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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman will visit her general practice surgery next week for her annual learning disability health check. She has a diagnosis of mild learning disability and lives in supported accommodation. She has a carer who can support her with communication. The patient works part-time in a library and is in good physical health, with no regularly prescribed medications.
What is the most appropriate adaptation to the standard consultation that needs to be made to carry out this check?Your Answer: Ensuring the carer attends with the patient
Correct Answer: Providing the patient with a health check action plan following the consultation
Explanation:Modifications for Conducting a Learning Disability Health Check
How to Modify Health Check for Patients with Learning Disabilities
Providing a health check for patients with learning disabilities requires modifications to ensure that the patient’s needs are met. The following are some modifications that can be made to conduct a successful learning disability health check.
Sending an Invite to the Patient and Carer
The patient and carer should be invited to the health check in the most acceptable way. The carer should be involved in the health check where required. Extra time should be allowed for consultation. A pre-health check questionnaire should be sent to the patient/carer for completion before the appointment.
Ensuring the Carer Attends with the Patient
Patients with learning disabilities may have varying degrees of capacity. Some patients may have full capacity and wish to attend the appointment unaccompanied. However, carers should be invited and welcomed to appointments, if required, and with the patient’s consent whenever possible.
Sending the Invite to the Carer
Patients should be involved in their own healthcare needs, and so should be sent an invite. If appropriate, an invite may also need to be sent to the carer. It should not be assumed that lacking capacity in one area means that patients should be excluded from any decisions or discussion.
Sending the Pre-Health Check Questionnaire to the Carer for Completion
The questionnaire should be completed by the patient with input/support from the carer if required. Depending on the severity of the learning disability, the carer may need to complete the whole questionnaire.
Allocating Thirty Minutes for the Appointment
Consultations will need to be longer for a learning disability health check as time may need to be taken to explain things in a way that the patient can understand. The time for the appointment will need to be decided on an individual basis, depending on the severity of the learning disability.
In conclusion, modifications are necessary to conduct a successful learning disability health check. By following the above modifications, healthcare providers can ensure that patients with learning disabilities receive the care they need.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old nanny, Sarah, cares for 5 different children during the week. What is a concerning sign to look out for in one of her charges?
Your Answer: Sarah aged 10 months preferentially uses her right hand to pick up toys
Explanation:Red flags in child development serve as warning signs that can indicate a possible developmental delay. The following table outlines some common red flags to look out for:
Age Red Flags
Birth-3 months Consistent clenching of fists before 3 months of age, rolling over before 3 months
4-6 months Lack of smiling by 10 weeks, failure to reach for objects by 5 months
6-12 months Persistence of primitive reflexes after 6 months
12-24 months Demonstrating hand dominance before 12 months may be a red flag for hemiparesis, inability to walk independently by 18 months, and difficulty using a spoon, which typically develops between 12-15 months.Common Developmental Problems and Their Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points, fine motor skill problems, gross motor problems, and speech and language problems. Referral points may include a lack of smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and inability to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may be indicated by abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could be a sign of cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, but other causes may include environmental deprivation and general developmental delay. It is important to identify and address these developmental problems early on to ensure the best possible outcomes for the child’s future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department, having been discovered lying on her bed next to an empty bottle of pills that were prescribed for her mother. During the examination, she appears restless, has a tight jaw, and her eyes are turned upwards. What medication is she most likely to have ingested?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:An oculogyric crisis is a type of extrapyramidal disorder that is commonly described in medical literature.
Understanding Oculogyric Crisis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Oculogyric crisis is a medical condition characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes, often accompanied by restlessness and agitation. This condition is usually triggered by certain drugs or medical conditions, such as antipsychotics, metoclopramide, and postencephalitic Parkinson’s disease.
The symptoms of oculogyric crisis can be distressing and uncomfortable for the patient. They may experience a sudden and uncontrollable movement of their eyes, which can cause discomfort and disorientation. In some cases, the patient may also feel restless and agitated, making it difficult for them to focus or relax.
To manage oculogyric crisis, doctors may prescribe intravenous antimuscarinic medications such as benztropine or procyclidine. These drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in muscle movement. By reducing the activity of acetylcholine, these medications can help to alleviate the symptoms of oculogyric crisis and restore normal eye movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28 year old woman with no pre-existing medical conditions comes to you after discovering she is expecting. During your discussion about pregnancy supplements, she inquires if she can simply continue taking her regular over-the-counter multivitamin tablet. Can you inform her which vitamin, when consumed in excessive amounts, can be harmful to the developing fetus?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Vitamin A
Explanation:To prevent birth defects, pregnant women should not consume more than 10,000IU of vitamin A per day as it can be harmful in high doses. It is recommended that they avoid taking any supplements that contain vitamin A, including regular multivitamins, during pregnancy. In the UK, supplements are now restricted to a maximum of 6,000IU of vitamin A, so if a pregnant woman has been taking one, there is no need to worry. Additionally, liver should be avoided as it contains high levels of vitamin A.
Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.
When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her healthcare provider seeking advice on contraceptive options postpartum. She expresses interest in the contraceptive implant after a thorough discussion. The patient has no medical issues and doesn't intend to breastfeed.
At what point after delivery could she begin using the contraceptive implant?Your Answer: 6 weeks postpartum
Correct Answer: Immediately following childbirth
Explanation:It is safe to insert a contraceptive implant after childbirth, even immediately. However, the manufacturer of the most commonly used implant in the UK recommends waiting at least 4 weeks after childbirth for breastfeeding women. While there is no evidence of harm to the mother or baby, it is not recommended to insert an implant during pregnancy due to potential complications. It is important to note that fertility may not return until after the implant is removed.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are requested to visit a 38-year-old man with motor neurone disease at his residence. He was hospitalized for urosepsis and has just returned home. During his hospital stay, he underwent percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy to facilitate enteral nutrition at home. What is the most probable complication of enteral feeding that he may experience?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Common Problems with Enteral Feeding
Enteral feeding, or tube feeding, can cause various gastrointestinal problems. Nausea is a common issue that can be caused by administering the feed too quickly or altered gastric emptying. Abdominal bloating and cramps can also occur for similar reasons. Constipation may be a problem, but it is unlikely that the lack of fiber in enteral feeds is the underlying cause. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral tube feeding, affecting up to 30% of patients on general medical and surgical wards and 68% of those on ITU. Diarrhea can be unpleasant for the patient and can worsen pressure sores and contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience of medical care, often in hospital.
