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  • Question 1 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting at night. He is wetting the bed almost every night. Despite trying to use the toilet before bedtime, limiting fluid intake before bedtime, and implementing a reward system for dry nights, there has been no improvement. What should be the next course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If lifestyle measures and a reward chart have not helped with nocturnal enuresis in a child over the age of 5, the next step would be to consider an enuresis alarm or desmopressin. As the child in this scenario is 6 years-old, the first-line treatment would be to try an enuresis alarm before considering other options. Desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age of 7 who do not wish to use an enuresis alarm or if a short term solution is needed.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      422.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of intermittent headaches and feeling tired...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of intermittent headaches and feeling tired for the past two weeks. Upon conducting blood tests, the following result is obtained:

      ESR 67 mm/hr

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a well-known historical condition. Immediate treatment with high doses of steroids, such as prednisolone at 1 mg/kg/day, is crucial to minimize the risk of vision loss.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      615.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at a time) accompanied by a blank facial expression. He stops what he is doing during the attack and remains motionless. Several of these can occur during the day.
      Which statement correctly describes this condition?

      Your Answer: Neuroimaging (MRI) is necessary in patients presenting like this

      Correct Answer: Hyperventilation may precipitate an attack

      Explanation:

      Childhood Absence Epilepsy: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Childhood absence epilepsy, also known as petit mal epilepsy, is a type of generalized epilepsy that typically begins between the ages of four and seven. While the seizures associated with this condition are not usually life-threatening, they can have a significant impact on a child’s education, development, and behavior.

      Diagnosis of childhood absence epilepsy is typically made through a combination of clinical history and electroencephalogram (EEG) testing. Hyperventilation can be used to trigger an absence seizure, which is characteristic of this type of epilepsy. Neuroimaging is not typically necessary unless there is a suspicion of structural abnormalities.

      Treatment for childhood absence epilepsy typically involves medication, with sodium valproate, ethosuximide, and lamotrigine being the drugs of choice. In some cases, a combination of medications may be necessary to fully control seizures. The ketogenic diet may also be effective for some children.

      The prognosis for childhood absence epilepsy is generally good, with 80% of patients responding well to medication. However, tonic-clonic seizures may develop in up to 40% of children with this condition, and persistence of seizures is more likely in these cases. Despite the challenges associated with childhood absence epilepsy, educational attainment and behavior are typically not affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      277.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Each of the following can lead to cataract formation except for one. Which...

    Correct

    • Each of the following can lead to cataract formation except for one. Which one is it?

      Down's syndrome
      12%
      Hypercalcaemia
      28%
      Diabetes mellitus
      6%
      Long-term steroid use
      6%
      Uveitis
      48%

      Is it true that hypocalcaemia, not hypercalcaemia, is a contributing factor to cataract formation?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Cataract formation is more likely to occur due to hypocalcaemia rather than hypercalcaemia.

      Understanding Cataracts

      A cataract is a common eye condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, making it difficult for light to reach the retina and causing reduced or blurred vision. Cataracts are more common in women and increase in incidence with age, affecting 30% of individuals aged 65 and over. The most common cause of cataracts is the normal ageing process, but other possible causes include smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes mellitus, long-term corticosteroids, radiation exposure, myotonic dystrophy, and metabolic disorders such as hypocalcaemia.

      Patients with cataracts typically experience a gradual onset of reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. Signs of cataracts include a defect in the red reflex, which is the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Diagnosis is made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which reveal a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, patient choice, and the risks and benefits of surgery. Complications following surgery may include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis. Despite these risks, cataract surgery has a high success rate, with 85-90% of patients achieving corrected vision of 6/12 or better on a Snellen chart postoperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.

      Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.

      Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      454.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old builder presents to the clinic with persistent hypertension despite optimal medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old builder presents to the clinic with persistent hypertension despite optimal medical management. The patient is well and has no other medical conditions. The hypertension was initially detected coincidentally during a well man check. As the patient remains hypertensive, investigation for secondary causes is considered.
      Which feature is most suggestive of renovascular hypertension?

      Your Answer: An abdominal bruit best heard at the flank

      Correct Answer: A rise of serum creatinine of ≥ 20% on starting an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Renovascular hypertension can have various presentations and is often asymptomatic. However, certain features may suggest the diagnosis, such as abrupt onset of hypertension in middle-aged or older patients, severe hypertension, hypertension developing in a patient with other evidence of vascular disease, hypertension in the absence of a family history of hypertension, renal impairment occurring during treatment with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, hypertension with hypokalaemia, recurrent episodes of acute pulmonary oedema, and an abdominal bruit best heard over the flank. Renovascular hypertension occurs when stenosed renal arteries prevent afferent flow, and angiotensin II becomes the only mechanism by which the kidney can increase filtration. ACE inhibitors remove this regulatory mechanism and reduce perfusion pressure. Therefore, renal impairment following initiation of an ACE inhibitor would be more indicative of a renovascular problem than refractory hypertension with two Antihypertensive agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      340.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which genetic condition is a result of a trinucleotide repeat expansion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which genetic condition is a result of a trinucleotide repeat expansion?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and doesn’t demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      154.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting fluoxetine treatment for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior history of taking antidepressants and has no other medical conditions. During the assessment, she denies any suicidal thoughts and has good support from her partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She reports no adverse effects from fluoxetine but has heard positive feedback about St John's Wort from a friend. What would be the most appropriate action to take for this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose of Fluoxetine and arrange weekly telephone contact to increase support

      Correct Answer: Change to a tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs

      When a patient has been taking a Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.

