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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
Your Answer: Sudden weight loss or starvation
Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease may be considered as a potential cause of abnormal liver function tests in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During your examination, you observe that he has a gait pattern characterized by high-stepping, where he excessively flexes his knees to ensure his feet clear the ground while walking. What is the probable reason for this clinical observation?
Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:When a person develops a high-stepping gait, it is often a compensatory mechanism for foot drop. If foot drop is found on only one side, it is likely that there is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve. However, if foot drop is present on both sides, it is more probable that the cause is peripheral neuropathy.
Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that can be categorized based on whether it predominantly causes a motor or sensory loss. When the motor function is affected, conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) like Charcot-Marie-Tooth, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria may be the cause. On the other hand, when the sensory function is affected, conditions such as diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis may be the cause.
Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. Typically, sensory symptoms present before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, where the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of peripheral neuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss over the last 2-3 years. No other symptoms are reported. She works as a machinist in a factory manufacturing clothing. She has a family history of hearing loss at a young age. She has an 18 month old son who has no hearing difficulties.
Examination of the ears reveals normal tympanic membranes both sides.
She has had a hearing test done privately and the audiogram shows bilateral hearing loss more marked at low frequencies.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Noise-induced hearing loss
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis and Other Hearing Loss Conditions
Otosclerosis is a condition where bone growth occurs in the middle ear, leading to the fixation of the foot plate of the stapes bone and resulting in conductive hearing loss in young adults. This condition is often accelerated during pregnancy and may have a family history. Treatment options include surgery or a hearing aid. Audiometry typically shows hearing loss more marked at low frequencies.
In contrast, presbyacusis is characterized by high frequency loss in a ‘ski slope’ pattern, while noise-induced hearing loss shows a dip at 4 kHz with recovery at higher frequencies. Acoustic neuroma typically shows high frequency loss and is usually unilateral, while Meniere’s disease can produce low frequency hearing loss along with attacks of vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Understanding the different patterns of hearing loss can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old man, born and raised in the UK, has been diagnosed with HIV. He has no prior medical history and is currently in good health. When is the appropriate time to initiate antiretroviral therapy?
Your Answer: At the time of diagnosis
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.
Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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During a late-night shift at an urgent care centre, you encounter a 30-year-old woman who complains of experiencing pain and swelling in her right leg for the past three days. She denies having chest pain or difficulty breathing and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Upon examination, you notice that her right leg is swollen and tender to the touch. Her heart rate and pulse oximetry are both normal. After calculating a Wells deep vein thrombosis (DVT) score of 2, you advise her to visit her GP surgery the next morning for urgent blood tests, including a d-dimer, and to be monitored by the duty GP at her practice. You also instruct her to stop taking her contraceptive pill in the meantime.
What would be the most appropriate course of action to take in this situation?Your Answer: Prescribe clexane
Correct Answer: Prescribe apixaban
Explanation:If there is suspicion of a DVT and it is not possible to obtain a D-dimer or scan result within four hours, NICE recommends initiating anticoagulation treatment with a DOAC such as apixaban. Low molecular weight heparin is no longer the preferred option. Clopidogrel is not effective in treating DVT. Warfarin, which was previously used, has been largely replaced by DOACs, but may still be used in some cases with low molecular weight heparin until the INR is within target range.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile dysfunction for the past 6 months. After prescribing sildenafil, which provided some relief, you increased the dosage but the patient is now experiencing adverse effects. He is curious about other treatment options available to him through the NHS. What medications can be prescribed for his condition?
Your Answer: Only generic sildenafil and other phosphodiesterase inhibitors (PDE5)
Correct Answer: Generic sildenafil, other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil
Explanation:Men who have diabetes may be prescribed other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil on the NHS. Generic sildenafil is available without any restrictions on the NHS. However, Viagra®, tadalafil (Cialis®), vardenafil (Levitra®), avanafil (Spedra®), and alprostadil cannot be prescribed on an NHS prescription, except for men who have certain medical conditions or have undergone specific medical procedures. Additionally, specialist centers may prescribe PDE-5 inhibitors on the NHS if the man is experiencing severe distress due to impotence.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the following in the history and examination would require a referral to Paediatrics?
Your Answer: A small anal fissure on examination
Correct Answer: Large naevus over the sacral area
Explanation:When assessing a child’s constipation history and conducting an examination, certain red flags should be taken into consideration. If the child has been constipated since birth or within the first few weeks of life, or if there was a delay of more than 48 hours before passing meconium, it could indicate underlying conditions such as Hirschsprung’s disease or cystic fibrosis.
