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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy. The test confirmed a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. After completing the H. pylori eradication regimen of lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for seven days, she returned to her GP with ongoing epigastric pain. What is the most appropriate way to determine the successful eradication of H. pylori?
Your Answer: [13C] urea breath test
Explanation:Non-Invasive Tests for Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection
After completing eradication therapy for H. pylori infection, routine retesting is not recommended unless there are persistent symptoms. In such cases, the [13C] urea breath test is a sensitive and non-invasive option for detecting the presence of H. pylori bacteria. This test involves administering a drink containing urea labelled with an uncommon isotope and detecting the presence of isotope-labelled carbon dioxide in exhaled breath after 30 minutes. Faecal antigen testing can also be used as a second-line option if the urea breath test is not available. Blood serology testing is not recommended as it remains positive for several months after successful eradication. Endoscopy and histology or CLO test are invasive and costly options that are not justified when accurate non-invasive tests are available. Testing should occur at least four weeks after stopping antibiotics and two weeks after stopping proton pump inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral artery disease is prescribed ramipril for newly diagnosed stage 2 hypertension. After 10 days, his repeat U&Es show a decline in renal function. What is the probable cause of this deterioration?
Before starting ramipril, his U&Es were within normal limits, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 3.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine level of 78 µmol/L (55 - 120). However, ten days later, his U&Es showed an increase in urea level to 8.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) and creatinine level to 128 µmol/L (55 - 120), while his sodium and potassium levels remained stable and his bicarbonate level increased to 26 mmol/L (22 - 29).Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Explanation:If a patient with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis starts taking an ACE inhibitor, they may experience significant renal impairment. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of bilateral renal artery stenosis in patients with risk factors for atherosclerotic vascular disease, especially if they develop hypertension later in life and experience a sudden drop in renal function after starting an ACE inhibitor. This acute decline in renal function is not consistent with chronic kidney conditions like diabetic or hypertensive nephropathy. Glomerulonephritis or pre-renal acute kidney injury from dehydration are unlikely based on the information provided.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.
Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).
One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.
Repeat investigations show:
Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.
What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.
ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.
It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male comes to his GP upon the request of his family. Upon consultation, he discloses that he thinks everyone can hear his thoughts, as if he is a broadcasting station, and that he hears voices making comments about his actions. The GP observes that he has a blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Additionally, the patient repeats the final word of any inquiry directed towards him.
What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echolalia
Explanation:Understanding Thought Disorders
Thought disorders are a group of symptoms that affect a person’s ability to communicate and organize their thoughts. These disorders can be seen in various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Here are some common types of thought disorders:
Circumstantiality is when a person provides excessive and unnecessary details when answering a question. However, they eventually return to the original point.
Tangentiality is when a person wanders off-topic and doesn’t return to the original point.
Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two words.
Clang associations are when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes.
Word salad is when a person speaks incoherently, stringing together real words into nonsensical sentences.
Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, where there are unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another.
Flight of ideas is a thought disorder seen in mania, where there are leaps from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them.
Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic.
Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
Understanding these thought disorders can help individuals recognize when they or someone they know may be experiencing symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 28-year-old homeless woman who frequently uses opioids. She wants to quit and asks her doctor to prescribe methadone to manage her withdrawal symptoms. How can Samantha's physician effectively screen for opioid misuse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine
Explanation:Methadone is a synthetic opioid analgesic that acts as a full opioid agonist and has a long-acting effect. It is commonly used as a support agent in detoxification for opioid dependence. Methadone reaches its peak clinical effect two to six hours after oral administration and has a half-life of approximately 15 hours. It takes around five days for methadone plasma levels to stabilize, and after that, variations in blood levels are minimal. Methadone is metabolized through the liver via the P450 enzymes.
To avoid adverse effects, methadone should be prescribed at a low dose and gradually increased. The standard concentration is 1 mg/ml oral solution, and it is typically taken once daily. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, depending on the amount and method of opioid use.
Before prescribing methadone, the GP must confirm opioid misuse, which can be detected through urine testing. Heroin, codeine, dihydrocodeine, and morphine can be detected in urine up to 48 hours after use, while methadone can be detected up to a week after use. Urine testing is also used during methadone treatment to confirm compliance and detect continuing heroin misuse. Mouth swabs have a shorter detection window than urine, while hair testing provides an average of opioid use over each month and is less specific than urine tests. Blood tests are invasive and not used to detect opioid use, and clinical examination is often unreliable.
Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.
Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient, who is being treated for TB and is sputum smear negative, complains of severe pain in her big toe.
On examination the toe is swollen and red and you suspect she has gout.
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyrazinamide
Explanation:Understanding Pyrazinamide Side Effects during TB Treatment
Treatment for tuberculosis (TB) is typically initiated in specialist clinics, but patients may present in primary care if they experience adverse reactions, interactions, or side effects. As a healthcare provider, it is important to have an understanding of common side effects and potential problems during treatment. Pyrazinamide, a medication commonly used in TB treatment, can cause hyperuricaemia and attacks of gout. Additionally, patients may experience hepatitis and rashes as side effects of pyrazinamide. Being aware of these potential side effects can help healthcare providers monitor and manage patients’ treatment effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which patient is NOT appropriate for urgent referral for suspected brain tumour from the given list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 17-year-old girl complaining of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea and headache
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Neurological Symptoms
When a patient presents with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider a range of possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient with migraine, the symptoms may include headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. However, if the symptoms are more severe or progressive, other conditions may need to be considered.
One possible diagnosis is a brain tumour, which can cause symptoms of a space-occupying lesion and raised intracranial pressure. Another potential concern is central nervous system cancer, which should be assessed with an MRI or CT scan within two weeks of onset.
Elderly patients with a first seizure may have underlying factors such as cerebrovascular disease, dementia, or tumours. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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How should folic acid be prescribed for elderly patients taking methotrexate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once weekly at least 24 hours after methotrexate dose
Explanation:According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, methotrexate is typically prescribed once a week and is often accompanied by a co-prescription of folic acid. This is done to minimize the risk of adverse effects and toxicity. Folic acid is taken on a day when methotrexate is not being taken. The British National Formulary recommends a weekly dose of 5mg for adults to prevent methotrexate-induced side effects in rheumatic disease. It is important to take the folic acid dose on a different day than the methotrexate dose.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his elbows. He has no other medical issues except for occasional migraines, which he has been treating with atenolol. Upon examination, the lesions appear as distinct, elevated, scaly plaques. What is the most suitable initial treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dovobet®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis
Chronic plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that can be exacerbated by beta-blockers. Therefore, it is important to discontinue the use of beta-blockers and explore alternative prophylactic drugs for migraine in patients with psoriasis. In addition, regular use of emollients is recommended.
For active therapy, potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, dithranol, and tar preparations are all acceptable first-line options. However, corticosteroids and topical vitamin D analogues are typically preferred due to their ease of application and cosmetic acceptability. A Cochrane review found that combining a potent corticosteroid with a vitamin D analogue was the most effective treatment, with a lower incidence of local adverse events. Dovobet®, which combines betamethasone 0.1% with calcipotriol, is one such option. Calcipotriol used alone is also an acceptable alternative treatment.
For psoriasis of the face, flexures, and genitalia, calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are second-line options after moderately potent corticosteroids.
Managing Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Treatment Options and Considerations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started one week ago. On examination, her vagina is erythematous. She also has dysuria and dyspareunia.
What is the most suitable diagnostic method in General Practice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Culture of a vaginal swab
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Trichomoniasis in Women
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. In women, it can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and pain during sex. To diagnose trichomoniasis, several diagnostic methods are available.
Culture of a vaginal swab is the standard for diagnosis. It is more sensitive and specific than microscopy. Swab specimens may be obtained by the patient, making it useful in resource-poor settings. The GP may also consider testing for other sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
Cervical smear has a low sensitivity for detecting Trichomonas and is not used for this purpose. The ‘whiff test’ (amine odour test) and vaginal pH test are not accurate means of diagnosing trichomoniasis as they may also indicate bacterial vaginosis.
Wet-mount microscopy has historically been used to diagnose trichomoniasis in women. However, it has a low sensitivity in detecting T vaginalis and specimens have to be examined fresh.
In conclusion, culture of a vaginal swab is the most reliable method for diagnosing trichomoniasis in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice on contraception. She is experiencing heavier and more painful periods, despite them still being regular. She has expressed interest in learning more about the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS).
What is the accurate statement regarding the LNG-IUS and this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The LNG-IUS can be used for contraception until the age of 55 if inserted at age 45 or over
Explanation:The Mirena®, Levosert®, and Jaydess® are three types of LNG-IUS available in the UK for women. The Mirena® coil can be used for contraception, heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB), and endometrial protection during estrogen-only hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for up to 5 years. Levosert® is licensed for contraception and HMB for 3 years, while Jaydess® is licensed for contraception only for 3 years. However, the faculty of sexual and reproductive health recommends that women aged 45 or over can use Mirena® for contraception until the age of 55, as long as it is not being used for endometrial protection during HRT. Therefore, for a 45-year-old patient, the correct answer is 1.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching. She has a past medical history of eczema and uses emollients regularly, but to no avail. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. During the physical examination, there are signs of excoriation on her hands, but no apparent visible dermatitis. What is the most crucial test to request?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver function tests
Explanation:Pruritus is a common occurrence during pregnancy, affecting up to 25% of women. It can be caused by various factors such as eczema, polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, or changes in circulation due to skin stretching. However, if pruritus is present without a rash, it may indicate obstetric cholestasis, a serious condition that can lead to complications like prematurity, meconium passage, postpartum hemorrhage, and even stillbirth. Therefore, liver function tests and bile acid tests are crucial in diagnosing this condition. Additionally, pruritus can also be a symptom of iron deficiency anemia, so a full blood count should also be considered.
Jaundice During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.
Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with a 7-day history of fever, sore throat and muscle aches. On examination, he is visibly jaundiced, his blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 80/min, respiratory rate 13/min, HS I + II + 0, breath sounds are vesicular and abdomen is soft but tender in the right upper quadrant with hepatomegaly. The GP orders blood tests which show:
Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 220 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 11.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 50 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 80 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 100 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 500 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 150 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 45 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by the patient suggest acute hepatitis, with fever and jaundice being prominent. Autoimmune hepatitis is typically observed in young females, making it less likely in this male patient. Hence, hepatitis A is a more probable diagnosis, given his presentation of myalgia, sore throat, fever, and jaundice.
Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.
While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).
It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling sensations in his left thumb and first finger. He reports difficulty in gripping objects and unintentionally dropping them. Upon examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in the thenar eminence. What clinical sign would indicate a diagnosis other than carpal tunnel syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive Hoffmans sign
Explanation:Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is often misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) in patients who undergo surgery for the former. This highlights the importance of considering DCM as a differential diagnosis in patients suspected to have CTS.
CTS is a peripheral nervous system disorder that results from compression of the median nerve at the wrist within the carpal tunnel. It affects only the aspects of the hand innervated by the median nerve, including sensation and motor function. Symptoms typically include intermittent pain or parasthesiae, and motor signs are less commonly seen.
Tests such as Tinels and Phalens can be positive in CTS, but they are not always reliable. In contrast, examination features in focal central nervous system disorders like DCM have low sensitivity but high specificity. DCM affects the sensory, motor, and autonomic nervous systems from the neck downwards, and motor signs are typically upper motor neuron signs such as increased tone, hyper-reflexia, and pyramidal weakness.
