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Question 1
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman is at eight weeks’ gestation in her first pregnancy, with a body mass index (BMI) of 36.5 kg/m2. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, and her sister had pre-eclampsia in both her pregnancies. She had deep vein thrombosis (DVT), following a long-haul flight to Australia last year. Which of the following risk factors presenting in this patient’s history is considered a high-risk factor for the development of pre-eclampsia?
Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia Risk Factors in Pregnancy
During the first prenatal visit, women are screened for their risk of developing pre-eclampsia during pregnancy.
High-risk factors include a personal history of pre-eclampsia, essential hypertension, type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or autoimmune conditions.
Moderate risk factors include a BMI of 35-39.9 kg/m2, family history of pre-eclampsia, age of ≥ 40, first pregnancy, multiple pregnancy, and an interpregnancy interval of > 10 years. If any high or moderate risk factor is present, it is recommended that the woman take 75 mg of aspirin daily from the 12th week of gestation until delivery.
A personal history of DVT is not a risk factor for pre-eclampsia, but it is associated with an increased risk of thrombi during pregnancy and the puerperium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP and experiences a convulsive episode involving her entire body while in the waiting room. She is unable to speak during the episode but can make eye contact when her name is called. Following the episode, she quickly returns to her normal state and can recall everything that occurred. Her medical history includes alcohol overuse and post-traumatic stress disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psychogenic non-epileptic seizure
Explanation:Widespread convulsions without loss of consciousness may indicate a psychogenic non-epileptic seizure (pseudoseizure), especially in a patient with psychiatric comorbidities. A focal aware seizure would not involve whole-body convulsions, while an alcohol withdrawal seizure would involve loss of consciousness. A panic attack may involve involuntary movement, but widespread convulsions would be unusual.
Understanding Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures
Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, also known as pseudoseizures, are a type of seizure that is not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Instead, they are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as stress, trauma, or anxiety. These seizures can be difficult to diagnose as they often mimic true epileptic seizures, but there are certain factors that can help differentiate between the two.
Factors that may indicate pseudoseizures include pelvic thrusting, a family history of epilepsy, a higher incidence in females, crying after the seizure, and the seizures not occurring when the individual is alone. On the other hand, factors that may indicate true epileptic seizures include tongue biting and a raised serum prolactin level.
Video telemetry is a useful tool for differentiating between the two types of seizures. It involves monitoring the individual’s brain activity and behavior during a seizure, which can help determine whether it is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain or psychological factors.
It is important to accurately diagnose and treat psychogenic non-epileptic seizures as they can have a significant impact on an individual’s quality of life. Treatment may involve therapy to address underlying psychological factors, as well as medication to manage any associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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As a healthcare professional in the emergency department, you come across an elderly overweight man who appears to be in a drowsy state. Upon calling out his name, you hear a grunting sound. The patient has periorbital ecchymosis and clear fluid leaking from one nostril. Additionally, his oxygen saturation levels are at 82% on air.
Which airway adjunct should you avoid using in this patient?Your Answer: Nasopharyngeal airway
Explanation:If a patient is suspected or known to have a basal skull fracture, nasopharyngeal airways should not be used. This is because there is a rare risk of inserting the airway into the cranial cavity. Signs of a basal skull fracture include periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon eyes), CSF rhinorrhoea, haemotympanum, and mastoid process bruising (battle’s sign). While ET tubes, i-gels, and LMAs do not have contraindications, they should not be the first-line option and should only be inserted by a trained professional, typically an anaesthetist.
Nasopharyngeal Airway for Maintaining Airway Patency
Nasopharyngeal airways are medical devices used to maintain a patent airway in patients with decreased Glasgow coma score (GCS). These airways are inserted into the nostril after being lubricated, and they come in various sizes. They are particularly useful for patients who are having seizures, as an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) may not be suitable for insertion.
Nasopharyngeal airways are generally well-tolerated by patients with low GCS. However, they should be used with caution in patients with base of skull fractures, as they may cause further damage. It is important to note that these airways should only be inserted by trained medical professionals to avoid any complications. Overall, nasopharyngeal airways are an effective tool for maintaining airway patency in patients with decreased GCS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent abdominal distension and bloating. She experiences bouts of loose motions that provide relief from the symptoms. There is no history of rectal bleeding or weight loss. The patient works as a manager in a busy office and finds work to be stressful. She has previously taken a course of fluoxetine for depression/anxiety. Abdominal examination is unremarkable.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
Explanation:IBS is a chronic condition that affects bowel function, but its cause is unknown. To diagnose IBS, patients must have experienced abdominal pain or discomfort for at least 3 months, along with two or more of the following symptoms: relief after defecation, changes in stool frequency or appearance, and abdominal bloating. Other symptoms may include altered stool passage, mucorrhoea, and headaches. Blood tests are recommended to rule out other conditions, and further investigation is not necessary unless symptoms of organic disease are present. Diverticulitis, anxiety disorder, Crohn’s disease, and ulcerative colitis are all conditions that can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?Your Answer: The patient is unable to blow out the cheeks
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent
Explanation:Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.
One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.
Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.
Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.
Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.
Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 29-year old teacher's aide is admitted with severe dehydration after experiencing vomiting and diarrhea for the past three days. She has no history of foreign travel and has not been in contact with anyone who is ill. The patient is typically healthy, but has mild asthma and occasionally takes salbutamol. Upon examination, the patient has a pulse of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 104/65 mmHg, and mild epigastric tenderness. An antiemetic is prescribed and IV hydration is initiated. Which antiemetic primarily acts on the histaminergic system?
Your Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Understanding Antiemetics: Mechanisms of Action and Examples of Drugs
Antiemetics are drugs used to suppress the vomiting reflex by acting on specialized sites within the central nervous system (CNS). These sites include the vomiting center, the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), and the vestibular system. Different antiemetics act on different neurochemical systems, resulting in a similar desired effect of vomiting suppression. Combining different antiemetics can result in pharmacological synergy, allowing clinicians to choose the best drug for a specific clinical scenario.
Examples of chemical neurotransmitters and their corresponding drugs include acetylcholine and anticholinergics (e.g. hyoscine), histamine and antihistamines (e.g. cyclizine), 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT or serotonin) and 5-HT3-receptor antagonists (e.g. ondansetron, granisetron), and dopamine and dopamine antagonists (e.g. metoclopramide, domperidone, prochlorperazine). Domperidone is the drug of choice in Parkinson’s disease because it is a dopamine antagonist that does not cross the blood-brain barrier, while metoclopramide exacerbates Parkinson’s symptoms. Ondansetron is an antagonist of the 5HT3 receptor and can be given orally, intramuscularly, or intravenously to treat post-operative nausea and vomiting. Prochlorperazine is primarily a dopamine antagonist that inhibits dopaminergic stimulation of the CTZ and can also treat psychosis and motion sickness. Hyoscine is an anticholinergic that is most effective in treating motion sickness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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You are part of the mental health team assessing a 65-year-old woman in the emergency department who has presented with an intentional paracetamol overdose. She is a retired teacher and a devout Christian. She lives alone in a house and her two adult daughters live in a different state. When you ask her, she says that she regrets taking the paracetamol, but is not sure if she would try to do it again.
What factor decreases her likelihood of carrying out another attempt in the future?Your Answer: His religious beliefs
Explanation:Protective factors against completed suicide include religious beliefs, social support, regretting a previous attempt, and having children living at home. However, older age, male gender, and lack of social support are risk factors for suicide. While women are more likely to attempt suicide, men are more likely to die by suicide, possibly due to stigma and different suicide methods. In the case of the individual mentioned, his children living far away may increase his risk of suicide due to a lack of social support.
Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which joint is usually spared from osteoarthritis?
Your Answer: First metacarpophalangeal joint
Correct Answer: Elbow joint
Explanation:Osteoarthritis in the Hand and Elbow
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a prevalent form of arthritis that commonly affects the hand, particularly the joints. The joints may exhibit several deformities, including the development of small bone spurs called nodes. These nodes are referred to as Heberden’s nodes when they occur at the joint next to the fingernail and Bouchard’s nodes when they occur at the middle joints. The base of the thumb may also appear squared off, accompanied by swelling and tenderness. Soft tissue laxity can result in instability at the base of the thumb.
In contrast, elbow OA is relatively uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 29-year-old man comes to your clinic with concerns about his fertility. He and his partner have been trying to conceive for the past 2 years, but have been unsuccessful. The patient's medical history includes frequent chest infections and ear infections, which have required multiple rounds of antibiotics. He reports that he often experiences upper respiratory tract infections. Upon examination, you note that his right testicle hangs lower than his left, but there are no other abnormalities. As part of a routine check-up, you perform a chest examination and observe that the apex beat is in the 5th intercostal space on the right midclavicular line. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kartagener's syndrome
Explanation:In Kartagener’s syndrome, the right testicle hangs lower than the left due to situs inversus. Normally, it is the left testicle that hangs lower. This condition can be similar to cystic fibrosis, but patients with cystic fibrosis would have additional symptoms such as diabetes, diarrhoea, and deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins. It is important to note that there is no indication that the patient is currently taking antibiotics that could affect sperm function and motility.
Understanding Kartagener’s Syndrome
Kartagener’s syndrome, also known as primary ciliary dyskinesia, is a rare genetic disorder that was first described in 1933. It is often associated with dextrocardia, which can be detected through quiet heart sounds and small volume complexes in lateral leads during examinations. The pathogenesis of Kartagener’s syndrome is caused by a dynein arm defect, which results in immotile Ciliary.
The syndrome is characterized by several features, including dextrocardia or complete situs inversus, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis, and subfertility. The immotile Ciliary in the respiratory tract lead to chronic respiratory infections and bronchiectasis, while the defective ciliary action in the fallopian tubes can cause subfertility.
In summary, Kartagener’s syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects the motility of Ciliary in the respiratory tract and fallopian tubes. It is often associated with dextrocardia and can lead to chronic respiratory infections, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis, and subfertility. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing complications and improving the quality of life for individuals with this syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old male presents with a blood pressure reading of 170/100 mmHg. Upon examination, he exhibits a prominent aortic ejection click and murmurs are heard over the ribs anteriorly and over the back. Additionally, he reports experiencing mild claudication with exertion and has feeble pulses in his lower extremities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Coarctation of the aorta is a condition that can present with various symptoms. These may include headaches, nosebleeds, cold extremities, and claudication. However, hypertension is the most typical symptom. A mid-systolic murmur may also be present over the anterior part of the chest, back, spinous process, and a continuous murmur may also be heard.
One important radiographic finding in coarctation of the aorta is notching of the ribs. This is due to erosion by collaterals. It is important to diagnose coarctation of the aorta early on, as it can lead to serious complications such as heart failure, stroke, and aortic rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?
Your Answer: Inhibition of parathyroid hormone
Correct Answer: Inhibition of osteoclast activity
Explanation:Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator used for treating postmenopausal osteoporosis. It mimics the effects of oestrogen on bone while avoiding negative effects on other tissues. Oestrogens reduce differentiation and maturation of osteoclasts and their activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home on the floor by her daughter. Her daughter tried to rouse her but had no response. She has a laceration to her head and her daughter believes she may have had a fall. You notice she has a sudden decrease in consciousness in the department. You are unable to get the patient to make any vocalisation. When you apply supraorbital pressure, she briefly opens her eyes and withdraws from the pain.
Which one of the following is the best immediate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Urgent CT brain scan
Correct Answer: Insert Guedel airway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Low Glasgow Coma Scale Score
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A patient with a GCS score below 8 requires urgent referral to critical care or the anaesthetist on-call for appropriate management. In this case, the patient has a GCS score of 7 (E2, V1, M4) and needs immediate attention.
Airway management is the top priority in patients with a low GCS score. The patient may need invasive ventilation if they lose the capacity to maintain their own airway. Once the airway is secured, a referral to the neurosurgical registrar may be necessary, and investigations such as a CT brain scan should be carried out to determine the cause of the low GCS score.
A neurological observation chart is also needed to detect any deteriorating central nervous system function. A medication review can be done once the patient is stabilised and an intracranial bleed has been ruled out. This will help identify medications that could cause a fall and stop unnecessary medication.
In summary, a patient with a low GCS score requires urgent attention to secure their airway, determine the cause of the low score, and monitor for any neurological deterioration. A medication review can be done once the patient is stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old male presents to your GP evening clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. He reports experiencing pain in the lower left abdomen which has worsened throughout the day. He also feels feverish, nauseous, and has vomited twice in the past hour. He cannot recall the last time he passed urine or stool and mentions having a small painless lump on his lower left abdomen for the past month which he has not sought medical attention for.
Upon examination, the patient appears unwell and clammy. He is tachycardic and normotensive. His abdomen is mildly distended and very tender to touch, with evidence of localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Additionally, you notice a 2 cm x 2 cm erythematosus lump in the left inguinal area which is now extremely painful to touch.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Call 999 and arrange an urgent assessment of your patient in hospital
Explanation:It is not recommended to manually reduce strangulated inguinal hernias while awaiting surgery. In the scenario of a patient with an acute abdomen and signs of a strangulated hernia, the appropriate response is to call 999 for urgent assessment and inform the surgical registrar on-call. Attempting to manually reduce the hernia can worsen the patient’s condition. Requesting a urine sample or discussing an appendicectomy is not appropriate in this situation.
Understanding Strangulated Inguinal Hernias
An inguinal hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the superficial inguinal ring. This can happen directly through the deep inguinal ring or indirectly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Hernias should be reducible, meaning that the herniated tissue can be pushed back into place in the abdomen through the defect using a hand. However, if a hernia cannot be reduced, it is referred to as an incarcerated hernia, which is at risk of strangulation. Strangulation is a surgical emergency where the blood supply to the herniated tissue is compromised, leading to ischemia or necrosis.
Symptoms of a strangulated hernia include pain, fever, an increase in the size of a hernia or erythema of the overlying skin, peritonitic features such as guarding and localised tenderness, bowel obstruction, and bowel ischemia. Imaging can be used in cases of suspected strangulation, but it is not considered necessary and is more useful in excluding other pathologies. Repair involves immediate surgery, either from an open or laparoscopic approach with a mesh technique. This is the same technique used in elective hernia repair, however, any dead bowel will also have to be removed. While waiting for the surgery, it is not recommended that you manually reduce strangulated hernias, as this can cause more generalised peritonitis. Strangulation occurs in around 1 in 500 cases of all inguinal hernias, and indications that a hernia is at risk of strangulation include episodes of pain in a hernia that was previously asymptomatic and irreducible hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is currently receiving end-of-life care due to advanced lung cancer. He has been experiencing intermittent episodes of vomiting, reflux and early satiety believed to be caused by autonomic dysfunction resulting in gastric stasis. He also has a history of Parkinson’s disease.
What would be the most suitable pharmacological treatment to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Domperidone
Explanation:Comparison of Medications for Nausea and Vomiting in Patients with Parkinson’s Disease
Patients with Parkinson’s disease may experience nausea and vomiting due to gastric stasis or other underlying conditions. When selecting a medication to treat these symptoms, it is important to consider the patient’s history of Parkinson’s disease and the potential for extrapyramidal side-effects.
Domperidone is a good option for treating nausea caused by gastric stasis because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier, reducing the risk of extrapyramidal effects. Cyclizine is typically used for movement-related or intracranial disease-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone may be considered if other medications are ineffective, but it is primarily used for intracranial disease-related nausea and vomiting. Haloperidol is not recommended for patients with Parkinson’s disease due to its potential to increase extrapyramidal symptoms. Metoclopramide is a first-line prokinetic for motility disorder-related nausea and vomiting, but its use should be carefully monitored in patients with Parkinson’s disease due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects.
Overall, the choice of medication for nausea and vomiting in patients with Parkinson’s disease should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the patient’s individual medical history and potential risks and benefits of each medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful right knee. Upon examination, there is joint effusion and pyrexia, and frank pus is aspirated. What is the most probable infecting organism?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas spp
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Organisms in Septic Arthritis
Septic arthritis is a serious condition that occurs when a joint becomes infected. The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonas spp can also cause septic arthritis, but it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users. Escherichia coli is another pathogen that can cause septic arthritis, but it is less common than S. aureus. In children under the age of two, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common organism causing septic arthritis. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a common cause of arthritis in the United States, but it is uncommon in Western Europe. It is important to identify the causative organism in order to provide appropriate treatment for septic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Correct
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In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job, a mid-systolic ejection murmur is discovered in the left upper sternal border. The cardiac examination reveals a significant right ventricular cardiac impulse and wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a right axis deviation, and a chest X-ray shows enlargement of the right ventricle and atrium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities and their Clinical Findings
Atrial Septal Defect:
Atrial septal defect is characterized by a prominent right ventricular cardiac impulse, a systolic ejection murmur heard best in the pulmonic area and along the left sternal border, and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. These findings are due to an abnormal left-to-right shunt through the defect, which creates a volume overload on the right side. Small atrial septal defects are usually asymptomatic.Pulmonary Valve Stenosis:
Pulmonary valve stenosis causes an increased right ventricular pressure which results in right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary artery dilation. A crescendo–decrescendo murmur may be heard if there is a severe stenosis. Right atrial enlargement would not be present.Mitral Regurgitation:
Mitral regurgitation would also present with a systolic murmur; however, left atrial enlargement would be seen before right ventricular enlargement.Mitral Stenosis:
Mitral stenosis would present with an ‘opening snap’ and a diastolic murmur.Aortic Stenosis:
Aortic stenosis is also associated with a systolic ejection murmur. However, the murmur is usually loudest at the right sternal border and radiates upwards to the jugular notch. Aortic stenosis is associated with left ventricular hypertrophy.Clinical Findings of Common Cardiac Abnormalities
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of demeclocycline?
Your Answer: Vasopressin antagonism
Explanation:Treatment Options for SIADH
SIADH is a condition characterized by excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and hyponatremia. When fluid restriction alone fails to manage the condition, other treatment options are available. Demeclocycline induces free water excretion, which can help manage SIADH by causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Spironolactone is an aldosterone receptor antagonist, while mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. Amiloride acts via epithelial sodium channels, and thiazides act on the sodium chloride symporter, leading to sodium and water excretion. Among these options, demeclocycline is an important treatment option for patients with SIADH who do not respond to fluid restriction alone. It is essential to understand the mechanism of action of each treatment option to choose the most appropriate one for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent paresthesia in her left leg. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 4 months ago by the neurology department. The paresthesia has been ongoing for 3 days and is accompanied by increased fatigue and urinary frequency/urgency symptoms. A urine dip test shows no abnormalities. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate in this scenario?
Your Answer: Natalizumab
Correct Answer: Methylprednisolone
Explanation:In the case of this patient, it is probable that she is experiencing an acute relapse of her multiple sclerosis. A urine dip has been conducted to rule out a urinary tract infection, which could also cause a flare in her symptoms (known as Uhthoff’s phenomenon). As her symptoms are new and have persisted for more than 24 hours, it is likely that she requires treatment with methylprednisolone (either intravenous or oral) to manage the relapse.
While Fingolimod, Natalizumab, and Beta-interferon are all disease modifying drugs that may reduce the frequency of relapses, they are not appropriate for treating acute relapses and should only be started in secondary care with proper drug counseling.
Amantadine may be useful in managing fatigue, but it is recommended by NICE to only be trialed for fatigue once other potential causes have been ruled out. It is unlikely to be effective in treating the patient’s other symptoms.
Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.
Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male was admitted to the intensive care unit 2 weeks ago following an anterior myocardial infarction secondary to severe microcytic anaemia. Today, he appears drowsy and on assessment, bilateral basal crackles and reduced air entry are discovered. The observations and monitor values are given below:
Oxygen saturation: 85% on 2L oxygen via nasal specs.
Respiratory rate: 30 breaths per minute.
Pulse rate: 105 beats per minute.
Temperature: 36.8 Celsius.
Blood pressure (via arterial line): 100/60 mmHg.
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 28 mmHg (2 - 15 mmHg).
His arterial blood gas (ABG) is given below:
pH 7.24 (7.35-7.45)
PaO2 10.2 kPa (10 - 13 kPa)
PaCO2 7.3 kPa (4.6 - 6.1 kPa)
HCO3- 22 mmol/L (22 - 26 mmol/L)
Glucose 6.8 mmol/L (4.0 - 7.8 mmol/L)
His chest x-ray shows bilateral ill-demarcated fluffy opacification, especially around the hilar regions, with a horizontal, sharp white line in the right mid-zone.
What is the most likely diagnosis, given the above?Your Answer: Ventilator-acquired pneumonia
Correct Answer: Cardiac pulmonary oedema
Explanation:The patient’s drowsiness can be attributed to the high CO2 levels, but it is unclear whether the cause is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema related to cardiac issues. To determine the likely diagnosis, we need to consider certain factors.
While the patient’s history of blood transfusion may suggest ARDS, this condition typically occurs within four hours of transfusion. Additionally, the patient’s symptoms have an acute onset, and radiological criteria for ARDS are met. However, the high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure indicates a backlog of blood in the veins, which is a sensitive indicator of cardiac failure. This, along with the recent myocardial infarction, makes pulmonary edema related to cardiac issues more probable than ARDS.
Fibrosis is unlikely given the acute nature of the symptoms, and there is no mention of amiodarone use. The patient’s condition does not fit the criteria for transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), which occurs within six hours of transfusion. Bilateral pneumonia is rare, and the patient’s lack of fever and chest x-ray findings support pulmonary edema (fluid in the horizontal fissure and hilar edema) rather than consolidation.
Understanding Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a serious medical condition that occurs when the alveolar capillaries become more permeable, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli. This condition, also known as non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, has a mortality rate of around 40% and can cause significant morbidity in those who survive. ARDS can be caused by various factors, including infections like sepsis and pneumonia, massive blood transfusions, trauma, smoke inhalation, acute pancreatitis, and even COVID-19.
The clinical features of ARDS are typically severe and sudden, including dyspnea, elevated respiratory rate, bilateral lung crackles, and low oxygen saturations. To diagnose ARDS, doctors may perform a chest x-ray and arterial blood gases. The American-European Consensus Conference has established criteria for ARDS diagnosis, including an acute onset within one week of a known risk factor, bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and a pO2/FiO2 ratio of less than 40 kPa (300 mmHg).
Due to the severity of ARDS, patients are generally managed in the intensive care unit (ICU). Treatment may involve oxygenation and ventilation to address hypoxemia, general organ support like vasopressors as needed, and addressing the underlying cause of ARDS, such as antibiotics for sepsis. Certain strategies, such as prone positioning and muscle relaxation, have been shown to improve outcomes in ARDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A mother brings her four-month-old baby to the GP, concerned about episodes of vomiting and crying which she believes may be due to a tummy ache. The mother reports that her baby vomits after most feeds and cries constantly, even when laid down. The vomiting is non-projectile and non-bilious. The baby was born at 39 weeks via vaginal delivery, and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. The baby lives with both parents. On examination, the baby's weight is appropriate for their growth chart. Their heart rate is 140 bpm, O2 saturation is 97%, respiratory rate is 42/min, and temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for an infant under 8 weeks old who is experiencing milky vomits after feeds, especially when laid flat, and excessive crying is gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD). This is because the symptoms are typical of GORD, with non-projectile and non-bilious vomits and normal observations. Cow’s milk protein intolerance is a possible differential, but there is no history of stool changes or rashes, and it usually presents earlier in life. Duodenal atresia is unlikely as it typically presents with projectile and bilious vomiting and earlier in life. Gastroenteritis is also less likely as it is commonly caused by a viral infection with associated fever and tachycardia, and there is no mention of stool changes in the history.
Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents to the pre-admission clinic for assessment prior to an elective prostatectomy. You find no adverse past medical history and examination is unremarkable. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is indicated in all pre-operative patients undergoing major surgery who are over the age of 60. The ECG is shown below.
After having reviewed the ECG, what is the next best step to take with this patient?
Your Answer: Discuss the patient with the list anaesthetist
Correct Answer: No further assessment is required
Explanation:Assessing Cardiac Risk in Preoperative Patients: Common Misconceptions
There are several misconceptions when it comes to assessing cardiac risk in preoperative patients. One common mistake is assuming that all patients require extensive cardiac testing, even when there are no significant risk factors or symptoms present. For example, if a patient has no significant past medical history and their examination is unremarkable, an echocardiogram is not necessary.
On the other hand, some clinicians may be too cautious and cancel a patient’s procedure based on a perceived cardiac risk that is not supported by evidence. If the patient’s ECG is normal and there are no cardiac risk factors, cancelling the procedure would be unreasonable.
It is important to recognise that not all preoperative patients require extensive cardiac testing. Instead, clinicians should focus on identifying patients with specific cardiac conditions that require closer monitoring and management. By avoiding unnecessary testing and interventions, clinicians can improve patient outcomes and reduce healthcare costs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of central chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is currently taking ramipril, metformin, atorvastatin, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 129/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 81. Bibasal crackles are heard on auscultation of his chest.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (130-180)
- White cell count: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet: 197 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 123 µmol/L (79-118)
- Glucose: 12.3 mmol/L (<7.0)
- ECG: Anterolateral ST depression
The patient is given sublingual GTN. What is the next most appropriate therapy?Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, clopidogrel 300 mg and unfractionated heparin
Explanation:Treatment Plan for High-Risk Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
This patient, who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, is considered high risk and requires immediate treatment. The recommended treatment plan includes loading the patient with both aspirin and clopidogrel to reduce the risk of further complications. If the patient experiences further chest pain or if ECG signs do not improve, additional interventions such as angiography may be necessary.
In addition to aspirin and clopidogrel, unfractionated heparin is also recommended as an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours of admission. If the patient does not progress to angiogram, screening for ischaemia should be considered prior to discharge.
Overall, it is important to closely monitor this high-risk patient and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman finds herself with an unexpected and undesired pregnancy. She has two children and experienced a miscarriage 4 years ago. Her medical history indicates subclinical hypothyroidism, but she is generally healthy. After an ultrasound scan estimates her gestation at 7 weeks and confirms an intrauterine pregnancy, she decides on a medical termination of pregnancy. What treatment options will be available to her?
Your Answer: Oral mifepristone and vaginal prostaglandins
Explanation:Medical abortions involve the use of mifepristone followed by at least one dose of prostaglandins and can be performed at any stage of pregnancy. The preferred method is oral mifepristone followed by vaginal administration of prostaglandins, such as misoprostol. This method is particularly suitable for pregnancies up to 7 weeks gestation, as it has a lower failure rate than surgical termination. The dosing schedule and location of administration may vary, with some women choosing to undergo the procedure at home rather than in a clinic. It is important to note that IM methotrexate is not used in terminations of pregnancy, but rather in the medical management of ectopic pregnancies, as well as in the treatment of certain cancers and rheumatoid conditions. Methotrexate and vaginal misoprostol is not a common combination for medical terminations, as mifepristone is typically used instead. Oral mifepristone alone is not sufficient for medical terminations, but may be used in cervical priming for surgical abortion in cases where misoprostol is contraindicated.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
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A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents, reporting amenorrhoea. The parents mention that their daughter has learning difficulties and requires extra support at school. During the examination, the doctor observes sparse breast development, broad shoulders, a wide neck, and elevated blood pressure. What is the probable chromosomal abnormality in this patient?
Your Answer: 45 XO
Explanation:Common Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Associated Conditions
Chromosomal abnormalities can result in a variety of conditions and symptoms. Here are some of the most common chromosomal abnormalities and their associated conditions:
45 XO: This chromosomal abnormality is associated with Turner syndrome, which affects females who have lost one X chromosome. Symptoms may include sparse breast development, broad shoulders, high blood pressure, and a wide neck.
47 XXX: Triple X syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality in which females have an extra X chromosome. While some patients may be asymptomatic, others may experience learning difficulties, tall stature, or microcephaly.
47 XXY: Klinefelter syndrome is a condition that affects males who have an extra X chromosome. Symptoms may include tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility.
46 XY: This is the karyotype for sex in normal men, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur. Diagnosis can be complex and patients suspected of a genetic condition should be referred to genetics services.
46 XX: This is the karyotype for sex in normal women, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur. Diagnosis can be complex and patients suspected of a genetic condition should be referred to genetics services.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 25
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An elective hernia repair is scheduled for a 70-year-old man who has mild asthma that is managed with a salbutamol inhaler as needed, typically once a week. Despite his asthma, he experiences no restrictions in his daily activities. What would be his ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) classification?
Your Answer: ASA 2
Explanation:The ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) score is used to assess a patient’s suitability for surgery. A patient is categorized as ASA 2 if they have a mild systemic illness that does not affect their daily activities. This may include conditions such as being a smoker, consuming alcohol socially, being pregnant, having a BMI between 30 and 40, having well-managed diabetes or hypertension, or having mild lung disease.
The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of asthma and eczema visits her General Practitioner and inquires about the reason for her continued wheezing hours after being exposed to pollen. She has a known allergy to tree pollen.
What is the most suitable explanation for this?Your Answer: Inflammation followed by mucosal oedema
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanisms of Allergic Asthma
Allergic asthma is a condition that is mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE). When IgE binds to an antigen, it triggers mast cells to release histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins, which cause bronchospasm and vasodilation. This leads to inflammation and edema of the mucosal lining of the airways, resulting in persistent symptoms or late symptoms after an acute asthma attack.
While exposure to another allergen could trigger an asthma attack, it is not the most appropriate answer if you are only aware of a known allergy to tree pollen. Smooth muscle hypertrophy may occur in the long-term, but the exact mechanism and functional effects of airway remodeling in asthma are not fully understood. Pollen stuck on Ciliary would act as a cough stimulant, clearing the pollen from the respiratory tract. Additionally, the Ciliary would clear the pollen up the respiratory tract as part of the mucociliary escalator.
It is important to note that pollen inhaled into the respiratory system is not systemically absorbed. Instead, it binds to immune cells and exhibits immune effects through cytokines produced by Th1 and Th2 cells. Understanding the mechanisms of allergic asthma can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent future attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Correct
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A 24-year-old primigravida is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband at 33 weeks of gestation after experiencing a generalised tonic–clonic seizure. Examination reveals blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg, temperature of 37 °C and 2+ pitting oedema in the lower extremities. She appears lethargic but responds to simple commands. What is the definitive treatment for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Immediate delivery
Explanation:Eclampsia: Symptoms and Treatment
Eclampsia is a serious medical condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by pre-eclampsia and seizure activity. Symptoms may include hypertension, proteinuria, mental status changes, and blurred vision. Immediate delivery is the only definitive treatment for eclampsia, but magnesium can be given to reduce the risk of seizures in women with severe pre-eclampsia who are delivering within 24 hours. Eclampsia is more common in younger women with their first pregnancy and those with underlying vascular disorders. Hydralazine can be used to manage hypertension in pregnant women, but it is not the definitive treatment for eclampsia. Conservative management, such as salt and water restriction, bed rest, and close monitoring of blood pressure, is not appropriate for patients with eclampsia and associated seizure and mental state changes. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy, and labetalol is the first-line antihypertensive in pregnancy. Diazepam and magnesium sulfate can reduce seizures in eclampsia, but they are not the definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman with metastatic oesophageal cancer is being visited at home by her GP. She is believed to be nearing the end of her life. Due to her condition, she is bedridden and unable to swallow. Her current medication includes taking MST 40 mg tablets twice a day, and she seldom requires oramorph for breakthrough pain. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Diamorphine 80 mg/24 hours via syringe driver
Correct Answer: Morphine 40 mg/24 hours via syringe driver
Explanation:Comparison of Opioid Medications for Palliative Care
When considering opioid medications for palliative care, it is important to understand the equivalent doses of different drugs. For a patient currently taking 80 mg/24 hours of oral morphine, a switch to a fentanyl 100 μg patch would result in a much higher dose, while a buprenorphine 5 μg patch would provide a much lower dose. Diamorphine 80 mg/24 hours via syringe driver is a higher dose than the current MST, while morphine 80 mg/24 hours via syringe driver is equivalent to the current dose. It is important to consult conversion tables and consider individual patient needs when selecting an opioid medication for palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse complains of fatigue and general discomfort. Upon examination, his liver function tests are abnormal, and he is referred to a specialist who diagnoses him with alcohol-related cirrhosis. What is the main pathophysiological mechanism involved in alcoholic cirrhosis?
Your Answer: Hepatocyte cell death caused by prolonged exposure to alcohol
Correct Answer: Fibrosis resulting in disruption of normal liver architecture
Explanation:Alcoholic Liver Disease: Understanding the Pathophysiology
Alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of liver disease that can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Understanding the pathophysiology of this condition is crucial in managing and preventing its progression.
The primary pathological process in alcoholic liver disease is fibrosis, which results in the disruption of normal liver architecture. This leads to distortion of hepatic vasculature, increased intrahepatic resistance, and portal hypertension. Cirrhosis of the liver is an irreversible process and can lead to liver failure if the patient continues to drink alcohol.
Deposition of excess lipids in hepatocytes is another common feature of alcoholic liver disease. This causes steatohepatitis and is reversible. It is associated with metabolic syndrome.
Portal hypertension is a complication of alcoholic cirrhosis due to increased vascular resistance within the liver. It can result in oesophageal varices, which, if ruptured, can cause a large upper gastrointestinal bleed.
Contrary to popular belief, alcohol exposure does not cause cell death directly.
Sclerosis of the intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts is a pathophysiological process in primary sclerosing cholangitis. It causes inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the bile ducts and has a strong association with ulcerative colitis.
In summary, understanding the pathophysiology of alcoholic liver disease is crucial in managing and preventing its progression. Fibrosis, lipid deposition, portal hypertension, and bile duct sclerosis are all important features of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit after a coronary artery bypass graft for a period of ventilation. He has a 35-pack year smoking history but successfully gave up some 2 years earlier. Unfortunately, weaning does not go as anticipated, and he cannot be weaned off the ventilator and is still in need of it 4 days later. There is evidence of right-sided bronchial breathing on auscultation. He is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5 °C.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12.5 × 109/l (10.0) 4–11 × 109/l
Chest X-ray: bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, more marked on the right-hand side
Bronchial aspirates: mixed anaerobes
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Ventilator acquired pneumonia
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs
A pyrexial patient with chest signs on the right-hand side may have ventilator-acquired pneumonia, which occurs due to contamination of the respiratory tract from oropharyngeal secretions. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, X-ray, blood culture, and bronchial washings. Initial antibiotic therapy should cover anaerobes, MRSA, Pseudomonas, and Acinetobacter.
If the patient has been in the hospital for more than 72 hours, any infection that develops is likely to be hospital-acquired.
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) presents more acutely and broncholavage samples commonly demonstrate inflammatory and necrotic cells.
Infective pulmonary edema is unlikely if there are no indications of pleural effusions or edema on clinical examination and chest radiograph.
Pulmonary hemorrhage is unlikely if there is no blood found in the bronchial aspirates.
Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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