Additionally, the presence of multiple anal fissures or new neurological symptoms in the lower limbs should be cause for concern. If a large naevus is present over the sacral area, further investigation is necessary to rule out the possibility of spina bifida.
Understanding Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.
After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.
In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 50-year-old factory worker whose hearing has been gradually declining over the past 4 years. She has been exposed to loud noises in her workplace for many years.
Samantha finally decided to visit her doctor 3 months ago, as she was hesitant to seek help, and her hearing has now severely deteriorated. After undergoing audiology testing, she was diagnosed with bilateral sensorineural hearing loss.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing Samantha's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of hearing aids
Explanation:Before considering a cochlear implant, both children and adults must undergo an assessment by a multidisciplinary team. As part of this assessment, they should have tried using an acoustic hearing aid for at least three months. Cochlear implantation is recommended for individuals with severe to profound deafness who do not receive sufficient benefit from hearing aids.
Mark should try to avoid noisy environments, including his current workplace, to prevent further damage to his hearing. However, it is not advisable for him to immediately stop working. Instead, he should discuss his situation with his occupational health team to explore options for working in a quieter environment.
While education on sign language and lip reading may be helpful, it is important to note that adults who become deaf are unlikely to become proficient in sign language.
It is incorrect to tell Mark that nothing more can be done. He may be eligible for a trial of hearing aids and referral for a cochlear implant if necessary.
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.
Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.
The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.
Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old baby is brought in for her first routine check-up in the practice. She has had no problems except for a persistent sticky right eye despite two courses of antibiotic drops. On examination, she has some discharge at the medial canthus but her eyes look normal. Swabs sent previously showed normal upper respiratory tract flora.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions in Newborns
The nasolacrimal duct may not be fully developed in 5-10% of newborns, but it typically resolves on its own by 12 months. Cleaning the medial canthus is usually sufficient, and antibiotics are not effective unless an infection occurs. Surgery is rarely necessary.
Ophthalmia neonatorum is a type of conjunctivitis that occurs within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by bacteria such as Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus pneumoniae, as well as viruses like herpes simplex virus. If left untreated, it can lead to serious eye damage.
Allergic conjunctivitis is uncommon in infants under 1 year old, but viral and bacterial conjunctivitis can occur. Both eyes are typically affected, and in addition to eye discharge, the conjunctiva will appear inflamed.
Understanding Eye Conditions in Newborns
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the accuracy of using the combined oral contraceptive pill in women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill may help to maintain bone mineral density
Explanation:The use of the combined oral contraceptive pill could potentially alleviate certain symptoms experienced during perimenopause and help preserve bone mineral density.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are asked to prescribe a syringe driver for a palliative care patient with pain who is now struggling to swallow tablets.
Her pain has been well controlled on morphine sulphate tablets, 60 mg twice a day, and severadol (quick release morphine) 20 mg three times a day.
You decide to prescribe morphine, subcutaneously, via the syringe driver.
Which of the following dosing regime would be appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 mg over 24 hours. 10 mg as required, for breakthrough pain.
Explanation:Calculating Morphine Dosage for Palliative Care Patients
When prescribing medication for palliative care patients, it is crucial to calculate the correct dosage to effectively manage their pain. The calculation involves two parts: determining the total amount of morphine to be placed in the syringe driver for continuous 24-hour administration and calculating the as required or breakthrough dose.
To calculate the total amount of morphine required, the total amount of morphine the patient needs in 24 hours to control their pain must be added up. It is important to note that morphine is approximately twice as effective when given subcutaneously or intravenously as when given orally. Therefore, the required dose is half of the calculated amount.
The breakthrough dose should always be one-sixth of the total dose placed in the syringe driver. This allows for effective pain management when the patient experiences sudden spikes in pain.
Regular review of the analgesia regime is essential to ensure the patient’s pain is adequately managed. If available, diamorphine is the first drug of choice for treating severe pain in cancer patients parenterally. A conversion factor of 3 should be used when converting from oral morphine to parenteral diamorphine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of high blood pressure. He has been on ramipril for three months, but despite titration up to 10 mg od, his blood pressure remains elevated at 156/92 mmHg.
What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide
Explanation:To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and a right coronary artery occlusion is successfully stented. Post-procedure, there are no complications and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 50%. The patient inquires about the impact on his driving as he relies on his car for commuting to work. What guidance should you provide regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, no need to inform the DVLA
Explanation:Driving can resume after hospital discharge if the patient has successfully undergone coronary angioplasty and there are no other disqualifying conditions. However, if the patient is a bus, taxi, or lorry driver, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving for a minimum of 6 weeks.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
Explanation:Infections after Renal Transplantation: Common Types and Risks
Renal transplant patients are at high risk of infections, with over 50% experiencing at least one infection in the first year. In the first month, the risk is similar to that of non-immunosuppressed individuals, with common infections such as postoperative pneumonias and wound infections. However, in the one to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6 become more problematic.
Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions, including disseminated mucocutaneous disease, oesophagitis, hepatitis, and pneumonitis. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but the injectable inactivated vaccine is safe for kidney transplant recipients. Pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common in the general population, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation.
A small group of patients may experience persistent viral infections, and those who require additional immunosuppression are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia. Urinary infections are the most common after renal transplantation, and patients usually receive prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old overweight woman with type 2 diabetes wants to modify her eating habits. What food item has the greatest glycaemic index?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Baked potato
Explanation:Brown rice has a lower glycaemic index (GI) of 58 compared to white rice GI of 87.
Understanding the Glycaemic Index
The glycaemic index (GI) is a measure of how quickly a food raises blood glucose levels compared to glucose in individuals with normal glucose tolerance. Foods with a high GI are believed to increase the risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus due to their association with postprandial hyperglycaemia.
Foods are classified into three categories based on their GI: high, medium, and low. Examples of high GI foods include white rice, baked potatoes, and white bread. Medium GI foods include couscous, boiled new potatoes, and digestive biscuits, while low GI foods include fruits, vegetables, and peanuts.
The GI is expressed as a number in brackets, with glucose having a GI of 100 by definition. Understanding the GI of different foods can help individuals make informed choices about their diet and manage their blood glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic with multiple itchy skin lesions on his arms and trunk. The lesions appear scaly and have a coppery brown color. The doctor suspects pityriasis versicolor. What is the best treatment option for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Explanation:Pityriasis versicolor can be treated with ketoconazole shampoo.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.
In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom is brought to the General Practitioner. Examination reveals developmental delay, congenital heart disease, growth retardation and dysmorphic facial features. Williams’ syndrome is suspected.
Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present in this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Understanding Williams Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder with Various Physical and Mental Impacts
Williams syndrome, also known as infantile hypercalcaemia, is a rare genetic disorder that can affect brain development to varying degrees. While it is an autosomal dominant disease, the majority of cases occur at random. Physical symptoms of Williams syndrome include lack of coordination, slight muscle weakness, heart defects, occasional kidney damage, and corneal opacities. Attention deficit disorder is also commonly present. Additionally, subclinical hypothyroidism is frequently present but usually remains stable.
One of the most significant concerns for individuals with Williams syndrome is the high prevalence of impaired glucose tolerance and diabetes mellitus in young adults. Treatment for hypercalcaemia may include diet modification, oral corticosteroids, and/or intravenous pamidronate. It is important to note that children with Williams syndrome should not be given multivitamins because paediatric preparations all contain vitamin D.
Long-term morbidity for individuals with Williams syndrome is mainly due to mental handicap and arteriopathy. However, hypertension, kyphoscoliosis, and obesity are also common. It is crucial for individuals with Williams syndrome to receive proper medical care and support to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A hospital Consultant is trying to quantify how many patients that attend his geriatric outpatient clinic suffer from dementia. They carry out a review of the charts of 200 randomly selected patients who regularly attend their geriatric outpatients’ clinic and determine that 42 have a diagnosis of dementia.
Which of the following is it possible to estimate from this data?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The prevalence of retinopathy in this population
Explanation:Understanding Prevalence, Incidence, and Relative Risk in a Population with Retinopathy
Prevalence, incidence, and relative risk are important measures used to understand the occurrence of a disease in a population. Prevalence refers to the number of cases of a disease present in a population at a specific point in time. To calculate prevalence, researchers randomly select a sample from the population and divide the number of people with the disease by the total number of people in the sample. Incidence, on the other hand, is the rate of new cases of a disease occurring in a specific population over a particular period of time. To calculate incidence, data on the number of new cases over time is needed. Finally, relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without exposure. To calculate relative risk, two populations, one exposed to the risk factor and one not exposed, need to be studied. It is important to note that these measures can only be accurately calculated with a representative sample and that selection bias can affect the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man was diagnosed with a melanoma six weeks after being referred to the Dermatology Department by his General Practitioner (GP). His friends call his GP, concerned that he has withdrawn to his room over the last four weeks, has stopped playing basketball, has appeared to lose weight, and has missed his hospital appointments. There is a letter in his medical records informing the practice that he has missed two surgery appointments.
He later attends the surgery with a friend. He is dressed scruffily and doesn't make eye contact during your conversation. His Patient Health Questionnaire-9 score is 15.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Major depression
Explanation:Mental Health Issues in Young Cancer Patients: Understanding the Symptoms
Young cancer patients often experience mental health issues that can affect their treatment, survival, and quality of life. Depression and anxiety are common, affecting up to 20% and 10% of patients, respectively. In diagnosing major depression, symptoms such as depressed mood, diminished interest in activities, and significant weight changes are present. Brain metastases typically present with symptoms such as headaches, seizures, or neurological disease, which this patient doesn’t have. Acute psychotic reactions involve symptoms of delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorders, which are not present in this case. Phobic anxiety disorder involves anxiety out of proportion with the threat posed, which is not present in this patient. PTSD involves recurrent intrusive thoughts about a traumatic event, which this patient doesn’t exhibit. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and treatment for young cancer patients with mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no pain or other symptoms.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine surgical referral
Explanation:Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient, who has an inguinal hernia, should be referred for surgery as they are fit and well. Physiotherapy referral, reassurance and safety netting, and ultrasound scan are not appropriate in this case.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to provide concerning sperm collection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 1 hour
Explanation:Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother after suddenly developing a cough and wheeze. His symptoms seem to have started suddenly at a birthday party. On examination, he is irritable, afebrile, with a raised respiratory rate and cough. He has a wheeze heard on the right side and breath sounds are more prominent on the left.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Foreign Body Aspiration, Peanut Allergy, and Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Signs
Unilateral wheeze in a child should always prompt the search for an inhaled foreign body, especially if symptoms started acutely in an otherwise healthy child. Large foreign bodies can cause complete airway obstruction and are rapidly fatal, while smaller ones, like peanuts, usually lodge in the right main bronchus and cause hyperinflation of the unaffected side, reduced air entry on the affected side, and a unilateral monophonic wheeze. Symptoms of foreign body aspiration may not always include the classic triad of coughing, wheezing, and decreased breathing sounds, and patients with chronic symptoms may have been misdiagnosed as having asthma or bronchitis. Peanut allergy symptoms can include itching, urticaria, facial swelling, bronchospasm, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and collapse with anaphylactic shock. Spontaneous pneumothorax presents with sudden onset of pain and dyspnea, hyper-resonance, and reduced breath sounds on the affected side. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of these conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of hand and wrist pain, morning stiffness, and swelling in her hands. Upon examination, you observe swelling in several small joints of her hands. Her blood test reveals elevated anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) levels but normal rheumatoid factor (RF) levels. You decide to refer her to a rheumatologist.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request x-rays of her hands and feet
Explanation:The patient is suspected to have rheumatoid arthritis and therefore, NICE recommends performing x-rays of the hands and feet. Urgent referral to rheumatology within 3 days is necessary as the small joints of the patient’s hands are affected. Immunology is not the appropriate referral destination for this case. Methotrexate therapy, if required, will not be initiated in primary care. The patient may be advised to try paracetamol or a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug while investigations are carried out. Steroids should not be prescribed in primary care as they can mask clinical features and delay the diagnosis. Physiotherapy is an important aspect of management after confirmation of diagnosis and initial medical management in secondary care. However, it is not the next most appropriate management for this patient at this stage.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A teenage girl with epilepsy is interested in taking the oral contraceptive pill. She has been informed that some medications for epilepsy may impact the effectiveness of the pill.
Which anti-epileptic medication triggers liver enzymes and can potentially decrease the potency of the oral contraceptive pill?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:AEDs and their effect on oral contraceptive pill efficacy
The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) that induce cytochrome P450. These drugs can be strong inducers, such as carbamazepine, or weaker inducers, such as topiramate. Phenytoin is a strong enzyme inducer. It should be noted that women using lamotrigine should be advised that seizure frequency may increase when initiating the oral contraceptive pill. Additionally, lamotrigine side effects may increase in the pill-free interval or when discontinuing the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is important to consider the potential effects of AEDs on the efficacy of the oral contraceptive pill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A researcher is analysing the body mass index (BMI) of patients in a geriatric ward. Most of the patients have a BMI that falls within the normal range; however, a few outliers have very low BMIs.
Which of the following is most likely to be affected by the outliers?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean
Explanation:Measures of Central Tendency: Mean, Median, and Mode
When analyzing a set of data, it is important to understand the measures of central tendency: mean, median, and mode. The mean is calculated by adding up all the scores and dividing by the number of scores. However, the mean is heavily influenced by extreme values, which can significantly lower the overall value. The median, on the other hand, is the middle number in a sorted list of values and is less affected by extreme values. Finally, the mode is the most frequently occurring value in the data set and is not influenced by extreme values. Understanding these measures of central tendency can help provide a more accurate representation of the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old Chinese man who is a smoker visits his doctor with complaints of a constantly congested nose and bloody discharge from the nose. What type of cancer is he most susceptible to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasopharyngeal
Explanation:Differentiating Head and Neck Cancers: Understanding Risk Factors and Symptoms
Head and neck cancers can present with a variety of symptoms, making it important to understand the risk factors associated with each type of cancer. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, for example, is more commonly found in Southeast Asia and is thought to be caused by both genetic susceptibility and environmental factors such as heavy alcohol intake and infection with Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms include nasal obstruction, bloodstained sputum or nasal discharge, tinnitus, headache, ear fullness, and unilateral conductive hearing loss.
Oral cancers, on the other hand, tend to present with a persistent lump in the mouth or with the patient possibly complaining of ear pain or pain on chewing. Smoking, chewing tobacco, and drinking alcohol are risk factors. Laryngeal cancers are also associated with smoking, but are more common in patients of black and white ethnicities.
Malignant parotid tumors are rare, and there is no higher prevalence in patients of South Asian descent. Thyroid cancers, which are relatively common, tend to present with an unexplained lump or swelling in the front of the neck and a hoarse voice. Risk factors include exposure to ionizing radiation, thyroiditis and other thyroid diseases, as well as genetic predisposition.
Understanding the different risk factors and symptoms associated with each type of head and neck cancer can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You receive a fax through from urology. One of your patients in their 50s with a raised PSA recently underwent a prostatic biopsy. The report reads as follows:
Adenocarcinoma prostate, Gleason 3+4
Which one of the following statements regarding the Gleason score is incorrect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lower the Gleason score the worse the prognosis
Explanation:Prognosis of Prostate Cancer Based on Gleason Score
Prostate cancer prognosis can be predicted using the Gleason score, which is determined through histology following a hollow needle biopsy. The Gleason score is based on the glandular architecture seen on the biopsy and is calculated by adding the most prevalent and second most prevalent patterns observed. This results in a Gleason grade ranging from 1 to 5, which is then added together to obtain a Gleason score ranging from 2 to 10. The higher the Gleason score, the worse the prognosis for the patient. Therefore, the Gleason score is an important factor in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients with prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is in their 60s. The patient is currently taking simvastatin 20 mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The patient's latest renal function results are as follows:
- Sodium (Na+): 141 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 3.9 mmol/l
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 115 µmol/l
What is the creatinine threshold at which NICE recommends considering a change in metformin dosage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: > 130 µmol/l
Explanation:If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE suggests that the dosage of metformin should be reevaluated. Additionally, if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), NICE recommends that metformin should be discontinued.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a fever, rash, and strawberry tongue, and you diagnose them with scarlet fever. According to Public Health England, what is the timeframe within which you must submit a Notifiable Diseases form?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:In England and Wales, clinicians are required by law to report cases of scarlet fever as it is a notifiable disease. They do not need to wait for laboratory confirmation before notifying their local health protection team. Public Health England advises that the necessary forms should be filled out immediately upon suspicion of a notifiable disease and submitted within 72 hours. In case of an emergency, verbal notification should be made within 24 hours.
Notifiable Diseases in the UK
In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.
It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman who has previously had breast cancer visits her nearby GP clinic complaining of swelling in her left calf for the past two days. Which scoring system should be utilized to evaluate her likelihood of having a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wells score
Explanation:Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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