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  • Question 1 - You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice....

    Correct

    • You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice. Whilst using one of the partners room for a surgery you notice a half-empty bottle of wine in the desk drawer. After discussing this with the partner she states that it was a recent gift from a patient and was simply storing it there prior to taking it home. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Discuss this with one of the other partners in the surgery

      Explanation:

      Although you have already raised your concerns about the doctor’s alcohol consumption, he has dismissed them. It is possible that his explanation, which may involve receiving gifts of alcohol, is valid. However, the fact that the bottle is half-empty is worrying and it is important to discuss your concerns with other doctors in the surgery. They may already be aware of the issue and your observation could provide additional evidence for them to take appropriate action. It is also possible that the doctor may be more willing to admit to a problem if approached by a fellow partner rather than a junior colleague like yourself.

      Filling out a clinical incident form is a good way to formally document your concerns, but it doesn’t address the issue immediately. Writing an anonymous letter to the practice manager is unprofessional and could lead to conflict, as the manager may suspect that one of the other partners wrote the letter.

      Removing the bottle doesn’t solve the underlying problem and could potentially put patients at risk. Therefore, taking no further action is not an acceptable option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      26.6
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her worried daughter. The...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her worried daughter. The patient has a history of mental health problems and rarely leaves her house, but is still able to perform daily activities independently.

      The daughter is concerned as her mother has been complaining of increased bone and joint pain, particularly in her spine and legs, along with a general feeling of weakness over the past few months. Upon examination, the patient exhibits tenderness in her long bones, weakness in her proximal muscles, and difficulty walking with a waddling gait.

      What is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy suggest a diagnosis of osteomalacia. This condition is often caused by a lack of sunlight and subsequent vitamin D deficiency, leading to decreased bone mineralization and softening of the bones. Unlike other bone pathologies, osteomalacia can cause joint and bone pain as well as muscle weakness, particularly in the form of proximal myopathy and a waddling gait.

      Osteopenia is characterized by low bone density and typically precedes osteoporosis. While patients with osteopenia are at risk of bone fractures, the condition itself doesn’t usually cause symptoms such as pain or weakness.

      Osteoporosis is a more severe form of reduced bone mass and also increases the risk of bone fractures. However, like osteopenia, it doesn’t typically cause joint pain, weakness, or a waddling gait.

      Paget’s disease is caused by abnormal bone remodeling, resulting in excessive bone breakdown and disorganized new bone formation. While bone pain can occur, most patients are asymptomatic. The most common features of Paget’s disease include skull frontal bossing, headaches, and hearing loss due to narrowing of the auditory foramen. Joint pain, weakness, and a waddling gait are not typically associated with Paget’s disease.

      Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment

      Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      23.9
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer: Switch to ezetimibe

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
    You want to...

    Incorrect

    • A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
      You want to know what proportion of patients with Alzheimer's disease would be accurately diagnosed by this new test.
      What value would indicate this?

      Your Answer: Positive predictive value

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Positive Predictive Value in Medical Testing

      Medical testing is an essential tool in diagnosing diseases and conditions. Two important measures in evaluating the effectiveness of a test are sensitivity and positive predictive value. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of patients with the disease who are correctly identified by the test. In other words, it measures the accuracy of the test in detecting true positives. On the other hand, positive predictive value refers to the percentage of people who test positive for the disease and actually have it. This measure takes into account the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested and helps to determine the likelihood of a positive test result being a true positive. Understanding these measures is crucial in interpreting medical test results and making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      10.6
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  • Question 5 - What is the most suitable amount of adrenaline to administer during a heart...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable amount of adrenaline to administer during a heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10ml 1:10,000 IV

      Explanation:

      Here are the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS):
      – Anaphylaxis: Administer 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline via intramuscular injection.
      – Cardiac arrest: Administer 1 mg of adrenaline.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body

      Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.

      Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.

      Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1 ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.

      In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, vomiting and impaired hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, vomiting and impaired hearing on the right side lasting for 1-4 hours. She has experienced six such episodes over the last 10 months. Neurological examination shows evidence of right sensorineural deafness. An audiogram confirms the presence of right low-frequency sensorineural deafness. She also reports worsening tinnitus.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Vertigo: A Guide

      Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between different causes of vertigo.

      Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, nausea/vomiting, and deafness lasting for hours. An audiogram typically shows unilateral low-frequency sensorineural deafness. Treatment involves antiemetics, betahistine, bendroflumethiazide, and salt restriction.

      Vertebrobasilar insufficiency refers to transient ischemic attacks in the vertebrobasilar vascular territory. Attacks typically last about eight minutes and may include vertigo, nausea/vomiting, syncope, facial numbness, visual field defects, sudden hearing loss, speech disturbance, and ataxia.

      Acoustic neuroma usually presents with slowly progressive deafness and disequilibrium, but not paroxysmal vertigo. True vertigo is uncommon and usually only occurs with small tumors.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is the most common cause of vertigo and is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by head movement. It may coexist with Ménière’s disease and has a high chance of recurrence.

      Labyrinthitis is characterized by sudden onset vertigo, hearing loss, and often tinnitus. Nausea and vomiting are common. It is not triggered by movement but may be exacerbated by it. Most cases are thought to be viral in origin and resolve within days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements regarding vaginal problems in adolescents is incorrect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding vaginal problems in adolescents is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal swabs should be taken by the GP to guide treatment

      Explanation:

      Gynaecological Problems in Children: Vulvovaginitis

      In children, gynaecological problems are not uncommon, and vulvovaginitis is the most prevalent disorder. This condition is often caused by poor hygiene, tight clothing, lack of labial fat pads protecting the vaginal orifice, and lack of protective acid secretion found in the reproductive years. Bacterial or fungal organisms may be responsible for the infection, and in rare cases, sexual abuse may present as vulvovaginitis. If there is a bloody discharge, it is essential to consider a foreign body.

      It is not recommended to perform vaginal examinations or vaginal swabs on children. Instead, referral to a paediatric gynaecologist is appropriate for persistent problems. Most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge, which usually disappears by three months of age.

      The management of vulvovaginitis includes advising the child about hygiene, using soothing creams, and applying topical antibiotics or antifungals. In resistant cases, oestrogen cream may be necessary. It is crucial to seek medical attention if the symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed this before and has not sought support for this in the past. He requests methadone substitution from his general practitioner.
      What is the single most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer referral to specialist drug-abuse service

      Explanation:

      Managing Opioid Dependence: Recommended Actions for GPs

      As a GP, managing patients with opioid dependence can be challenging. Here are some recommended actions to help you provide the best care for your patients:

      1. Offer referral to a specialist drug-abuse service. NICE advises that doctors assess and manage people with opioid dependence within their competence and confidence, which for the majority would mean referral to a specialist service. Here, they have an MDT who can effectively assess, treat, and follow up patients like this.

      2. Prescribe methadone at a dose indicated in the British National Formulary (BNF). It is possible for a GP to prescribe methadone, but this should only be done if they have received higher-level training, or they feel confident to do so and have input from a shared-care multidisciplinary team (MDT).

      3. Avoid prescribing a reducing course of dihydrocodeine. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that dihydrocodeine should not be used in detoxification, except in specific circumstances within specialist care.

      4. Avoid performing urine toxicology unless you are confident in managing this situation. Urine toxicology would not be of any benefit here if you are not confident in managing this situation.

      5. Avoid arranging weekly review. This man is requesting care which requires specialist input, so arranging review in a week would only cause unnecessary delay.

      By following these recommended actions, you can help your patients manage their opioid dependence effectively and safely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 9 - What is the appropriate advice to give to a patient with a confirmed...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate advice to give to a patient with a confirmed food allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Food allergens may be encountered by routes other than ingestion e.g. skin contact, inhalation

      Explanation:

      Managing Food Allergies and Intolerances

      Food allergies and intolerances can be managed through food avoidance. Elimination diets should only exclude foods that have been confirmed to cause allergic reactions, and the advice of a dietician may be necessary. It is important to read food labels carefully, although not all potential allergens are included. Cross contact of allergens during meal preparation should be avoided, and high-risk situations such as buffets and picnics should be avoided as well. It is also important to note that there is a possibility of food allergen cross-reactivity, such as between cows’ milk and goats’ milk or between different types of fish. Additionally, there is a risk of exposure to allergens through routes other than ingestion, such as skin contact or inhalation during cooking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of exertional breathlessness and leg...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of exertional breathlessness and leg swelling that has developed over the past few months. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a previous myocardial infarction. Her current medications include metformin 500 mg TDS, aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 7.5 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, and bisoprolol 5 mg OD. Recent blood tests done at her diabetic annual review show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, and thyroid function. Her latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol. On clinical examination, you note bibasal crepitations on auscultation of the chest, a slightly raised jugular venous pressure, and bilateral pitting lower limb edema to the ankles. She is comfortable at rest, with a pulse rate of 80 bpm and regular, blood pressure of 138/84 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 97% in air. Based on your assessment, you diagnose her with cardiac failure. What is the next appropriate step in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure NT-proBNP

      Explanation:

      Next Steps in Diagnosing Heart Failure

      This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of heart failure. The next step in the diagnosis, according to NICE’s summary flowchart, is to measure NT-proBNP. This will help determine the urgency of referral for specialist clinical assessment, which may include transthoracic echocardiography. Other potential steps in the diagnosis process include performing an ECG, chest X-ray, blood tests, urinalysis, peak flow, or spirometry. However, since these options are not listed, it is important to choose the best option available, which in this case is measuring NT-proBNP. It is crucial to read the question carefully to ensure the correct next step is taken in the diagnosis process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
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  • Question 11 - What is a true statement about mumps infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about mumps infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sterility commonly follows orchitis

      Explanation:

      Mumps: Symptoms and Complications

      Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. It can affect any of the salivary glands, but sometimes only one gland is affected. In rare cases, mumps can cause meningoencephalitis, which is inflammation of the brain and its surrounding tissues.

      One of the common complications of mumps is orchitis, which is inflammation of the testicles. This occurs in around 25% of cases and can cause pain, swelling, and fever. However, sterility is a relatively uncommon complication following orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and has a 60-pack/year smoking history. His uncle and father both died in their 50s of a myocardial infarction.

      He is found to have a blood pressure of 146/92 mmHg in the clinic. He has no signs of end organ damage on examination and bloods, ACR, urine dip and ECG are normal. His 10-year cardiovascular risk is >10%. He has ambulatory monitoring which shows a blood pressure average of 138/86 mmHg.

      As per the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension for the AKT Exam

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) published in September 2019 provide important information for general practitioners on the management of hypertension. However, it is important to remember that these guidelines have attracted criticism from some clinicians for being over complicated and insufficiently evidence-based. While it is essential to have an awareness of NICE guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.

      One example of a question that may be asked in the AKT exam relates to the cut-offs for high blood pressure on ambulatory monitoring. According to the NICE guidelines, stage 1 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of 135-149/85-94 mmHg and should be treated if there is end organ damage, diabetes, or a 10-year CVD risk of 10% or more. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as blood pressure equal to or greater than 150/95 mmHg and should be treated.

      In the exam, you may be asked to determine the appropriate treatment for a patient with stage 1 hypertension. The NICE guidance suggests a calcium channel blocker in patients above 55 or Afro-Caribbean. However, it is important to note that lifestyle factors are also crucial in risk reduction.

      While it is unlikely that you will be asked to select answers that contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to remember that the AKT exam tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance. Therefore, it is important to have a broader understanding of the subject matter and consider other guidelines and opinions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - A woman presents 6 weeks postpartum following a normal vaginal delivery. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents 6 weeks postpartum following a normal vaginal delivery. She is Breastfeeding her son who is growing well along the 50th centile. She does however complain of intermittent severe bilateral nipple pain during feeding which persists for a few minutes afterwards. She has noticed her nipples turn very pale after feeds when the pain is present and occasional also a blueish colour. She has seen the local breastfeeding team who have observed her feeding and reassured that the infant’s latch is good. On examination of her breasts, they appear normal with no tenderness or nipple cracks evident. Her infant appears well with a normal tongue and no evidence of tongue tie.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raynaud’s disease of the nipple (vasospasm)

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple can cause pain in women who are breastfeeding.

      Symptoms of Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as nipple blanching followed by cyanosis and/or erythema. Pain subsides when the nipple returns to its normal color. Other possible causes of nipple pain, such as candidiasis or poor latch, should also be considered. Treatment options for Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs after feeding, avoiding caffeine, and quitting smoking. If symptoms persist, referral to a specialist for a trial of oral nifedipine may be necessary (although this is off-license).

      Option one is the correct answer, as the clinical history is consistent with Raynaud’s disease of the nipple. Option two is incorrect, as pain would be more localized and may be accompanied by a white spot or tenderness. Option three is also incorrect, as pain is usually more generalized and occurs during the first few minutes of feeding. Option four is incorrect, as an infection would likely present with purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Option five is also incorrect, as an eczematous rash would likely be present with itching and dry, scaly patches.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of gynaecomastia. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of gynaecomastia. He is currently being treated for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux.
      Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, cimetidine, ciclosporin, and omeprazole are some of the drugs associated with this condition. Ramipril has only been rarely linked to gynaecomastia.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of use. If you are experiencing breast enlargement or any other unusual symptoms while taking medication, it is best to consult with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - An academic researcher is investigating the efficacy of a new treatment for elderly...

    Incorrect

    • An academic researcher is investigating the efficacy of a new treatment for elderly patients with osteoporosis. Prior to commencing her own study, she intends to conduct a meta-analysis to consolidate existing findings on the subject. As part of her meta-analysis, she must evaluate whether publication bias exists in the literature.

      What is the most effective method for the researcher to detect this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      The forest plot and Kaplan-Meier curve in the report are not appropriate for the data presented. The forest plot is typically used in meta-analyses to display the weight and confidence intervals of individual studies and the overall results. The Kaplan-Meier curve is commonly used to show the data of a single survival analysis study. Instead, the report should include appropriate graphs or charts that clearly display the confidence intervals for the data.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 16 - A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with extreme tiredness and fevers. The GP arranges some urgent tests as he is concerned that it may be a malignancy.

      Which of the following is the most common childhood cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Childhood Cancer Incidence

      Leukaemia is the most prevalent form of childhood cancer, accounting for 31% of all cases. Brain and central nervous system tumours follow closely behind at 21%, while lymphoma, neuroblastoma, and Wilms’ tumours make up 10%, 7%, and 5% respectively. It is important to understand the incidence rates of childhood cancers in order to better allocate resources for research and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of intermittent central...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of intermittent central abdominal pain and bloating, which is often relieved when she opens her bowels. She also experiences loose stools and occasional urgency to pass a stool. These symptoms have been occurring on and off for about six months, and she has not experienced any weight loss or bleeding. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. The patient has recently been promoted to a more responsible position at work. What is the most appropriate intervention to relieve this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mebeverine

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Medications for Irritable Bowel Syndrome: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), including abdominal pain relieved by defecation and the absence of red-flag symptoms. The likely cause of her flare-up is increased stress following a job promotion. Antispasmodics such as mebeverine are appropriate for symptomatic relief of abdominal pain in IBS, while omeprazole is not indicated for this patient. Domperidone is not necessary for the relief of nausea and vomiting, and lactulose is not recommended due to potential bloating. Linaclotide is not appropriate for this patient as her symptoms have only been present for six months and there is no evidence that other laxatives have failed. Overall, mebeverine and lifestyle changes are the recommended interventions for this patient with IBS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache that started 3 weeks ago. Samantha's medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia, and she has a body mass index of 29 kg/m².

      During your examination, you measure Samantha's blood pressure which is 190/118 mmHg. A repeat reading shows 186/116 mmHg. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe evidence of retinal haemorrhage.

      What would be the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for same-day specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old care worker presents with 3 days of fever, abdominal cramps and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old care worker presents with 3 days of fever, abdominal cramps and profuse diarrhoea. You send a stool sample for culture and the result confirms campylobacter infection.
      What is a true statement about this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is usually acquired through eating chicken

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter: The Leading Cause of Diarrhoea in the UK

      Campylobacter sp. is the primary cause of diarrhoea in the UK, with a high incidence rate. Although it usually resolves on its own within five days, it can persist for up to four weeks. In rare cases, it can lead to reactive arthritis. Treatment options include ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, erythromycin, or azithromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 20 - The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic....

    Incorrect

    • The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic. They all have atrial fibrillation (AF) and are taking multiple medications.

      Which patient should discontinue anticoagulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An 80-year-old man who has undergone left atrial appendage closure, surgically preventing clots from entering the bloodstream

      Explanation:

      Even after undergoing catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation, patients must continue taking anticoagulants for an extended period based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - Samantha is a 10-year-old girl who is scheduled to receive the HPV vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 10-year-old girl who is scheduled to receive the HPV vaccine at her doctor's office. She is very anxious about getting shots and asks the nurse how many injections she will have to get.

      What is the correct response to Samantha's question?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two

      Explanation:

      The NHS will provide the HPV vaccine to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school year 8 starting from September 2019. Typically, the vaccine is administered in two injections, with the second dose given 6 to 12 months after the first (during school year 8 or year 9). However, individuals who receive the vaccine after the age of 15 will require three doses, as they do not have the same response to two doses as younger individuals.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old man visits your clinic with complaints of fatigue, excessive thirst, insomnia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits your clinic with complaints of fatigue, excessive thirst, insomnia, muscle weakness, and constipation. Upon examination, his full blood count, renal function tests, and liver function tests are all normal. However, the following blood test results were obtained:

      Calcium 3.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.8 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 11 pmol/L (9.0-18)
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 60 pg/mL (14-65)
      Vitamin D 180 ng/ml (≥30)

      What is the probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing symptoms of hypercalcaemia and has elevated calcium levels, indicating primary hyperparathyroidism. However, her parathyroid hormone levels are normal, which is unusual as they are typically decreased in the presence of high calcium levels. This rules out secondary hyperparathyroidism caused by another disease. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is also unlikely as PTH levels would be significantly elevated. There is no indication of tuberculosis or bony metastasis, making primary hyperparathyroidism the most probable diagnosis.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.

      The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old female presents with an acute illness. She reports experiencing a fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female presents with an acute illness. She reports experiencing a fever, malaise, and a sore throat. She has a medical history of asthma, hyperthyroidism, and migraines. Her current medications include salbutamol inhaled as needed, sumatriptan 50 mg as needed, carbimazole 40 mg daily, and Cerazette 75 mcg daily. What blood tests should be ordered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver function

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole and Infection Risk

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis by blocking the iodination of thyroid hormone. However, patients taking carbimazole should be aware of the potential risk of infection, particularly sore throat, and report any symptoms or signs of infection to their healthcare provider. This is because carbimazole can cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to agranulocytosis, a rare but serious adverse effect.

      If a patient on carbimazole presents with an acute illness consisting of fever, malaise, and sore throat, a full blood count should be performed to assess the white blood cell count and differential. If neutropenia is found, carbimazole should be stopped immediately. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients taking carbimazole for signs of infection and to take appropriate action if necessary to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old man is worried about his weight. He has a body mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is worried about his weight. He has a body mass index of 38 kg/m^2. What is the most appropriate description of his weight?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinically obese (Obese II)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Body Mass Index (BMI)

      Body mass index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight (in kilograms) by the height (in metres) squared. BMI is used to determine whether a person is underweight, normal weight, overweight, obese, or morbidly obese.

      The old classification of BMI had five categories, ranging from underweight to morbidly obese. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has simplified the classification into three categories: underweight, normal, and overweight. The overweight category includes both obese and clinically obese individuals.

      It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fat and doesn’t take into account factors such as muscle mass or body composition. Therefore, it should be used as a general guide and not as a definitive diagnosis. It is always best to consult with a healthcare professional for a more accurate assessment of one’s health status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A new elderly patient in the practice has been diagnosed with presbycusis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A new elderly patient in the practice has been diagnosed with presbycusis. The patient has no history of hearing loss and no family members with hearing impairments. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An autosomal-recessive-inherited disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Congenital Sensorineural Hearing Loss

      Congenital sensorineural hearing loss is a type of hearing loss that is present at birth. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including hereditary factors, infections during pregnancy, and complications during birth. In the United Kingdom, hereditary hearing loss accounts for 1-2 per 1000 babies, with around 80% of genetic hearing loss being non-syndromic and not associated with prenatal or perinatal factors.

      There are several possible causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss, including autosomal-recessive-inherited disorders, syndromes, autosomal-dominant-inherited disorders, cytomegalovirus infection, and secretory otitis media.

      It is important to understand the different causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition. In some cases, genetic testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the hearing loss. Additionally, early intervention and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for children with congenital sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 26 - Under what circumstances is it safe to administer the MMR (measles, mumps, and...

    Incorrect

    • Under what circumstances is it safe to administer the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Child with congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Contraindicated

      1. Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to Gelatin:
        • Contraindication: The MMR vaccine contains gelatin as a stabilizer. Individuals with a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin should not receive the MMR vaccine due to the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
      2. Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to MMR Vaccination:
        • Contraindication: If a person has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the MMR vaccine, it is contraindicated to administer the vaccine again. An alternative plan should be discussed with an allergist or immunologist.
      3. Pregnant Woman:
        • Contraindication: The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the potential risk to the developing fetus. Women are advised to wait at least one month after receiving the MMR vaccine before becoming pregnant.
      4. Severely Immunosuppressed Individual:
        • Contraindication: Individuals who are severely immunosuppressed (e.g., due to chemotherapy, high-dose corticosteroids, or advanced HIV/AIDS) should not receive the MMR vaccine. The live attenuated viruses in the vaccine could potentially cause disease in these individuals.

      Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Safe

      1. Child with Congenital Heart Disease:
        • Safe to Administer: Children with congenital heart disease can safely receive the MMR vaccine. Congenital heart disease itself is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine, and these children should be protected from measles, mumps, and rubella, which could potentially be more severe if contracted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating, and her husband, while archiving photos from recent years, noticed an increased prominence of her jaw now. Last year she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Other past history of note is that she has recently been operated on for carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growth-hormone levels are likely to remain above 1 µg/l after a 75 g glucose load

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. A diagnosis is confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test, as growth hormone levels remain elevated above 1 µg/l. Symptoms include coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, and soft tissue swellings. Nerve compression, hypertension, and cardiovascular complications may also occur. Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are elevated in patients with acromegaly and can be used to monitor treatment efficacy. Random growth hormone testing is unsuitable due to episodic secretion. Treatment involves trans-sphenoidal resection of the pituitary tumor. Additionally, some patients with acromegaly may have increased levels of 1,25-OH vitamin D, which can cause hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a lump a few weeks ago while taking a bath and reports that it has appeared quite rapidly. He is not experiencing any symptoms and is otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears to be in good overall health. There is a firm, non-tender swelling on the right side. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the swelling is translucent when tested with a light source. It is easy to get above the swelling, and the scrotal skin appears normal in color and temperature.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to the general surgeons for routine elective hernia repair

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydroceles: Causes and Diagnosis

      A hydrocele is a painless swelling that occurs in the scrotum due to a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. It is often confined to one side and the underlying testicle may not be palpable. Transillumination with a light source can help diagnose a hydrocele.

      Hydroceles can be primary or secondary. Primary hydroceles tend to occur in children and the elderly and appear gradually. Secondary hydroceles, on the other hand, are associated with testicular pathology and tend to appear rapidly. Possible underlying causes of a secondary hydrocele include testicular tumour, infection (epididymo-orchitis), torsion, and trauma.

      A clinical diagnosis is often sufficient, but an ultrasound scan may be requested in cases of secondary hydrocele or when there is suspicion of an underlying pathology. For instance, a new onset, rapidly growing hydrocele in a man in his thirties may warrant an ultrasound scan to rule out a testicular tumour.

      If the history and examination do not suggest an infective/inflammatory process, torsion, or trauma as an underlying cause, immediate referral to the hospital is not necessary. The use of anti-inflammatory and antibiotics is also not indicated in such cases. Understanding the causes and diagnosis of hydroceles can help in their appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old gentleman comes in seeking benefits due to his poor vision. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman comes in seeking benefits due to his poor vision. He has been experiencing this for quite some time and had to give up driving a few months ago as he felt it was no longer safe.

      Regarding the registration of sight impairment, who is authorized to issue a certificate of vision impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consultant ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Registration for People with Sight Impairment

      Registration for people with sight impairment is not mandatory, but it provides access to benefits and low vision services. To complete the registration process, a consultant ophthalmologist must fill out a certificate of vision impairment. There are two categories for registration: severely sight-impaired (blind) and sight-impaired/partially sighted. The severely sight-impaired category includes people with corrected visual acuity worse than 3/60 or corrected visual acuity of 3/60 to 6/60 with a contracted field of vision. It also includes people with corrected visual acuity of 6/60 or better who have a contracted field of vision, especially if it is in the lower part of the field. The sight-impaired/partially sighted category includes any person who is substantially and permanently handicapped by defective vision caused by a congenital defect, illness, or injury.

      For more information on registering for sight impairment as a disability, visit the .Gov website or the RNIB website. Additionally, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists has published a guide on low vision that may be of general interest to healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman complains of multiple occurrences of vaginal candidiasis that have not...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of multiple occurrences of vaginal candidiasis that have not responded to OTC or prescribed treatments. As per the guidelines of the British Association of Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH), what is the minimum frequency of yearly episodes required to diagnose recurrent vaginal candidiasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Four or more episodes per year

      Explanation:

      According to BASHH, recurrent vaginal candidiasis is characterized by experiencing four or more episodes per year. This criterion is significant as it helps determine the need for prophylactic treatment to prevent future recurrences.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 31 - Which option from the list aligns BEST with Wilson and Junger's screening criteria...

    Incorrect

    • Which option from the list aligns BEST with Wilson and Junger's screening criteria for the PSA test in detecting prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The test has a high specificity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Prostate Cancer Screening

      Prostate cancer screening is a controversial topic, with the benefits and risks of introducing a national screening programme still unclear. One of the challenges in screening for prostate cancer is the inability to distinguish between potentially harmful and clinically insignificant cancers. This can lead to over-diagnosis and over-treatment of the disease.

      To evaluate the effectiveness of a screening test, we use measures of sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with the disease who are correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without the disease who are correctly identified as negative by the test.

      In the case of prostate cancer screening, the test has a high specificity, meaning that it gives few false positives. However, the sensitivity of the test varies depending on the cut-off value used, with reported sensitivities ranging from 33% to 59%.

      To introduce a successful screening programme, Wilson and Jungner’s Criteria for mass screening must be met. These criteria include the importance of the condition, understanding the natural history of the disease, having a simple and validated screening test, and having facilities for diagnosis and treatment available.

      In conclusion, sensitivity and specificity are important measures in evaluating the effectiveness of prostate cancer screening. While the test has a high specificity, the sensitivity varies and the natural history of the disease is not fully understood, making the introduction of a national screening programme a complex issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 32 - A 6-year-old girl presents with a rash and joint pain. The rash has...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents with a rash and joint pain. The rash has developed over the past few days, with the joint pain starting today. She also reports intermittent abdominal pain that has been occurring since before the rash appeared. On examination, she is afebrile with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. There is a symmetrical purpuric rash over the extensor surfaces of her arms and legs and over her buttocks, while her trunk is unaffected. The child complains of pain in her knees and ankles, which appear slightly swollen. Her abdomen is soft with mild periumbilical tenderness on palpation. Which test would be most helpful in guiding further management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a vasculitic condition that commonly affects children between the ages of 3 and 10. The core clinical features of HSP include a characteristic skin rash, joint pain, periarticular oedema, renal involvement, and abdominal pain. Renal involvement can lead to hypertension, haematuria, and proteinuria, which can result in nephrotic and nephritic syndromes. Therefore, urine dipstick testing is crucial in aiding the clinical diagnosis and guiding management and follow-up. Regular follow-up is necessary in the convalescent period as HSP can lead to chronic renal problems in some patients. PatientPlus provides HSP guidelines that offer a comprehensive overview of the clinical features, patient assessment, and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 33 - A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a painful discharging...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a painful discharging right ear and a mild unilateral right-sided hearing loss that has been going on for 3 days. During examination, the doctor observes an intact tympanic membrane and copious purulent liquid discharge. The patient has a normal heart rate of 70 bpm and is not running a fever.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Otitis Externa

      Otitis externa is a common condition characterized by pain, itching, and discharge in the ear canal. Here are some management options for this condition:

      Prescribe Topical Antibiotics: Topical antibiotics are the first-line treatment for otitis externa. Neomycin or clioquinol are recommended, and they may be combined with a topical corticosteroid if there is inflammation and eczema. Aminoglycosides should be used cautiously as second line if there is perforation of the eardrum.

      Prescribe Oral Antibiotics: Oral antibiotics may be necessary if the patient is systemically unwell or there is preauricular lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin is the drug of choice.

      Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for Ear Wick Insertion: If there is extensive swelling of the auditory canal, an ear wick may be used. This is impregnated with antibiotic-steroid combination and is inserted into the auditory canal. However, if the tympanic membrane is visible, topical antibiotics would be the first-line treatment.

      Prescribe Analgesia Only: Paracetamol or ibuprofen is usually sufficient for analgesia in cases of otitis externa. However, analgesia should be used in combination with antibiotics to aid in curing and preventing the worsening of symptoms.

      Do Not Prescribe Topical Antifungals: Topical antifungals are not indicated in simple cases of otitis externa. They may be necessary if there is a secondary fungal infection, but this is not described in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 34 - How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants? ...

    Incorrect

    • How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intradermally

      Explanation:

      The BCG vaccine is a form of immunization that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is typically given to high-risk infants and was previously administered to children at the age of 13 years until 2005. The Greenbook recommends that the vaccine be given to infants living in areas with an annual incidence of TB of 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a similar incidence rate. Other groups that should receive the vaccine include previously unvaccinated contacts of respiratory TB cases, healthcare workers, prison staff, and those who work with homeless people.

      The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy. Before receiving the BCG vaccine, individuals must undergo a tuberculin skin test, with the exception of children under six years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is administered intradermally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm and can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, with a four-week interval if not administered simultaneously.

      There are several contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous vaccination, a history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test. It is not recommended for individuals over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it is effective for this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old female complains of painful chewing and clicking in her jaw accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female complains of painful chewing and clicking in her jaw accompanied by a squeezing headache. She denies any joint pains and appears to be in good health. During the examination, she was able to open her mouth normally but experienced pain when opening wider. Mild pain was observed upon palpation of the area, and her temperature was 36.4ºC. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild analgesia, heat packs, avoid exacerbating foods

      Explanation:

      Patients with suspected temporomandibular joint dysfunction should be encouraged to practice early self-management techniques to control their symptoms and limit functional impairment. These techniques include using simple analgesics like paracetamol or ibuprofen, applying heat packs to the affected area, and avoiding hard or crunchy foods that can exacerbate the pain. With proper self-management, patients can expect to recover within 2-3 months.

      If temporal arteritis is suspected, investigations such as ESR and temporal biopsy may be necessary. This condition presents with a throbbing headache, an obvious temporal artery, and claudication when chewing, and requires immediate treatment with corticosteroids to prevent vision loss.

      While referral to a dentist may be necessary if self-management techniques are ineffective, an x-ray of the mandible is not required for diagnosis. Strong analgesia and opioids should be avoided, as simple analgesia is just as effective and carries fewer risks. X-rays are also unnecessary, as TMJ dysfunction is a clinical diagnosis that doesn’t require imaging to manage.

      Understanding Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction

      Temporomandibular joint dysfunction (TMJ) is a condition that affects the jaw joint and the muscles that control its movement. It is characterized by pain in the TMJ area, which may radiate to the head, neck, or ear. Patients may also experience restricted jaw motion, making it painful to chew or speak. Additionally, they may notice clicking or other noises when moving their jaw.

      To manage TMJ, healthcare professionals may recommend soft foods to reduce the strain on the jaw. Simple analgesia, such as paracetamol and NSAIDs, can also help alleviate pain. Short courses of benzodiazepines may be prescribed to help relax the muscles and reduce anxiety. It is also important to seek a review by a dentist to rule out any dental issues that may be contributing to the condition.

      In summary, TMJ is a painful condition that affects the jaw joint and muscles. It can be managed through a combination of lifestyle changes, medication, and dental care. By understanding the symptoms and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of TMJ on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 36 - A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't had a doctor's appointment in over four years. Her parents have become increasingly worried about her behavior in the past few weeks. They report her staying up late at night, talking rapidly, and being very irritable. Yesterday she told her parents she was planning to take over the school assembly and give constructive criticism to her teachers in front of the other students. She feels many of her teachers are underperforming and need to be re-taught their subjects by her. She admits to trying cannabis once around eight months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year, the last time being three weeks ago. Prior to her decline a few weeks ago, her parents describe her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol as it has been a considerable amount of time since he last consumed these substances.

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they are not the same. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are significant differences between them. Mania is a severe form of mood disorder that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant functional impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to self or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a milder form of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It doesn’t impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. Hypomania doesn’t exhibit any psychotic symptoms. The length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

      Despite their differences, both hypomania and mania share some common symptoms. These include predominantly elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 37 - During a late-night shift at an urgent care centre, you encounter a 30-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • During a late-night shift at an urgent care centre, you encounter a 30-year-old woman who complains of experiencing pain and swelling in her right leg for the past three days. She denies having chest pain or difficulty breathing and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      Upon examination, you notice that her right leg is swollen and tender to the touch. Her heart rate and pulse oximetry are both normal. After calculating a Wells deep vein thrombosis (DVT) score of 2, you advise her to visit her GP surgery the next morning for urgent blood tests, including a d-dimer, and to be monitored by the duty GP at her practice. You also instruct her to stop taking her contraceptive pill in the meantime.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe apixaban

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of a DVT and it is not possible to obtain a D-dimer or scan result within four hours, NICE recommends initiating anticoagulation treatment with a DOAC such as apixaban. Low molecular weight heparin is no longer the preferred option. Clopidogrel is not effective in treating DVT. Warfarin, which was previously used, has been largely replaced by DOACs, but may still be used in some cases with low molecular weight heparin until the INR is within target range.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 38 - A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has visited the surgery on several occasions over the preceding 12 months complaining of abdominal pain. She was initially treated with PPI, but on her most recent review one of your colleagues felt that she had IBS and gave her an antispasmodic.

      Unfortunately, her pain persists and is continuous. Her appetite is poor since starting the antispasmodic and she is complaining that she is putting on weight because she is having difficulty doing up her skirt. On further questioning, she has been slightly constipated in recent months and passing urine more frequently.

      Her mother and sister died of breast cancer aged 52 and 43 respectively and many family members have had renal calculi.

      On examination, she appears anxious but there is no clinical evidence of anaemia or jaundice. She weighs 66 kg but there are no previous recordings for comparison. Her abdomen is soft and there are no masses. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa and suprapubic area. Rectal examination is normal.

      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dipstick her urine and refer for renal ultrasound if positive for blood

      Explanation:

      Detecting Ovarian Cancer: A Challenging Diagnosis

      Detecting ovarian cancer can be a challenging diagnosis as the symptoms are often vague, especially in the early stages of the disease. However, there are certain risk factors and cardinal symptoms that can help in identifying the disease. Women with a family history of breast cancer, carriers of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene, and Polish women are at an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Patients presenting with persistent bloating, abdominal or pelvic pain, and difficulty in eating or fullness after eating small quantities of food should be evaluated for ovarian cancer.

      NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer occurring more than 12 times a month or for more than a month should be offered CA125 testing. If the CA125 is 35 IU/mL or greater, an urgent ultrasound scan of the pelvis should be arranged. Therefore, performing a pelvic examination and arranging testing for CA125 is the most appropriate way forward for patients with symptoms suggestive of ovarian cancer. Early detection and prompt treatment can improve the prognosis of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old man has severe athlete's foot. His toenail is also infected. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has severe athlete's foot. His toenail is also infected. He is taking griseofulvin. He tells you that he has read something about fathering children when taking this drug.

      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should not father a child within six months of finishing griseofulvin

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid for Prospective Fathers

      When prescribing medication, it is crucial to consider the potential effects on both men and women who may be trying to conceive. While women are often advised to avoid certain drugs during pregnancy, it is easy to overlook the impact on prospective fathers. For instance, men taking griseofulvin should not father a child during treatment and for six months afterward.

      It is important to be aware of other medications that may present problems for men who are trying to conceive. While not an exhaustive list, some examples include chemotherapy drugs, certain antibiotics, and medications for autoimmune disorders. It is essential to discuss these risks with male patients and encourage them to inform their healthcare provider if they are trying to conceive. By taking these precautions, we can help ensure the health and well-being of both parents and their future children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 40 - A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin is red and he seems to be tender posteriorly. He has a temperature of 38.3°C and feels like he has the flu. The testicle and scrotum are of normal size. During the examination, he reports that the testicle feels better when lifted.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Acute epididymo-orchitis is a condition characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, with or without inflammation of the testes. This condition is commonly caused by infections that spread from the urethra or bladder. While orchitis, which is an infection limited to the testis, is less common, epididymitis usually presents with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling of relatively acute onset.

      Aside from the symptoms of urethritis or a urinary infection, tenderness and swelling of the epididymis may start at the tail at the lower pole of the testis and spread towards the head at the upper pole of the testis, with or without involvement of the testis. There may also be a secondary hydrocele, erythema, and/or edema of the scrotum on the affected side, as well as pyrexia.

      To diagnose epididymo-orchitis, Prehn’s sign is often used, which is indicative of epididymitis. Scrotal elevation relieves pain in epididymitis but not torsion. However, if there is any doubt, urgent referral is indicated, as torsion is the most important differential diagnosis. Torsion is more likely if the onset of pain is more acute and the pain is severe.

      It is important to note that a painful swollen testicle in an adolescent boy or a young man should be regarded as torsion until proven otherwise. In this case, the testis is said to be normal in size. Testicular cancer, on the other hand, is usually painless, and there is usually swelling of the testis. Hydrocele causes scrotal swelling.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of acute epididymo-orchitis is crucial in providing appropriate and timely medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 41 - A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for otitis externa with flumetasone/clioquinol 0.02%/1%, followed by gentamicin 0.3% w/v and hydrocortisone acetate 1% ear drops. She acquired the condition while on vacation in Spain. She is now experiencing increasing itchiness in her ears. During examination, her ears have abundant discharge with black spots on a white background. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole solution

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fungal Otitis Externa

      Fungal otitis externa is a common ear infection that can be difficult to diagnose and treat. Patients who have had prolonged courses of steroid and antibiotic drops are particularly susceptible to this type of infection. Symptoms include pruritus and discharge, which may not respond to antibiotics. The most common fungal agents are Aspergillus and Candida, which can be treated with topical clotrimazole. Topical ciprofloxacin is not effective against fungal infections, and co-amoxiclav tablets should not be used. Sofradex® ear drops, which contain steroids, may exacerbate symptoms. If initial treatment with antifungal medication is unsuccessful, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 42 - A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about her weight, which is 56 kg. Her body mass index (BMI) is 18 kg/m2. She also reports prolonged fasts, sometimes not eating for a few days. She denies using laxatives or diuretics to help her lose weight. She is scared of putting on weight and has missed her last three periods. She has no known medical comorbidities.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eating Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and psychological consequences. When a patient presents with symptoms of an eating disorder, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses to ensure appropriate treatment. Here, we explore the key features of several eating disorders and related conditions, including anorexia nervosa, personality disorders, avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), bulimia nervosa, and depression. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective support for patients with eating disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 43 - A 55-year-old myopic woman came in with a complaint of left flashing lights...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old myopic woman came in with a complaint of left flashing lights and an increase in floaters for the past three days. She has a best corrected visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes according to the Snellen chart. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to an ophthalmologist urgently

      Explanation:

      Importance of Referral to an Ophthalmologist for Myopia Patients

      A referral to an ophthalmologist is highly recommended for patients with myopia. This is because myopia is a risk factor for retinal detachment, which can lead to serious vision problems if left untreated. While an ocular examination by a non-ophthalmologist is a good start, it may not be enough to detect small retinal tears or breaks that can lead to more extensive retinal detachment in the future.

      Therefore, it is crucial to have a thorough examination by a specialist who is trained to identify and treat such conditions. By referring myopia patients to an ophthalmologist, they can receive the best possible care and ensure that any potential issues are addressed promptly. This can help prevent further complications and preserve their vision in the long run. So, if you or someone you know has myopia, don’t hesitate to seek a referral to an ophthalmologist for a comprehensive eye exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 44 - A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a medication review for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a medication review for his chronic congestive heart failure. His recent echocardiogram indicates an ejection fraction of 35%. He reports experiencing more shortness of breath, especially when lying down, gaining 2 kg in weight over the past few weeks, and having ankle swelling. What is the appropriate medication class to prescribe for quick relief of symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loop diuretics

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Symptomatic Heart Failure

      Symptomatic heart failure can be managed with various medications. Loop diuretics such as furosemide can provide relief from symptoms of fluid overload. However, it doesn’t alter the prognosis. Aldosterone antagonists may be considered for patients who remain symptomatic despite a combination of loop diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and beta-blockers. ACE inhibitors should be given to all patients with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40% or less, regardless of symptom severity, as it has been shown to improve ventricular function, reduce mortality, and hospital admission. Beta-blockers should also be used in patients with symptomatic heart failure and a left ventricular ejection fraction ≤ 40%, as long as they are tolerated and not contraindicated. Digoxin is used for rate control but is not recommended for rapid symptom relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 45 - As an ST1 doctor at the local genitourinary medicine clinic, you encounter a...

    Incorrect

    • As an ST1 doctor at the local genitourinary medicine clinic, you encounter a 17-year-old female patient who has tested positive for Chlamydia. However, when she is asked about her previous or current partner, she refuses to provide any details. What would be the most suitable course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat her and explore the reasons why she doesn't want to tell her previous or current partner

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, it is important to prioritize confidentiality and empathy.

      It is crucial to treat the patient with respect and care, regardless of whether she is willing to disclose the names of her previous partners. Refusing to treat her or threatening to disclose her information to her parents is unethical and unacceptable.

      Instead, it is important to have an open and non-judgmental conversation with the patient to understand her concerns and reasons for not disclosing her partners. This approach may help to build trust and alleviate her fears.

      On the other hand, simply providing her with a tablet of azithromycin to give to her partner is not a recommended solution. This approach doesn’t address the underlying issues and may not effectively prevent the spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 46 - A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing episodes of dizziness. During the examination, the GP observes an absent pulse in the patient's left radial artery. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 2.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takayasu's arteritis

      Explanation:

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has been exhibiting erratic behavior and mood swings since giving birth to their daughter 10 days ago. During the appointment, she seems restless and agitated.

      According to her partner, she has been avoiding sleep due to her fear that something terrible might happen to their baby. The woman has a history of depression but has not taken her fluoxetine medication for the past 6 months due to concerns about potential complications.

      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for urgent assessment

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action for a woman exhibiting symptoms of agitation and paranoid delusions after giving birth is to admit her to the hospital for urgent assessment. This is likely a case of postpartum psychosis, which is different from postnatal depression. Prescribing medication to aid in sleep or reassuring the patient that her low mood will improve with time are not appropriate options in this case. Gradual titration of medication would also not manage her acute symptoms and ensure the safety of herself and her baby. Ideally, she should be admitted to a Mother & Baby Unit for proper care.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 48 - You encounter a 40-year-old woman with psoriasis. She has a flare-up on her...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 40-year-old woman with psoriasis. She has a flare-up on her leg and you prescribe topical Dermovate cream (Clobetasol propionate 0.05%) as part of her treatment plan. She asks you about the duration for which she can use this cream on her leg. What is the maximum duration recommended by NICE for the use of this type of corticosteroid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for the Use of Topical Corticosteroids

      According to NICE guidelines, it is not recommended to use highly potent corticosteroids continuously at any site for more than 4 weeks. The duration of use may vary depending on the potency of the steroid being used. It is important to note that it can be challenging to remember the potency of different steroid formulations based on their trade names. Therefore, it is advisable to have a reference handy. The Eczema Society provides a useful table of commonly used topical steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 49 - A 65-year-old Bangladeshi man comes to the GP complaining of breathlessness and blood-stained...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Bangladeshi man comes to the GP complaining of breathlessness and blood-stained sputum. He also reports experiencing fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. The GP collects sputum samples and sends the patient for a chest X-ray.

      What additional investigation should be ordered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Types of Tuberculosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs. There are two types of TB: primary and secondary. Primary TB occurs when a non-immune host is exposed to the bacteria and develops a small lung lesion called a Ghon focus. This focus is made up of macrophages containing tubercles and is accompanied by hilar lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. In immunocompetent individuals, the lesion usually heals through fibrosis. However, those who are immunocompromised may develop disseminated disease, also known as miliary tuberculosis.

      Secondary TB, also called post-primary TB, occurs when the initial infection becomes reactivated in an immunocompromised host. Reactivation typically occurs in the apex of the lungs and can spread locally or to other parts of the body. Factors that can cause immunocompromised include immunosuppressive drugs, HIV, and malnutrition. While the lungs are still the most common site for secondary TB, it can also affect other areas such as the central nervous system, vertebral bodies, cervical lymph nodes, renal system, and gastrointestinal tract. Tuberculous meningitis is the most serious complication of extra-pulmonary TB. Understanding the differences between primary and secondary TB is crucial in diagnosing and treating the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 50 - A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic, unrelenting, dull...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic, unrelenting, dull epigastric pain radiating to her back. It is relieved when sitting forwards.
      On examination, her body mass index is normal, but she says that she is losing weight; her clothes have become baggy on her. She explains that she doesn't feel like eating with the pain she is suffering.
      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 102 g/l (normal range: 115–165 g/l) while her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan

      Explanation:

      Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan

      When a patient over 60 years old presents with weight loss and abdominal pain, an urgent direct-access CT scan should be considered to assess for pancreatic cancer. Other symptoms that may indicate pancreatic cancer include diarrhea, back pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and new-onset diabetes. Patients with pancreatic cancer typically report anorexia, malaise, fatigue, mid-epigastric or back pain, and weight loss. The pain may be unrelenting and worse when lying flat.

      The most characteristic sign of pancreatic carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is painless obstructive jaundice. Migratory thrombophlebitis and venous thrombosis also occur with higher frequency in patients with pancreatic cancer and may be the first presentation.

      While the CA 19-9 antigen is elevated in 75-80% of patients with pancreatic carcinoma, it is not recommended for screening. An abdominal ultrasound scan may reveal a pancreatic malignancy, but a CT scan is the preferred imaging that should be carried out urgently.

      Direct-access upper GI endoscopy may be appropriate for patients over 55 years old with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. However, in this case, an urgent CT scan is the most appropriate initial investigation due to the elevated alkaline phosphatase suggesting biliary obstruction. Checking ferritin levels may not be helpful in ruling in or out pancreatic cancer.

      Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Consulting In General Practice (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Passmed