Which of the following statements best describes this concept?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients' care is fractionated, so that no-one is directly responsible for decision-making
Explanation:Understanding the Collusion of Anonymity in Healthcare
The collusion of anonymity is a significant issue in healthcare, particularly in hospitals where multiple professionals from different departments are involved in a patient’s care. This can lead to a breakdown in communication and compromised care, as the patient becomes an anonymous entity rather than an individual with specific needs.
One example of how collusion of anonymity can occur is between primary and secondary care. Medications issued by secondary care often require strict monitoring, and without clear communication between primary and secondary care, issues can arise. To combat this, shared care protocols have been implemented to outline exactly who will be monitoring and acting on abnormal results.
Multidisciplinary meetings involving various healthcare professionals are also common practice, but it is crucial to clarify each person’s role to avoid collusion of anonymity. This can be achieved through open communication and a clear understanding of each individual’s responsibilities.
In summary, understanding the collusion of anonymity is essential in providing effective healthcare. By implementing clear communication and protocols, healthcare professionals can work together to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group variance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Understanding ANOVA: A Statistical Test for Comparing Multiple Group Means
ANOVA is a statistical test used to determine if there are significant differences between the means of multiple groups. Unlike the t-test, which only compares two means, ANOVA can compare more than two means. However, ANOVA assumes that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests such as the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test can be used instead.
The ANOVA test works by comparing the variance of the means. It distinguishes between within-group variance, which is the variance of the sample mean, and between-group variance, which is the variance between the separate sample means. The null hypothesis assumes that the variance of all the means is the same, and that within-group variance is the same as between-group variance. The test is based on the ratio of these two variances, which is known as the F statistic.
In summary, ANOVA is a useful statistical test for comparing multiple group means. However, it is important to ensure that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests can be used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient in their early twenties reports experiencing auditory hallucinations of a simple and unstructured whistling tune, occurring when they are alone. How would you best describe this hallucination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elementary hallucinations
Explanation:There are various types of hallucinations, including elementary, reflex, autoscopic, first person auditory, and haptic. Elementary hallucinations are basic sounds like buzzing or whistling. Reflex hallucinations occur when a sensory stimulus in one modality triggers a hallucination in another. Autoscopic hallucinations involve seeing oneself in external space. First person auditory hallucinations involve hearing one’s own thoughts aloud. Haptic or tactile hallucinations involve feeling sensations like being touched, pricked, or pinched, and may include formication, which is the sensation of insects crawling on the skin and can be associated with long-term cocaine use or alcohol withdrawal.
Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presented having recently returned from Bangladesh. He reported jaundice and itching. His viral hepatitis serology shows active hepatitis E infection.
Select from the list the single true statement concerning hepatitis E.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis doesn't occur in immunocompetent patients
Explanation:Hepatitis E and D: A Comparison
Hepatitis E is a self-limiting illness that follows a similar course to hepatitis A. However, fulminant disease can occur in a small percentage of cases. This type of hepatitis is most commonly found in developing countries and is transmitted through contaminated drinking water. While person-to-person contact transmission is rare, maternal-neonatal transmission can occur, with pregnant women being at the highest risk of developing fulminant hepatitis. Management of hepatitis E is supportive, and there are no chronic cases except in immunocompromised individuals.
On the other hand, hepatitis D requires co-infection with hepatitis B to cause inflammation. Co-infection with hepatitis D increases the likelihood of hepatitis B progressing to chronic disease and cirrhosis. Hepatitis D is most commonly found in Mediterranean countries, parts of Eastern Europe, the Middle East, Africa, and South America.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 28-year-old woman who is 24 days postpartum. She was advised by the health visitor to come and see you to discuss starting contraception.
She had a normal, uncomplicated, vaginal delivery 24 days ago after a routine antenatal period. She is fit and well with no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker. She has no family history of note. She takes no regular or over-the-counter medication.
Her blood pressure is 112/68 and her BMI is 24.
She is bottle feeding her baby and has not been sexually active since giving birth.
She is keen to start using a contraceptive from today.
Which of the following contraceptive options is contraindicated at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progestogen-only pill
Explanation:Contraception Options for Postnatal Women
The postnatal period is a crucial time for women to consider their contraception options. The key factors to consider are the time since delivery and whether the woman is breastfeeding or not. Progestogen-only implants, injectables, and pills can be initiated immediately after delivery or any time after childbirth. However, for women considering combined hormonal contraception, an assessment of their venous thromboembolism risk is necessary. If risk factors are present, they should wait six weeks before starting. Women without additional risk factors should wait 21 days postpartum before starting. Intrauterine contraceptives can be safely inserted immediately after birth or within 48 hours after uncomplicated delivery, but after 48 hours, insertion should be delayed until 28 days after childbirth. It is important for women to discuss their options with their healthcare provider to determine the best choice for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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At what age would the typical toddler begin to wave goodbye?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Developmental Milestones in Social Behaviour, Feeding, Dressing, and Play
Developmental milestones are important markers in a child’s growth and development. In terms of social behaviour and play, there are several milestones that parents and caregivers can look out for. At six weeks, a baby may start to smile, which develops into laughter by three months. At six months, they become less shy, but by nine months, they may exhibit shyness. Additionally, babies at this age tend to put everything in their mouths.
In terms of feeding, a six-month-old may start to put their hand on the bottle while being fed. By 12-15 months, they can drink from a cup and use a spoon, which develops over a three-month period. At two years, they become competent with a spoon and don’t spill with a cup, and by three years, they can use a spoon and fork. Finally, at five years, they can use a knife and fork.