      There are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, it is important to note that switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics requires great caution as it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.

      Although there is some evidence of the benefit of St John’s Wort, it is not recommended that doctors prescribe or advocate its use due to the lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and antiepileptics.

      For moderate depression, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication. It is important to monitor the patient’s response to treatment and adjust accordingly to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes and generalized itching for the past 5 days. She denies any fever, myalgia, or abdominal pain. She reports that her urine has become darker and her stools have become paler. She has been in good health otherwise.

      The patient had visited the clinic 3 weeks ago for a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 months.

      On examination, the patient appears jaundiced in both her skin and sclera. She has no rash but has multiple scratches on her arms due to itching. There is no palpable hepatosplenomegaly, and she has no abdominal tenderness.

      Laboratory tests reveal:

      - Bilirubin 110 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT 120 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with cholestatic jaundice, likely caused by the oral contraceptive pill. This results in intrahepatic jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis would cause hepatocellular jaundice, while Gilbert’s syndrome is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Choledocholithiasis could also cause obstructive cholestasis. It is appropriate to stop the pill and consider alternative contraception methods, and additional imaging may be necessary if jaundice doesn’t resolve.

      Drug-induced liver disease can be categorized into three types: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there can be some overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of liver changes. Certain drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture, such as paracetamol, sodium valproate, and statins. On the other hand, drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill, flucloxacillin, and anabolic steroids tend to cause cholestasis with or without hepatitis. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone are known to cause liver cirrhosis. It is important to note that there are rare reported causes of drug-induced liver disease, such as nifedipine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate...

    Incorrect

    • A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate release oxybutynin tablets.

      She says she had to stop taking them because of side effects.

      What side effect is commonly found in elderly women taking oxybutynin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Oxybutynin

      Oxybutynin is a medication that belongs to the antimuscarinic class of drugs. It is commonly used to treat urinary incontinence and overactive bladder. However, it can cause several side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, dry eyes, and decreased sweating. If the immediate release formulation of oxybutynin is not well-tolerated, a sustained release formulation may be considered.

      It is important to note that a recent clinical review published in the BMJ has highlighted the potential cognitive side effects of medications with a high anticholinergic burden, including oxybutynin. This can lead to cognitive impairment, which can worsen the symptoms of dementia or even lead to false positive diagnoses. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential side effects of oxybutynin and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history of persistent fatigue. He has no medical problems and takes no regular medication. He briefly injected heroin when he was younger but has not done so for the last ten years.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Blood-Borne Infections Commonly Associated with Intravenous Drug Use

      Intravenous (IV) drug use is a major risk factor for acquiring blood-borne infections. The most common infections associated with IV drug use are hepatitis C, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and hepatitis B. Syphilis and tetanus are also possible, but less common, infections.

      Hepatitis C is the most prevalent blood-borne virus among IV drug users, affecting up to 50% of users in the UK and 67% worldwide. Acute infection is usually asymptomatic or presents with vague symptoms, but can progress to chronic hepatitis C in the majority of cases. Cirrhosis and liver failure are potential long-term complications.

      HIV is present in up to 15% of IV drug users and is transmitted through shared needles. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms, followed by an asymptomatic period until the CD4 count drops enough to allow for opportunistic infections.

      Hepatitis B is less common than hepatitis C among IV drug users, but still poses a risk. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms and can progress to chronic infection, which increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can also be transmitted through direct contact with skin lesions or mucous membranes. Primary infection presents with a painless ulcer, followed by a generalised rash and lymphadenopathy. Latent syphilis can be asymptomatic, but is not associated with IV drug use.

      Tetanus is rare in the UK due to immunisation programs, but can occur if spores enter an open wound. It presents with muscle stiffness and spasms, but is not associated with a prolonged asymptomatic period or IV drug use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading for...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading for the past two weeks. She has never worn glasses and is not taking any medications. On examination, her pupils are of normal size but react sluggishly to light. Both optic discs appear sharp with no signs of haemorrhages or exudates. The patient's visual acuity is significantly impaired and remains so even with the use of a pinhole card. During left lateral gaze, five-beat nystagmus and double vision are observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis

      This young woman exhibits symptoms that suggest retrobulbar neuritis and cerebellar features, including nystagmus. The most likely diagnosis is Multiple sclerosis. To confirm this diagnosis, visual evoked responses, MRI scans revealing demyelinating plaques, and oligoclonal bands on CSF examination can be conducted.

      Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. It can cause a wide range of symptoms, including vision problems, muscle weakness, and difficulty with coordination and balance. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who is concerned about his memory. He has no recollection of recent or distant events, but responds to every question with a very detailed, yet incorrect, answer.

      Upon examination, he displays ataxia and nystagmus. He has not visited a doctor in over 25 years, doesn't take any regular medication, and has consumed eight pints of beer per night for the past 35 years.

      What is the most probable deficiency causing this presentation? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Korsakoff syndrome, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine). This syndrome is a late manifestation of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy and is characterized by mental confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. It is most common in people in their fifties and sixties and is caused by alcoholism or other factors such as chronic subdural hematoma, nutritional stress, AIDS, hyperemesis gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, long-term dialysis, or congestive heart failure. Urgent medical assessment and admission for parenteral thiamine is necessary, as it can be fatal if left untreated. Zinc deficiency, on the other hand, is characterized by symptoms such as anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, growth restriction, impaired immune function, delayed sexual maturation, learning disability, weight loss, and macular degeneration. It is not related to memory or cognitive problems, ataxia, or nystagmus. Vitamin B2 deficiency is more common in vegetarians, vegans, pregnant women, or young children and is thought to have a role in migraines. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes symptoms such as cognitive and memory disturbance, headaches, dyspepsia, loss of appetite, palpitations, visual disturbance, weakness and lethargy, angina, optic neuropathy, symmetrical neuropathy affecting the legs more than the arms, and a megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin E deficiency is rare in healthy people and is strongly associated with conditions affecting absorption, such as Crohn’s disease or cystic fibrosis. However, this patient’s history of alcohol excess makes thiamine deficiency much more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old man visits his primary care physician with concerns about a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man visits his primary care physician with concerns about a persistent ulcer on his tongue that has been growing for a few weeks. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes a day, and drinks alcohol regularly. Upon examination, the physician notes bilateral submandibular lymphadenopathy, multiple dental caries, and a 1-cm ulcer on the lateral border of his tongue. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer under 2-week rule

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Tongue Cancer

      Tongue cancer is a common type of oral cancer, with about 75% of cases occurring on the mobile tongue. It typically presents as a persistent growing lesion, which may be painless or painful. Carcinoma of the tongue base is often clinically silent until it infiltrates the musculature. Risk factors for tongue cancer include poor dental hygiene, smoking, drinking, and betel and pan consumption in ethnic minorities.

      All suspicious tongue lesions should be referred urgently under the 2-week rule for exclusion of malignancy. Treatment options for tongue cancer include surgery and radiotherapy. The overall 5-year survival rates are 60% for women and 40% for men.

      It is important to note that prescribing Tri Adcortyl® ointment or antibiotics would not be appropriate for the management of tongue cancer. Instead, urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment is necessary.

      In some cases, a chancre caused by syphilis may present as a solitary, painless, indurated, reddish ulcer on the oral mucosa. Therefore, testing for syphilis and treating if positive may be necessary in some cases. However, it is important to differentiate between syphilis and tongue cancer, as the management and prognosis differ significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 44-year-old patient is discharged from hospital following Covid-19 infection, during which time...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old patient is discharged from hospital following Covid-19 infection, during which time she was treated with tocilizumab.

      Past medical history includes Chickenpox as a child and asthma.

      What advice would you give this patient after receiving treatment with tocilizumab or sarilumab?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should seek immediate medical attention if she develops signs or symptoms of diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Tocilizumab Treatment

      Tocilizumab is a medication used to treat severe rheumatoid arthritis and Covid-19 infection. However, it can lower the immune system’s ability to fight infections, increasing the risk of new or worsened infections. Additionally, it can suppress the C-Reactive Protein response for up to three months, making it a less reliable marker of infection.

      It is important for GPs to be aware of these points for patients who have been treated in the hospital. Patients may be at an increased risk of infections, and signs of infection may be reduced. Therefore, increased vigilance is advised for timely detection of serious infections. Tocilizumab and sarilumab can also increase the risk of bowel perforation in people with diverticular disease.

      Patients who have received tocilizumab treatment should avoid live vaccines for three months post-dose. If they are VZV IgG negative, they should avoid contact with anyone showing signs or symptoms of Chickenpox or shingles and seek medical advice if inadvertent exposure occurs. Women of childbearing potential must use effective contraception for three months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain at night. He reports that the pain has been present for a few months and has recently worsened over the past two weeks. He denies any other symptoms and states that he generally feels well. He has no history of limb weakness, walking difficulties, pins and needles, or bladder and bowel problems. Additionally, he has never had any previous back injuries.
      The patient's medical history includes childhood asthma, mild osteoarthritis of the fingers and knees, and prostate cancer three years ago.
      Upon examination, there is tenderness over the thoracic spine area, and he experiences discomfort on flexion. Straight leg raising is normal, and there are no neurological abnormalities in the limbs.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to oncology

      Explanation:

      Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression: A Medical Emergency

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) is a medical emergency that should be considered in all cancer patients with back pain. Back pain is the most common sign, occurring in 90% of cases and may pre-date neurological changes by a considerable length of time. However, once neurological symptoms and signs are present, such as leg weakness, increased reflexes, a sensory ‘level’ and sphincter disturbance, the prognosis for recovery with treatment (surgery or radiotherapy) is much poorer.

      NICE guidelines on metastatic spinal cord compression (CG75) advise contacting the MSCC coordinator urgently (within 24 hours) to discuss the care of patients with cancer and any symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases. These symptoms include pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe unremitting lower spinal pain, spinal pain aggravated by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain preventing sleep.

      It is worth noting that 77% of people diagnosed with MSCC have an established diagnosis of cancer, where 23% present with MSCC as the first presentation of malignancy. This medical emergency can occur in any area of the spine, and prompt recognition and treatment are essential for the best possible outcome. Therefore, it is crucial to contact the MSCC coordinator immediately to discuss the care of patients with cancer and symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases who have any neurological symptoms or signs suggestive of MSCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for an urgent appointment. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for an urgent appointment. She has a diffuse headache, which she describes as severe. The headache is acute, having developed within the last three hours. She lost consciousness for a brief period. There is no significant past medical history.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with a sudden, severe headache, subarachnoid haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause, with or without loss of consciousness. Menigeal irritation may take some time to appear. In cases of epilepsy, postictal headaches are common, lasting between six and 24 hours. Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset and unilateral pain around the eye, temple or forehead, often accompanied by lacrimation or rhinorrhoea. Migraines are also unilateral and may be preceded by an aura, with associated nausea and vomiting. TIAs usually present with focal neurological symptoms, rather than headaches, and loss of consciousness is not typical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is 20 weeks pregnant with her first child....

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is 20 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath in recent weeks and has started coughing up pink frothy sputum, particularly when lying down. She reports no chest pain. Blood tests reveal no anemia, but upon listening to her chest, you detect a mid-diastolic heart murmur at the apex. Her chest exam is otherwise normal, and her resting pulse is 90 bpm SR with O2 sats at 96%. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral Stenosis: Symptoms and Findings

      Mitral stenosis is a condition where patients experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema due to increased left atrial pressure. This is more common in younger patients and can be exacerbated by situations of increased blood volume, such as during pregnancy. As a result, a previously asymptomatic patient may present to their GP during pregnancy.

      Typical findings in mitral stenosis include a small pulse that may be irregularly irregular. Jugular venous pressure is only raised if there is heart failure, right ventricular hypertrophy, tapping apex beat, loud S1, loud P2 if pulmonary hypertension, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur heard at the apex only, or presystolic accentuation murmur if no atrial fibrillation.

      In summary, patients with mitral stenosis may experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema, and typical findings include a small pulse and irregularly irregular heartbeat. Jugular venous pressure may only be raised in certain situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old lady comes to see you after a routine assessment by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old lady comes to see you after a routine assessment by her optician. She has had no visual problems prior to the assessment. The assessment revealed early nuclear sclerotic cataracts bilaterally. Her corrected visual acuity today is 6/5 in the right eye and 6/5 in the left eye.

      What is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cataracts and Driving Requirements

      It is common for individuals to develop nuclear sclerotic cataracts as they age. However, there is no need for referral unless there is a visual impairment that affects the patient’s lifestyle. If a person has a visual acuity of 6/5, it means they can read at a distance of six meters what a person with normal vision can read at five meters. Therefore, if a patient has excellent vision, they are unlikely to benefit from new glasses.

      There is no indication for a person to stop driving if they meet the minimum eyesight standard for driving, which is a visual acuity of at least 6/12 measured on the Snellen scale. To drive legally, a person must also be able to read a car number plate made after 1 September 2001 from a distance of 20 meters, with glasses or contact lenses if necessary.

      It is important to note that YAG laser capsulotomy is a procedure carried out for posterior capsular opacification, which can develop after cataract extraction. This procedure is not necessary for a patient with nuclear sclerotic cataracts and would not benefit them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old female with hypothyroidism visits your GP clinic to discuss her pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female with hypothyroidism visits your GP clinic to discuss her pregnancy. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and wants to know if she should continue taking levothyroxine. She is taking 75 mcg of levothyroxine daily.

      Her thyroid function tests were done 3 weeks ago, before she knew she was pregnant. The results are as follows:

      TSH 3.2mU/L

      What advice would you give her regarding her levothyroxine medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily

      Explanation:

      An endocrinologist should be consulted for women with hypothyroidism who are planning pregnancy. According to a review in the British Journal of General Practice, their levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to maintain a preconception TSH concentration of less than 2.5 mu/L. Upon conception, the daily dose of levothyroxine should be increased by 25-50 mcg and thyroid function should be monitored to ensure TSH remains below 2.5 mU/L. Therefore, increasing the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily would be the correct course of action, while doubling the dose may be too large an increase. It would be inappropriate to reduce, stop, or maintain the same medication dosage as thyroxine requirements increase during pregnancy.

      During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.

      On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - During a home visit, a 75-year-old female patient complains of a chesty cough....

    Incorrect

    • During a home visit, a 75-year-old female patient complains of a chesty cough. However, she also mentions experiencing severe and progressive right-sided eye pain since this morning. She has noticed blurry vision in the same eye and has been feeling nauseous, vomiting twice. As she has blue eyes, acute angle-closure glaucoma is suspected. Unfortunately, there will be a delay admitting the patient as the ambulance is at least 45 minutes away. What is the most appropriate method of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask the patient to lie flat, face up with no pillow

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of altered bowel habits. He reports experiencing constipation for the past 3 months, followed by occasional episodes of loose stools. He denies any associated pain, rectal bleeding, or unexplained weight loss. The patient is in good health, has a regular diet, and takes no medications. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal immunochemical testing (FIT)

      Explanation:

      For patients who show new symptoms of colorectal cancer but do not meet the 2-week referral criteria, it is recommended to undergo the FIT test. In this case, as the patient is under 60 years old, an urgent referral is not necessary. However, if the change in bowel habit persists, it is important to consider a referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist. It is not appropriate to request a faecal calprotectin test as it is mainly used for suspected IBD cases. A full blood count is necessary, but it should not be the only test performed. The most crucial step in management is to request a FIT test, which can trigger a 2-week wait if the result is positive. While providing reassurance to the patient is important, it should not be done without any investigation as it may lead to missing a potential colorectal cancer.

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating, and her husband, while archiving photos from recent years, noticed an increased prominence of her jaw now. Last year she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Other past history of note is that she has recently been operated on for carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growth-hormone levels are likely to remain above 1 µg/l after a 75 g glucose load

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. A diagnosis is confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test, as growth hormone levels remain elevated above 1 µg/l. Symptoms include coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, and soft tissue swellings. Nerve compression, hypertension, and cardiovascular complications may also occur. Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are elevated in patients with acromegaly and can be used to monitor treatment efficacy. Random growth hormone testing is unsuitable due to episodic secretion. Treatment involves trans-sphenoidal resection of the pituitary tumor. Additionally, some patients with acromegaly may have increased levels of 1,25-OH vitamin D, which can cause hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP complaining of an increasingly debilitating tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP complaining of an increasingly debilitating tremor in his hands. He first noticed the tremor about a year ago, but it has worsened over the past few months and he is now having difficulty keeping his hands steady when working with wood. Additionally, he reports changes in his voice with the appearance of a mild vibrato.

      During the neurological examination, a high-frequency tremor is observed, most pronounced on the right, when the patient holds up his arms in front of him. The tremor disappears when the patient relaxes his arms and hands, and there is no evidence of ataxia or hypotonia.

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential tremor

      Explanation:

      Essential tremor is commonly associated with a sustained muscle tone tremor in the hands, but it can also affect the vocal cords. It is unlikely to be caused by cerebellar disease or Parkinson’s disease, and orthostatic tremor is rare and affects the legs.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, previously known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. Its main feature is a postural tremor that worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the most common cause of titubation, which is a head tremor.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During which phase of clinical trials is the drug's effectiveness specifically evaluated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase IIb

      Explanation:

      Phases of Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to determine the safety and efficacy of new treatments or drugs. These trials are commonly classified into four phases. The first phase involves determining the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of the drug, as well as any potential side effects. This phase is conducted on healthy volunteers.

      The second phase assesses the efficacy and dosage of the drug. It involves a small number of patients affected by a particular disease. This phase may be further subdivided into IIa, which assesses optimal dosing, and IIb, which assesses efficacy.

      The third phase involves assessing the effectiveness of the drug. This phase typically involves a larger number of people, often as part of a randomized controlled trial, comparing the new treatment with established treatments.

      The fourth and final phase is postmarketing surveillance. This phase monitors the long-term effectiveness and side effects of the drug after it has been approved and is on the market.

      Overall, the phases of clinical trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments and drugs. They provide valuable information that can help improve patient outcomes and advance medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 26 - You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient is a 70-year-old man who has come for a follow-up appointment to review his recent blood test results. During his last visit, you had expressed concern about his elevated plasma glucose levels and advised him to make some lifestyle changes. He informs you that he has made some dietary modifications and has started walking to the nearby stores instead of driving.

      The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease, osteoarthritis, and chronic kidney disease. His fasting blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 146 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 235 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 216 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 28 ml/minute
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): <5 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Plasma glucose: 7.3 mmol/L (normal range: <6 mmol/L)
      - Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): 54 mmol/mol

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's HbA1c levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      This individual has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, as evidenced by elevated blood glucose levels on two separate occasions and an HbA1c measurement of >48 mmol/mol. Despite receiving lifestyle advice, medication is necessary for treatment.

      Due to an eGFR of <30ml/minute, metformin is not a suitable treatment option. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most appropriate choice. While DESMOND, an NHS course aimed at educating individuals with type 2 diabetes and their families, may be beneficial for ongoing management, it doesn’t replace the need for medication in this case. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain that has persisted for several months and was previously diagnosed as osteoarthritis by another GP. She also experiences fatigue, sleep disturbance, and constipation. Despite undergoing routine tests, thyroid function tests, and rheumatological investigations, all results have been normal. Her joint examination is also normal. What is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia: Choosing the Right Medication

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, there are several treatment options available to manage its symptoms.

      One medication commonly prescribed for fibromyalgia is amitriptyline, an antidepressant that can improve pain, mood, and sleep quality. Aerobic exercise and cognitive behavior therapy can also be effective in improving overall wellbeing.

      However, medications such as methotrexate and prednisolone are not recommended for fibromyalgia as they are used for inflammatory conditions and lack evidence of benefit for this condition. Strong opioids like slow-release morphine sulfate are also not recommended due to their potential for addiction and tolerance. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like naproxen may provide short-term relief for acute pain, but are not typically used for chronic pain management in fibromyalgia.

      It is important for patients with fibromyalgia to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension

      Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the duty doctor. He reports experiencing severe chest pain on the right side, along with fever and malaise for the past three days. Upon examination, there are red papules and vesicles closely grouped on the affected area. No abnormalities are noted in his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological assessments.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over and prescribe a course of antivirals

      Explanation:

      The patient should be informed that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, which usually takes 5-7 days following onset of shingles. Therefore, a course of antiviral therapy should be prescribed to reduce the risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Analgesia should also be given to alleviate severe pain. Prescribing antibiotics or emollients would not be useful in this case.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pandemic

      Explanation:

      Key Terms in Epidemiology

      Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health and disease in populations. In this field, there are several key terms that are important to understand. An epidemic, also known as an outbreak, occurs when there is an increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is expected in a given population over a specific time period. On the other hand, an endemic refers to the usual or expected level of disease in a particular population. Finally, a pandemic is a type of epidemic that affects a large number of people across multiple countries, continents, or regions. Understanding these terms is crucial for epidemiologists to identify and respond to disease outbreaks and pandemics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 31 - A 63-year-old man, John, reports that his older brother has just been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man, John, reports that his older brother has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer after having his PSA test done as part of the national screening programme. John says that he has had his PSA test today and the results were normal.

      When will John's next PSA test be due?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      In the UK, breast cancer screening is currently offered to women between the ages of 50 and 70 every three years. However, there are plans to expand this service to include women aged 47 to 73 by the end of 2016. Additionally, women between the ages of 40 and 50 who are at a high risk of developing breast cancer may be offered screening every two years.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 32 - A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They report that she has been experiencing a runny nose and cough for the past few days and has been more irritable than usual. The baby was born at full term and has no significant medical history.

