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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. She reports feeling generally healthy with no changes to her vision or fever. The patient wears contact lenses but has not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient displays injected conjunctiva in the affected eye, but there is no apparent redness or swelling around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein doesn't reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: She should attend eye-casualty immediately

      Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses when experiencing conjunctivitis, which is likely the case for this 15-year-old with viral conjunctivitis. While it is possible that her prescription may not be up to date, this doesn’t affect her susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions. Warm compresses are more effective for treating styes or chalazion, which present as lumps on the eyelid, rather than viral conjunctivitis. Since the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, there is no need for ophthalmology referral. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had staining, they would require a visit to eye casualty as this would indicate a corneal injury. While topical antihistamine eye drops may be used for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the presentation makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A researcher conducts a study to show the impact of age on the...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher conducts a study to show the impact of age on the development of a certain disease. The study has shown that individuals over the age of 50 and those under the age of 50 are equally likely to develop the disease. He reports that the relative risk (RR) of age on the development of the disease is –1. He is told by his supervisor that it is likely the value he has calculated for the RR is incorrect.

      Explanation: The value of -1 for the relative risk is not possible as it suggests a negative association between smoking and the development of the disease, which is not biologically plausible. The relative risk should be greater than or equal to 1, indicating an increased risk for smokers compared to non-smokers.

      Your Answer: The RR always lies between zero and one

      Correct Answer: The RR should be positive

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting: Common Misconceptions About Relative Risk (RR)

      Relative risk (RR) is a commonly used measure in epidemiology to determine the association between an exposure and a disease outcome. However, there are several misconceptions about RR that need to be addressed.

      Firstly, the RR is always a positive value. Even if the development of the disease is lower in the exposed group than in the non-exposed group, the RR will be less than one but it will never be negative.

      Secondly, the RR can be expressed as a percentage but doesn’t have to be. It is also commonly expressed as a whole number or decimal.

      Thirdly, the RR doesn’t have to lie between zero and one. A RR that does lie between zero and one implies a negative association, meaning exposure may reduce the risk of developing the disease. If the relative risk is larger than one, it is a positive association implying exposure may increase the risk of developing the disease.

      Fourthly, the RR can be calculated even if the disease outcome is the same in both the exposed and non-exposed groups. In this case, the RR will be reported as one, not zero.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the true meaning and limitations of RR in order to accurately interpret epidemiological studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old gentleman presents for a medication review. He is currently on sildenafil...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman presents for a medication review. He is currently on sildenafil for erectile dysfunction and has a longstanding history of stable angina. Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Carvedilol

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil: A Treatment for Impotence

      Sildenafil is a well-established treatment for impotence that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase type 5, which produces cavernous venodilation and erections in appropriately stimulated patients. It is important to note that sildenafil doesn’t increase sex drive or libido.

      While sildenafil is not contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, it is contraindicated in subjects taking nitrates due to the potential for severe hypotension. Additionally, drugs like nicorandil are inadvisable due to the nitrate component.

      Common side effects of sildenafil include flushing, which develops in the majority of patients, as well as nasal congestion and blue visual discolouration. It is important to discuss any potential risks and benefits of sildenafil with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few months she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, mood changes and pain on intercourse. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) has been > 40 µIU/l on two separate occasions, and her serum oestradiol level is low. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin are normal. Fasting blood glucose is normal. Pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premature ovarian insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Symptoms

      Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a condition that affects at least 1% of women under the age of 40 years. It is characterized by elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), low oestradiol, and prolonged amenorrhoea. In most cases, no underlying cause is identified, but familial history, autoimmune lymphocytic oophoritis, infections, and iatrogenic causes such as surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy may contribute to the condition. Spontaneous recovery of fertility is unlikely.

      Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour, hypopituitarism, polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and thyrotoxicosis are incorrect diagnoses for POI. Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour is rare and presents with hirsutism, acne, and clitoral enlargement. Hypopituitarism is caused by anterior pituitary tumours and may result in pressure features, ACTH deficiency, TSH deficiency, GH deficiency, ADH deficiency, and gonadotrophin deficiency. PCOS is unlikely due to the raised FSH and lack of hyperandrogenism. Thyrotoxicosis is ruled out by the normal TSH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are conducting a cancer care assessment on an elderly woman with an...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a cancer care assessment on an elderly woman with an advanced brain tumor. She has previously undergone radiotherapy and chemotherapy, but these treatments did not have a significant effect on her condition. Her primary concerns are vertigo and nausea.

      Which antiemetic would be the most suitable to recommend?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Ondansetron

      Explanation:

      Antiemetics in Palliative Care

      A variety of antiemetics are used in palliative care to treat nausea and vomiting. However, the underlying cause of the symptoms should be determined to guide which particular treatment is most appropriate. For patients with co-existent vertigo, an antiemetic with antihistamine properties such as cyclizine is most suitable as it also has actions against vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

      Nausea and vomiting caused by drugs or toxins and metabolic factors like hypercalcaemia may respond best to haloperidol or levomepromazine. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic, can be useful in treating symptoms due to gastric stasis. On the other hand, ondansetron, a 5-HT3 antagonist, acts at the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain and is used as a treatment for emetogenic chemotherapy.

      In summary, the appropriate antiemetic for palliative care patients depends on the underlying cause of their nausea and vomiting. Healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s individual needs and symptoms when selecting the most suitable treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and seeks advice on managing her condition. What treatment option is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

      When it comes to treating irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there are several options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends tricyclic antidepressants as a second-line treatment if other medications have not been effective. Treatment should start at a low dose and be reviewed regularly. Acupuncture and aloe vera are not recommended by NICE for the treatment of IBS. It is suggested to limit intake of high-fibre foods and increase intake of fresh fruit, but to limit it to three portions per day. It’s important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart...

