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  • Question 1 - A 9-month-old baby has become unresponsive in the waiting area of the pediatrician's...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old baby has become unresponsive in the waiting area of the pediatrician's office for an unknown cause. Basic life support for infants is started, and chest compressions are administered. What is the appropriate technique for performing chest compressions in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Two-thumb encircling technique

      Explanation:

      For infants aged younger than one, the recommended technique for chest compression during paediatric BLS is the two-thumb encircling technique. Using one hand to compress the lower half of the sternum or two hands to compress the upper half of the sternum are incorrect methods. Additionally, using two hands to compress the lower half of the sternum or the one-thumb encircling technique are not recognised techniques for providing chest compressions in any circumstance.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.7
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  • Question 2 - In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation,...

    Incorrect

    • In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation, various immunosuppressant drugs are used. Despite their effectiveness, these drugs have unwanted side effects that increase the risk of infection and malignancy. However, specific side effects are associated with each drug due to their unique mechanism of action. What is the immunosuppressant drug that is commonly linked to hirsutism and gingival hypertrophy in patients? Also, is there any age group that is more susceptible to these side effects?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Ciclosporin

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin’s Side Effects and Decreased Popularity as a Transplantation Maintenance Therapy

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is commonly linked to gingival hypertrophy and hirsutism. These side effects can be unpleasant for patients and may lead to decreased compliance with the medication regimen. Additionally, ciclosporin is not as effective as tacrolimus at inhibiting calcineurin, which is a key factor in preventing transplant rejection. As a result, ciclosporin is becoming less popular as a maintenance therapy for transplantation. Physicians are increasingly turning to other medications that have fewer side effects and are more effective at preventing rejection. While ciclosporin may still be used in some cases, it is no longer considered the first-line treatment for transplantation maintenance therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      44.1
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a hot swollen joint....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a hot swollen joint. The physician suspects septic arthritis and decides to perform synovial fluid analysis. Can you name another type of synovial joint?

      Your Answer: Inferior tibiofibular joint

      Correct Answer: Atlantoaxial joint

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Joints in the Human Body

      Joints are the points where two or more bones meet and allow movement. There are different types of joints in the human body, each with its own unique characteristics.

      Synovial Joints: These are the most mobile joints in the body and have a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid. Examples include the Atlantoaxial joint, knee, hip, shoulder, elbow, some carpals, and the first metacarpal. Inflammation or infection of the synovial fluid can cause pain, stiffness, and limited movement.

      Fibrous Joints: These joints are immovable and are held together by fibrous tissue. The skull vault sutures are an example of this type of joint, which fuse by around the age of 20 years.

      Syndesmosis: This is a type of fibrous joint where two bones are linked by ligaments and a membrane. The inferior tibiofibular joint is an example of a syndesmosis.

      Cartilaginous Joints: These joints are held together by cartilage. The joint between the first rib and the sternum is an example of a synchondrosis, which is composed of hyaline cartilage. The pubic symphysis is an example of a secondary cartilaginous joint, made of hyaline cartilage and fibrocartilage connecting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones at the midline.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of joints in the human body is important for diagnosing and treating joint-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      29.1
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner on the advice of the Community...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner on the advice of the Community Psychiatric Nurse. He has been experiencing a fever and sore throat lately. He is currently on clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
      What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct, considering his recent symptoms?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      When treating patients with clozapine, it is important to monitor for agranulocytosis, a rare but potentially fatal side-effect. Patients should report flu-like symptoms and undergo regular blood tests. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever may indicate agranulocytosis, so a full blood count is necessary. While an ECG should be done before starting antipsychotic treatment, it is not the most important test in this scenario. Blood glucose should be monitored to exclude organic causes and hyperglycemia caused by antipsychotics. Liver function and urea/electrolytes should also be monitored regularly, but are not the most important tests to conduct immediately in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.4
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He looks pale and is very sweaty. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 80/55 mmHg, pulse of 135 bpm, SpO2 of 93% and bibasal wet crackles in the chest, as well as peripheral oedema. Peripheral pulses are palpable. A previous median sternotomy is noted. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals regular tachycardia, with QRS complexes of uniform amplitude, a QRS width of 164 ms and a rate of 135 bpm.
      What is the most important step in management?

      Your Answer: IV furosemide and oxygen

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Management of Ventricular Tachycardia in a Patient with Ischaemic Heart Disease

      When faced with a patient with a broad-complex tachycardia, it is important to consider ventricular tachycardia as the most common cause, particularly in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease. In a haemodynamically unstable patient with regular ventricular tachycardia, the initial step is to evaluate for adverse signs or symptoms. If present, the patient should be sedated and synchronised DC shock should be administered, followed by amiodarone infusion and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. If there are no adverse signs or symptoms, amiodarone IV and correction of electrolyte abnormalities should begin immediately.

      Other management options, such as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), IV magnesium, aspirin and clopidogrel, IV furosemide, and oxygen, may be indicated depending on the underlying cause of the ventricular tachycardia, but DC cardioversion is the most important step in a haemodynamically unstable patient. Diuretics are not indicated in a hypotensive patient, and improving cardiac function is the key to clearing fluid from the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      60.6
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  • Question 6 - You are evaluating a 70-year-old man with a history of two previous TIAs...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 70-year-old man with a history of two previous TIAs and an inferior myocardial infarction. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 40 cigarettes per day. You suspect the presence of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and are curious about the typical characteristics of a large AAA that has not yet ruptured.

      Your Answer: Distal lower limb emboli and chronic ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a dilation or widening of the arterial wall, usually resulting from a weakness. Most AAAs are infrarenal and fusiform, with saccular aneurysms involving a localized out-pocketing. They are often asymptomatic but can cause severe pain and have a high mortality rate if ruptured. Ischemia-related erectile dysfunction is not typically associated with expanding AAA, and progressive renal failure is more likely due to renovascular disease or hypertensive nephropathy. Back pain and weight loss are not features of AAA, and a stable AAA should not cause mesenteric ischemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.6
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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old woman comes to the Neurology Clinic with complaints of painful unilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to the Neurology Clinic with complaints of painful unilateral visual disturbance, ataxia, and sensory deficit. She is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) after undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and is started on steroid treatment, followed by disease-modifying therapy. Her disease is stable after six months, and she can manage her daily activities without significant problems. She used to drive a car but has not done so since her diagnosis. She is now curious about her driving situation.

      What are the most appropriate steps to take regarding her driving circumstances?

      Your Answer: She must inform the DVLA and cannot drive for six months since her most recent relapse

      Correct Answer: She must inform the DVLA and may continue to drive

      Explanation:

      Driving with Multiple Sclerosis: Informing the DVLA

      Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a chronic neurological disorder that may affect vehicle control due to impaired coordination and muscle strength. It is essential to inform the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) upon diagnosis. The official guidance states that patients with MS may continue to drive as long as safe vehicle control is maintained. However, it is necessary to update the DVLA if circumstances change. There is no arbitrary timeframe for inability to drive, and it is assessed individually based on the state of the patient’s chronic disease. It is not appropriate to base this on relapses as patients may relapse at different time periods and tend not to return to baseline function in relapsing-remitting MS. Failure to inform the DVLA can result in legal consequences. Therefore, it is crucial to inform the DVLA and follow their guidelines to ensure safe driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.8
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old man is brought in by ambulance to the Emergency Department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought in by ambulance to the Emergency Department after a night out. His friend said he had taken some unknown substance in a club. On examination, patient looks dry. He has a GCS 13/15 and pupils are dilated and divergent. He also had a palpable bladder on abdominal examination:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Heart rate (HR) 112 bpm 60–100 beats/min
      Blood pressure (BP) 120/70 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      Respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 96% on air 94–98%
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) was done which showed sinus tachycardia with a prolonged QTc of 580 ms.
      What Is the mostly likely drug he has taken to cause this presentation?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Common Overdose Symptoms of Different Drugs

      Tricyclic antidepressant overdose, such as with Amitriptyline, can cause anticholinergic effects like dilated pupils, dry skin, confusion, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It also leads to QTc interval prolongation and wide QRS complexes, which may result in ventricular arrhythmias. Cocaine overdose can cause sympathetic effects like agitation, restlessness, tachycardia, and hypertension. Sertraline overdose can cause serotonin syndrome, which presents with hyper-reflexia, muscle rigidity, and tremor. Opioids overdose, like with Morphine, can cause respiratory depression and reduced consciousness. Diazepam overdose can cause sedative effects, leading to a reduction in GCS and respiratory depression, but generally does not affect heart rate or ECG changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husband’s past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating ‘they told me my organs are all reversed’. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer: Failure of the testicles to descend into the scrotum

      Correct Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man

      Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      63.7
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man comes to you seeking help as he feels like he...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man comes to you seeking help as he feels like he is not himself lately. He has been struggling since his divorce 8 months ago. For the past 5 weeks, he has been experiencing low moods for most of the day, particularly in the mornings when he wakes up early. He has lost interest in his usual hobbies, including going to the gym. He has not been to any of his regular workout classes. He has had thoughts of taking a bottle of pills to end it all, but he knows he won't do it because he has a supportive family. He has no significant medical or psychiatric history.

      Which of the following treatments would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression: Choosing the Right Antidepressant

      Depression is a serious mental health condition that requires a comprehensive treatment plan. Antidepressants are often prescribed as part of this plan, along with high-intensity psychological interventions like cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). However, not all antidepressants are created equal. Here are some of the most commonly used antidepressants and their indications:

      Fluoxetine: This selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) is the most suitable first-line treatment for depression due to its efficacy, patient acceptability, and lower toxicity in overdose.

      Imipramine: This tricyclic antidepressant is not usually used as a first-line treatment for depression but has a role in nocturnal enuresis.

      Lithium: While lithium has antidepressant properties, it is not a first-line treatment for unipolar depression due to its side-effects and the need for blood monitoring. It is commonly used in the treatment of bipolar affective disorder.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT): ECT is reserved for more severe depression where there is an immediate risk to life or where other treatments have been ineffective.

      Phenelzine: This monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) is not commonly used as a first-line treatment for depression but is helpful in treatment-resistant depression.

      It’s important to work closely with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for your individual needs. Antidepressants may take several weeks to take effect, and patients should be aware of potential side-effects and the importance of adhering to their medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient is brought into resus following a seizure, she has a nasopharyngeal...

    Correct

    • A patient is brought into resus following a seizure, she has a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) in situ. A nasopharyngeal airway would be contraindicated in?

      Your Answer: Base of skull fractures

      Explanation:

      Nasopharyngeal Airway for Maintaining Airway Patency

      Nasopharyngeal airways are medical devices used to maintain a patent airway in patients with decreased Glasgow coma score (GCS). These airways are inserted into the nostril after being lubricated, and they come in various sizes. They are particularly useful for patients who are having seizures, as an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) may not be suitable for insertion.

      Nasopharyngeal airways are generally well-tolerated by patients with low GCS. However, they should be used with caution in patients with base of skull fractures, as they may cause further damage. It is important to note that these airways should only be inserted by trained medical professionals to avoid any complications. Overall, nasopharyngeal airways are an effective tool for maintaining airway patency in patients with decreased GCS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic for evaluation. His GP is worried about his recent blood test results, which showed a potassium level of 6.2 mmol/l and a creatinine level of 130 µmol/l. Based on these findings, you suspect that he may have type 4 renal tubular acidosis.
      Can you identify the medication that is most commonly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.

      Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.

      Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.

      Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife passed away suddenly 5 months ago. He appears sad and spends most of the appointment looking down, but answers your questions. He expresses concern that he may be losing his mind because he has started seeing his wife sitting in her old chair and sometimes talks to her when he is alone. He confirms that he can hear her voice responding to him. He says he mostly talks to her while cooking in the kitchen or when he is alone at night. Despite these experiences, he knows that what he sees and hears is not real. He reports occasional memory loss and some abdominal pain due to his irritable bowel syndrome, but is otherwise healthy. He has no history of psychiatric conditions in himself or his family. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abnormal grief reaction

      Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations may be a normal part of the grieving process, and differ from true hallucinations in that the individual is aware that what they are experiencing is not real. While pseudohallucinations can be distressing, they are not considered pathological unless accompanied by urinary symptoms, which would require further investigation. The patient in question displays low mood and avoids eye contact, but responds well to questioning and is able to prepare food independently. While depression with psychotic features can involve true hallucinations, there are no other symptoms to suggest this diagnosis. Lewy-body dementia, which can cause visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian features, and cognitive impairment, is not a likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms. Abnormal grief reactions are typically defined as persisting for at least six months after the loss.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. During the US examination, ascites is detected. Her blood test results are as follows:
      - Hb: 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - WBC: 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Na+: 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+: 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - CRP: 8 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Haematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48; normal range for males: 0.4-0.54)

      What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?

      Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy

      Explanation:

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a possible adverse effect of ovulation induction. The symptoms of this syndrome, such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit, are typical. There are various medications used for ovulation induction, and the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is higher with gonadotropin therapy than with clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. Therefore, it is probable that the patient received gonadotropin therapy.

      Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man presents with jaundice and a 4-month history of progressive weight...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with jaundice and a 4-month history of progressive weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or fever. He reports pale-coloured stool and dark urine.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic carcinoma is characterized by painless jaundice and weight loss, particularly in the head of the pancreas where a growing mass can compress or infiltrate the common bile duct. This can cause pale stools and dark urine, as well as malaise and anorexia. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with sudden right upper quadrant pain and fevers, with tenderness and a positive Murphy’s sign. Chronic pancreatitis often causes weight loss, steatorrhea, and diabetes symptoms, as well as chronic or acute-on-chronic epigastric pain. Gallstone obstruction results in acute colicky RUQ pain, with or without jaundice depending on the location of the stone. Hepatitis A typically presents with a flu-like illness followed by jaundice, fevers, and RUQ pain, with risk factors for acquiring the condition and no pale stools or dark urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      9.4
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman at 16 week gestation presents to the early pregnancy assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman at 16 week gestation presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with complaints of light vaginal bleeding, fevers for 2 days, and increasing abdominal pain for 6 hours. On examination, she has diffuse abdominal tenderness and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 39.2ºC and blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. Her full blood count shows Hb of 107 g/L, platelets of 189 * 109/L, and WBC of 13.2 * 109/L. An ultrasound confirms miscarriage. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Oral methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic

      Explanation:

      If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of haemorrhage, expectant management is not a suitable option for miscarriage. In such cases, NICE recommends either medical management (using oral or vaginal misoprostol) or surgical management (including manual vacuum aspiration). In this particular case, surgical management is the only option as the patient has evidence of infection, possibly due to septic miscarriage. Syntocinon is used for medical management of postpartum haemorrhage, while methotrexate is used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy. Oral mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol for termination of pregnancy, but it is not recommended by NICE for the management of miscarriage.

      Management Options for Miscarriage

      Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.

      Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.

      Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.

      It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.4
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  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with a heart attack. After four days, he experiences another episode of chest pain with non-specific ST-T wave changes on the ECG. Which cardiac enzyme would be the most suitable for determining if this second episode was another heart attack?

      Your Answer: Troponin T

      Correct Answer: CK-MB

      Explanation:

      Evaluating Chest Pain after an MI

      When a patient experiences chest pain within ten days of a previous myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to evaluate the situation carefully. Troponin T levels remain elevated for ten days following an MI, which can make it difficult to determine if a second episode of chest pain is related to the previous event. To make a diagnosis, doctors will need to evaluate the patient’s creatine kinase (CK)-myoglobin (MB) levels. These markers rise over three days and can help form a diagnostic profile that can help determine if the chest pain is related to a new MI or another condition. By carefully evaluating these markers, doctors can provide the best possible care for patients who are experiencing chest pain after an MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.1
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  • Question 18 - A 85-year-old man with chronic myeloid leukaemia develops gout after treatment. His GP...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old man with chronic myeloid leukaemia develops gout after treatment. His GP prescribed allopurinol to prevent the accumulation of uric acid. How does allopurinol achieve this?

      Your Answer: By inhibiting purine breakdown and synthesis

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol Mechanism of Action

      Allopurinol is a purine analogue that inhibits xanthine oxidase, an enzyme responsible for the oxidation of hypoxanthine and xanthine. By blocking this process, the production of uric acid is reduced. Additionally, the accumulation of hypoxanthine and xanthine leads to their conversion into adenosine and guanosine, which inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme of purine biosynthesis, amidophosphoribosyl transferase. As a result, allopurinol reduces both the breakdown and synthesis of purines.

      It is important to note that allopurinol should not be used in combination with Rasburicase, as the two medications have opposing effects. Proper of allopurinol mechanism of action is crucial for its safe and effective use in the treatment of conditions such as gout and hyperuricemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old girl informs you during her appointment that her cousin was recently...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl informs you during her appointment that her cousin was recently diagnosed with Bell's palsy and she has some inquiries about it. Which cranial nerve is primarily impacted by Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve VII

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions in Eye and Facial Movement

      Cranial nerves play a crucial role in eye and facial movement. Cranial nerve VII, also known as the facial nerve, is affected in Bell’s palsy, causing a lower motor neuron VIIth nerve palsy that affects one side of the face. Cranial nerve IV, or the trochlear nerve, supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eye, and injury to this nerve causes vertical diplopia. Cranial nerve III, or the oculomotor nerve, supplies several muscles that control eye movement and the levator palpebrae superioris. Cranial nerve V, or the trigeminal nerve, provides sensation in the face and controls the muscles of mastication. Finally, cranial nerve VI, or the abducens nerve, supplies the lateral rectus muscle and lesions of this nerve cause lateral diplopia. Understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect eye and facial movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old female presents with menorrhagia that has not responded to treatment with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents with menorrhagia that has not responded to treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      She underwent sterilisation two years ago.

      What would be the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Menorrhagia

      Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be a distressing condition for women. Current guidelines recommend the use of Mirena (IUS) as the first line of treatment, even for women who do not require contraception. Patient preference is important in the decision-making process, but IUS is still the preferred option.

      If IUS is not suitable or preferred, there are several other treatment options available. Tranexamic acid, a medication that prevents the breakdown of blood clots, is a second-line option. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and combined oral contraceptive pills can also be used to prevent the proliferation of the endometrium.

      If these options are not effective, oral or injected progestogens can be used to prevent endometrial proliferation. Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists, such as Goserelin, are also available as a last resort.

      It is important for women to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and choose the treatment that is best for them. With the variety of options available, there is likely a treatment that can effectively manage menorrhagia and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department after being diagnosed with migraines...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department after being diagnosed with migraines by his primary care physician. He reports experiencing headaches on the right side of his head that last for approximately 6 hours and are triggered by work-related stress. He frequently experiences nausea during these episodes, which subside when he rests in a quiet environment. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking sertraline. He has no known allergies. During the examination, the physician becomes worried about a medication that the patient has recently started taking for his symptoms.

      Which medication is the physician most likely concerned about in this patient?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Correct Answer: Sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      When treating a patient with an acute migraine, it is important to avoid using triptans if they are also taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline. This is because there is a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can cause symptoms such as agitation, hypertension, muscle twitching, and dilated pupils. Instead, anti-emetics and analgesia should be used to manage the migraine.

      While ibuprofen and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be effective for pain relief, they can also cause gastric irritation. If a patient is taking an SSRI, it is important to give them a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Metoclopramide is a commonly used anti-emetic for managing nausea and vomiting associated with migraines, and there are no contraindications for its use in this patient.

      Paracetamol can be used as part of the analgesic ladder for managing acute migraines in patients without a history of chronic hepatic impairment.

      Prochlorperazine is an alternative option for managing nausea in this patient, and there is no reason why it cannot be used in conjunction with an SSRI.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which statement about hearing aids and cochlear implants is false? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about hearing aids and cochlear implants is false?

      Your Answer: Hearing aids and cochlear implants function in a similar way and are essentially amplifiers of sound

      Explanation:

      Hearing Aids vs Cochlear Implants

      A hearing aid is a device that consists of a microphone, an amplifier, and an earphone. It amplifies incoming sound and delivers it to the outer ear, relying on the normal anatomical and physiological mechanisms of hearing. Recent technology has enabled some manipulation of the input sound, such as filtering out background noise. Hearing aids are helpful for people with mild to moderate hearing loss and, in some cases, moderate to severe loss.

      On the other hand, a cochlear implant is not a powerful hearing aid. It bypasses the mechanisms of the outer and middle ear and artificially recreates sound by providing direct electrical stimulation via electrodes situated in the cochlear. The external component, called a speech processor, detects sound via a microphone, extracts useful sound, and changes it into a radio frequency signal transmitted through the skin. The internal portion detects this signal and decodes it, providing stimulation to the appropriate electrode for a given frequency of sound.

      For people with severe to profound hearing loss, cochlear implants provide not only more sound but also clarity of sound. In contrast, hearing aids often only provide amplified noise and little useful sound for these individuals. Many long-term hearing aid users with progressive hearing loss or sudden worsening of hearing go on to receive a cochlear implant and receive great benefit.

      In summary, while hearing aids and cochlear implants both aim to improve hearing, they differ in their mechanisms and effectiveness for different levels of hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are worried about his walking. Up until four months ago, he was developing normally. However, they have now noticed he has difficulty getting up from the floor or climbing stairs. During the examination, the doctor observes Gowers’ sign and the boy has large, bulky calf muscles. His mother remembers having an uncle who died at a young age but cannot recall the cause of death. What is the probable reason for his walking difficulties?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Muscular Dystrophy and their Characteristics

      Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and wasting. Here are some of the different types of muscular dystrophy and their characteristics:

      1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy: This is an X-linked myopathy that occurs in boys aged 3-5. It can present as delay in motor development or regression of previously obtained motor milestones. Treatment is with steroids and respiratory support. Average life expectancy is around 25 years.

      2. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy: This is the third most common muscular dystrophy and causes proximal upper limb weakness due to dysfunction of the scapula. Patients may also experience facial muscle weakness and progressive lower limb weakness. It typically presents in the third decade.

      3. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy: This is a rare muscular dystrophy characterised by weakness and progressive wasting of the lower leg and arm muscles. It is more common in boys, with typical onset in teenage years.

      4. Myotonic dystrophy: This is the most common inherited muscular dystrophy in adults. It is characterised by delayed muscle relaxation after contraction and muscle weakness. Patients may also experience myotonic facies with facial weakness, ptosis and cardiorespiratory complications.

      5. Polymyositis: This is an inflammatory myopathy in which patients experience proximal muscle weakness. It is more common in women in the fifth decade and is associated with underlying malignancy.

      It is important to identify the type of muscular dystrophy a patient has in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old man with colorectal carcinoma, Dukes stage D, has severe pain from...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with colorectal carcinoma, Dukes stage D, has severe pain from bony metastases. He has undergone courses of radiation therapy and intravenous infusion of bisphosphonates, which have failed to control his pain. He is currently taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. When previously given opiate analgesia, he became very drowsy and poorly responsive. His pain score is 9/10 at rest and he becomes very distressed when being moved by nursing staff.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: Give stronger nonsteroidal medications to avoid the risk of sedation and respiratory depression

      Correct Answer: Give the patient opiate medications to control the pain despite the risk of sedation

      Explanation:

      Pain Management in Palliative Care

      In palliative care, the primary goal is to provide aggressive comfort care and achieve symptom control. When it comes to managing pain, the first priority should be to control it, even if it means risking sedation and respiratory depression. This is especially true for patients with a limited life expectancy, where quality of life is of utmost importance.

      Relaxation techniques may not be effective in resolving complex pain, so other interventions should be considered. Radiotherapy may not be helpful if it did not work previously. Similarly, bisphosphonates may not be suitable if they did not work before. Stronger nonsteroidal medications may also not be beneficial if the patient is already taking an NSAID as an adjuvant therapy.

      In summary, pain management in palliative care requires a tailored approach that prioritizes symptom control and quality of life. Healthcare providers should consider the patient’s individual needs and preferences when deciding on the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 49-year-old woman complains of weakness and difficulty breathing. These symptoms have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman complains of weakness and difficulty breathing. These symptoms have been getting worse over the last three months and have now become so severe that she is unable to work. She has no history of any medical conditions.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale. The only notable finding is a strange involuntary movement of her fingers when she closes her eyes. Her blood film shows the presence of multi-lobed neutrophils.

      What clinical feature might be observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral ulcers

      Correct Answer: Retinal haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Dorsal Column Signs

      This patient is presenting with megaloblastic anaemia and dorsal column signs, specifically pseudoathetosis due to loss of proprioceptive input from the hands. These symptoms suggest a possible vitamin B12 deficiency, which may also be indicated by the presence of multilobed neutrophils and retinal haemorrhages. While absent ankle jerks and extensor plantar reflex are common in B12 deficiency, cerebellar symptoms and hemiplegia are not typically associated with this condition. Instead, these symptoms may be indicative of multiple sclerosis, which can also present with dorsal column signs. Glossitis or beefy tongue may be present in B12 deficiency, along with other oral features like angular stomatitis or cheilitis in cases of multiple vitamin deficiencies. While retinal haemorrhage is a rare manifestation of B12 deficiency, other rare features may include optic atrophy, generalized hyperpigmentation, and dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with acute appendicitis. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with acute appendicitis. You are evaluating his suitability for surgery.
      He has no relevant medical history, his blood pressure is being monitored by his GP but he has not yet been prescribed any medication for it. He does not smoke and drinks a couple of beers with his meals on Fridays and Saturdays.
      The nursing staff have recorded his vital signs, height, and weight. His heart rate is 98 /min, respiratory rate is 17 /min, temperature is 37.8ºC, blood pressure is 148/93 mmHg, and saturations are 99% on room air. He is 178 cm tall, weighs 132 kg, and has a BMI of 41.6 kg/m².
      An anaesthetist evaluates his American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) grade before surgery.
      What ASA grade would you assign to this man based on the information provided?

      Your Answer: ASA II - patient with mild systemic disease

      Correct Answer: ASA III - patient with severe systemic disease

      Explanation:

      Patients who have a BMI that falls under the morbidly obese category (greater than 40) are classified as ASA III. ASA grades are utilized by anaesthetists to evaluate the risk of anaesthesia for a patient. These grades are determined before surgery to determine the appropriate anaesthetic agents to use and to identify patients who may not be suitable for surgery or may not survive anaesthesia. When calculating a patient’s ASA, their medical history and social history are both taken into account. Current smoking and social alcohol consumption automatically classify a patient as ASA grade II. Morbid obesity is considered a severe disease and is therefore classified as ASA grade III.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old athlete attends a routine check-up. Her past medical history is significant...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old athlete attends a routine check-up. Her past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes since the age of 7. Her glucose is well controlled with self-administration of insulin. She reports that she is training for the upcoming national championship. She has specific questions regarding the effects and actions of insulin.
      Which of the following is correct regarding the action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Insulin increases protein synthesis in muscle

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Insulin on the Body: Promoting Protein Synthesis, Sodium Secretion, and More

      Insulin is a crucial hormone synthesized in pancreatic β cells that plays a vital role in the metabolism of carbohydrates and lipids in the body. This peptide hormone promotes glycogen synthesis, increases potassium uptake, and reduces lipolysis and proteolysis in cells. Additionally, insulin is known to increase protein synthesis in muscle and decrease triglyceride synthesis and storage in adipocytes.

      One of the lesser-known effects of insulin is its ability to promote sodium secretion in the renal tubules. Insulin is also responsible for increasing tubular sodium reabsorption in the kidney, which halves sodium excretion.

      Furthermore, insulin is used in the management of hyperkalaemia as it increases serum potassium levels by causing a shift of potassium into the cells, thereby lowering circulating potassium and increasing intracellular potassium concentration.

      However, insulin does decrease glycogen storage in cells by activating enzymes involved in glycogen synthesis in the liver and tissues, causing the conversion of glucose to glycogen.

      In summary, insulin has a wide range of effects on the body, from promoting protein synthesis to regulating potassium and sodium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 6-month-old girl with poor weight gain is brought to see the pediatrician....

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old girl with poor weight gain is brought to see the pediatrician. Her growth has slowed crossing 1 centile but her weight has fallen from 50th to 9th centile in the last two months.
      She began weaning at 4 months with a variety of foods. Her mother says she eats well and has no other specific symptoms. On examination she appears emaciated with abdominal distension. She is rolling over and making appropriate cooing sounds.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gluten-sensitive enteropathy

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Failure to Thrive in Children

      Coeliac disease is a condition that usually appears after weaning and is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms and weight loss. In children, failure to thrive may be a sign of coeliac disease, especially if they eat well and have been weaned at an appropriate age. Abdominal distension, vomiting, diarrhoea, and weight loss are the most common symptoms of coeliac disease, but it can also present with muscle wasting, anaemia, and vitamin deficiencies.

      Cystic fibrosis is another condition that can cause failure to thrive, but it typically presents with a history of respiratory infections or meconium ileus in childhood. If tests for coeliac disease are negative, cystic fibrosis may be considered. Cushing’s syndrome can cause central adiposity with muscle wasting, but it is not the same as abdominal distension. Hyperthyroidism is extremely rare during infancy, and lactose intolerance presents with marked vomiting and diarrhoea, which is not consistent with the timing of weaning seen in coeliac disease.

      In summary, failure to thrive in children may be a sign of coeliac disease, especially if they have been weaned at an appropriate age and are eating well. Other conditions, such as cystic fibrosis, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperthyroidism, and lactose intolerance, should also be considered and ruled out through appropriate testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man suffers an open tibial fracture following an incident with industrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man suffers an open tibial fracture following an incident with industrial equipment. The fracture is a simple oblique break in his distal tibia, accompanied by an 8 cm ragged wound. Despite this, the limb's neurovascular function remains intact. What is the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediate wound debridement and ORIF

      Correct Answer: Immediate wound debridement and application of spanning external fixation device

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to delay the definitive management of open fractures until the soft tissues have fully recovered. In the case of heavily contaminated wounds, such as those caused by farmyard equipment, they are automatically classified as at least Gustilo grade IIIa. Therefore, it is necessary to perform wound debridement and ‘mini washouts’ in the operating theatre immediately. For contaminated wounds, this should be done as soon as possible, within 12 hours for high-energy injuries, and within 24 hours for all other injuries. If definitive surgical fixation is performed initially, it should only be done if it can be followed by definitive soft tissue coverage. However, in most cases, an external fixation device is used as an interim measure while soft tissue coverage is achieved, which should be done within 72 hours.

      Fracture Management: Understanding Types and Treatment

      Fractures can occur due to trauma, stress, or pathological reasons. Diagnosis involves evaluating the site and type of injury, as well as associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are important in assessing changes in bone length, distal bone angulation, rotational effects, and foreign material. Fracture types include oblique, comminuted, segmental, transverse, and spiral. It is also important to distinguish open from closed injuries, with the Gustilo and Anderson classification system being the most common for open fractures. Management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, managing infection, and debriding open fractures within 6 hours of injury.

      To ensure proper fracture management, it is crucial to understand the different types of fractures and their causes. Diagnosis involves not only evaluating the fracture itself, but also any associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are an important tool in assessing the extent of the injury. It is also important to distinguish between open and closed fractures, with open fractures requiring immediate attention and debridement. Proper management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, and managing infection. By understanding the different types of fractures and their treatment, healthcare professionals can provide effective care for patients with fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      48.8
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has multiple fibroids that distort the uterine cavity and has already completed a 3-month trial of tranexamic acid, which did not improve her symptoms. On examination, you notice that she appears pale and her uterus is equivalent to 16 weeks of pregnancy. The patient expresses her frustration and desire for a definitive treatment. A negative urinary pregnancy test is obtained. What would be the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient's menorrhagia?

      Your Answer: Myomectomy

      Correct Answer: Hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Hysterectomy is the most effective treatment for menorrhagia caused by large fibroids, which are benign tumors of smooth muscle that can grow in response to hormones. Risk factors for fibroids include obesity, early menarche, African-American origin, and a family history of fibroids. Symptoms of fibroids include heavy periods, anemia, abdominal discomfort, and pressure symptoms. Diagnosis is made through pelvic ultrasound. Medical management with NSAIDs or tranexamic acid can be tried first, but if it fails, surgical management is necessary. Uterine-sparing surgeries like myomectomy or uterine artery embolization can be considered for women who want to preserve their fertility, but hysterectomy is the definitive method of treatment for women who have completed their family or have severe symptoms. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is not recommended for women with large fibroids causing uterine distortion. Mefenamic acid is less effective than tranexamic acid for fibroid-related menorrhagia. Myomectomy is not a definitive method of management as fibroids can recur. Uterine artery embolization is an option for women who want to preserve their uterus but not their fertility, but its effect on fertility and pregnancy is not well established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      30.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (2/4) 50%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/4) 50%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Palliative Care (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Passmed