis and management of different medical conditions. The Wells score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients with symptoms such as pain and swelling in the calf. The Ottawa ankle rules, on the other hand, are guidelines used to determine if a patient with foot or ankle pain should undergo an X-ray to diagnose a possible ankle bone fracture. The National Early Warning Score (NEWS) is a tool developed to improve the detection and response to clinical deterioration in adult patients. The CHA2DS2VASC score is used to assess the stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation, while the Child-Pugh score is used to measure the severity of liver cirrhosis. These scoring tools play a crucial role in clinical decision-making and patient management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic with her 10-year-old daughter. She discloses...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic with her 10-year-old daughter. She discloses that she has familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH), with her most recent LDL cholesterol reading at 15. She is worried about the impact of this on her daughter and wants to know if there is a way to test her for the condition. The child's father doesn't have the illness.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a FH specialist for diagnostic testing and advice on further management

      Explanation:

      If a parent has familial hypercholesterolaemia, it is recommended to arrange for their children to be tested by the age of 10. NICE guidelines emphasize that even if there are no clinical signs, children can develop cardiovascular disease. Therefore, it is important to refer them to a specialist clinic for diagnostic testing and tailored therapy if necessary. It is crucial to refer the child before they reach the age of 10.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision that have been present for two days. He has been taking amlodipine 5 mg, which was prescribed at the same clinic two weeks ago. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 190/115 mmHg. Although his cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, retinal hemorrhages are observed during fundoscopy, but no papilledema is present. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent specialist care on the same day

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral to Specialist Care for Hypertension

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with accelerated hypertension or suspected phaeochromocytoma should be referred to specialist care on the same day. Accelerated hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure usually higher than 180/120 mmHg with signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage. Suspected phaeochromocytoma is characterized by labile or postural hypotension, headache, palpitations, pallor, and diaphoresis.

      It is important to note that if a patient presents with a blood pressure higher than 180/120 mmHg, it is crucial to examine their fundi and check for the presence or absence of papilloedema or retinal haemorrhages. Additionally, healthcare professionals should consider the need for specialist investigations in patients with signs and symptoms suggesting a secondary cause of hypertension. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You assess a patient with metastatic melanoma who is presently on MST 50...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient with metastatic melanoma who is presently on MST 50 mg bd. Regrettably, he is encountering notable drowsiness and queasiness, and you opt to attempt switching him to oxycodone. What is the suitable starting dose of Oxycontin (modified release oxycodone) to prescribe for a patient like him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxycontin 30 mg bd

      Explanation:

      The current conversion factor for oral morphine to oral oxycodone according to the BNF is 1.5 (meaning 10 mg of oral morphine is equivalent to 6.6mg of oral oxycodone). However, other sources such as palliative care formularies suggest a conversion factor of 2. Despite the discrepancy, the most suitable dosage option from the choices provided is 30 mg twice daily, which corresponds to a conversion factor of 1.66.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the most significant reason to avoid initiating an SSRI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most significant reason to avoid initiating an SSRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute mania

      Explanation:

      Caution with SSRIs in Bipolar Patients

      Acute mania is a contraindication for SSRIs, and caution should be exercised when using them in other conditions. However, this can be a problem for bipolar patients who have not yet been diagnosed. Often, these patients present with depression in primary care and are given SSRIs as a first-line treatment. Unfortunately, this can worsen their condition if they are actually experiencing a manic episode.

      If a person taking an antidepressant as monotherapy develops mania or hypomania, it is important to consider stopping the medication. This is especially true for bipolar patients who may be more susceptible to these adverse effects. By being cautious and aware of the risks, healthcare providers can help ensure that their patients receive the appropriate treatment for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man is undergoing a routine health check with his family doctor....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is undergoing a routine health check with his family doctor. He reports feeling less active than he used to but has no other specific complaints and is not taking any regular medication. Biochemical tests reveal the following results: serum alkaline phosphatase of 550 U/l (normal range: 44-147 U/l), serum creatinine concentration of 132 µmol/l (normal range: 60-120 µmol/l), calcium of 2.42 mmol/l (normal range: 2.25-2.5 mmol/l), phosphate of 1.21 mmol/l (normal range: 0.8-1.4 mmol/l), and albumin of 41 g/l (normal range: 35-50 g/l). What is the most likely cause of the high alkaline phosphatase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Elevated Serum Alkaline Phosphatase Activity in Bone Diseases

      Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity is a common finding in bone diseases that involve increased osteoblastic activity. One such condition is Paget’s disease of bone, which is often seen in elderly patients and may not always present with symptoms. In contrast, osteomalacia typically presents with symptoms such as pain, proximal muscle weakness, or a general feeling of being unwell, and is characterized by low-normal or low serum calcium levels. Osteoporosis, on the other hand, doesn’t typically result in elevated alkaline phosphatase levels or abnormal serum biochemistry results. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by elevated levels of both alkaline phosphatase and calcium, is unlikely in patients with normal calcium levels. Finally, while renal osteodystrophy may be associated with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, the severity of renal impairment in this patient is not likely to be the cause of such a high level. In addition, serum phosphate levels are usually elevated and calcium levels are low in this condition. Overall, understanding the relationship between serum alkaline phosphatase activity and various bone diseases can help clinicians make accurate diagnoses and develop appropriate treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who has presented with left groin pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who has presented with left groin pain. She has also noticed a clicking sensation in her hip when she moves. She is a keen runner and is unable to participate in races. She thinks the pain may have started after a twisting injury she had during one of her runs. On examination, you notice that she complains of pain adduction and internal rotation of the hip. She is afebrile, and there is no pain on palpation of the outside of the hip and no joint swelling. A recent X-ray of her hip was normal.

      What could be a possible cause of Sarah's pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetabula labral tear

      Explanation:

      Hip and groin pain accompanied by a snapping sensation are common symptoms of acetabular labral tears. On the other hand, plain radiographs can reveal left hip osteoarthritis and an acetabular fracture. Septic arthritis is characterized by hip swelling and fever, while trochanteric bursitis typically causes pain when the side of the hip is palpated. Acetabular labral tears are a mechanical cause of hip pain that may result from minor injuries like twisting or falling. Diagnosis usually requires an MRI.

      Acetabular labral tear is a condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of trauma, while older adults may develop it due to degenerative changes. The main symptoms of this condition include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking sensations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman with hepatitis C visits your clinic as she is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with hepatitis C visits your clinic as she is considering starting a family. She has no other medical issues. She inquires about the likelihood of her baby contracting hepatitis C.

      What is the probability of the virus being passed from mother to child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75-100%

      Explanation:

      Transmission Rates of Hepatitis B and C from Mother to Child

      The transmission rate of hepatitis B virus from mother to child can be as high as 90%, while the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus is only about 6%. This is because the neonatal immune system is not yet mature enough to fight off the hepatitis B virus, but it is able to fight off the hepatitis C virus to some extent. However, if the mother is also HIV positive, the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus can be higher. It is important to take time to understand this information before making any decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 12-year-old girl with profound learning disabilities is brought to her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl with profound learning disabilities is brought to her General Practitioner for her annual review. She is non-verbal and requires help with all personal care. She has recently moved into a care home and is accompanied by an experienced carer. She raises concerns that the patient might be depressed, as she has noticed behaviours common to other depressed patients in her care.
      Which of the following features of depression is most likely to present in someone with a moderate-to-severe learning disability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychomotor retardation

      Explanation:

      Identifying Depression in Individuals with Learning Disabilities

      Individuals with learning disabilities may present with symptoms of depression, including psychomotor retardation, disturbed sleep, loss of appetite, loss of weight, and diurnal variation in symptoms. The Glasgow Depression Scale for learning disabilities and the Glasgow Depression Scale carer’s supplement can be used to assess these symptoms. However, some criteria for depression, such as feelings of worthlessness or guilt, may be difficult to assess without a certain level of developmental comprehension and communication. Lack of concentration and subjective reduction in energy may also be present. Suicidal ideation is challenging to assess in individuals with limited conceptual and language skills, and physical or behavioral cues may be the only indicators of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual review. She feels well, although over the last 6 months she has been more tired than usual. She puts this down to starting a new job with increased hours.

      Her past medical history includes hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine 5mg once a day. She was diagnosed with mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) last year. She is a non-smoker and drinks 5-10 units of alcohol a week.

      Her blood pressure today is 130/82 mmHg. A respiratory and cardiovascular examination are both normal. A urine dip is also normal.

      Her blood results today show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 57 mL/min/1.73 m2. An early morning albumin: creatinine ratio is 25 mg/mmol. The rest of her blood test results are as follows:


      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9mmol/l
      Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 µmol/l

      Looking back through her notes, her eGFR was 77 mL/min/1.73 m2 12 months ago and >90 mL/min/1.73 m2 2 years ago.