When it comes to dressing, a child may start to help with getting dressed and undressed at 12-15 months. By 18 months, they can take off shoes and hats but may not be able to replace them. At two years, they can put on hats and shoes, and by four years, they can dress and undress independently, except for laces and buttons.
Lastly, in terms of play, a nine-month-old may start to play peek-a-boo and wave bye-bye. By 12 months, they may play pat-a-cake, and at 18 months, they can play contentedly alone. At two years, they may play near others but not necessarily with them, and by four years, they can play with other children. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s development and ensure they are meeting age-appropriate goals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 40-year-old woman who is curious about her eligibility for universal credit. She used to work as a teacher but has been unemployed for the past year.
What is the maximum amount of savings she can have and still qualify for universal credit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: £16,000
Explanation:To be eligible for universal credit, your savings must not exceed £16,000.
Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies
Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.
The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.
Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.
Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department claiming to have lost the vision in his left eye. While sitting at his desk he started to see a shower of black spots in his vision. These rapidly increased, becoming larger and more numerous until he could not see at all. This has persisted over a period of five hours. He has diabetes, which has been very poorly controlled in the past. He previously had laser treatment to both eyes; however, he has not attended follow-up appointments in the last 12 months.
What is the most likely explanation for this patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has had a vitreous haemorrhage due to diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Visual Disturbances in a Diabetic Patient
Visual disturbances in diabetic patients can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. In the case of proliferative diabetic retinopathy, new blood vessels grow in the eyes and can bleed spontaneously, causing visual disturbances. Laser treatment is necessary, and follow-up is crucial to ensure sufficient therapy. Acute retinal detachment requires urgent surgery to prevent further vision loss. Fungal eye infections are rare and usually follow an injury. Visual disturbances due to hypoglycaemia are transient and resolve when blood glucose stabilises. In contrast, persistent and progressive loss of vision suggests a vitreous haemorrhage, as seen in poorly controlled diabetic retinopathy. Proper diagnosis and treatment can prevent further vision loss in diabetic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue, and skin changes under his arms. During the examination, you notice thickened dark pigmented areas of skin under both arms. What underlying condition is typically linked to this clinical sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma stomach
Explanation:Understanding Acanthosis Nigricans
Acanthosis nigricans (AN) is a skin condition that is characterized by darkening and thickening of the skin in certain areas such as the armpits, groin, and back of the neck. However, it is not a skin disease in itself but rather a sign of an underlying condition or disease. In some cases, AN can be a paraneoplastic syndrome, commonly known as acanthosis nigricans maligna, which is associated with an internal malignancy, particularly adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract or uterus. AN is more commonly seen in individuals over the age of 40 and is often linked to obesity and insulin resistance.
It is important to note that AN of the oral mucosa or tongue is highly suggestive of a neoplasm, particularly of the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having scabies. His partner has disclosed that he was treated for scabies recently, and the physician observes the typical burrows in the man's finger webs. The man has no other skin ailments or allergies to drugs/foods.
What is the most suitable initial treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream applied to all skin, rinsed after 12 hours with re-treatment after 1 week
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for scabies is the application of permethrin cream to all skin, including the scalp, which should be left on for 12 hours before rinsing off. This treatment should be repeated after 7 days. Malathion is a second-line treatment that should be rinsed off after 24 hours. Steroids may be used by dermatologists in cases of resistant scabies or scabies pruritus, but only under specialist guidance. Salt water bathing is not recommended as a treatment for scabies. Mupirocin cream is used to eliminate MRSA in asymptomatic hospital inpatients.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents to his new GP for registration after moving house. During urine testing, evidence of haematuria is found. The patient has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Understanding Common Kidney Conditions: ADPKD, Glomerulonephritis, Renal Stones, Renal Cell Carcinoma, and Urinary Tract Infection
The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance in the body. However, they can be affected by various conditions that can lead to significant health problems. Here are some common kidney conditions and their characteristics:
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney enlargement and dysfunction. Symptoms may include hypertension, painless haematuria, intermittent loin pain, and a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in ADPKD patients.Glomerulonephritis
Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation within the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic urinary abnormalities to the nephritic and nephrotic syndromes.Renal Stones
Renal stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe renal colic. They may be asymptomatic and discovered during investigations for other conditions.Renal Cell Carcinoma
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that can be detected using ultrasound and CT scans. More than half of adult renal tumours are detected when using ultrasound to investigate nonspecific symptoms. The classic features of haematuria, loin pain, and loin mass are not as frequently seen now.Urinary Tract Infection
Urinary tract infection is a common condition that presents acutely. It occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection. Symptoms may include pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.In conclusion, understanding the characteristics of common kidney conditions can help with early detection and appropriate management, leading to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.
The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly 2 weeks ago. He says that it is uncomfortable and painful. He has no other relevant past medical history. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day.
On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like veins. It is separate from his right testicle and situated above it. The swelling is palpable when standing and lying down.
You discuss the fact that you think this is a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This patient requires urgent referral to a urologist
Explanation:According to NICE, varicocele is present in approximately 40% of men who are diagnosed with infertility. However, it is not recommended to refer men with a left-sided varicocele for ultrasonography as a routine measure to detect any underlying tumor.
Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.
Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.
In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You see a 9-month-old boy. He initially had of temperatures up to 39.5º, runny nose and was generally irritable. The fever has now settled but his mother is worried as the patient has developed a rash on his face and body. On examination, you note small red spots that blanch when touched. No itchiness or blisters are noted.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum
Explanation:Possible Childhood Viral Infections and Their Features
Roseola is a likely diagnosis in a child who presents with high fever, upper respiratory symptoms, and a characteristic rash that appears as the fever subsides. Erythema infectiosum, on the other hand, typically manifests as a slapped cheek appearance. Hand, foot and mouth disease usually causes symptoms on the hands, feet, and mouth, such as red macules that develop into vesicles and ulcers. Measles has a prodromal phase with fever, malaise, coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis, followed by an erythematous and maculopapular rash that often starts on the head and spreads to the trunk and limbs. Koplik spots may also appear in the oral mucosa. Unlike Roseola, the rash often coincides with the fever. Finally, Molluscum contagiosum presents as small round white, pink, or brown papules with a central indentation. Knowing these features can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for childhood viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash. The itching started 3 days ago and he has been experiencing fevers. Upon examination, the rash is composed of macules, papules, crusted lesions, and vesicles that are present on most of his body. The father has been administering ibuprofen to alleviate his son's fever and discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis and why is ibuprofen not advisable in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The increased risk of necrotising fasciitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with Chickenpox, as evidenced by the presence of lesions at different stages of healing, fever, and itching. However, it should be noted that the use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of necrotising fasciitis in these patients.