    Correct

    • Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Digoxin in Congestive Heart Failure Treatment

      Digoxin, a medication commonly used in the past for congestive heart failure, has lost its popularity due to the lack of demonstrated mortality benefit in patients with this condition. However, it has shown a reduction in hospitalizations for congestive heart failure. Therefore, it is recommended to maximize the use of other therapies such as ACE inhibitors, β blockers, and spironolactone before considering digoxin. If the ACE inhibitor cannot be tolerated, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist like candesartan can be used as an alternative. Digoxin should only be considered as a third-line treatment for severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction after first- and second-line treatments have been exhausted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous complaints have been type-2 diabetes and mild long-standing back pain. Screening tests reveal an elevated serum creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and anaemia with Hb of 101 g/d (135-175 g/L). He has marked proteinuria. An X-ray shows collapse of the lumbar spine and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
      Select the most likely cause of his abnormal renal function.

      Your Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyloidosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Prognosis

      Amyloidosis is a group of conditions characterized by the abnormal deposition of amyloid proteins in organs or tissues, leading to damage. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 60 and 70 years. In most cases, amyloidosis is caused by light-chain deposition from a myeloma, as evidenced by a monoclonal band on electrophoresis and lumbar spine collapse. Symptoms of generalized amyloidosis include fatigue, dyspnea, diarrhea, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and weight loss. Cardiac involvement may result in a restrictive picture with right-sided heart failure and jugular venous distension. Renal amyloidosis can lead to the development of the nephrotic syndrome.

      Apart from myeloma, other causes of amyloidosis include hereditary forms such as familial Mediterranean fever, and those related to chronic disease, infection, or malignancy, such as rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis, and renal cell carcinoma. Amyloidosis associated with myeloma has a very poor prognosis, with less than 1-year survival. In contrast, familial forms are associated with much better outcomes, with a prognosis of up to 10-15 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from a family vacation involving kayaking. She complains of feeling extremely tired due to persistent fatty diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence that began during her trip. She notes that her symptoms worsen whenever she consumes dairy products. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss, and recent travel suggest giardiasis as the likely cause. Giardiasis is often associated with foreign travel and exposure to contaminated water sources. Treatment with metronidazole may be beneficial. Cholera and hepatitis D are unlikely causes as their symptoms and characteristics differ from those of giardiasis.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the most precise statement about the effectiveness of cervical spine X-rays...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most precise statement about the effectiveness of cervical spine X-rays in evaluating degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Where DCM is suspected, AP (anteroposterior), lateral and oblique cervical spine radiographs should be requested

      Correct Answer: Cervical spine radiographs cannot diagnose DCM

      Explanation:

      Degenerative Cervical Myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that affects the spinal cord in the neck region. It is caused by the compression of the spinal cord due to degenerative changes in the cervical spine. DCM is a common condition, with an estimated prevalence of 1-2% in the general population [1]. The condition is more common in older adults, with a peak incidence in the sixth decade of life [2].

      The pathophysiology of DCM involves the gradual degeneration of the cervical spine, which can lead to the compression of the spinal cord. This compression can cause a range of symptoms, including neck pain, arm pain, weakness, and numbness. In severe cases, DCM can lead to paralysis and loss of bladder and bowel control [2].

      Diagnosis of DCM requires the finding of MRI compression in conjunction with appropriate signs and symptoms. Asymptomatic degenerative disk disease and spondylosis of the cervical spine can be seen on MRI, but these findings alone do not indicate DCM [3].

      In conclusion, DCM is a common condition that affects the spinal cord in the neck region. It is caused by the compression of the spinal cord due to degenerative changes in the cervical spine. Diagnosis of DCM requires the finding of MRI compression in conjunction with appropriate signs and symptoms.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any apparent cause or injury. The pain has not responded to regular pain medication and is particularly severe at night. Upon clinical examination, no clear cause is found. An urgent plain x-ray is ordered, which reveals a probable metastatic bony lesion in the right pelvis. Which group of solid tumor cancers is most likely to spread to the bone?

      Your Answer: Brain, colorectal, lung, prostate, and soft tissue sarcoma

      Correct Answer: Breast, thyroid, kidney, prostate and lung

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Primary Tumor in Patients with Bony Metastasis

      Patients who present with bony metastasis require careful examination and history taking to identify the site of the primary tumor. The most likely culprits should be considered, as haematological cancers such as myeloma and lymphoma can also cause bony metastases. It is important to note that identifying the primary tumor is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in their assessment and consider all possible causes of bony metastasis. Proper identification of the primary tumor can lead to better outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman on the combined oral contraceptive pill visits your clinic seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman on the combined oral contraceptive pill visits your clinic seeking a refill of her prescription. What is a potential drawback of taking the combined oral contraceptive pill that you should advise her about?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      When starting the combined oral contraceptive pill, it is important to inform women that there is a slight increase in the risk of breast and cervical cancer. However, it is also important to note that the pill is protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A systematic review on the use of apixaban for left ventricular thrombus in...

    Incorrect

    • A systematic review on the use of apixaban for left ventricular thrombus in elderly patients has revealed a noteworthy decrease in hospitalisation and mortality rates. The meta-analysis comprised twenty randomised and non-randomised studies. The researchers were apprehensive about the possibility of studies with positive outcomes being published more frequently than those with negative results and opted to explore the presence of publication bias.

      What is the most suitable approach to evaluate publication bias in this analysis?

      Your Answer: Meta-regression analysis

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      None of the given options are correct for assessing publication bias in a meta-analysis. The most commonly used method for detecting publication bias is the funnel plot, which displays the effect size of each study against its standard error of sample size. Ideally, the studies should be symmetrically distributed around the overall effect size, and any asymmetry could indicate publication bias. Egger’s test can then be used to confirm the presence of publication bias.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering that she is pregnant....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering that she is pregnant. She had the Mirena coil inserted for heavy periods approximately nine months ago. She inquires about whether she needs to have her Mirena coil removed.

      What is the appropriate guidance concerning the removal of the Mirena coil?

      Your Answer: The Mirena coil should not be removed if the pregnancy is diagnosed after 12 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Contraception and Pregnancy

      When a woman becomes pregnant while using contraception, it is usually recommended to stop or remove the method. However, it is important to note that contraceptive hormones do not typically harm the fetus.

      If an intrauterine method is in place when pregnancy is diagnosed, the woman should be informed of the potential risks of leaving it in-situ, such as second-trimester miscarriage, preterm delivery, and infection. While removal in the first trimester carries a small risk of miscarriage, it may reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. If the threads of the intrauterine contraceptive are visible or can be retrieved, it should be removed up to 12 weeks gestation, but not after this point.

      Overall, it is important for women to discuss their contraceptive options with their healthcare provider and to inform them if they suspect they may be pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man from Ghana complains of back pain, fatigue, and increased thirst....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man from Ghana complains of back pain, fatigue, and increased thirst. His ESR is 95 mm/hour and he has normocytic normochromic anemia.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease of bone

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Elevated ESR

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells and is more common in Afro-Caribbeans. It can cause bone pain, fractures, and hypercalcemia, leading to lethargy and thirst. An elevated ESR and normochromic normocytic anemia are typical features of multiple myeloma.

      Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy (CPA), also known as chondrocalcinosis, primarily affects the knee joint and doesn’t typically cause anemia. Osteoarthritis may cause back pain but doesn’t typically present with systemic symptoms such as lethargy and thirst. Osteoporosis is rare in men at this age and doesn’t cause anemia or elevated ESR. Paget’s disease of bone may cause bone pain, deformity, and fractures, but the patient in this scenario doesn’t have classical features of the disease.

      Differential Diagnosis for Bone Pain and Elevated ESR

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 days after being hit on...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 days after being hit on the left side of his head. He reports experiencing muffled hearing on the left side since the incident. Upon examination, there are no visible bruises, but both ears are covered by a thin, translucent layer of wax. Rinne's test reveals that the tuning fork is more audible when placed on the mastoid bone on the left side. On Weber's test, the sound is heard most clearly on the left side. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perforated eardrum

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between tympanic membrane perforation and sensorineural hearing loss due to skull trauma is crucial. Rinne’s test can help identify conductive hearing loss in the affected ear, while Weber’s test can rule out sensorineural hearing loss on the right.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis affecting both knees but over the last couple of years his left knee has deteriorated and is giving him increasing pain and has started to affect his mobility.

      He is a very active gentleman who walks his dog daily and maintains an independent lifestyle. He uses regular co-codamol 30/500 and PRN ibuprofen orally, and also topical capsaicin. He has recently been having some sessions with the physiotherapists and has had three steroid injections in the knee over the last year.

      Although things are just about manageable at the moment he is concerned that the way his knee is going he will soon not be able to walk the dog and remain as independent. On occasion he has needed to use a walking stick when his knee has flared up and he tells you he is concerned about further worsening and having to rely on a walking aid more permanently. He is also concerned that his use of pain medication has escalated and that he has needed the steroid injections periodically.

      He is overweight (BMI 29 kg/m2) and also smokes between 10 and 20 cigarettes a day.

      He asks you about being referred for consideration of joint replacement surgery.

      Which if the following is the correct approach in this case?

      Your Answer: Up-to-date plain x rays should be requested and the severity of osteoarthritis on radiographic imaging used to guide if referral is indicated

      Correct Answer: The patient should be counselled about the risks and benefits of surgery and referral should be made without any further delay if the patient decides it is an appropriate option

      Explanation:

      Referring Patients for Joint Replacement Surgery

      Referring patients for joint replacement surgery can be a challenging decision. With the increasing demand for this procedure, healthcare professionals must consider various factors before making a referral. These factors include the severity of the patient’s symptoms, their overall health and any comorbidities, their functional abilities and expectations, and the effectiveness of non-surgical treatments.

      Orthopaedic assessment tools such as the Oxford hip and knee scores can be helpful in evaluating the impact of osteoarthritis on daily activities. However, they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions. Similarly, x-rays may provide additional information, but they should not be relied upon as the only factor in making a referral decision.

      It is important to note that factors such as smoking status, age, and comorbidities should not be used as obstacles to referral. While they may increase postoperative risks and affect long-term outcomes, some patients may still benefit greatly from joint replacement surgery.

      In summary, joint replacement surgery should be considered for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant symptoms that do not respond to non-surgical treatments. Referral should occur before functional limitations and severe pain develop, and the decision should be made collaboratively between the healthcare professional and the patient. Scoring tools and x-rays can be helpful adjuncts, but they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old labourer comes to you with a complaint of noticing that his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old labourer comes to you with a complaint of noticing that his conjunctiva has grown onto the cornea at 4 o'clock position in his left eye for the past two weeks. He reports feeling a gritty sensation most of the time, but his vision is unaffected. On examination, you observe that the growth is at the very periphery of the cornea, far away from the pupil visual axis, and the affected eye doesn't appear inflamed.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start patient on ocular lubricants

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pterygium: A Fibrovascular Tissue Extension

      Pterygium is a condition where fibrovascular tissue extends from the conjunctiva onto the cornea. While the exact cause is unknown, spending a lot of time outdoors is a known risk factor. When left untreated, pterygium can cause dry eyes and a gritty sensation. However, if it is not encroaching on the visual axis, symptomatic relief can be achieved through the use of ocular lubricants. In cases where the pterygium appears inflamed, a short course of mild ocular topical steroid may be added. However, if the pterygium is near the visual axis, it is important to seek prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for removal. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for pterygium can help individuals manage this condition and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the surgical department with complaints of a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the surgical department with complaints of a sore throat. She is running a temperature of 39.2ºC and is experiencing difficulty in eating due to the pain, although she is able to tolerate fluids. There are no other associated symptoms such as cough or rash. On examination, her heart rate is 120/min and chest auscultation is normal. Bilateral tonsils are covered in exudate, while ear examination is unremarkable. Apart from supportive care, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of systemic disturbance and requires antibiotic treatment. A 7 to 10-day antibiotic regimen is recommended to effectively eliminate any potential Streptococcus infection. The BNF recommends Phenoxymethylpenicillin as the primary antibiotic option.

      Management of Sore Throat

      Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. She recently completed a course of TB treatment that involved rifampicin. She refuses to consider an IUD. What is the best option for emergency contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate 60mg

      Explanation:

      Emergency Contraception for Patients on Liver Enzyme-Inducing Drugs

      When a patient is on liver enzyme-inducing drugs or has had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) inserted in the last 28 days, the copper IUD is recommended as first-line emergency contraception. However, if the patient declines this option, a higher dose of levonorgestrel (3mg) is recommended as second-line. Common drugs that induce liver enzymes include antiretrovirals, carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St John’s wort. It is important to note that ulipristal is not suitable for women on liver enzyme-inducing drugs, according to NICE guidelines. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of these recommendations and provide appropriate emergency contraception options for patients on liver enzyme-inducing drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old patient presents at the local walk-in centre with central crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents at the local walk-in centre with central crushing chest pain. The nurse immediately calls 999 and performs an ECG which reveals ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient's blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation is 96%. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg + sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain

      Patients presenting with acute chest pain should receive immediate management for suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS), including glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg. Oxygen should only be given if sats are less than 94%. A normal ECG doesn’t exclude ACS, so referral should be made based on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. Patients with current chest pain or chest pain in the last 12 hours with an abnormal ECG should be emergency admitted. Those with chest pain 12-72 hours ago should be referred to the hospital the same day for assessment. Chest pain more than 72 hours ago should undergo a full assessment with ECG and troponin measurement before deciding upon further action.

      For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Patients with all three features have typical angina, those with two have atypical angina, and those with one or none have non-anginal chest pain. If stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone, NICE recommends CT coronary angiography as the first line of investigation, followed by non-invasive functional imaging and invasive coronary angiography as second and third lines, respectively. Non-invasive functional imaging options include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography, stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance perfusion, and MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative factor of an underlying connective tissue disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent miscarriages

      Explanation:

      Bilateral symptoms in young women may indicate primary Raynaud’s disease. Recurrent miscarriages may be a sign of systemic lupus erythematous or anti-phospholipid syndrome. Chilblains, which are painful and itchy purple swellings on the fingers and toes after exposure to cold, are sometimes linked to underlying connective tissue disease, although this is uncommon.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute sinusitis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute sinusitis. He had a severe cold 10 days ago and thought he was recovering, but now has pain over his left cheek and a purulent nasal discharge, more pronounced from the left nostril. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C and is tender when pressure is applied over the left maxilla. As he is feeling unwell, you decide to prescribe antibiotics, but he has a penicillin allergy. What would be your approach to treating this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline for 5 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Sinusitis

      Some important points to consider when treating acute sinusitis with antibiotics include the choice and duration of treatment. It is important to note that NICE CKS doesn’t recommend antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated acute sinusitis lasting 10 days or less. However, if antibiotic treatment is deemed appropriate, it is crucial to be familiar with the options available.

      For patients who are not allergic to penicillin, a 5-day course of Phenoxymethylpenicillin is the first choice. However, if the patient is allergic to penicillin, the options are limited to a 5-day course of doxycycline or a 7-day course of Clarithromycin. It is important to read the question carefully and take note of any allergies mentioned in the vignette.

      In summary, when considering antibiotic treatment for acute sinusitis, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidelines and be aware of the appropriate choice and duration of treatment based on the patient’s allergy status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man has inoperable small-cell lung cancer but has been reasonably well....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has inoperable small-cell lung cancer but has been reasonably well. He has a forthcoming hospital appointment. He reports no significant symptoms other than his long-standing persistent cough. His General Practitioner (GP) requests some blood tests as per his consultant’s last letter.
      Which of the following results would raise the most concern in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium 3.14 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Test Results in Palliative Care Patients

      When interpreting blood test results in palliative care patients, it is important to consider the context and urgency of each abnormal result. In this case, the serum calcium level is the most concerning, as it is significantly elevated and could indicate symptomatic hypercalcaemia. Immediate admission to a hospital or hospice is recommended, along with intravenous fluid replacement and bisphosphonate treatment. The alkaline phosphatase level is also elevated, but further investigation is needed to determine the source. The slightly low potassium level can be monitored with routine testing, while the slight hyponatraemia may be normal for the patient or repeated non-urgently. A slightly elevated urea level may indicate mild dehydration or renal impairment, but is not significant enough to require emergency treatment. Overall, careful consideration of each abnormal result is necessary in order to provide appropriate care for palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her face over the past 2 days. The child appears unwell and has clustered blisters and punched-out erosions covering her chin and left cheek.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      This young boy is suffering from eczema herpeticum, which is a herpes simplex infection that has developed on top of his atopic eczema. If someone with eczema experiences rapidly worsening, painful eczema, along with possible fever, lethargy, or distress, and clustered blisters that resemble early cold sores, they may have contracted herpes simplex virus. Additionally, punched-out erosions that are uniform in appearance and may coalesce could also be present. If eczema that has become infected fails to respond to antibiotic and corticosteroid treatment, patients should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir and same-day dermatological review. For less severely affected individuals, oral aciclovir and frequent review may be an option. This information is based on guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Incorrect

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: A Vital Test for Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a crucial test performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. This test screens for several conditions that may not be apparent at birth but can cause serious health problems if left undetected. The test involves pricking the baby’s heel and collecting a small amount of blood on a special filter paper. The paper is then sent to a laboratory for analysis.

      The conditions currently screened for include congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU). Early detection of these conditions can lead to prompt treatment and better outcomes for affected infants.

      Neonatal blood spot screening is a routine test that is recommended for all newborns. Parents should ensure that their baby receives this test to ensure their baby’s health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency of his migraines. He used to experience headaches once or twice a month, but over the past four months, he has had to take sumatriptan around 20 days a month. He occasionally combines it with co-codamol, but this doesn't alleviate the pain.

      What is the best guidance you can offer this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medication overuse headache must be excluded before starting prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine Prophylaxis: Important Considerations

      Migraine prophylaxis is a treatment option for individuals who experience frequent and debilitating migraines. However, before starting prophylaxis, it is crucial to rule out medication overuse headache, which can be caused by frequent use of acute drugs. If medication overuse headache is suspected, drug withdrawal is necessary.

      It is important to note that prophylaxis is not a substitute for acute treatment. While prophylaxis can reduce the frequency of attacks, acute treatment will still be required when migraines occur. Acute treatment typically involves simple analgesia, triptans, and antiemetics.

      When starting prophylaxis, it is essential to titrate the dose slowly to avoid side-effects that may lead to premature discontinuation. This slow dose titration can cause a delay in efficacy, which may trigger discontinuation. Therefore, a careful explanation is necessary.

      Prophylaxis is only indicated if migraines are significantly impacting daily function and quality of life, such as occurring more than once per week or being severe despite treatment. Other indications for prophylaxis include the risk of medication overuse headache or if acute treatments are contraindicated or ineffective.

      While NICE recommends propranolol, topiramate, or amitriptyline as the first-line approach for prophylaxis, triptans are used to manage acute attacks. Understanding these important considerations can help individuals make informed decisions about their migraine treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain in his left thigh. He reports feeling unsteady on his feet and has gained more than 6 kg in weight over the past six months. He also has chronic lower back pain. His family has a history of a neurological condition, with his uncle having multiple sclerosis (MS). He has no other medical conditions.
      During the examination, the patient is found to be overweight. He has reduced pinprick sensation over the anterior part of his left thigh, but no motor signs. His tendor reflexes are normal and there are no cerebellar signs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between causes of lower limb pain: A brief overview

      Lower limb pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here, we will briefly discuss four potential causes of lower limb pain and how they can be differentiated.

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by numbness, paraesthesia, and pain in the anterolateral thigh. It is caused by either an entrapment neuropathy or a neuroma of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The pain can be reproduced by deep palpation just below the anterior superior iliac spine and by extension of the hip. Obesity and weight gain are risk factors.

      Diabetic lumbosacral plexopathy is a condition in which patients develop severe pain in the hip and thigh, followed by weakness and wasting of the thigh muscles. This often occurs asymmetrically and is accompanied by distal sensory neuropathy. However, this patient has no diagnosis of diabetes.

      Familial MS is a form of multiple sclerosis that usually presents as intermittent episodic sensory, motor, or autonomic disturbances. While a family history of MS may be present, it is not a definitive diagnostic criterion.

      Lumbar canal stenosis with nerve root entrapment typically causes pain in the buttocks or lower extremities, with or without back pain. Standing, walking, or lumbar extension often exacerbate the condition, while forward flexion, sitting, or lying flat often relieves the pain.

      Finally, lumbar facet arthropathy is characterized by facet joints causing back pain that can radiate to the buttocks and legs. The pain is worsened by retroflexion and lateral flexion of the spine and prolonged standing or walking. However, facet syndrome would not usually cause reduced sensation.

      In conclusion, a thorough clinical evaluation and diagnostic testing can help differentiate between these potential causes of lower limb pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old man has had a tendency to have complex tics since childhood....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man has had a tendency to have complex tics since childhood. He repeatedly squats down on the ground and also has another repetitive action of rubbing his nose. He is prone to loud vocalisations, sometimes swear words. The symptoms prevent him from working and having a normal social life.
      Which of the following conditions is often associated with his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Tics: Tourette Syndrome, Epilepsy, Huntington’s Disease, Parkinson’s Disease, and Restless Legs Syndrome

      When a patient presents with sudden involuntary repeated movements or sounds, a tic disorder may be suspected. Tourette syndrome is a likely diagnosis if the symptoms have lasted longer than a year, started in childhood, and include at least two motor tics and one vocal tic. Tourette syndrome is often associated with other conduct disorders such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

      Myoclonic epilepsy may be considered as a differential diagnosis for tics, but the brief shock-like jerks of a muscle or group of muscles in myoclonic seizures are distinct from the complex tics and vocal tics seen in Tourette syndrome. There is no association between epilepsy and Tourette syndrome.

      Huntington’s disease, a hereditary condition characterized by chronic progressive chorea and mental deterioration, usually presents around the age of 40 years old. However, there is no association between Huntington’s disease and Tourette syndrome.

      Parkinson’s disease, a chronic neurological disorder characterized by bradykinesia, resting tremors, and rigidity, is not associated with Tourette syndrome.

      Restless legs syndrome, a common condition in which patients experience an unpleasant sensation in their legs that is temporarily relieved by movement, is not associated with Tourette syndrome. However, symptoms can affect sleep and may include periodic leg movements during sleep.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with tics, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis, including Tourette syndrome, epilepsy, Huntington’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and restless legs syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual blood test at work. He is otherwise well with no symptoms reported.

      He was found to have a serum phosphate of 0.7.
      Other tests done include FBC, U+Es, LFTs, Calcium and PTH which were all normal.
      Serum phosphate normal range (0-8-1.4 mmol/L)

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound neck

      Explanation:

      Management of Mild Hypophosphataemia

      In cases of mild hypophosphataemia, monitoring is often sufficient. It may be helpful to check vitamin D levels as it can affect phosphate uptake and renal excretion, along with parathyroid hormone (PTH). If there is a concurrent low magnesium level, it may indicate dietary deficiencies.

      An ultrasound of the neck is not necessary unless there are signs of enlarged parathyroid glands. Oral phosphate is typically reserved for preventing refeeding syndrome in cases of anorexia, starvation, or alcoholism. Mild hypophosphataemia usually resolves on its own.

      Parenteral phosphate may be considered in acute situations but requires inpatient monitoring of calcium, phosphate, and other electrolytes. Referral should only be considered if the patient is symptomatic, has short stature or skeletal deformities consistent with rickets, or if the hypophosphataemia is chronic or severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 31 - A 7-week-old boy is presented to your clinic by his mother in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old boy is presented to your clinic by his mother in the afternoon. The mother reports that her baby has been experiencing effortless and painless regurgitation of his feeds for the past four weeks. The baby is being formula-fed and is currently taking bottles on demand every two hours. Apart from this, the baby is healthy and growing normally. There is no significant medical history, and the baby was born at full term without any complications. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 32 - Your surgery serves an area of West London that is frequented by large...

    Incorrect

    • Your surgery serves an area of West London that is frequented by large numbers of tourists and economic migrants who come to the UK for a few months for work.
      With respect to health service provision, which one of the following is true with respect to provision of health services and charging to elderly visitors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NATO staff are only partially eligible for free treatment

      Explanation:

      Eligibility for Free NHS Care

      The rules for receiving free NHS care can be complex and detailed, but in general, patients from the European Economic Area (EEA), certain Commonwealth countries, and Ukraine are entitled to free healthcare. Additionally, there is a list of procedures and consultations, such as family planning, that are also covered under free healthcare.

      If a patient has been accepted for permanent residence, they are not charged for NHS care, regardless of their home country. It is important to note that eligibility for free NHS care can vary depending on individual circumstances, so it is always best to check with the NHS or a healthcare professional to confirm eligibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 33 - A 25-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of general malaise, conjunctivitis and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of general malaise, conjunctivitis and a cough. He is starting to develop a maculopapular rash on his face and upper trunk and has a temperature of 39oC.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Measles

      Measles is characterized by a 4-day prodrome with cough and conjunctivitis, which is not seen in any other condition. While rubella has a similar prodrome, it is milder and fever is not as high. Parvovirus B19’s rash appears in the convalescent phase, while infectious mononucleosis presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and malaise. The rash in primary HIV is macular, erythematous, and truncal, and is accompanied by painful oral ulceration and lymphadenopathy. However, if a patient presents with cough and conjunctivitis, measles should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 34 - A 30-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a complaint of visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a complaint of visual disturbance. Upon examination, the doctor observes a left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual field defect known as left homonymous hemianopia indicates a loss of vision to the left side, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. Homonymous quadrantanopias, which affect the parietal-inferior and temporal-superior areas, are also a type of visual field defect. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by lesions in the optic radiation or occipital cortex.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 35 - You see a 25-year-old woman who is complaining of aches and pains in...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 25-year-old woman who is complaining of aches and pains in the joints of her hands.
      Her mother has just been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) and she wants to know if she has it as well.

      In what age range would you expect to diagnose polymyalgia rheumatica?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Over 50 years

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition Common in the Elderly

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is a condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those over 70 years old. One of the core features of PMR is age greater than 50. The most common symptoms of PMR include bilateral shoulder and/or pelvic girdle aching that lasts for more than two weeks, morning stiffness lasting for more than 45 minutes, and raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein (CRP). It is important to note that these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, so a proper diagnosis is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 36 - You assess a 55-year-old woman who is concerned about her risk of fragility...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 55-year-old woman who is concerned about her risk of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis. She is in good health, a non-smoker, and drinks only 1-2 units of alcohol per week. According to NICE guidelines, at what age should women begin to be evaluated for their risk of fragility fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After the age of 65 years

      Explanation:

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old transgender woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old transgender woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. He is in a committed relationship with a male partner and engages in vaginal intercourse. He is currently receiving testosterone therapy and has not undergone any surgical procedures. He has no history of cardiac issues, breast cancer, blood clots, or stroke, and doesn't suffer from migraines. There is no significant family medical history. His BMI is 22 kg/m2, and his blood pressure is 134/75 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient regarding contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should not be offered contraception containing oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Patients who were assigned female at birth and are undergoing testosterone therapy should avoid using contraceptives that contain oestrogen as it can counteract the effects of the therapy. For transgender males, oestrogen-based contraception is also not recommended as it can interfere with testosterone. Instead, progesterone-only methods are a suitable alternative that do not affect testosterone therapy. While barrier methods are an option, it is important to consider other contraceptive options such as the copper coil or progesterone-only methods to ensure adequate protection against pregnancy, as testosterone therapy can be harmful to a developing fetus. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices like the copper coil do not interact with hormonal regimens, but they may increase menstrual bleeding, which may not be desirable for some patients. It is important to note that testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and appropriate contraception is necessary to prevent unwanted pregnancy.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 38 - What is the appropriate course of action for managing a newborn boy with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate course of action for managing a newborn boy with an undescended left testicle and nappy rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent referral to a specialist to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Management of Unilateral Undescended Testicle in Infants

      In cases of unilateral undescended testicle in infants, it is important to determine whether it is unilateral or bilateral as the management would differ. If it is unilateral, the infant should be re-examined at 6-8 weeks. If the testicle is still absent, another examination should be done at 4-5 months of age. If the testicle remains undescended at this stage, the child should be referred to a specialist. However, if both testicles are present in the scrotum at 4-5 months review, no further action is required.

      It is important to note that undescended testes pose a risk of developing future malignancy, especially if they present later in life. Therefore, boys and young men with a history of undescended testis should be advised to perform regular testicular self-examination during and after puberty to detect any potential testicular cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 39 - A 67-year-old smoker with severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis is seen following discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old smoker with severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis is seen following discharge after suffering an ischaemic stroke. He has been treated with antiplatelet medication, lipid lowering medication and antihypertensives. He is following a smoking prevention programme and is in sinus rhythm. Apart from hypertension, there is no other relevant history.

      According to NICE CKS Guidance, what is the target systolic blood pressure range for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 120-130

      Explanation:

      Target Systolic Blood Pressure Range for Patients with Severe Bilateral Carotid Artery Stenosis

      When managing blood pressure following stroke or TIA, it is important to consider the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis. For most patients, the target systolic blood pressure should be below 130mmHg. However, in the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis, the target systolic blood pressure range should be between 140-150mmHg.

      It is important to note that other considerations such as lifestyle advice, lipid lowering therapy, and antiplatelets should also be taken into account. However, when specifically asked about the target systolic blood pressure range, it is important to focus on this without distraction. Treatment for hypertension may include a thiazide-like diuretic, long-acting calcium channel blocker, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. By considering the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 40 - A 65-year-old heavy smoker complains of morning cough and difficulty in breathing. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old heavy smoker complains of morning cough and difficulty in breathing. Upon conducting a chest x-ray, hyperinflated lung fields are observed. Spirometry is arranged. Which of the following spirometry results would be indicative of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FEV1 - reduced, FEV1/FVC - reduced

      Explanation:

      The spirometry results indicate an obstructive pattern, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

      To determine airflow obstruction, the FEV1/FVC ratio must be less than 0.7.

      NICE utilizes the FEV1 (compared to the expected value based on age, height, and gender) to classify the severity of COPD.

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 41 - What is the drug combination that should be avoided in the routine treatment...

    Incorrect

    • What is the drug combination that should be avoided in the routine treatment of hypertension for individuals at risk of developing diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker and calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers and Diabetes

      Beta-blockers are a type of medication that can be used in patients with diabetes, but they can interfere with glucose regulation. To minimize this risk, cardioselective beta-blockers may be preferred. However, the combination of beta-blockers and thiazide diuretics has been shown to increase the risk of developing diabetes. Therefore, it is important to avoid this combination of medications in individuals who are at risk of developing diabetes. By being mindful of these potential risks, healthcare providers can help ensure the safe and effective use of beta-blockers in patients with diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 42 - When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual...

    Incorrect

    • When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual based on the UK immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Pneumococcal Vaccine

      The pneumococcal vaccine is an important immunization that helps protect against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. However, it’s important to note that there are two types of pneumococcal vaccines – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV).

      The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above. It’s important to know which vaccine to administer, as the immune response to each vaccine is different.

      Aside from the recommended age groups, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders.

      In summary, understanding the pneumococcal vaccine and its different types and recommended age groups is crucial in ensuring proper administration and protection against pneumococcal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 43 - A 50-year-old woman comes to see you as she is worried that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to see you as she is worried that she may be at risk of ovarian cancer.

      Her 52-year-old maternal cousin has just been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Her mother also recently passed away with ovarian cancer, which she contracted aged 77. Her paternal uncle died of lung cancer in his 60s.

      What should you do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to specialist genetics clinic

      Explanation:

      Key Points for Referring Women for Genetic Counselling

      When it comes to referring women for genetic counselling, there are a few key points to keep in mind. While you don’t need to know all the details, it’s important to know when to refer. One crucial learning point is that women should be referred if they have two relatives with ovarian cancer on the same side of the family, regardless of age.

      If a woman’s mother had breast cancer instead of ovarian cancer, the age of diagnosis would be a factor in determining whether she should be referred. Guidelines suggest that if the mother was diagnosed with breast cancer before the age of 50, the daughter should be referred to a specialist genetics clinic.

      Other guidelines from NICE and SIGN provide additional criteria for referral, such as a family history of breast or colon cancer. However, annual examinations for breast or ovarian cancer are not recommended, and CA125 testing is not currently suggested for asymptomatic patients.

      It’s important to provide women with advice on ovarian cancer symptoms so they can seek medical attention early if needed. But ultimately, a specialist genetics service assessment is the best way to determine if genetic counselling is necessary. By keeping these key points in mind, healthcare providers can ensure that women receive the appropriate care and support for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 44 - In a study examining mortality outcomes after bariatric surgery, it was found that...

    Incorrect

    • In a study examining mortality outcomes after bariatric surgery, it was found that obese patients with type II diabetes had a lower 10-year mortality rate (RR = 0.65) compared to obese patients without diabetes (RR = 0.90). However, the study did not show a statistically significant difference between the two groups. If bariatric surgery does indeed decrease mortality more in patients with diabetes, what has this study demonstrated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A type II error

      Explanation:

      Understanding Type II Errors in Statistical Studies

      A type II error occurs when a study fails to reject a false null hypothesis, also known as a false negative. In the context of a study comparing the impact of bariatric surgery on mortality rates for diabetics versus non-diabetics, if the surgery does indeed have a significantly greater impact on mortality rates for diabetics but the study fails to detect this, it would be an example of a type II error.

      To reduce the risk of type II errors, the power of a study can be increased by, for example, increasing the sample size. It is important to note that a type II error is different from a type I error, which occurs when a true null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected (false positive).

      Other potential biases in a study include selection bias, where subjects are not chosen randomly or representatively, and misclassification bias, where subjects are wrongly assigned to a classification. However, there is no indication of these biases in the given study. Ultimately, understanding and minimizing the risk of type II errors is crucial for ensuring accurate and reliable statistical results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section 10 weeks ago. She has also scheduled her baby's first set of routine immunizations for today. During the appointment, she inquires about the MenB vaccine and asks when it is typically administered.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 2, 4 and 12-13 months

      Explanation:

      The MenB vaccine is administered at 2, 4, and 12-13 months and has been incorporated into the routine vaccination schedule in the UK, making it the first country to do so. The vaccine replaces the MenC vaccine, which was discontinued in 2016. In addition to infants, individuals with certain health conditions, such as asplenia or splenic dysfunction, sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, and complement disorders, are also recommended to receive the MenB vaccine. It is important to note that the vaccine doesn’t contain live bacteria and therefore cannot cause meningococcal disease.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 46 - You visit Max, an 85-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease,...

    Incorrect

    • You visit Max, an 85-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease, hip osteoarthritis, and prostate cancer. He claims to be doing well, but his wife is worried because he has been unable to walk today. Upon examination while he is lying on his couch, you observe that he has decreased sensation on both sides and reduced strength (3/5 in both hips). There are no apparent injuries or traumas. He doesn't have any bowel or bladder issues. What is the proper course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit immediately

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history is concerning for suspected metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) due to the bilateral loss of power and inability to walk. It is important to consider common cancers that typically spread to the bone, such as prostate, breast, lung, kidney, and thyroid cancers.

      According to NICE guidance, urgent discussion with the local MSCC coordinator is necessary within 24 hours if a patient with a history of cancer experiences pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe and unrelenting lower spinal pain, spinal pain worsened by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain that prevents sleep. Immediate discussion with the local MSCC coordinator is necessary if a patient with known cancer experiences neurological symptoms such as radicular pain, limb weakness, difficulty walking, sensory loss, or bladder or bowel dysfunction, or neurological signs of spinal cord or cauda equina compression.

      It is important to note that MSCC can be the initial presentation of cancer, so it should be considered as a differential diagnosis when seeing all patients, even if there is no previous history of cancer.

      Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency

      Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 47 - Which of the following is not a recognized feature of temporal arteritis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognized feature of temporal arteritis in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis doesn’t cause an increase in creatine kinase levels.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 48 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife notes that he has a constant tan and lacks energy. He also reports experiencing hand pains. What investigation is most likely to uncover the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation level higher than ferritin is used. For family members, HFE genetic testing is recommended. It is important to note that while the patient in question is experiencing symptoms associated with haemochromatosis, diabetes mellitus alone would not typically result in decreased libido.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 49 - An 80-year-old woman presents for medical review. She has a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents for medical review. She has a medical history of hypertension, angina, and osteoarthritis. Her current medications include aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 5 mg OD, bisoprolol 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg OD, paracetamol 1g QDS, and topical ketoprofen gel PRN. She reports that despite using paracetamol and topical NSAID, she still experiences pain in her hands and knees due to osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral paracetamol and codeine combination (for example, co-codamol)

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Osteoarthritis

      Here we have a patient with knee and hand osteoarthritis who is currently taking oral paracetamol and a topical anti-inflammatory but still experiences symptoms. The next step in treatment options would be an oral NSAID, COX-2 inhibitor, or opioid analgesic. However, since the patient has a cardiac history and is already taking aspirin, an opioid analgesic would be the safest option. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of NSAID use, particularly their potential gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity.

      To add an opioid analgesic, oral codeine can be prescribed and combined with paracetamol in a co-codamol. It is recommended to initiate patients on separate products, starting at a low dose and titrating as needed. This allows for determining what works best for the patient and avoiding unnecessary medication with increased side-effect risk. Dose reduction of paracetamol is also gaining momentum in patients aged 70 or over, which should be considered when using co-products.

      In summary, the pharmacological management of osteoarthritis should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s medical history and potential risks and benefits of different treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an overwhelming feeling of dread about her upcoming job interview. She becomes very anxious in situations where she is required to talk to people who are not very well known to her and usually tries to avoid such events. She is happily married and was very happy in her current job until she was made redundant.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Brief Overview

      Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that can cause significant distress and impairment in daily life. Here are some key differences between the most common anxiety disorders:

      Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by fear, worry, or embarrassment in social situations, leading to avoidance. Panic attacks are common, and symptoms are limited to social situations.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry that is disproportionate to the situation. Physical and psychological symptoms may be present, but the worry is not limited to specific triggers.

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: This disorder is characterized by intrusive thoughts or images (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) that are performed to alleviate anxiety. These symptoms are not present in the scenario described.

      Panic Disorder: This disorder is characterized by sudden-onset acute anxiety symptoms, such as palpitations or hyperventilation. Panic attacks may occur without a specific trigger, but can also be triggered by specific situations.

      Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: This disorder develops after exposure to a traumatic event and is characterized by hyperarousal, dissociation, flashbacks, and nightmares. There is no history of trauma in the scenario described, ruling out PTSD as a diagnosis.

      Understanding the differences between these anxiety disorders can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/4) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/2) 50%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
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