      What would be a correct next step for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrology referral

      Explanation:

      Referral to a nephrologist is necessary if there is a sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. However, in the case of this patient with a normal urine dip, a urology referral would not be necessary. According to NICE guidelines, treatment for hypertension should be followed if the patient has an ACR of <30 mg/mmol, and ACE-i can be started in non-diabetic patients. Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - An 80-year-old woman presents for medical review. She has a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents for medical review. She has a medical history of hypertension, angina, and osteoarthritis. Her current medications include aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 5 mg OD, bisoprolol 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg OD, paracetamol 1g QDS, and topical ketoprofen gel PRN. She reports that despite using paracetamol and topical NSAID, she still experiences pain in her hands and knees due to osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral paracetamol and codeine combination (for example, co-codamol)

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Osteoarthritis

      Here we have a patient with knee and hand osteoarthritis who is currently taking oral paracetamol and a topical anti-inflammatory but still experiences symptoms. The next step in treatment options would be an oral NSAID, COX-2 inhibitor, or opioid analgesic. However, since the patient has a cardiac history and is already taking aspirin, an opioid analgesic would be the safest option. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of NSAID use, particularly their potential gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity.

      To add an opioid analgesic, oral codeine can be prescribed and combined with paracetamol in a co-codamol. It is recommended to initiate patients on separate products, starting at a low dose and titrating as needed. This allows for determining what works best for the patient and avoiding unnecessary medication with increased side-effect risk. Dose reduction of paracetamol is also gaining momentum in patients aged 70 or over, which should be considered when using co-products.

      In summary, the pharmacological management of osteoarthritis should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s medical history and potential risks and benefits of different treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 5-year-old child is seen in surgery with malaise and a rash.

    What features...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is seen in surgery with malaise and a rash.

      What features would lead you to suspect that this child has measles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Violaceous papules on the wrists

      Explanation:

      Understanding Koplik Spots in Measles Diagnosis

      Koplik spots are a crucial clinical sign of measles infection, named after the American Paediatrician, Henry Koplik, who first described them in 1896. These spots appear as red spots with a bluish-white central dot on erythematous buccal mucosa, often described as looking like grains of salt on a wet background. They typically appear 1-2 days before the rash and may persist for a further 1-2 days afterwards.

      It is essential for healthcare professionals to recognize Koplik spots as a pathognomonic feature of measles infection. However, fewer doctors may know how to identify them. Other clinical signs, such as herald patches, sub occipital lymph nodes, oral ulceration, and violaceous papules on the wrist, are not specific to measles and may lead to misdiagnosis.

      In addition to accurate diagnosis, infection control measures should be considered in the GP surgery/OOH setting. For example, scheduling appointments for suspected measles patients at the end of surgery to avoid sharing a waiting room with vulnerable individuals. It is also crucial for healthcare workers and carers to ensure they are immune or have received 2 × MMR vaccines themselves to prevent the spread of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) to the surgery, the Practice Manager has asked you to identify which age group should be offered the vaccine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All adults aged 70-79 years

      Explanation:

      Serologic studies reveal that adults aged 60 years and above have been exposed to Chickenpox to a great extent. Hence, it is recommended that individuals within the age range of 70-79 years should receive the vaccine, irrespective of their memory of having had Chickenpox. However, the vaccine may not be as efficacious in individuals above 80 years of age.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and toes, along with scaling of the skin between her toes. Despite completing a 4-week course of topical imidazole, her symptoms have not improved since her initial presentation 4 weeks ago, which confirmed athlete's foot through a positive culture of skin scrapings. What is the recommended treatment at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a course of oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      If the initial topical treatment for athlete’s foot is unsuccessful, it is recommended to use oral antifungal treatment. Continuing with topical treatment is not the best approach, and referring the patient to a dermatologist is another option. Topical corticosteroids should only be used in cases of severe inflammation and irritation to alleviate symptoms. Flucloxacillin, being an antibiotic, is not appropriate for this condition.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting with you for 6 weeks due to feelings of low mood. She denies having any thoughts of self-harm and there are no concerns about the safety of her children.

      She has undergone a low-intensity psychosocial intervention, but her symptoms have not improved, and she now has a PHQ-9 depression questionnaire score of 12, indicating moderate depression. She is interested in trying an antidepressant and has no allergies or medical conditions that would prevent her from taking medication.

      What is the recommended first-line medication for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating less severe depression, the recommended first-line antidepressant is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) like sertraline. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) such as amitriptyline are no longer considered the first choice due to their increased risk of overdose. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) like isocarboxazid are rarely prescribed due to their potential for serious side effects. Noradrenaline and specific serotonergic antidepressants (NASSAs) like mirtazapine may be an alternative for those who cannot take SSRIs, but they may cause more drowsiness.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at term without any complications. She is worried about his frequent feeding, especially in the evenings when he can nurse for hours and seems a bit more fussy than during the day. However, he has no vomiting and is producing an adequate amount of wet and dirty diapers. The mother wants to continue breastfeeding and reports that she feels comfortable during feedings with no pain. Upon examination, the baby appears well-hydrated and is not jaundiced. His temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all within normal range for his age. There are no concerns about his weight.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer reassurance, encourage continuing to breastfeed and offer signposting to local breastfeeding team for further support

      Explanation:

      Frequent feeding in a breastfed baby doesn’t necessarily indicate low milk supply in the mother. It is uncommon for a mother to have low milk supply, and if the baby is growing well and producing enough urine, it is a good sign that the milk supply is sufficient. In fact, frequent feeding or cluster feeding is normal in the early weeks and helps to establish a good milk supply. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to seek support from local and national breastfeeding groups and consult with a trained professional to ensure proper infant positioning and latch.

      There is no need to refer the baby to a pediatrician at this stage. It is not recommended to supplement breastfeeding with formula, especially in the early weeks, as this can decrease milk supply. It is important to feed the baby on demand to stimulate milk production. If milk is not removed from the breast, milk production will decrease.

      While maternal prolactin deficiency is a rare cause of low milk supply, testing for it is not necessary in this scenario. If there are signs of low milk supply, such as a baby failing to thrive or becoming dehydrated, and after addressing positioning and latch issues, maternal prolactin deficiency may be considered. Factors that increase the likelihood of this condition include a history of maternal thyroid disorder, eating disorder, hypoplastic breasts, or breast surgery.

      For more information on breastfeeding problems, refer to the NICE clinical knowledge summary.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has shown signs of developmental delay. She had delayed speech development, was a late walker, and is behind her peers in many areas.
      The mother has been taking regular medication for bipolar disorder for the past seven years, which she has been told may have caused her daughter's issues. Currently, her mental health is stable, and she has no other diagnosed health conditions.
      Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Teratogenic Risks of Common Medications During Pregnancy

      Valproic acid, commonly used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, is highly teratogenic with a 30-40% chance of neurodevelopmental problems and 10% risk of congenital malformations in newborns if taken during pregnancy. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, carries a risk of neonatal tremor and hypertonia if taken during the third trimester, but no known neurodevelopmental risks. Prochlorperazine, used for nausea and vomiting, may cause extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal in newborns during the third trimester, but no neurodevelopmental issues are listed. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has no specific teratogenic warnings. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for anxiety and depression, has a small risk of congenital heart defect but no neurodevelopmental issues. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these risks and provide appropriate counseling and monitoring for pregnant patients taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 65-year-old man presents with an acute red eye.

    Of the following conditions which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with an acute red eye.

      Of the following conditions which is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closed angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Red Eye

      There are several causes of acute red eye, with glaucoma being the most likely to present with this symptom. Other possible causes include anterior uveitis, corneal ulcers, conjunctivitis, scleritis and episcleritis, and subconjunctival haemorrhage. It is important to note that optic neuritis presents with a specific type of central visual loss known as a central scotoma, while retinal vein occlusion, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage typically present as visual loss or disturbance. Understanding the various causes of acute red eye can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 75 year-old man is referred by his GP to the memory clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year-old man is referred by his GP to the memory clinic and is diagnosed with mild vascular dementia. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and early peripheral vascular disease. Which medication listed below would be the best option for treating his cognitive symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine, are a class of drugs used to treat cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia. The goal is to slow down the rate of decline, and approximately half of patients respond positively to the medication. However, it is challenging to determine the individual response as it is unknown how much deterioration would have occurred without the medication. Memantine, a glutamate receptor antagonist, is another drug used in Alzheimer’s disease and is recommended by NICE for severe dementia or when anticholinesterase inhibitors are not suitable. Rivastigmine can also be prescribed for dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease. Unfortunately, there are currently no medications available to treat cognitive symptoms in vascular dementia.