      According to the parents, the baby has been refusing to eat but is managing to drink with encouragement. Upon examination, the baby's temperature is 37.7°C, and there are no signs of chest wall recession, nasal flaring, or grunting. The respiratory rate is 48/minute, and auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high-pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 97% in room air.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with paracetamol PRN and simple advice on symptom control

      Explanation:

      Managing Bronchiolitis in Babies

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in babies that can usually be managed in the community. However, certain factors indicate more severe disease and require immediate hospital admission. These include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, high respiratory rate, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and persistent low oxygen saturation. Babies under 3 months of age and those born prematurely should be closely monitored and may require admission at a lower threshold.

      In cases where there are no worrying features, community treatment is appropriate. Parents should be given advice on how to recognize deterioration and where to seek review if necessary. There is no specific treatment for bronchiolitis that can be managed in the community. Trials have shown that antibiotics, oral steroids, inhaled beta2 agonists, and nebulized ipratropium do not provide significant benefits in normal immunocompetent patients with bronchiolitis. Therefore, these treatments are not routinely recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 33 - A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for 2 days, vomited once, and the father reports foul-smelling urine. The boy is happily playing with toys in your office.

      A recent urine sample reveals: negative leukocytes, positive nitrites, negative protein, and negative blood.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start antibiotics and send a sample for culture

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, dipstick testing for leukocyte esterase and nitrite is just as effective as microscopy and culture for diagnosing UTIs in children over the age of 3. If both leukocytes and nitrites are positive, the child should be treated for a UTI with antibiotics. If the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or has had a UTI in the past, a urine sample should be sent for culture. If nitrites are positive but leukocytes are negative, antibiotics should be started and a urine sample should be sent for culture. If leukocytes are positive but nitrites are negative, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. It is important to only prescribe antibiotics if there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI, such as dysuria. If the dipstick is negative, another cause for the symptoms should be investigated and urine should not be sent for culture.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 34 - You have a telephone consultation with a 39-year old male patient who has...

    Incorrect

    • You have a telephone consultation with a 39-year old male patient who has paralysis on the left-hand side of his face. It started 2 days ago with left sided facial and ear pain. The pain is now very severe and causing him considerable discomfort. He is unable to move his left forehead, close the left eye or move the left-hand side of his mouth. He is normally fit and well.

      You suspect that he has a Bell's palsy and arrange to see him in your clinic that afternoon to examine him.

      Which statement below regarding Bell's palsy is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In a patient with a Bell's palsy, severe pain might indicate Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Severe pain in a patient with Bell’s palsy may be a sign of Ramsay Hunt syndrome, which is caused by herpes zoster and is accompanied by a painful rash and herpetic vesicles. Urgent referral to ENT is necessary if the facial paralysis has not improved after one month. Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side as the facial weakness may occur but doesn’t require urgent referral. Referral to a plastic surgeon with expertise in facial reconstructive surgery should be considered if there is residual paralysis after 6-9 months. Corticosteroid treatment is recommended as it has been shown to improve prognosis based on evidence from meta-analyses, while antiviral treatments are not recommended alone or in combination with prednisolone.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 35 - An otherwise healthy woman of 35 years has a second attack of renal...

    Incorrect

    • An otherwise healthy woman of 35 years has a second attack of renal colic in two years and passes a stone. Blood urea is normal.

      Which one of the following investigations would be the most important to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium concentration

      Explanation:

      Recommended Investigations for Young Patients with Renal Colic

      Further investigation is recommended for young patients who experience a second episode of renal colic. To begin with, a plasma calcium test is important to rule out a predisposition towards forming the most common types of urinary tract stones, which are composed of calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate. A urine culture should also be conducted to exclude concurrent infection, as infection is associated with stone formation.

      Another relevant investigation is urinary amino-acid chromatography, which can help assess for cystinuria or renal tubular acidosis. However, a urinary albumin-creatinine ratio is not particularly relevant in this situation unless the patient is found to have proteinuria.

      It is important to note that an x-ray of the hands, renal biopsy, or cystoscopy are not required for this type of investigation. By conducting these recommended tests, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat young patients with renal colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 36 - In a study examining mortality outcomes after bariatric surgery, it was found that...

    Incorrect

    • In a study examining mortality outcomes after bariatric surgery, it was found that obese patients with type II diabetes had a lower 10-year mortality rate (RR = 0.65) compared to obese patients without diabetes (RR = 0.90). However, the study did not show a statistically significant difference between the two groups. If bariatric surgery does indeed decrease mortality more in patients with diabetes, what has this study demonstrated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A type II error

      Explanation:

      Understanding Type II Errors in Statistical Studies

      A type II error occurs when a study fails to reject a false null hypothesis, also known as a false negative. In the context of a study comparing the impact of bariatric surgery on mortality rates for diabetics versus non-diabetics, if the surgery does indeed have a significantly greater impact on mortality rates for diabetics but the study fails to detect this, it would be an example of a type II error.

      To reduce the risk of type II errors, the power of a study can be increased by, for example, increasing the sample size. It is important to note that a type II error is different from a type I error, which occurs when a true null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected (false positive).

      Other potential biases in a study include selection bias, where subjects are not chosen randomly or representatively, and misclassification bias, where subjects are wrongly assigned to a classification. However, there is no indication of these biases in the given study. Ultimately, understanding and minimizing the risk of type II errors is crucial for ensuring accurate and reliable statistical results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 37 - A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After referral and kidney biopsy, a diagnosis of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is made.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may present as a nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glomerulonephritis: Types, Symptoms, and Causes

      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation in the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can be primary or secondary, and may present with various symptoms such as haematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, nephritic syndrome, acute or chronic renal failure.