Detecting early DCM can be challenging, as the neurological signs are often subtle initially but likely to worsen over time. Therefore, a high index of suspicion, comprehensive neurological examination, and monitoring for progression are required.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old patient comes to you complaining of intense pain in their right shoulder. After an X-ray examination, it is discovered that they have a pathological fracture in their proximal humerus. Which primary solid tumor cancer groups are most prone to metastasizing to bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast, lung, thyroid, colorectal, cervix
Explanation:Causes of Pathological Fractures in the Elderly
Pathological fractures are fractures that occur due to weakened bones caused by underlying medical conditions. While any type of bone tumour can cause pathological fractures, the majority of cases in the elderly are due to metastatic carcinomas. This is because as people age, their risk of developing cancer increases. Multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow, is also common in the elderly and has a high incidence of pathological fractures. Lymphoma, although uncommon, can also cause pathological fractures.
It is important to keep this information in mind when evaluating elderly patients who present with musculoskeletal problems such as shoulder or back pain. A thorough medical history and physical examination can help identify the underlying cause of the fracture and guide appropriate treatment. By understanding the common causes of pathological fractures in the elderly, healthcare providers can provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for 2 years. She is not on any regular medications and has normal secondary sexual characteristics. Breast examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate investigation to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Understanding Hyperprolactinaemia: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the blood. This is most commonly caused by a microadenoma, or a small tumor, in the pituitary gland. Symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia include irregular periods, decreased libido, infertility, and breast milk production in non-pregnant individuals. Mildly elevated prolactin levels should be retested before referral, while levels above 5000 mU/L are diagnostic. Prolactin inhibits gonadotrophin-releasing hormone, which can lead to reduced levels of FSH and LH, as well as lower estrogen levels. Skull X-rays may show an enlarged pituitary fossa in large adenomas, but MRI is preferred for further imaging.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.
Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.
It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes in for a health check as he is concerned about his risk of heart disease. What characteristic would most indicate a possible diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: His total cholesterol concentration is 7.9 mmol/l
Explanation:Understanding Familial Hypercholesterolemia and Family History
Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of premature coronary heart disease. Here are some key points to consider when assessing a patient’s risk for FH based on their family history:
– Raised total cholesterol concentration: A total cholesterol concentration of over 7.5 mmol/l in an adult should raise suspicion of FH, especially if there is a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease in a first-degree relative. Physical signs such as tendon xanthomas may also be present.
– First-degree relatives with premature coronary heart disease: If a patient’s parent, sibling, or child has had coronary heart disease before the age of 60, this should also raise suspicion of FH.
– Triglyceride concentration: While normal fasting triglyceride levels should be below 1.7 mmol/l, levels may be relatively normal in FH.
– Screening of other first-degree relatives: If a patient’s uncle or other non-first-degree relative has had coronary heart disease, it may not be cause for concern on its own. However, the patient’s own first-degree relatives should be screened for FH.
– Vague family history: A vague history of heart trouble in cousins is not specific enough to assess the risk of FH.It is important to identify patients with FH early on so that they can receive appropriate treatment and management to reduce their risk of coronary heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 45-year-old woman with a 20-year history of Crohn's disease. She has been experiencing frequent flares and is currently troubled by loose, bloody stools, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Perianal symptoms are particularly bothersome, with severe pain during bowel movements due to nasty anal fissures. Additionally, she has multiple aphthous ulcers in her mouth, making eating and drinking painful. She is a smoker and has a past medical history of osteoporosis and psoriasis.
What is a correct statement regarding Crohn's disease in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with perianal disease have a worse prognosis
Explanation:Psoriasis is an extraintestinal manifestation that is not associated with the activity of the disease.
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.
Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on routine screening. His red cells have low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Serum ferritin is normal. He has no symptoms.
What is the most appropriate next management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Haemoglobin Electrophoresis: Diagnosis of Thalassaemia Minor
Thalassaemia is an autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that affects globin chain production, resulting in decreased or absent α or β chains of the normal adult haemoglobin molecule. Homozygous states result in thalassaemia major, which can be fatal. Inheritance of only one affected gene results in a carrier state, called thalassaemia minor or a thalassaemia trait.
A patient’s ethnic origin and blood picture can help diagnose thalassaemia minor, which is characterized by mild or absent anaemia, hypochromic and microcytic red cells with low MCV and MCH, and normal serum ferritin. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is a useful diagnostic tool that reveals haemoglobin types and their amounts. In people with β-thalassemia, there is reduced or absent production of β-globin chains, resulting in reduced or absent HbA, elevated levels of HbA2, and increased HbF (fetal haemoglobin).
Other diagnostic tests, such as a barium enema, iron therapy, labelled red-cell scan, and upper and/or lower gastrointestinal endoscopy, are not indicated for thalassaemia minor unless there are coexisting conditions. Haemoglobin electrophoresis remains the gold standard for diagnosing thalassaemia minor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on their legs. The infant is healthy and has received all recommended vaccinations. The caregiver is unsure how the bruising occurred and is worried about a possible bleeding disorder.
What would be the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient for same day paediatric assessment and discuss with the paediatric consultant on-call
Explanation:Any bruising observed in a non-mobile infant should be immediately referred for paediatric assessment on the same day. The urgency of the situation is the main concern.
Delaying the assessment until later in the week, waiting for blood test results, or consulting with the safeguarding lead is not appropriate. It is also not necessary to contact emergency services at this point, unless the parents refuse to take the child for assessment.
The appropriate action is to refer the infant for same-day paediatric assessment and inform the on-call consultant. If the child doesn’t attend the hospital on the same day, the paediatric team should escalate the situation.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.
Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.
He was recently diagnosed when he was admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. Echocardiography has revealed impaired left ventricular function. He also has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
His current medications are: aspirin 75 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, metformin 850 mg TDS, ramipril 10 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily.
He tells you that the ramipril was initiated when the diagnosis of heart failure was made and has been titrated up to 10 mg daily over the recent weeks. His symptoms are currently stable.
Clinical examination reveals no peripheral oedema, his chest sounds clear and clinically he is in sinus rhythm at 76 beats per minute. His BP is 126/80 mHg.
Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to add to his therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for Heart Failure Patients
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The ACE inhibitors should be considered first, followed by beta blockers once the patient’s condition is stable, unless contraindicated. However, the updated NICE guidance suggests using clinical judgment to decide which drug to start first. Combination treatment with an ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for these patients. Beta blockers have been shown to improve survival in heart failure patients, and three drugs are licensed for this use in the UK. Patients who are newly diagnosed with impaired left ventricular systolic function and are already taking a beta blocker should be considered for a switch to one shown to be beneficial in heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.
Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg daily. She initially sought help due to a recent break-up and stress at work caused by a difficult colleague. This is her first experience with depression and she has been taking medication for three months. She has a supportive family, including her parents and sister who live nearby.
At her last appointment one month ago, she reported still feeling sad when alone with her thoughts and not fully recovered. However, at her most recent appointment, she reported feeling like her usual self again. She has resolved the work issues with her colleague and is enjoying her social life with friends. She has also started practicing yoga and is interested in tapering off her medication.
Based on her current progress, when is the earliest appropriate time for her to consider tapering off her medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He can tail off in six months
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment
This patient, a relatively young individual who has experienced a first episode of depression, has successfully recovered without any lingering issues that would indicate a high risk of recurrence. It is recommended that he continue taking his antidepressants for at least six more months. While there are situations where treatment may need to be extended, such as for older adults or those at a high risk of relapse, this patient is eager to reduce his medication. Therefore, six months is the earliest opportunity for reducing the dose.
It is common for patients to want to stop taking their medication once they feel better. However, it is important to remind them that depression can be a recurrent condition. Continuing treatment for the recommended period can help prevent relapse and will not result in addiction to the medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney
Explanation:Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion
Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.
Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has a history of alcohol dependence disorder for several years. He is currently experiencing confusion, double vision, and an unsteady gait. Additionally, his short term memory is poor. He reports abstaining from alcohol for the past week. What is the urgent vitamin requirement for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:Urgent Treatment Needed for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Explanation: The most probable diagnosis for the patient is Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. The patient requires immediate treatment with vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent further damage to the brain. It is crucial to administer thiamine as soon as possible to avoid irreversible brain damage and potential death. Therefore, urgent medical attention is necessary to ensure the patient’s recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is admitted for haematemesis after consuming 100 units of alcohol per week. What is the time frame for the highest occurrence of seizures during alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 36 hours
Explanation:Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 6-12 hours, including seizures.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man presents with ongoing angina attacks despite being on atenolol 100 mg od for his known ischaemic heart disease. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal with a pulse of 72 bpm and a blood pressure of 158/96 mmHg. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add nifedipine MR 30 mg od
Explanation:When beta-blocker monotherapy is insufficient in controlling angina, NICE guidelines suggest incorporating a calcium channel blocker. However, verapamil is not recommended while taking a beta-blocker, and diltiazem should be used with caution due to the possibility of bradycardia. The initial dosage for isosorbide mononitrate is twice daily at 10 mg.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses worry about her likelihood of developing cancer since her father had a history of bladder cancer.
What is the most significant factor that increases a person's chances of developing bladder cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Bladder Cancer Risk Factors
Understanding the risk factors associated with bladder cancer is crucial for early detection and prevention. While family history may be a concern for some, lifestyle and environmental factors play a more significant role in the majority of cases. Smoking, for instance, is responsible for 37% of bladder cancers, with smokers being 3.8 times more likely to develop the disease than non-smokers. A family history of bladder cancer in a first-degree relative increases the risk by 1.8 times, while HPV infection is associated with a 2.8 times higher risk. Obesity, with a body mass index of 30 or more, can cause a 9% higher risk of developing bladder cancer than in someone of healthy weight. However, alcohol consumption has not been shown to be a risk factor. Additionally, occupational and environmental factors can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. For more information on these factors, Cancer Research UK provides a useful resource on bladder cancer risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the correct definition of advanced decisions according to the Mental Capacity Act (2005)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decisions about life-sustaining treatment must be in writing
Explanation:Understanding Advance Decisions under the Mental Capacity Act
The Mental Capacity Act provides individuals with the right to make advance decisions, which replace advanced directives. These decisions allow a person to refuse certain medical treatments in specific circumstances, even if it may result in their death. However, to make an advance decision, the person must be 18 years or older (16 years in Scotland) and have mental capacity.
While any treatment can be refused, measures needed for comfort, such as warmth, shelter, and offering food or water by mouth, cannot be refused. A person may express a wish for particular treatments in advance, but these do not have to be followed. An advance decision has the same weight as decisions made by a person with capacity at the present time and must be followed, so the concept of patient’s best interests doesn’t apply.
Advance decisions about life-sustaining treatment must be in writing, signed, and witnessed, and include a statement that the decision applies even if life is at risk. Other decisions may be verbal but should be recorded in medical records. An advance decision becomes invalid if it is withdrawn or amended when capacity is still present or changed by someone with ‘lasting powers of attorney.’
An advance decision takes precedence over decisions made in a patient’s best interest by other people. In making a best interest decision, the Mental Capacity Act requires doctors to try to find out the individual’s views, including their past and present wishes and feelings, as well as any beliefs or values.
Ignoring an advance decision can result in claims for criminal charges of assault. In Scotland, advance directives are not legally enforceable under the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000, but the Act states that the wishes of the adult should be taken into consideration when acting or making a decision on their behalf.
Understanding Advance Decisions and the Mental Capacity Act
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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