      Understanding the Causes of Dementia

      Dementia is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide, and it is caused by a variety of factors. The most common causes of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, cerebrovascular disease, and Lewy body dementia. These conditions account for around 40-50% of all cases of dementia.

      However, there are also rarer causes of dementia, which account for around 5% of cases. These include Huntington’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Pick’s disease, and HIV (in 50% of AIDS patients). These conditions are less common but can still have a significant impact on those affected.

      It is also important to note that there are several potentially treatable causes of dementia that should be ruled out before a diagnosis is made. These include hypothyroidism, Addison’s disease, B12/folate/thiamine deficiency, syphilis, brain tumours, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural haematoma, depression, and chronic drug use (such as alcohol or barbiturates).

      In conclusion, understanding the causes of dementia is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment. While some causes are more common than others, it is important to consider all potential factors and rule out treatable conditions before making a final diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 2-year-old boy whose mother says he is allergic to milk, eggs and fish.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing

      When dealing with a potential case of food allergy or intolerance, it is crucial to gather a detailed symptom history to identify possible allergens and determine if the reaction is IgE-mediated, which could lead to anaphylaxis. Symptoms such as acute urticaria, nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic, rhinorrhea, itchy eyes, or bronchospasm with a temporal relationship to the offending item may suggest an IgE-mediated reaction. However, it is important to note that many people attribute symptoms to food that are not actually caused by it.

      To support or refute the mother’s suspicions, a skin-prick test and/or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods can be performed in conjunction with the symptom history. However, it is essential to remember that there have been cases of systemic reactions and anaphylaxis in food allergen skin testing, so referral is necessary in most cases.

      Hay fever is typically diagnosed clinically, so a skin-prick test is unnecessary. Acute urticaria usually resolves within six weeks, so testing is also unnecessary unless the patient can identify a possible trigger. Skin-prick testing is not typically performed on asthmatics unless there is a likely precipitant that could be eliminated. For hairdressers, who are prone to both irritant and allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing would be appropriate for diagnosing delayed hypersensitivity.

      Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on delaying her menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on delaying her menstrual cycle for a week during her upcoming travels. She doesn't smoke, has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, and has no history of heart disease or breast cancer. She is currently using only barrier contraception.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer norethisterone to be taken 3 days before the onset of periods until her return, advising the patient it will not act as contraception

      Explanation:

      To delay their periods, women who are not on the combined hormonal contraceptive pill can take norethisterone 5 mg three times a day, starting three days before their expected period. It is important to note that this method doesn’t provide contraception, and additional contraception should be used. It is not necessary to take norethisterone seven days before the expected period. The progestogen-only pill, tranexamic acid, and copper intra-uterine device are not recommended for period delay. Tranexamic acid may be used for heavy periods.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is infectious for at least 2 months after the termination of the coughing

      Explanation:

      Pertussis: Diagnosis and Symptoms

      Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is most contagious during the first 7-14 days of the illness, which is called the catarrhal phase. During this phase, there is an increase in lymphocytes in the blood. Diagnosis of pertussis can be made by taking blood for pertussis serology or by isolating the organism from nasal secretions. It is important to note that an inspiratory whoop may not always be present, but complete apnoeic episodes can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 55-year-old has just been diagnosed with hypertension and you have commenced treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old has just been diagnosed with hypertension and you have commenced treatment with an ACE inhibitor (ACE-I).

      As per NICE guidelines, what are the monitoring obligations after initiating an ACE-I?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No monitoring required

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Recommendations for ACE-I Treatment

      After initiating ACE-I treatment, it is recommended by NICE to monitor renal function and serum electrolytes within 1-2 weeks. However, if the patient is at a higher risk of hyperkalaemia or deteriorating renal function, such as those with Peripheral Vascular Disease, diabetes, or the elderly, it is suggested to check within 1 week. Blood pressure should be checked 4 weeks after each dose titration. After the initial monitoring, renal function and serum electrolytes only need to be checked annually unless there are abnormal blood test results or clinical judgement indicates a need for more frequent testing. By following these monitoring recommendations, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and efficacy of ACE-I treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a 40-year-old male. You note he was seen one week ago by a colleague who made a diagnosis of psoriasis on account of scaly, red patches on the scalp and elbows.

      He presents today to tell you that 'the rash has spread to the nails'. On examination, you note pitting and discoloration of the nails. He complains of pain and tenderness in the affected nails.

      What is the most appropriate option from the below to manage his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzydamine mouthwash

      Explanation:

      For managing the symptoms of oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash can be used as a locally-acting non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. In severe cases, systemic steroids or topical steroids can also be considered. It is important to note that sodium lauryl sulphate, a common ingredient in healthcare products, may be associated with aphthous ulceration in certain patients. Chlorhexidine and hydrogen peroxide mouthwashes are primarily used for oral hygiene and not for addressing oral discomfort.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 29-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her first child....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her first child. She has no significant medical history and is seeking guidance on vitamin D supplementation. What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should steer clear of soft cheese as it may pose a risk of Listeria infection.

      Specific Points for Antenatal Care

      Antenatal care is an essential aspect of pregnancy, and NICE has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. Some specific points to consider during antenatal care include nausea and vomiting, vitamin D, and alcohol consumption.

      For nausea and vomiting, natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point are recommended by NICE. However, antihistamines such as promethazine are suggested as first-line treatment in the BNF.

      Vitamin D is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. NICE recommends that all women should be informed about the importance of maintaining adequate vitamin D stores during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Women may choose to take 10 micrograms of vitamin D per day, as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women at risk, such as those who are Asian, obese, or have a poor diet, should take particular care.

      Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines recommending that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all. The official advice is to keep risks to the baby to a minimum, and the more alcohol consumed, the greater the risk.

      In summary, antenatal care should include specific points such as managing nausea and vomiting, maintaining adequate vitamin D levels, and avoiding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. These guidelines aim to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 56-year-old woman who has undergone a hysterectomy seeks guidance regarding hormone replacement...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman who has undergone a hysterectomy seeks guidance regarding hormone replacement therapy. How does the use of a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation differ from an oestrogen-only preparation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      To minimize the risk of breast cancer, it is recommended to avoid adding progestogen in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Therefore, women who have had a hysterectomy are usually prescribed oestrogen-only treatment. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), the risk of stroke remains unchanged regardless of whether the HRT preparation includes progesterone.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which statement accurately defines the rates of true and false positive and negative...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately defines the rates of true and false positive and negative rates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The false-negative rate is calculated as (1 - sensitivity)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing

      Medical testing is an essential tool for diagnosing and treating diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the accuracy of these tests. Sensitivity and specificity are two measures that help determine the effectiveness of a medical test. Sensitivity measures how well the test correctly identifies people who have the condition, while specificity measures how well the test correctly excludes people without the condition. A perfect test should have a sensitivity and specificity of 100%. The table provided can help candidates better understand how sensitivity and specificity are calculated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), despite not experiencing any exacerbations in the past year. During the appointment, the GP orders some routine blood tests.

      What alterations could be observed on the full blood count as a chronic effect of this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased concentration of haematocrit

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia can be a long-term complication of COPD that may be detected through a full blood count. This condition is caused by chronic hypoxia, which triggers the kidneys to produce more erythropoietin and increase haemoglobin levels. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, is a reduction in platelet count that can be caused by various factors such as medication side effects, vitamin deficiencies, or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Conversely, thrombocythemia, or an elevated platelet count, can be caused by inflammation, malignancy, or infection. Leukopenia, or a decrease in white blood cells, can be a result of acute infection or serious conditions like HIV or cancer. Finally, anaemia, or a decrease in haemoglobin concentration, can be caused by deficiencies in iron, vitamin B12, or folic acid.

      Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.

      To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.

      In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some...

    Incorrect

    • A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some burning pain in both nipples during feeds and for up to an hour after. She also reports some itching and sensitivity in her nipples. The baby is growing well and there are no other concerns. During examination, the mother's breasts and nipples appear normal, but the infant has white patches on their tongue. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby

      Explanation:

      When treating nipple candidiasis during breastfeeding, it is recommended to use miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby. This is likely to be nipple thrush, and it’s important to treat both mother and baby simultaneously to prevent re-infection, even if the baby shows no signs of infection. It’s worth noting that while miconazole gel can also be used for babies over 4 months, it’s not licensed for those under 4 months due to concerns about choking on the gel. Parents should be carefully informed about the risks and how to administer it safely if it’s prescribed.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/2) 50%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/2) 0%
Passmed