While ibuprofen is an NSAID that can be used in patients of any age, it is not the best option for this patient.
Aspirin should be avoided in children with Chickenpox due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. In this case, ibuprofen is a safer alternative.
When used for short periods during acute febrile illnesses, the risk of gastrointestinal side effects from this medication is minimal.
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.
One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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As a GP visiting a residential home patient, you encounter a 74-year-old female with a 4 week history of oral ulceration. The patient reports experiencing pain and bleeding due to the condition. She also mentions that her dentures have not been fitting well, leading her to stop using them. Additionally, she has lost a few kilograms in weight over the past few weeks. Based on NICE guidelines for suspected cancer, which aspects of this patient's history would necessitate referral (within 2 weeks) for oral cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than 3 weeks
Explanation:Alcohol consumption is linked to 30% of cases in the UK.
When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery
Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.
Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman developed sudden-onset severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently began having episodes of nausea and vomiting, especially after trying to eat or drink. She has diminished bowel sounds exquisite tenderness in the mid-epigastrium with rebound tenderness and guarding. Her pulse is 110 and BP 130/75. She reports taking ibuprofen for dysmenorrhoea but last took it the day before the pain began.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer
Explanation:NSAIDs and Peptic Ulceration: Risks and Symptoms
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are a common cause of gastric and duodenal ulceration, second only to Helicobacter pylori. The inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) by NSAIDs reduces the production of gastric mucosal prostaglandins, leading to decreased cytoprotection. This can result in peptic ulceration, with at least one-third to one-half of ulcer perforations being associated with NSAIDs.
Patients at high risk of NSAID-induced peptic ulceration include the elderly, those with a history of peptic ulcer disease, and those with serious co-morbidities such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, renal or hepatic impairment. The risk varies between individual NSAIDs and is also dose-related.
Symptoms of acute complications of NSAID-induced peptic ulceration can include peritonitis, which requires urgent surgical referral. Acute pancreatitis may present with similar symptoms, but tenderness may be less and there may be a history of Gallbladder disease or alcohol abuse. Gastritis typically doesn’t involve altered bowel sounds or signs of peritoneal irritation, while cholecystitis and appendicitis present with tenderness in the right upper quadrant and right iliac fossa, respectively.
In summary, NSAIDs can pose a significant risk for peptic ulceration, particularly in high-risk patients. It is important to be aware of the symptoms of acute complications and to promptly refer patients for appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings
Explanation:Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies
Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.Peanut Allergy:
Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.Allergic Rhinitis:
Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.Chronic Urticaria:
Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden vision loss in one eye. What ocular feature would be the most indicative of a diagnosis of giant-cell arteritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pale oedematous optic disc
Explanation:Understanding the Visual Symptoms of Giant-Cell Arteritis
Giant-cell arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects medium and large arteries, particularly those in the carotid artery and its branches. This condition can cause various symptoms, including headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, and systemic symptoms like weight loss and fever. However, one of the most concerning effects of giant-cell arteritis is its impact on vision.
Inflammation of the ophthalmic artery’s branches can lead to ischaemic optic neuritis, which can cause visual disturbances. Around 50% of patients with giant-cell arteritis eventually experience visual symptoms, such as transient visual blurring, diplopia, visual field defects, and sudden loss of vision.
On fundoscopy, an eye doctor may observe pallor and oedema of the optic disc, as well as cotton-wool patches and small haemorrhages in the retina. These features are usually seen following loss of vision. Transient repeated episodes of blurred vision are usually reversible, but sudden loss is an ominous sign and is almost always permanent. Symptoms can occur in the absence of, or before the development of, headache.
It’s important to note that some symptoms commonly associated with eye problems, such as a hard eye or a pupil that doesn’t respond to light, are not necessarily indicative of giant-cell arteritis. Instead, an eye with very high intraocular pressure may feel hard, while a sluggish or absent pupillary reflex may be present with optic nerve involvement. Additionally, widespread retinal haemorrhages are not typically seen in giant-cell arteritis, but may be a feature of central retinal vein occlusion.
Overall, understanding the visual symptoms of giant-cell arteritis can help individuals seek prompt medical attention and potentially prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She denies any symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision, abdominal pain, or vomiting, and has no known medical conditions. Her mother and maternal aunt were both diagnosed with diabetes around her age and manage it with tablets. On examination, her BMI is 23 kg/m2, and urinalysis is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol (normal range: 20-42 mmol/mol). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)
Explanation:Diagnosing Hyperglycaemia: Understanding the Different Types of Diabetes
Hyperglycaemia, or high blood sugar, can be caused by various types of diabetes. One uncommon form is maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), which typically occurs before the age of 25 and is characterised by a slow onset of symptoms, absence of obesity and ketosis, and autosomal-dominant inheritance with multiple possible genetic mutations responsible.
To rule out other types of diabetes, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Gestational diabetes, which occurs during pregnancy, is unlikely in this case as the patient is not known to be pregnant and typically affects those with a BMI of 30 or more. Steroid-induced diabetes, which can occur with prolonged steroid use for medical conditions such as Addison’s disease or asthma, is also unlikely as the patient has no pre-existing medical conditions for which she would be prescribed steroids.
Type I diabetes mellitus (TIDM) commonly occurs in young, slim individuals with a family history of TIDM or other autoimmune conditions and is treated with insulin. However, in this case, the patient has very few symptoms of diabetes, a normal urinalysis, and a family history of diabetes treated with tablets rather than insulin. Type II diabetes mellitus (TIIDM), which commonly occurs in older individuals who are overweight but is increasingly more common in younger individuals due to childhood obesity, is also less likely as the patient is young, has a normal BMI, and has a family history of diabetes treated with tablets at a young age.
In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, the most likely diagnosis is MODY. Understanding the different types of diabetes and their characteristic features can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of hyperglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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How should the medication 'methotrexate 15 mg weekly' be entered on the repeat medication screen for a patient who was previously taking a lower dose and has completed all necessary monitoring as per shared care protocol, based on a letter received from the rheumatology department of the local hospital?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate tablets 2.5 mg (six per week)
Explanation:Methotrexate Dosage Policy
Methotrexate is only available in 10 mg and 2.5 mg strengths, with no 5 mg formulation. However, there have been cases where two different strengths were co-prescribed, leading to potential medication errors. One patient received 10 mg tablets instead of the required 2.5 mg tablets, prompting a complaint and highlighting the need for caution. To prevent such incidents, it is recommended that only one strength of methotrexate is prescribed.
Most Local Health Boards (LHBs) and Primary Care Trusts (PCTs) advise that dosages in primary care should be multiples of the 2.5 mg formulation. This policy aims to reduce the risk of errors and ensure consistent dosing. Patients should also be advised to double-check their prescription and request slips to avoid confusion. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure safe and effective use of methotrexate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is a metabolic effect of exenatide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accelerates gastric emptying
Explanation:Exenatide and its Metabolic Effects
Exenatide is a medication that imitates the effects of GLP-1, a hormone produced in the gut. It has been found to have beneficial effects on the metabolism of individuals with diabetes mellitus. This medication has several metabolic effects, including the suppression of appetite, inhibition of glucose production in the liver, slowing of gastric emptying, and stimulation of insulin release. However, it doesn’t increase insulin sensitivity, which is achieved by other drugs such as metformin and the glitazones. Overall, exenatide has been shown to have a positive impact on the management of diabetes by regulating various metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has a history of asthma and atrial fibrillation (AF) and has been assessed by her Cardiologist, who has diagnosed her with permanent AF. The Cardiologist recommends rate control. Her resting heart rate is 120 bpm.
Which of the following is the correct statement about rate control in these circumstances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil can be used for first-line rate control in asthmatic patients with AF
Explanation:Managing Atrial Fibrillation: Choosing the Right Medication
Patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) are at risk of stroke and require proper management. The initial approach to managing AF involves either rhythm or rate control, depending on the patient’s age, comorbidity, and the duration of AF.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, rate-limiting calcium antagonists or β-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment for many patients requiring rate-control medication. However, β-blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma.
Rate-limiting calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem are alternative options. Digoxin is only recommended for very sedentary patients as a first-line medication, as it doesn’t control heart rate during exertion. However, it can be used in combination with a first-line drug if rate control is poor. The target for rate control should be a resting heart rate of less than 110 bpm, and lower if the patient remains symptomatic.
Choosing the right medication for managing AF is crucial in reducing the risk of stroke and improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and iron-deficiency anaemia after complaining of feeling very tired. She was started on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate and has been taking these for the last six months. Three months ago her blood tests showed:
Haemoglobin 120 g/L (115-160 g/L)
Ferritin 60 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 6.9 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)
She was continued on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate tablets for a further 3 months. Her blood tests were repeated today which show:
Haemoglobin 130 g/L (115-160 g/L)
Ferritin 110 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
TSH 7 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the iron supplementation and continue levothyroxine at the current dose
Explanation:To avoid reducing the absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be given four hours apart. The patient’s blood results indicate that her iron levels have been replenished and her blood count is now normal, but her thyroid-stimulating hormone level remains elevated. According to NICE guidelines, iron treatment should be continued for three more months after normalizing haemoglobin concentrations and blood counts before being discontinued. Since the patient’s iron levels are now normal, continuing ferrous sulphate is unnecessary and may hinder the absorption of levothyroxine. Therefore, it is advisable to discontinue iron and observe if her thyroid hormone levels normalize before adjusting her levothyroxine dosage.
If a patient with hypothyroidism has a structural change in the thyroid gland or is suspected of having an underlying endocrine disease such as Addison’s disease, they should be referred to endocrinology. However, this patient doesn’t appear to have any of these conditions, but it is essential to conduct a neck examination to ensure that there are no palpable masses.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman is brought in to see her General Practitioner by her concerned daughter. She has been unsteady on her feet, slightly muddled, nauseous and fatigued over recent months. Her medical history includes controlled hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine. She is clinically euvolaemic. The only abnormality in her blood tests is a sodium level of 125 mmol/l (normal range 135–145 mmol/l).
Which is the most appropriate initial treatment for hyponatraemia in the majority of patients with inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restriction of water intake
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyponatraemia
Hyponatraemia is a condition where the concentration of sodium in the blood is lower than normal. There are various treatment options available for this condition, depending on the severity and underlying cause.
Restriction of water intake is a common treatment for hyponatraemia caused by the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). In this condition, the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is not inhibited by a reduction in plasma osmolality, leading to excessive water retention. Fluid restriction, usually limiting fluids to 500 ml/day below the average daily urine volume, can help normalise blood osmolality.
Intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline is an emergency treatment for acute symptomatic hyponatraemia. Hypertonic saline (3%) is given via continuous infusion to rapidly increase the concentration of sodium in the blood.
Intravenous infusion of isotonic saline is not the first-line treatment for hyponatraemia. It may be used in some cases, but hypertonic saline is preferred for acute symptomatic hyponatraemia.
Oral demeclocycline is a pharmacological intervention reserved for refractory cases of hyponatraemia. It is a tetracycline derivative that decreases urine concentration even in the presence of high plasma ADH levels. However, it can be nephrotoxic.
Oral furosemide is another treatment option that may be used to decrease the reabsorption of water. However, it is not a first-line treatment and should be used with caution to avoid correcting water imbalances too rapidly.
In conclusion, the treatment options for hyponatraemia depend on the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Fluid restriction, intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline, and pharmacological interventions may be used in different situations to help normalise blood sodium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman treated with hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening for Addison's disease, presents to the clinic with poor compliance.
She feels that the hydrocortisone upsets her stomach and wants to switch to enteric coated prednisolone.
What would be the appropriate corresponding daily dose of prednisolone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mg daily
Explanation:Glucocorticoid Therapy: Hydrocortisone vs. Prednisolone
Glucocorticoid therapy is commonly used for the suppression of various diseases. Hydrocortisone and prednisolone are two commonly used glucocorticoids, but they differ in their potency and activity. Hydrocortisone has a relatively high mineralocorticoid activity, which can cause fluid retention and make it unsuitable for long-term disease suppression. However, it can be used for adrenal replacement therapy and as a short-term emergency treatment. Its moderate anti-inflammatory potency also makes it useful as a topical corticosteroid for managing inflammatory skin conditions with fewer side effects.
On the other hand, prednisolone and prednisone have predominantly glucocorticoid activity, making them the preferred choice for long-term disease suppression. The approximate equivalent glucocorticoid action of prednisolone to hydrocortisone is 4:1, meaning that 5 mg of prednisolone is equivalent to 20 mg of hydrocortisone. A glucocorticoid dose calculator can be used for other dose conversions.
In summary, the choice of glucocorticoid therapy depends on the specific condition being treated and the desired outcome. Hydrocortisone is suitable for short-term and emergency use, while prednisolone is preferred for long-term disease suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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You refer a 50-year-old patient with suspected dementia to the Memory clinic after a mini-mental state exam indicates mild cognitive impairment. A dementia blood screen performed by yourself is normal. What is the most appropriate role of neuroimaging in the evaluation of patients with suspected dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuroimaging is required in all cases
Explanation:According to the NICE guidelines, neuroimaging is necessary for the diagnosis of dementia. Structural imaging, such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scanning, should be used to rule out other cerebral pathologies and to aid in determining the subtype diagnosis. MRI is preferred for early diagnosis and detecting subcortical vascular changes. However, in cases where the diagnosis is already clear in individuals with moderate to severe dementia, imaging may not be necessary. It is important to seek specialist advice when interpreting scans in individuals with learning disabilities.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the withdrawal of her epilepsy medication. She is a group 1 driver and has been free from seizures for over a year whilst taking medication and investigations have not revealed any underlying causes for ongoing seizures.
During the process of withdrawal, for how long should she avoid driving?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whilst anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for 12 months after the last dose
Explanation:Driving and Epilepsy Medication
Individuals who are taking anti-epilepsy medication should not drive while the medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose. If a seizure occurs due to a physician-directed reduction or change in medication, the epilepsy regulations require that the driver’s license be revoked for 12 months. However, if the previously effective medication is reinstated for at least six months and the driver remains seizure-free for at least six months, earlier relicensing may be considered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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You are conducting a 12-week postnatal check on a baby boy and his mother. During the examination, you inquire about the child's immunisation schedule. The mother expresses concern about recent measles outbreaks and asks when her son will receive his first MMR vaccine.
At what age is the first dose of the MMR vaccine typically administered?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At 12-13 months of age
Explanation:At the age of 12-13 months, the MMR vaccine is administered as a routine, followed by a Preschool booster at 3-4 years of age.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.
Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
Explanation:When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children
Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.
It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What is the correct order of relative potency, from least to most potent, for these opioid analgesics, considering that diamorphine is typically administered parenterally while the others are usually given orally?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codeine, morphine, oxycodone, diamorphine
Explanation:Understanding the Potencies of Opioid Analgesics
It is crucial to have a good understanding of the relative potencies of opioid analgesics as patients may need to switch from one opioid to another or from one route of administration to another.
Codeine is the weakest opioid on the list and is often prescribed alone or in combination with paracetamol in co-codamol preparations.
Oxycodone is twice as potent as oral morphine salts for the same dose. When converting between the two, the dose of oral morphine needs to be halved to provide the equivalent dose of oxycodone.
Diamorphine is the most potent opioid listed and is typically administered subcutaneously to palliate terminal symptoms. To convert from oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine, the 24-hour oral morphine dose should be divided by 3 to give an approximate equivalent 24-hour dose of diamorphine. To convert from oral oxycodone to subcutaneous diamorphine, the 24-hour oxycodone dose should be divided by 1.5. For example, oxycodone 7.5 mg equals 5 mg diamorphine.
Understanding the potencies of opioid analgesics is essential for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective pain management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman patient of yours has epilepsy. Her epilepsy is under reasonable control but she still has occasional seizures - mainly during the night but occasionally during the day. You notice that she has driven herself to your surgery for an appointment.
What should be your first step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cancel the appointment and tell her to go home
Explanation:Explaining Driving Rules for Epilepsy
The first step in addressing a loved one’s epilepsy and driving is to explain the rules regarding driving and epilepsy. It is important to ensure that she is aware of the regulations and the potential risks involved. If she decides to continue driving despite being informed of the rules, it is necessary to take further action.
One option is to inform the DVLA of the situation. This will help to ensure that the appropriate measures are taken to protect both the driver and other road users. Additionally, it may be necessary to warn the individual that the police may need to be notified for her own safety and the safety of others. By taking these steps, you can help to ensure that your loved one is safe and that the rules regarding driving and epilepsy are being followed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What additional action is mentioned in the latest NICE guidance for monitoring blood pressure in diabetic patients compared to non-diabetic patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure BP standing and sitting
Explanation:Monitoring Treatment for Hypertension
When monitoring treatment for hypertension, it is recommended by NICE to use clinic blood pressure (BP) measurements. However, for patients with type 2 diabetes, symptoms of postural hypotension, or those aged 80 and over, both standing and sitting BP should be measured. Patients who wish to self-monitor their BP should use home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) and receive proper training and advice. Additionally, for patients with white-coat effect or masked hypertension, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or HBPM can be considered in addition to clinic BP measurements.
It is important to note that for adults with type 2 diabetes who have not been previously diagnosed with hypertension or renal disease, BP should be measured at least annually. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively monitor and manage hypertension in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being discharged on lithium at a dose of 400 mg daily after a prolonged period of inpatient treatment. You receive a discharge summary requesting that you continue her blood monitoring in primary care as long term lithium treatment is planned.
What would be the most suitable monitoring regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure renal function or thyroid function only if clinically indicated (for example, if intercurrent infection/dehydration or symptoms of hypothyroidism develop)
Explanation:Lithium Monitoring
Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic index, which means that it requires close monitoring. The dosage is adjusted to achieve a serum lithium concentration of 0.4-1 mmol/L. Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, ataxia, coarse tremor, nystagmus, dysarthria, and gastrointestinal disturbance (vomiting and diarrhea). Severe toxicity can lead to convulsions, renal failure, and circulatory failure. Therefore, serum lithium levels should be measured every three months on stabilised regimens.
Renal failure and hypothyroidism are potential side effects of lithium use. As such, renal and thyroid function should be measured six monthly on stabilised regimens. Patients should be informed of the symptoms of hypothyroidism and advised to seek medical review if these symptoms develop. It is also important to note that lithium should be prescribed by brand rather than generically because different lithium preparations vary widely in their bioavailability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:How to Measure the Amount of Topical Corticosteroids to Apply
Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply the cream or ointment in the correct amount to ensure effective treatment and avoid side effects. The length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be used to specify the quantity to be applied to a given area of skin. This length can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the distance from the tip of the adult index finger to the first crease. One fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g) is sufficient to cover an area that is twice that of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together).
It is important to spread the corticosteroid thinly on the skin but in sufficient quantity to cover the affected areas. The amount of cream or ointment used should not be confused with potency, as one gram of a potent steroid is the same in terms of mass as one gram of a mild steroid. Potency doesn’t come into play when measuring the amount of cream to use. If you need to make an educated guess, think about the units. One milligram is an exceptionally small amount and is unlikely to represent a fingertip unit. By using the fingertip unit measurement, you can ensure that you are applying the correct amount of topical corticosteroid for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) requesting a referral to a Fertility Clinic. She has had two first-trimester miscarriages and, six months ago, one second-trimester miscarriage. Karyotyping of the fetus showed no chromosomal abnormalities. Her body mass index (BMI), blood and urine tests in her last pregnancy showed no abnormalities. She has regular periods, no known medical problems, and takes only folic acid and vitamin D regularly. Her mother had two miscarriages, before having a successful pregnancy with no complications, and is now well. Her maternal aunt had two unprovoked deep-vein thrombosis (DVTs) in her thirties.
What is the most likely cause of her recurrent miscarriages?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation
Explanation:Causes of Recurrent Miscarriage: Understanding the Factors Involved
Recurrent miscarriage, defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects 1% of couples trying to conceive. While up to 50% of cases remain unexplained after investigation, there are several factors that can contribute to this condition.
One of the most common causes of recurrent miscarriage is the Factor V Leiden mutation, which is the most common inherited thrombophilia. This mutation increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) and recurrent miscarriage, particularly in the second trimester. Carriers of this mutation have double the risk of miscarriage compared to those without it. Therefore, all women with second-trimester miscarriages should be screened for inherited thrombophilias, including Factor V Leiden mutation.
Chromosomal abnormality is another potential cause of recurrent miscarriage, affecting 2-5% of couples. This is more common in women over the age of 35 and men over the age of 40. Karyotyping of products of conception should be undertaken from the third (and any subsequent) miscarriages.
Uncontrolled diabetes is also a risk factor for recurrent miscarriage. However, in cases where there is no indication of diabetes, this cause is less likely.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a syndrome that can cause infertility and miscarriage, affecting up to 50% of pregnancies in people with PCOS. However, this is more common in young females with obesity, acne, hirsutism, male-pattern balding, oligomenorrhoea or subfertility.
In conclusion, understanding the potential causes of recurrent miscarriage is crucial in identifying the underlying factors and providing appropriate treatment. While some cases may remain unexplained, screening for inherited thrombophilias and chromosomal abnormalities, as well as considering factors such as diabetes and PCOS, can help in determining the best course of action for couples trying to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 59-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 58% predicted. His current treatment consists of a short-acting beta-2 agonist used as required.
On reviewing his symptoms he has not had any significant exacerbations over the past 12 months but he needs to use his inhaler at least four times a day and despite this he still feels persistently breathless.
As per NICE guidance, what would be the next most appropriate step in his pharmacological management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in a regular inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Treatment Algorithm for COPD Patients
Page 9 of the NICE reference guide on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CG101) provides an overview of the treatment algorithm for patients with COPD. If a patient has inadequately controlled symptoms despite using a regular short-acting beta agonist and an FEV1 of greater or equal to 50%, the next options are to add in a long-acting beta agonist or a long-acting muscarinic antagonist. In both cases, the short-acting beta agonist can continue to be used as required. Therefore, the correct answer from the list of options is to add in a regular long-acting muscarinic antagonist.
If the patient has an FEV1 <50%, the treatment choice would alter again with the option of using a long-acting beta agonist/inhaled corticosteroid combination inhaler. It is important to follow the treatment algorithm to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment for their COPD symptoms. Proper management of COPD can improve a patient's quality of life and reduce the risk of exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He has now developed progressive renal failure.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:Immunosuppressive Therapy for Liver Transplant Rejection: Drugs and Potential Side Effects
Liver transplant rejection can be prevented through a combination of drugs, including a calcineurin inhibitor, steroids, and azathioprine. Subsequent immunosuppression may involve tacrolimus or ciclosporin alone, or dual therapy with either azathioprine or mycophenolate. However, these drugs can also cause various side effects.
Ciclosporin toxicity, for instance, can lead to chronic renal failure in patients who have received different types of allografts. It may also cause a dose-dependent increase in serum creatinine and urea, which may require dose reduction or discontinuation. Azathioprine can cause blood dyscrasias and liver impairment, while mycophenolate mofetil can cause hypogammaglobulinaemia, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Prednisolone, on the other hand, doesn’t affect renal function.
It is important to monitor patients for potential side effects and adjust the dosage or switch to alternative drugs as needed. Additionally, it is unlikely that perioperative causes of renal dysfunction will be significant three months after surgery. About 10-20% of patients taking tacrolimus may develop calcineurin inhibitor-related renal impairment five years after transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman is on ramipril, digoxin, metformin, quinine and bisoprolol. She has been experiencing mild ankle swelling lately. Following an echo, she has been urgently referred to cardiology due to moderate-severe aortic stenosis. Which of her medications should be discontinued?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Moderate to severe aortic stenosis is a contraindication for ACE inhibitors like ramipril due to the potential risk of reducing coronary perfusion pressure and causing cardiac ischemia. Therefore, the patient should stop taking ramipril until cardiology review. However, bisoprolol, which reduces cardiac workload by inhibiting β1-adrenergic receptors, is safe to use in the presence of aortic stenosis. Digoxin, which improves cardiac contractility, is also safe to use unless there are defects in the cardiac conduction system. Metformin should be used with caution in patients with chronic heart failure but is not contraindicated in those with valvular disease. Quinine is also safe to use in the presence of aortic stenosis but should be stopped if there are defects in the cardiac conduction system.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible to psychiatric disturbance in patients taking Tamiflu, in what type of study would you be most likely to find it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nested case-control study
Explanation:Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety
By definition, rare case reports cannot be adequately addressed in a standard clinical development program that typically involves studies in up to 5,000 patients. Therefore, conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to provide significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not offer sufficient detailed information to establish causality, and a cohort study may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. In this scenario, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study compares a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences and draw conclusions about drug safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty as she has not yet started her menstrual cycle. She reports feeling generally well and has no significant medical history.
During the examination, it is noted that she has a slender build and underdeveloped breasts. There is no pubic hair growth. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, but there are small lumps in her groin area on both sides.
What is the probable cause of this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity
Explanation:The classic presentation of androgen insensitivity is primary amenorrhoea, which is accompanied by groin swellings and absence of pubic hair. These symptoms suggest that the patient has undescended testes and is genetically male (46 XY) but phenotypically female due to increased oestradiol levels. Breast development is a common result of this condition, previously known as testicular feminisation syndrome.
While non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could also cause groin swellings, it is less likely to be the cause of delayed puberty and would typically present with systemic symptoms.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of gonadotrophins and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this condition often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia, which increases their risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallman’s syndrome, is a cause of delayed puberty due to low levels of sex hormones. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with this condition may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, anosmia, and low sex hormone levels. However, their LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. They are typically of normal or above-average height, but may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46 XY) having a female phenotype. This condition is also known as complete androgen insensitivity syndrome or testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this condition may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46 XY genotype. Management involves counselling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old office secretary presents with symptoms of palpitations, restlessness, fatigue and increased sweating. She also complains of infrequent periods and weight loss.
You examine the patient and find she has tachycardia and tremors; she is hyper-reflexic. Biochemical tests on blood samples reveal hyperthyroid. Examination of neck reveals a multiple small nodular areas in a diffusely enlarged thyroid.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Treatment for Thyrotoxic Patient
This patient is experiencing symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and requires immediate treatment to alleviate the effects of adrenergic drive. The initial therapy would involve beta blockade with propranolol to relieve her symptoms. Once her symptoms are under control, the next step would be to render her euthyroid. This can be achieved with radioiodine treatment. However, it is important to note that propranolol would still be required as the initial treatment. Proper management of thyrotoxicosis is crucial to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man is seen for follow up regarding his dyspepsia.
He was found to be positive for Helicobacter pylori on serological testing and received eradication therapy. He also underwent an upper GI endoscopy last year which did not reveal any focal pathology. Despite this, he still experiences reflux symptoms, and you decide to retest him for Helicobacter pylori.
What is the most appropriate method of retesting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saliva assay
Explanation:Retesting for Helicobacter pylori after Eradication Therapy
The NICE guidelines on Dyspepsia (CG184) provide recommendations for retesting patients who have received eradication therapy for Helicobacter pylori. The first-line tests for detecting H. pylori are the stool antigen test and the urea breath test, while serological testing can be used if locally validated. However, serology is not appropriate for retesting as it remains positive due to past exposure. Saliva assays are inconsistent in accuracy, and gastric biopsy is invasive and costly.
If a patient tests positive for H. pylori and receives eradication therapy, retesting may be necessary. Currently, there is insufficient evidence to recommend stool antigen testing as a test of eradication. Therefore, NICE recommends retesting via the urea breath test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a lesion on her left cheek that has been present for 3 days. The area is red, warm, slightly tender, and measures 2 cm in diameter. She has no significant medical history except for a penicillin allergy. She is not experiencing fever and the rash appears to be a mild facial cellulitis without any involvement of the periorbital or orbital regions. What course of treatment do you recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin 500mg bd 1 week
Explanation:For adults with mild facial cellulitis, the recommended treatment is a 7-day course of co-amoxiclav or clarithromycin for those with a penicillin allergy. A review should be arranged after 48 hours, either by telephone or face-to-face, depending on clinical judgement.
Urgent hospital admission is necessary for patients with red flags such as Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, immunocompromised individuals, very young or frail patients, those with significant lymphoedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis unless it is very mild. For Eron Class II cellulitis, admission may not be necessary if the community has the facilities and expertise to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient, subject to local guidelines.
The Eron classification system can assist in determining the appropriate level of care and treatment. Class I patients show no signs of systemic toxicity and have no uncontrolled co-morbidities. Class II patients are either systemically unwell or have a comorbidity that may complicate or delay resolution of infection. Class III patients have significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infections due to vascular compromise. Class IV patients have sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection such as necrotising fasciitis.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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