      Primary glomerulonephritis can be classified based on clinical syndrome, histopathological appearance, or underlying aetiology. One common type is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, which causes segmental scarring and podocyte fusion in the glomerulus. It often leads to nephrotic syndrome and may progress to end-stage renal failure, but can be treated with corticosteroids.

      Another type is IgA nephropathy, which is characterised by IgA antibody deposition in the glomerulus and is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults worldwide. It usually presents with macroscopic haematuria but can also cause nephrotic syndrome.

      Interstitial nephritis, on the other hand, affects the area between the nephrons and can be acute or chronic. The most common cause is a drug hypersensitivity reaction.

      In summary, understanding the types, symptoms, and causes of glomerulonephritis is crucial in diagnosing and managing this group of kidney disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 38 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty with balance and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty with balance and stiffness in his lower limbs. He has a history of carpal tunnel syndrome that was diagnosed a year ago, but has not responded to treatment with splints and steroid injections. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Degenerative cervical myelopathy

      Explanation:

      DCM can have subtle early symptoms that vary day to day, but worsening or new symptoms should be a warning sign. Other conditions with different symptoms include cauda equina syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, idiopathic Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. During a colonoscopy to investigate her symptoms, a biopsy is taken and the report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laxative abuse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melanosis Coli: A Pigmentation Disorder of the Bowel Wall

      Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. One of the primary causes of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.

      This condition is a result of the accumulation of melanin in the macrophages of the colon. The pigmentation can be seen as dark brown or black spots on the lining of the colon. While melanosis coli is not typically a serious condition, it can be a sign of underlying issues such as chronic constipation or other gastrointestinal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. She had a right mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging brain (MRI) and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis are normal.
      What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s ataxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, cerebellum metastasis, malignant meningitis, and multiple sclerosis are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is a rare complication of a carcinoma, mediated by antibodies that attack similar proteins on Purkinje cells in the cerebellum. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, usually associated with chronic alcoholism, and has the classic triad of symptoms of mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellum metastasis and malignant meningitis are more likely if there are positive radiological and cytological findings, respectively. Multiple sclerosis is also in the differential diagnosis, but typically shows MRI lesions and CSF abnormalities. A comprehensive evaluation, including a detailed history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies, is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 41 - John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 42 - A 28-year-old man who is known to be an intravenous heroin user presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is known to be an intravenous heroin user presents as an emergency with a persistent fever, blood in his urine and shortness of breath. On further questioning he admits to recent weight loss and night sweats. On examination he has splinter haemorrhages, microscopic haematuria and a systolic heart murmur.
      What is most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Infective Endocarditis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis

      Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart’s inner lining and valves. The classic diagnostic triad of this condition includes fever, new or changing murmurs, and embolic phenomena. Other symptoms may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and weight loss.

      Certain risk factors increase the likelihood of developing infective endocarditis. These include intravenous drug abuse, having artificial heart valves, congenital heart defects such as ventricular septal defects, and undergoing invasive surgical procedures, especially dental work.

      Diagnosis of infective endocarditis typically involves a combination of physical examination, blood tests, and imaging studies such as echocardiography. Treatment may involve antibiotics and, in some cases, surgery to repair or replace damaged heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 43 - A red swelling is observed in the lower lateral wall of the nostrils...

    Incorrect

    • A red swelling is observed in the lower lateral wall of the nostrils of a young patient during anterior rhinoscopy. The swelling is tender to the touch and appears to be blocking the airway. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior turbinate

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inferior Turbinate: Causes of Enlargement and Treatment Options

      The inferior turbinate is a structure in the nasal cavity that is prone to enlargement, leading to nasal obstruction. This can be caused by various factors, including allergic rhinitis, inflammation, and the prolonged use of nasal sprays. If the obstruction is severe, treatment with nasal corticosteroids may be necessary.

      It is important to note that the inferior turbinate is often mistaken for other pathologies during examination. Nasal polyps, for example, are insensitive and light grey in color, while foreign bodies are usually unilateral and accompanied by a nasal discharge, and are more common in children. The middle turbinate is located higher up and further back in the nasal cavity than the inferior turbinate, while the superior turbinate is rarely visible on anterior rhinoscopy.

      Understanding the causes and symptoms of inferior turbinate enlargement can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 44 - A 57-year-old man presents with a long-standing history of alternating episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with a long-standing history of alternating episodes of diarrhoea and normal bowel habit. During his episodes, he experiences severe left-sided abdominal pain which usually resolves over a few days. He has always had to monitor his diet to avoid constipation but has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there is tenderness in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen with no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diverticulosis and Diverticulitis: Symptoms and Management

      Diverticulosis is a condition where small pouches called diverticula form in the lining of the colon. About 75% of people with diverticula have no symptoms. However, those with uncomplicated diverticulosis may experience lower abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, or rectal bleeding. These symptoms may be exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation or flatus. Left lower quadrant tenderness and fullness may also be present, which can be mistaken for irritable bowel syndrome.

      On the other hand, diverticulitis is a more serious condition where the diverticula become inflamed or infected. Patients with diverticulitis may experience intermittent or constant left lower quadrant pain, accompanied by a change in bowel habits. Pyrexia and tachycardia are common, and examination usually reveals localised tenderness and sometimes a palpable mass. Mild cases of diverticulitis can be managed at home with paracetamol, clear fluids, and oral antibiotics. However, one third of patients may develop further complications such as perforation, abscess, fistula, or stricture/obstruction.

      It is important to differentiate diverticulitis from other conditions such as colonic cancer, Crohn’s disease, and ulcerative colitis. Colonic cancer may present with weight loss and a more definite change in bowel habit, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis usually present with diarrhoea at a younger age than diverticulitis. Barium enema or colonoscopy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and management of diverticulosis and diverticulitis is crucial for early detection and treatment. Patients with mild diverticulitis can be managed at home, but those with severe symptoms or complications require hospitalisation and possibly surgery. Regular screening and follow-up are recommended for those with diverticulosis to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 45 - Which of the following conditions is NOT inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The following are X-linked conditions: Duchenne/Becker, haemophilia, and G6PD.

      X-Linked Recessive Conditions: Inherited Disorders with Varying Patterns

      X-linked recessive conditions are genetic disorders that are inherited in a specific manner. These conditions are caused by mutations in genes located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. As a result, these conditions are more common in males than in females, as males only have one X chromosome while females have two.

      Some of the most well-known X-linked recessive conditions include Duchenne muscular dystrophy, haemophilia A and B, and colour blindness. Other conditions such as Fabry’s disease, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome are also inherited in this manner.

      It is important to note that some diseases have varying patterns of inheritance, with the majority being in an X-linked recessive fashion. For example, chronic granulomatous disease is inherited in over 70% of cases in an X-linked recessive manner. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management of affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 46 - You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a...

    Incorrect

    • You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a few falls in recent months. During your risk assessment for future falls, you observe that she has limited mobility. Despite using her walking stick, she struggles to complete the TUG (Timed Up and Go test) and requires 8 steps to turn around 180 degrees. What other factor is the strongest predictor of future falls in the community?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Falls in the Elderly: Causes, Risk Factors, and Prevention

      As people age, they become more prone to falls, which can result in injuries and affect their confidence and independence. In fact, around one-third of elderly individuals living in the community experience falls every year. Gait abnormalities are one of the primary causes of falls, which can be due to medical problems affecting the neurological and musculoskeletal systems, as well as the processing of senses such as sight, sound, and sensation. Other risk factors for falling include lower limb muscle weakness, vision problems, balance/gait disturbances, polypharmacy, incontinence, fear of falling, depression, postural hypotension, arthritis in lower limbs, psychoactive drugs, and cognitive impairment.

      To prevent falls, it is crucial to limit these risk factors where possible and conduct a falls risk assessment for all patients, especially those in hospitals or homes. The assessment should include a thorough history of the patient’s falls, systems review, past medical history, and social history. Medication reviews are also essential to reduce the chances of falling again, particularly for patients on more than four drugs. Medications that cause postural hypotension and those associated with falls due to other mechanisms should be stopped or swapped.

      When examining a patient who has fallen, a full A to E approach and assessment of all systems are necessary to rule out the cause. Investigations to consider include bedside tests, bloods, and imaging. NICE CKS recommendations suggest identifying all individuals who have fallen in the last 12 months and assessing their risk factors. For those at risk, completing the ‘Turn 180° test’ or the ‘Timed up and Go test’ and offering a multidisciplinary assessment by a qualified clinician are recommended. Individuals who fall but do not meet these criteria should be reviewed annually and given written information on falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 47 - A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the discharge reveals a Gram-negative diplococcus, but sensitivities are not yet available. What is the most suitable initial antimicrobial therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone stat dose

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, while ciprofloxacin should only be considered if the organism is confirmed to be susceptible, as resistance is becoming more common. Penicillin, which was previously the preferred treatment, is now seldom used due to widespread resistance.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 48 - A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local hospital. She has been feeling tired and emotional throughout her course of chemotherapy so far, but presents to the Duty Clinic as today, she is feeling more tired than usual, with no appetite and she has been feeling hot and cold at home and struggling to get comfortable.
      On examination, you find she has a temperature of 38.5 oC, but no focal symptoms, and her respiratory and pulse rates and blood pressure are all within normal limits.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Chemotherapy Patient

      Neutropenic sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of neutropenia, commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy. In a patient with fever and neutropenia, neutropenic sepsis should be suspected, and emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review is necessary. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics or offering emotional support is not the appropriate management in this situation. The patient requires inpatient monitoring and treatment, as per the ‘sepsis six’ bundle of care, to avoid the risk of sudden deterioration. It is crucial to recognize the urgency of this situation and act promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 49 - A 38-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits the diabetes clinic for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits the diabetes clinic for his yearly check-up. He possesses a Group 1 driving licence and reports to his specialist that he experienced two episodes of hypoglycaemia, one four months ago and the other one month ago. Both incidents occurred while he was awake after consuming several alcoholic beverages and required assistance from his partner. However, he typically has full hypoglycaemia awareness and practices appropriate glucose monitoring before and during driving. Additionally, he has never experienced hypoglycaemia while driving. What advice should he receive regarding his driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform DVLA and will need to surrender driving licence

      Explanation:

      A patient with diabetes who has experienced two severe hypoglycaemic episodes requiring assistance must surrender their driving licence and inform the DVLA. Insulin-treated individuals must meet specific criteria to be licensed, including adequate hypoglycaemia awareness, no more than one severe episode in the past 12 months, appropriate glucose monitoring, not being a risk to the public while driving, meeting visual standards, and undergoing regular review. Increasing blood glucose monitoring before and during driving or informing the DVLA for monitoring purposes will not permit the patient to resume driving. If the patient experiences another hypoglycaemic episode within the next two months, they must notify the DVLA, but they would not meet the criteria for licensing if they have had two severe episodes in the past 12 months.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - Which of the following is least commonly associated with acanthosis nigricans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least commonly associated with acanthosis nigricans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.

      The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed