00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man falls and sprains his thumb while skiing. His thumb was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man falls and sprains his thumb while skiing. His thumb was outstretched at the time of the fall. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress.
      What is the most probable injury observed in this case?

      Your Answer: Radial collateral ligament tear

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      The ulnar collateral ligament tear, also known as Gamekeeper’s thumb or skier’s thumb, is a common injury among skiers who fall against the ski-pole, strap, or ground while the thumb is abducted. This ligament connects the middle of the metacarpal head to the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx and supports the thumb when pinching or gripping. The tear can be partial or complete, and there may be an associated avulsion fracture of the volar base of the proximal phalanx. Symptoms include hyperextension and lateral deviation of the thumb, swelling, bruising over the joint, and pain felt over the ulnar side of the metacarpo-phalangeal joint. Treatment involves immobilization in a thumb spica splint for 4-6 weeks if the joint is stable, otherwise referral for possible surgical repair is indicated. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, osteoarthritis of the metacarpo-phalyngeal joint, radial collateral ligament tear, and scaphoid fracture are different conditions and not related to ulnar collateral ligament tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are evaluating a 65-year-old man who recently began taking simvastatin 40 mg...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 65-year-old man who recently began taking simvastatin 40 mg at bedtime for hyperlipidemia. He presented last week with mild, nonspecific myalgia that appeared to have developed since starting the medication. Laboratory tests were performed to assess creatine kinase, liver function, renal function, and thyroid function. Today, he reports experiencing vague muscular symptoms that are not severe but have caused him some concern since they began after starting the new medication. The blood work indicates that his renal, liver, and thyroid function are normal, but his creatine kinase is twice the upper limit of normal. Despite the mild symptoms, he expresses a willingness to continue taking the statin. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his statin therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient to reduce the dose of simvastatin to 20 mg nocte and if he remains symptomatic after a further one to two weeks to reduce it further to 10 mg ON

      Explanation:

      Management of Statin-Induced Muscle Injury

      When a patient taking statins presents with elevated creatine kinase levels, it is important to consider other potential causes such as underlying muscle disorders or hypothyroidism. If the creatine kinase level is more than five times the upper limit of normal, the statin should be stopped immediately and renal function should be checked. Creatine kinase levels should be monitored every two weeks.

      If symptoms resolve and creatine kinase levels return to normal, the statin may be reintroduced at the lowest dose with close monitoring. If creatine kinase levels are less than five times the upper limit of normal and the patient experiences muscular symptoms, the statin may be continued but closely monitored. If symptoms are severe or creatine kinase levels increase, the statin should be stopped.

      In cases of mildly elevated creatine kinase levels with no symptoms, the statin may be continued with the patient advised to report any muscular symptoms immediately. Regular monitoring of creatine kinase levels is also recommended to ensure values do not increase. Overall, careful management and monitoring can help prevent and manage statin-induced muscle injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation presents to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, yellow vision, and nausea. She recently completed a course of antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/80, and her pulse is slow and irregular, hovering around 42. There is no evidence of cardiac failure. Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Digoxin Toxicity and its Management

      Digoxin toxicity is a condition that can cause a number of symptoms, including yellow vision and nausea. It can also lead to various arrhythmias, such as heart block, supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia. This toxicity can be associated with certain medications, including erythromycin, tetracyclines, quinidine, calcium channel blockers, captopril, and amiodarone.

      In addition to medication interactions, it is important to monitor renal function as deteriorating creatinine clearance can also contribute to toxicity. Management of digoxin toxicity involves measuring digoxin levels, avoiding or reducing the dose, and in severe cases, admission for cardiac monitoring and consideration of digoxin antibody therapy.

      To summarize, digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications. By being aware of the medications that can interact with digoxin and monitoring renal function, healthcare providers can help prevent and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the correct information about oseltamivir? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct information about oseltamivir?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is administered via an inhaler

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) as an Antiviral for influenza Treatment

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme neuraminidase, which slows down viral replication instead of directly killing the virus particle. This mechanism is crucial in allowing the body’s immune system to combat the virus effectively. Unlike zanamivir (Relenza), which is inhaled, oseltamivir is administered orally. However, the drug must be given as early as possible after the development of flu symptoms, preferably within 48 hours, as viral replication is rapid.

      In summary, oseltamivir is an effective treatment for influenza, but it must be administered within 48 hours of symptom onset to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior MI. He reports no further episodes of chest pain or shortness of breath, but he is experiencing significant fatigue. On cardiovascular examination, there are no signs of cardiac failure.
      The patient discloses feeling down for the past month, struggling with sleep, and having a poor appetite. He is anxious about the future and avoiding social interactions with colleagues and friends. He expresses a lack of motivation and purpose in life. He has a history of two severe depressive episodes and a mild episode about a year ago, which responded well to a low dose of amitriptyline.
      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop his beta blocker medication, as this is probably what is making him so tired

      Explanation:

      Treating Post-MI Depression

      Patients who have suffered a heart attack are at an increased risk of developing depression. It is crucial to identify and treat post-MI depression promptly. In this case, the patient is experiencing persistent low mood, anhedonia, sleep disturbance, and loss of appetite, indicating the need for immediate treatment. While assessing his symptoms using the PHQ-9 depression questionnaire is appropriate, delaying treatment is not advisable.

      It is essential to continue the patient’s beta-blocker treatment as it is appropriate post-MI therapy. While it is reasonable to explain that post-MI depression is not uncommon, active treatment should be initiated immediately if the patient agrees. Amitriptyline should not be used as it increases the risk of arrhythmias, and the patient is already at a higher risk following his MI. Sertraline is a well-tolerated and effective treatment for post-MI depression and should be considered. Proper identification and treatment of post-MI depression can significantly improve the patient’s quality of life and overall prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for heart failure. What is the most probable side effect that can be attributed to his new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep disturbances

      Explanation:

      Insomnia may be caused by beta-blockers.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on a long-haul flight 4 weeks ago. He is experiencing a persistent productive cough, haemoptysis and night sweats.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Persistent cough, haemoptysis, night sweats, and fever are classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), which accounts for 60% of respiratory cases in the UK. Acute bronchitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a viral infection and resolves without treatment within three weeks. Lung cancer may present with productive cough and haemoptysis, but the patient’s age and immigrant status make TB more likely. Pulmonary embolism is a minor risk factor in this case, and whooping cough is a respiratory tract infection that affects both children and adults. Paroxysmal coughing followed by a whoop is a characteristic feature of whooping cough. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when making a differential diagnosis of respiratory symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - One of the nurses at your hospital sustains a needlestick injury while administering...

    Incorrect

    • One of the nurses at your hospital sustains a needlestick injury while administering medication to a patient.

      What is the single, most appropriate, immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wash the wound with soap under running water

      Explanation:

      First Line Management of Needlestick Injuries

      First line management of needlestick injuries involves immediate washing of the affected area under running water. It is important to report all incidents to the occupational health department and undergo a careful risk assessment. If the donor is known to be hepatitis B positive and the victim is non-immune, HBIG is given. However, antiretroviral therapy is only given after counselling if the donor is known to be HIV positive and the exposure is deemed high risk. By following these guidelines, the risk of infection can be minimized and appropriate treatment can be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago, and is now troubled by post herpetic neuralgia. He also had an inferior myocardial infarction eight weeks ago.

      His primary symptom at the moment is post herpetic neuralgia. Which of the following drugs would be contra-indicated in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Contra-indication of Amitriptyline in Recent Myocardial Infarction

      Explanation: Patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction should avoid taking Amitriptyline as a treatment. This medication is not recommended for individuals who have suffered a heart attack in the past. Therefore, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication, especially if you have a history of heart disease. It is crucial to follow the doctor’s advice and avoid any medication that may cause harm to your health. Remember, prevention is always better than cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that has persisted for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash that doesn't affect the nasolabial folds and cold extremities.

      What is the most precise diagnostic test for the probable diagnosis of this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      A certain percentage of individuals diagnosed with SLE exhibit positivity for rheumatoid factor.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents for her 12-week prenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents for her 12-week prenatal check-up. She reports being a moderate smoker and her carbon monoxide level is measured at 15 ppm. What is the most effective intervention that can be suggested for pregnant women in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Before providing nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), it is recommended to conduct cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or motivational interviewing with pregnant women who smoke. Additionally, it is important to screen all pregnant women for smoking using a carbon monoxide monitor.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with a thiazide diuretic, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, for which he takes a high dose seretide inhaler and tiotropium. Pulmonary function testing showed only 8% reversibility. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 149/72 mmHg, pulse is 80 beats per minute and regular. Laboratory results show a haemoglobin level of 138 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 5.4 ×109/L (4-11), platelet count of 203 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine level of 131 μmol/L (79-118). An echocardiogram revealed an ejection fraction of 35%. Based on NICE guidelines, which medication would you adjust in the next step of his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start ramipril and furosemide

      Explanation:

      Management of Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction

      Managing heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) requires adherence to NICE guidelines. One key performance indicator is recognizing that patients with COPD who have no significant reversibility may safely be treated with beta blockers licensed for heart failure. Another important aspect is the sequential treatment approach, starting with diuretics and then offering an ACEI and BB. If symptoms persist, an MRA may be added, with careful monitoring of serum sodium, potassium, and renal function. In patients with an eGFR of 30 to 45 ml/min/1.73 m2, lower doses or slower titration of certain medications may be necessary. Co-prescription of beta blockers and ACE inhibitors is recommended, with careful titration to achieve optimal therapeutic effect. It is important to note that diltiazem and verapamil are not recommended for HFrEF by NICE guidelines. By following these guidelines, patients with HFrEF can receive effective management and improve their outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old smoker requests advice on contraception. She smokes 12 cigarettes per day,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old smoker requests advice on contraception. She smokes 12 cigarettes per day, has a stable partner, and two children. She doesn't want any more children. She also reports heavy periods and would like to address this issue. During examination, her BMI is 30, and her blood pressure is 140/85. What is the best contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Contraceptive for a Smoker with Elevated BMI

      Combined oral contraceptive pills are not recommended for smokers over 35 years old due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. This risk is further elevated in women with an elevated BMI. While the progesterone-only pill is an alternative, its effectiveness is reduced due to poor compliance. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this patient would be an IUD or IUS. The IUS may result in reduced menstrual flow after the first few months, and in some cases, periods may become very light or stop altogether. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and lifestyle is necessary when selecting the most appropriate contraceptive method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate cancer. The test is designed to show positive in the presence of the disease. The sensitivity was reported as 70%.

      Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70% of people with the disease will have a negative test result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity

      Sensitivity and specificity are two important measures used to evaluate the accuracy of medical tests. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify a condition when it is present, while specificity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify the absence of a condition when it is not present.

      In the given scenario, the data suggests that there is a 70% probability of the test being positive when tested in a group of patients with the disease. This means that if 100 patients with the disease were tested, 70 of them would test positive and 30 would test negative. It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not fixed values and can vary depending on the test and the population being tested. Understanding these measures can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the use and interpretation of medical tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty as she has not yet started her menstrual cycle. She reports feeling generally well and has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, it is noted that she has a slender build and underdeveloped breasts. There is no pubic hair growth. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, but there are small lumps in her groin area on both sides.

      What is the probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of androgen insensitivity is primary amenorrhoea, which is accompanied by groin swellings and absence of pubic hair. These symptoms suggest that the patient has undescended testes and is genetically male (46 XY) but phenotypically female due to increased oestradiol levels. Breast development is a common result of this condition, previously known as testicular feminisation syndrome.

      While non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could also cause groin swellings, it is less likely to be the cause of delayed puberty and would typically present with systemic symptoms.

      Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of gonadotrophins and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this condition often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia, which increases their risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.

      Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallman’s syndrome, is a cause of delayed puberty due to low levels of sex hormones. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with this condition may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, anosmia, and low sex hormone levels. However, their LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. They are typically of normal or above-average height, but may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46 XY) having a female phenotype. This condition is also known as complete androgen insensitivity syndrome or testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this condition may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46 XY genotype. Management involves counselling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain

      Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:

      1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.

      2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.

      3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).

      4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.

      5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who presented to your clinic last week complaining...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who presented to your clinic last week complaining of fatigue, muscle aches, and swollen glands. She had gone on a camping trip to a wooded area recently but did not recall any insect bites. Upon examination, there was no visible rash. You ordered an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Lyme disease, and the result came back as equivocal today.

      What would be the most suitable course of action now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform an immunoblot test for Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and doesn’t have erythema migrans, an ELISA test should be offered. If the ELISA test result is positive or equivocal, an immunoblot test should be performed. In the case of Jess, her ELISA test result was equivocal, so she requires an immunoblot test.

      NICE guidelines suggest that if there is a high clinical suspicion of Lyme disease, antibiotics should be started while waiting for the results of the immunoblot test. However, Jess’s symptoms are nonspecific, and her clinical suspicion of Lyme disease is not high. Additionally, NICE recommends a 21-day course of doxycycline as the first-line treatment for Lyme disease, not a 14-day course. Amoxicillin is only recommended if doxycycline is not suitable.

      There is no need to repeat the ELISA test at this time. NICE advises repeating the ELISA test 4-6 weeks after the initial test if the first test is negative and Lyme disease is still suspected within 4 weeks from symptom onset.

      Referral to a specialist is not currently necessary for Jess. NICE recommends referring patients with focal symptoms to the appropriate specialist or considering a discussion with a specialist. If the immunoblot test is negative but symptoms persist, a discussion with or referral to a specialist should be considered (regardless of the ELISA result) to review whether further tests are required or to consider alternative diagnoses.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history of violent paroxysms of coughing that end in an inspiratory whoop. He often vomits with the coughing attacks. He and his parents are exhausted.

      Select from the list the single correct statement about whooping cough.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coughing may last up to 100 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Pertussis

      Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Treatment with antibiotics can reduce the infectivity of the disease, but it doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. Macrolide antibiotics are the preferred treatment for pertussis.

      Immunization is the most effective way to prevent pertussis. However, the vaccine provides only 95% protection and relies on a degree of herd immunity. Infants less than 6 months old and any unwell child should be admitted to the hospital for treatment.

      If left untreated, pertussis can lead to complications such as bronchiectasis and pneumonia. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has pertussis. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of the disease and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the correct statement about the use of self-monitoring of blood-glucose levels...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about the use of self-monitoring of blood-glucose levels in patients who have recently been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is an association with increased levels of depression

      Explanation:

      The Pros and Cons of Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose Levels in Type 2 Diabetes

      Self-monitoring of blood glucose levels is a common practice among individuals with type 2 diabetes. While it has its benefits, there are also some drawbacks to consider.

      Association with Increased Levels of Depression:
      The ESMON trial found that participants in the self-monitoring group were more depressed compared to the control group. This suggests that self-monitoring may have a negative impact on mental health.

      No Significant Difference in Episodes of Hypoglycemia:
      Contrary to popular belief, self-monitoring did not lead to fewer episodes of hypoglycemia compared to the control group in the ESMON study.

      Not More Effective in Reducing Long-Term Complications:
      While good diabetic control can reduce long-term complications, self-monitoring has not been shown to be more effective than monitoring HbA1c levels.

      Not Cost-Effective:
      The DiGEM trial found that self-monitoring was more expensive and resulted in lower quality of life compared to the control group.

      No Significant Difference in HbA1c Levels:
      In the ESMON study, there was no significant difference in HbA1c levels between the self-monitoring group and the control group.

      In conclusion, self-monitoring blood glucose levels may have some benefits, but it is important to consider the potential drawbacks before making it a regular practice. It is recommended to discuss with a healthcare provider to determine if self-monitoring is appropriate for individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly patients with covid-19. A study compares its performance with the current gold standard for diagnosis, CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) scanning. A total of 250 elderly patients with covid-19 undergo CTPA scanning. Amongst those, 50 patients are identified as having PEs on CTPA scans and are subsequently tested using the new blood test. Of these, 40 have a positive test, and 10 have a negative test. Of the 200 covid-19 patients who did not have a PE demonstrated on CTPA scanning, 180 have a negative blood test, and 20 have a positive blood test. What is the sensitivity of the new test based on the given results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      To determine the sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms (PEs), we need to calculate the proportion of true positive results among all actual positive cases identified by the CTPA scans.

      Definitions

      • Sensitivity: The probability that the test correctly identifies patients with the disease (true positives) among all patients who actually have the disease.

        Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)

      Data from the Study

      • Total patients with PE on CTPA (True Condition Positive): 50 patients
      • True Positives (TP): Patients with PE who tested positive on the blood test: 40
      • False Negatives (FN): Patients with PE who tested negative on the blood test: 10

      Calculation of Sensitivity

      Using the formula for sensitivity:

      Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)

      Sensitivity=40/(40+10)

      Sensitivity=40/50

      Sensitivity=0.8

      Sensitivity=0.8×100=80%

      Conclusion

      The sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms in elderly patients with covid-19 is 80%. This means that the test correctly identifies 80% of patients who have a pulmonary embolism, according to the CTPA results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and feeling tired. He was seen in the clinic two weeks ago for a sore throat. During the examination, he has a sinus tachycardia, a pink rash in the form of rings on his trunk, and a systolic murmur.
      What is the best diagnosis and treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She has rheumatic fever and should be admitted for appropriate treatment

      Explanation:

      Misdiagnosis of a Heart Murmur: Understanding the Differences between Rheumatic Fever, Lyme Disease, HSP, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Scarlet Fever

      A heart murmur can be a concerning symptom, but it is important to correctly diagnose the underlying condition. Rheumatic fever, Lyme disease, Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and scarlet fever can all present with a heart murmur, but each has distinct features that can help differentiate them.

      Rheumatic fever requires the presence of recent streptococcal infection and the fulfilment of Jones criteria, which include major criteria such as carditis, arthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, subcutaneous nodules, and erythema marginatum, as well as minor criteria such as fever, arthralgia, raised ESR or CRP, and prolonged PR interval on an electrocardiogram.

      Lyme disease presents with erythema migrans, arthralgia, and other symptoms depending on the stage of the disease, but a heart murmur is not a typical feature.

      HSP is characterised by purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, orchitis, and nephritis.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is chronic arthritis occurring before the age of 16 years that lasts for at least six weeks in the absence of any other cause, and may involve few or many joints, with additional features in some subsets, but it should not present with a heart murmur.

      Scarlet fever is characterised by a widespread red rash, fever, tachycardia, myalgia, and circumoral pallor, rather than joint pain.

      In summary, a heart murmur can be a symptom of various conditions, but a thorough evaluation of other symptoms and criteria is necessary to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You record the age of all of your students in your class. You...

    Incorrect

    • You record the age of all of your students in your class. You discover that your data set is skewed. Which of the following would you use to describe the average age of your students?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      If the data set is quantitative and on a ratio scale, the mean is typically the best measure of central tendency. However, if the data is skewed, the median may be a better choice as it is less affected by the skewness of the data.

      Understanding Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to simplify data and provide a typical or middle value of a data set. There are three measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode. The median is the middle item in a data set arranged in numerical order and is not affected by outliers. The mode is the most frequent item in a data set, and there may be two or more modes in some data sets. The mean is calculated by adding all the items of a data set together and dividing by the number of items. However, unlike the median or mode, the mean is sensitive to outliers and skewed data.

      The appropriate method of summarizing the middle or typical value of a data set depends on the measurement scale. For categorical and nominal data, the mode is the appropriate measure of central tendency. For ordinal data, the median or mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median or mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed data, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. For ratio data, the mean is preferable for normal distribution, but the median or mode can also be used. For skewed ratio data, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. Understanding measures of central tendency is essential in analyzing and interpreting data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old trans woman presents to the GP seeking advice on contraception. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old trans woman presents to the GP seeking advice on contraception. They are looking for a method that can both prevent pregnancy and stop their menstrual cycle. The patient has previously used the combined contraceptive pill without any issues, but has required emergency contraception due to missed pills. They have no medical history of blood clots, cancer, or migraines, and do not smoke. There is no family history of breast cancer. The patient is currently receiving testosterone therapy for gender dysphoria at a gender identity clinic.

      During the examination, the patient's BMI is 23kg/m² and their blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's contraception needs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer the levonorgestrel intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Patients assigned female at birth undergoing testosterone therapy should avoid contraceptives containing oestrogen as they can counteract the effects of the therapy. The recommended contraceptive option is the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS), which is a progestogen-only method that doesn’t interfere with hormone regimens used in transgender treatment. Additionally, the IUS can reduce or stop vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s forgetfulness and history of missed pills, the progesterone-only pill is not the best option. It is important to note that while testosterone therapy may suppress menstruation, it doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy and can even have harmful effects on a developing fetus.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following investigations is the most crucial for diagnosing degenerative cervical...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following investigations is the most crucial for diagnosing degenerative cervical myelopathy in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI Cervical spine

      Explanation:

      When cervical myelopathy is suspected, the preferred diagnostic test is an MRI of the cervical spine. This test can reveal disc degeneration and ligament hypertrophy, as well as any accompanying cord signal change, making it the gold standard for diagnosis.

      In cases where a patient cannot undergo an MRI, a CT myelogram may be used as the first line investigation. Radiographs are generally not useful in diagnosing cervical myelopathy, although they may reveal osteoarthritic changes such as osteophytes.

      If the clinical picture is unclear, nerve conduction studies and EMG may be performed to rule out other lower motor neuron disorders. However, when there is a strong suspicion of cervical myelopathy, an MRI of the cervical spine should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her legs up as if she is in pain. She has had some loose stools and has vomited twice today.
      Her mother says that the last stool looked rather red as if there was blood in it. She looks pale and distressed.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Children

      Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children aged 5 months to 3 years, accounting for up to 25% of abdominal emergencies in children up to age 5. It occurs when one segment of the bowel invaginates into another just distal to it, leading to obstruction. This condition is more common in boys than girls, with a ratio of approximately 3:2, and two-thirds of patients are under 1-year-old, with the peak age being between 5-10 months.

      The clinical features of intussusception include sudden onset of paroxysms of colicky abdominal pain, which may be more insidious in older children. The pain occurs about every 10-20 minutes and is often accompanied by crying. Patients may appear well between paroxysms initially, but early vomiting can rapidly become bile-stained. Neurological symptoms such as lethargy, hypotonia, or sudden alterations of consciousness can also occur.

      Other features of intussusception include a palpable ‘sausage-shaped’ mass, often in the right upper quadrant, and absence of bowel in the right lower quadrant (Dance’s sign). Patients may also experience dehydration, pallor, shock, irritability, sweating, and later mucoid and bloody ‘red currant stools’. Late pyrexia may also occur.

      In summary, intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children, with a range of clinical features that can help diagnose the condition. Early recognition and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a repeat prescription of her combined oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a repeat prescription of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is satisfied with this method as it has been effectively managing her acne. She reports no changes in her medical history but mentions that her aunt was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She seeks advice on the risks of the combined oral contraceptive pill and its impact on cancer.

      What is the appropriate guidance to provide her concerning the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk of bowel cancer

      Explanation:

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years. The ulcers typically heal in just over a week, and she remains symptom-free until the next recurrence. She denies any associated symptoms or rash, and her father had a similar history as a teenager. She doesn't smoke and denies excessive alcohol use or drug use. Although there is no dental or periodontal disease, she has three discrete, 4-mm-round ulcers with inflammatory haloes on the buccal mucosa.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apthous ulcers

      Explanation:

      There are several types of oral ulcers that can occur. Recurrent aphthous ulcers are the most common, affecting up to 66% of people at some point in their life. These ulcers appear on movable oral tissue and can recur frequently. Treatment options include topical corticosteroids, antimicrobial mouthwash, and topical analgesics. Herpes simplex stomatitis is another type of oral ulcer that mostly affects children and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Symptoms include fever, malaise, and painful intraoral vesicles that can lead to ulcers. Oral candidiasis, or thrush, presents as white patches on the oral mucosa and tongue that can be wiped off to reveal a raw, erythematous base. Oral hairy leukoplakia is a white patch on the side of the tongue with a hairy appearance that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus and usually occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Oral lichen planus presents as a symmetrical, white, lace-like pattern on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and gums, and may be accompanied by erosions and ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old man undergoes occupational health screening blood tests. His anti-Hepatitis C virus...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man undergoes occupational health screening blood tests. His anti-Hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) test returns positive. On examination, he is feeling well with no signs of liver disease. He has no other comorbidities.
      What is the most important next test to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA)

      Explanation:

      Common Tests for Hepatitis C and Co-Infections

      Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several tests available to diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as to screen for co-infections with other viruses. Here are some of the most common tests used:

      1. HCV RNA: This test detects the presence of HCV ribonucleic acid in the blood, which is the most sensitive way to diagnose HCV infection. It can detect the virus within 1-2 weeks after infection and can confirm ongoing infection if antibodies are positive.

      2. HBV DNA: This test measures the amount of hepatitis B virus deoxyribonucleic acid in the blood, which can help monitor the viral load of hepatitis B. Since HBV and HCV can coexist, it’s important to screen for both viruses.

      3. Anti-HIV antibodies: HIV and HCV share many of the same risk factors, so patients with HCV should be screened for HIV. However, it’s important to first confirm the diagnosis of HCV before testing for HIV.

      4. AST and ALT: These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when the liver is damaged, which can indicate HCV infection. However, they are nonspecific and cannot confirm a diagnosis on their own.

      5. IgM anti-HAV: This test detects recent infection with hepatitis A, which can coexist with HCV. However, confirming the diagnosis of HCV is the first priority.

      Overall, these tests can help diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as screen for co-infections with other viruses. It’s important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best testing strategy for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking. You plan to initiate bupropion therapy for her, but a few days later, you receive a call from the local emergency consultant informing you that she was admitted in status epilepticus. It turns out that you were not aware of her other medications. Which of the following drugs, when taken concomitantly with bupropion, may increase the risk of seizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      Interactions and Contraindications of Bupropion

      The metabolism of bupropion is complex, with the main active metabolite being hydroxybupropion. However, the levels of hydroxybupropion are affected by CYP2D6 activity. It is important to note that bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and affects the metabolism of sodium valproate, making concomitant use not recommended. In fact, bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of epilepsy.

      There are also other drugs that interact with bupropion, including certain antidepressants, antiepileptics, antivirals, dopaminergics, and hormone antagonists. Neuropsychiatric effects have been reported in patients using Antipsychotic medications, anti-parkinsonian medications, and in younger patients taking malaria prophylaxis.

      The Committee of Safety of Medicines has issued a reminder that bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures, eating disorders, CNS tumor, or acute alcohol withdrawal. Other factors that can increase the risk of seizures include alcohol abuse, history of head trauma, diabetes, and the use of stimulants and anoretics. It is important to consider these interactions and contraindications when prescribing bupropion to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - You see a 65-year-old man with vertigo. He describes the repeated sensation that...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man with vertigo. He describes the repeated sensation that his surroundings are spinning when he moves his head. This has been occurring for the last 2 weeks and the episodes last approximately 30 seconds. He has hypertension but no other past medical history. He had a viral illness 3 weeks ago. You believe the history is consistent with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).

      Which statement is correct regarding BPPV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BPPV often has a relapsing and remitting course

      Explanation:

      BPPV can have a recurrent pattern of symptoms that come and go. To diagnose BPPV, the Dix-Hallpike maneuver is used, which can trigger vertigo and a specific type of eye movement called torsional upbeating nystagmus. Treatment for BPPV includes the Epley maneuver and Brandt-Daroff exercises, but medication is typically not effective. While many people recover from BPPV within a few weeks, symptoms can persist and return over time.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 36-year-old man presents with sudden onset pain in the left flank radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents with sudden onset pain in the left flank radiating to the left groin and testis. The pain is accompanied by vomiting. You suspect the patient may have ureteric colic.
      Select from the list the single other feature that would support this diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Renal/Ureteric Colic: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Renal/ureteric colic is characterized by sudden and severe pain, often caused by stones. However, in some cases, no obvious cause is found. Unlike biliary or intestinal colic, the pain of renal colic is constant, with periods of relief or dull aches before it returns. The location of the pain changes as the stone moves. Patients with renal colic experience intense pain and may writhe around in agony, while those with peritoneal irritation lie still. Although there may be severe pain in the testis, it should not be tender. Uncomplicated renal colic doesn’t cause fever, which suggests pyelonephritis. Haematuria, often detected only on dipstick testing, is a common symptom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history of gestational diabetes during her previous pregnancy. Her midwife arranged an oral glucose tolerance test, but she missed the appointment to review the results.

      The following results were obtained:

      - Fasting glucose: 5.8 mmol/l
      - 2-hour plasma glucose: 7.5 mmol/l

      What is the interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes as fasting glucose >5.6 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of gestational diabetes is likely as the fasting glucose level exceeds 5.6 mmol/l.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 30-year-old female presents for annual review.
    She developed diabetes mellitus at the age...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents for annual review.
      She developed diabetes mellitus at the age of 20 and currently is treated with human mixed insulin twice daily. Over the last one year she has been aware of episodes of dysuria and has received treatment with trimethoprim on four separate occasions for cystitis.
      Examination reveals no specific abnormality except for two dot haemorrhages bilaterally on fundal examination. Her blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg.
      Investigations show:
      HbA1c 75 mmol/mol (20-46)
      9% (3.8-6.4)
      Fasting plasma glucose 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
      Serum potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Serum urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 90 µmol/L (60-110)
      Urinalysis Glucose +
      24 hour urine protein 220 mg/24 hrs (<200)
      What would be the best therapeutic option to prevent progression of renal disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Improve glycaemic control with insulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Diabetic Nephropathy

      Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication of diabetes, affecting up to 40% of patients with type 1 diabetes and 5-40% of patients with type 2 diabetes. Without intervention, it can lead to end-stage renal disease. In the case of a patient with microalbuminuria and poor glycaemic control but normal blood pressure, the recommended treatment options include ACE inhibitors, low dietary protein, and improved glycaemic control.

      While good glycaemic control has not shown clear benefits in treating microalbuminuria in patients with type 1 diabetes, meta-analyses have shown that ACE inhibitors can reduce albumin excretion rates by 50% in treated patients compared to untreated patients. Low protein diets have been proven effective for overt proteinuria but not for microalbuminuria.

      It is important to note that the absence of urinary tract infection is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan. In addition to the recommended interventions, any infections that may arise should also be treated promptly. Overall, a combination of ACE inhibitors, low dietary protein, and improved glycaemic control can help prevent the progression of diabetic nephropathy and improve renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man presents with voiding difficulties. He reports passing urine twice a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with voiding difficulties. He reports passing urine twice a night, hesitancy of stream, and no frequency. He has also experienced a reduced appetite for the past 6 weeks and increased fatigue in the early evening. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft with no masses, but a digital rectal exam reveals a firm, irregularly enlarged prostate with no identifiable median sulcus. A urine dipstick shows the presence of blood and leukocytes. His blood test results are as follows: PSA 4.9 ng/ml; K+ 4.9 (3.5-5.5 mmol/L); Na 134 (135-145 mmol/l); creatinine 107 (60-110 μmol/l); urea 8.6 (2.8 - 8.5 mmol/L); and fasting glucose of 4.9. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to urologist to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Testing and Biopsy Risks for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing is a common screening tool for prostate cancer. However, it should not be measured without a digital examination. If the screen is positive, a biopsy may be needed, which carries risks such as infection, haematuria, and haematospermia, as well as a small mortality risk. It’s important to note that about one-third of men with a raised PSA will have prostate cancer, but biopsies can miss about one-fifth of cancers.

      When counselling a man for PSA testing, it’s crucial to explain the potential risks and benefits. Urgent referral is not necessary if the prostate is simply enlarged and the PSA is within the age-specific reference range. The Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme recommends age-specific cut-off PSA measurements, with a threshold of 3.5 ng/ml for men under 50, over 3.5 ng/ml for men aged 50-59, 4.0 ng/ml for men aged 60-69, and clinical judgement for men aged 70 and over.

      Understanding the nuances of PSA testing and biopsy risks can help men make informed decisions about their prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 76-year-old woman is found to have osteoporosis following a Colles fracture. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman is found to have osteoporosis following a Colles fracture. Which medication she is taking is most likely to have played a role in causing her osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Reduced bone mineral density is linked to the prolonged use of proton pump inhibitors.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.

      If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - You assess a 60-year-old man who is undergoing surgery. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 60-year-old man who is undergoing surgery. He has been diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy for 3 years and is currently taking tamsulosin and finasteride to manage his symptoms. However, he has been experiencing worsening symptoms of poor flow, hesitancy, nocturia, weight loss, and back pain for the past 2 months. You order a prostate-specific antigen test, which returns a result of 2.5ng/mL - within the normal range for his age. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from prostate cancer. Despite having well-controlled BPH with medication, he has developed new lower urinary tract symptoms along with red flag features such as weight loss and back pain. Although his PSA levels are normal, it should be noted that he is taking finasteride which can lower PSA levels. The duration of symptoms and weight loss over a period of 3 months are not indicative of a urinary tract infection. It is also unlikely that the patient is suffering from treatment-resistant BPH after successfully managing the condition for 5 years. While spinal cord compression can cause urinary symptoms, it is unlikely to cause nocturia or flow issues.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal normal serum TSH concentration, but elevated concentrations of both free thyroxine and free triiodothyronine. What is the most probable explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A TSH-secreting pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hyperthyroidism with Normal TSH Levels

      Hyperthyroidism with normal TSH levels can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is a TSH-secreting pituitary tumour, which is a rare condition that can lead to excessive secretion of TSH and growth hormone. Another possible cause is self-administration of thyroxine, but this can be ruled out if TSH secretion is still suppressed. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, is less likely as it typically results in unmeasurable TSH concentrations. Heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum can cause bizarre results, but this is unlikely to be the cause in a patient with classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Finally, thyroid hormone resistance (Refetoff syndrome) is a rare syndrome where thyroid hormone levels are elevated but TSH levels are not suppressed. However, this is unlikely if the patient is symptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Sophie is 25 years old and has come to you seeking contraception. She...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is 25 years old and has come to you seeking contraception. She is currently using condoms and doesn't believe she is at risk of pregnancy. She smokes 4 cigarettes a day, has a body mass index of 22 kg/m², and a blood pressure of 120/65 mmHg. She has no personal or family history of blood clots, heart disease, strokes, or migraines. Sophie has a regular 30-day menstrual cycle and is on day 3 of her cycle. She wants to start contraception immediately and you decide to prescribe Yasmin. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can start the combined oral contraceptive pill today but she needs to use barrier protection for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Extra precautions should be taken during the first 7 days of starting the combined oral contraceptive pill as it doesn’t provide immediate protection when initiated on day 6 of the menstrual cycle. Women over the age of 35 who smoke should not use this form of contraception.

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.

      Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl and wants to discuss contraception options. She used to take the combined pill but prefers not to use any form of contraception if possible. She is not currently breastfeeding. What is the duration after childbirth when she no longer needs contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Up to 21 days

      Explanation:

      Nancy can be advised that she doesn’t need contraception for up to 21 days after giving birth. According to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare Guideline on Postnatal Sexual and Reproductive Health, contraceptive protection is not necessary before Day 21 postpartum. However, if Nancy wants to avoid pregnancy after Day 21, she should use a contraceptive method as ovulation may occur as early as Day 28 in non-breastfeeding women. Breastfeeding women who want to prevent pregnancy should also use a contraceptive method, although any method will be more effective due to reduced fertility. Fully breastfeeding women may rely on the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) alone until breastfeeding decreases or other LAM criteria are no longer met.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A teenage female patient has come to see the GP with concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage female patient has come to see the GP with concerns about her recent experiences.

      After a traumatic sexual assault that occurred a year ago, the patient has been having episodes where she feels like she is reliving the event. These episodes are triggered by certain features associated with the assault and are causing her significant distress. She is finding it difficult to cope with these episodes, and they are starting to affect her daily life and mood.

      What is the best way to describe this experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Flashbacks experienced in PTSD can be classified as pseudohallucinations, which are a type of involuntary sensory experience that can be vivid enough to be mistaken for a hallucination, but are considered subjective and unreal. While severe depression can sometimes present with psychotic features, the patient’s intermittent symptoms and primary complaint of low mood do not fit the typical picture of depression. Elemental hallucinations, which are simple and unstructured sounds, and delusions, which are unshakeable false beliefs, are more commonly associated with psychosis.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with a diarrhoeal illness. They were one of twenty-four students on a study abroad program who developed bloody diarrhoea on the third day.

      Which of the following organisms is the likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistosoma mansoni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dysentery and Amoebiasis

      Dysentery is a gastrointestinal infection that is characterized by frequent stools that may contain blood, mucous, or pus. It is caused by Shigella dysenteriae, which is often associated with unsanitary conditions. The disease is transmitted through faecal contamination of water or food, and symptoms usually appear within one to four days of infection. The bacteria penetrate the mucosal epithelial cells of the intestine, causing intense irritation and producing cramps and watery, bloody diarrhoea.

      Amoebiasis, on the other hand, is often asymptomatic initially, with cysts present in the faeces. However, symptoms such as lower abdominal pain and diarrhoea can develop later in the disease course. If left untreated, dysentery can also develop. It is important to note that stool examination has low sensitivity in detecting amoebiasis.

      Other gastrointestinal infections that you should also be familiar with include C. difficile and E. coli toxins, bacterial causes such as salmonella and campylobacter, viral causes such as rotavirus and norovirus, and parasitic causes such as Giardia lamblia. Understanding these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate management and preventing further spread of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old female who wants to start...

    Incorrect

    • You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old female who wants to start trying to conceive. She has a history of epilepsy and takes levetiracetam 250 mg twice daily.

      Which of the following would be most important to advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed folic acid 5mg instead of the standard 400 mcg once daily. This high dose of folic acid should be taken from before conception until 12 weeks into the pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to a specialist for assessment, but they should continue to use effective contraception until then. It is important to reassure these women that they are likely to have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. Folic acid should be started as soon as possible, even if the pregnancy is unplanned.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to depression caused by multiple miscarriages. She is not ready to return to work and asks her doctor to extend her sick leave. What is the maximum duration that her doctor can sign her off for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Fit notes are limited to a maximum of 3 months per form during the initial issuance.

      The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes

      The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.

      It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.

      Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic for a review. He reports feeling well and asymptomatic. However, his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests:

      - Bilirubin 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP 104 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT 53 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT 58 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      A liver ultrasound performed during his follow-up visit reveals fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits.

      What would be the most appropriate next test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test

      Explanation:

      For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, it is advised to undergo enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) testing to assist in the detection of liver fibrosis. A typical patient with this condition is someone who is overweight and has type 2 diabetes mellitus. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered by chance, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of advanced liver disease.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which one of the following statements regarding the FRAX risk score is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the FRAX risk score is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valid for patients aged 40-90 years

      Explanation:

      Patients between the ages of 40 and 90 are eligible to use FRAX.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion. She has missed her last three periods and took a pregnancy test which came out positive. Her boyfriend is also 16 years old. It is probable that she will need a surgical termination of pregnancy due to her gestation. However, she doesn't wish to inform her parents. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explore why she doesn't want her parents to know, discuss her options and if she wishes refer her for a termination of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Although she is a minor, she can provide consent for medical intervention but cannot refuse it. Her right to confidentiality must be respected regardless of her age.

      If she decides to undergo a surgical termination of pregnancy, it will require hospitalization, and it is unlikely that she can keep it a secret from her parents. Therefore, it is best to address this issue sensitively from the beginning. If a doctor has ethical objections to abortion, they should refer her to another doctor.

      Referring her for counseling will only cause further delay in an already overdue abortion.

      As previously discussed, the patient’s confidentiality must be upheld.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic for follow-up. She reports feeling increasingly...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic for follow-up. She reports feeling increasingly fatigued and overwhelmed with caring for her grandchild. Additionally, she has noticed a hoarse voice and persistent tiredness. She has no significant medical history and has never smoked. She has also been experiencing constipation and has started taking daily senna. On examination, her blood pressure is 115/75 mmHg, pulse is 55 and regular, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. She has a smooth, non-tender goiter. Laboratory results show Hb 118 g/L (115-165), WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10), PLT 180 ×109/L (150-450), Na 131 mmol/L (135-145), K 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5.5), and Cr 99 µmol/L (70-110). What test or investigation would be most helpful in clarifying the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C reactive protein

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Hypothyroidism

      In this case, the patient presents with symptoms of tiredness, weight gain, and bradycardia on examination, along with a smooth non-tender goitre and low sodium on U&E testing. These clues suggest a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be confirmed through thyroid function testing. C reactive protein is a nonspecific result that may indicate possible infection or inflammation, while a chest x-ray can help rule out chest pathology as an alternative cause for the hyponatraemia. If the thyroid function testing is normal and the chest x-ray is unremarkable, an ENT referral may be appropriate. Ultrasound is indicated if there is a suspicion of nodularity within the thyroid gland. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage hypothyroidism in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 10 days. He had recently returned from a two-month trip to northern India. On examination, he has no fever and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is suggested by the prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea and the incubation period.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed