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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with hypertension on home blood pressure recordings (155/105 mmHg). His medical records indicate a recent hospitalization for pyelonephritis where he was diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. What is the most suitable medication to initiate for his hypertension management?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      In patients with renovascular disease, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated. Therefore, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. If hypertension persists despite CCB and thiazide-like diuretic treatment and serum potassium is over 4.5mmol/L, a cardioselective beta-blocker like carvedilol may be considered. If blood pressure is still not adequately controlled with a CCB, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide would be the second-line treatment. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is also contraindicated in patients with renovascular disease for the same reason as ACE inhibitors.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      105.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood...

    Incorrect

    • You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood pressure control. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home daily for the past week and consistently reads over 140/90 mmHg, with the highest reading being 154/86 mmHg. He has no chest symptoms and is otherwise healthy. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking perindopril. He previously took amlodipine, but it was discontinued due to significant ankle edema. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiazide-like diuretic

      Explanation:

      To improve control of poorly managed hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended step 2 treatment is to add either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, the preferred choice is a thiazide-like diuretic as the patient has a history of intolerance to calcium channel blockers. Aldosterone antagonist and beta-blocker are not appropriate choices for step 2 management. It is important to note that combining an ACE inhibitor with an angiotensin receptor blocker is not recommended due to the risk of acute kidney injury.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Choose from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Choose from the options the medical condition that would most likely prevent the use of ß-blockers in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      The Benefits and Considerations of β-Blockers in Heart Failure Patients

      β-blockers have been proven to provide significant benefits for patients with heart failure and should be offered to all eligible patients. It is recommended to start with the lowest possible dose and gradually increase it. While β-blockers can generally be safely administered to patients with COPD, caution should be exercised in patients with a history of asthma due to the risk of bronchospasm. However, cardioselective β-blockers such as atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol, nebivolol, and acebutolol may be used under specialist supervision. These medications are not cardiac specific and may still have an effect on airway resistance.

      In addition to heart failure, β-blockers can also be used for rate control in patients with atrial fibrillation and as a first-line treatment for angina. While they may worsen symptoms of peripheral vascular disease, this is not a complete contraindication to their use.

      Overall, β-blockers have proven to be a valuable treatment option for heart failure patients, but careful consideration should be given to individual patient factors before prescribing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder and arm for the past few weeks when he exercises at the gym. He stops exercising and it goes away within five minutes. He has taken glyceryl trinitrate and finds it relieves the pain. His blood pressure is 158/94 mmHg and examination of the cardiovascular system and upper limbs is normal. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Stable Angina: CT Coronary Angiography, Non-Invasive Functional Imaging, ECG, Endoscopy, and Exercise ECG

      Stable angina is suspected when a patient experiences constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms during physical exertion, which is relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate within five minutes. A typical angina diagnosis can be confirmed through a computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography, which should be offered if the patient exhibits typical or atypical angina or if the ECG shows ST-T changes or Q waves. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended if the CT coronary angiography is not diagnostic or if the coronary artery disease is of uncertain functional significance. While ECG changes may suggest coronary artery disease, a normal ECG doesn’t confirm or exclude a diagnosis of stable angina. Endoscopy is used to investigate gastro-oesophageal causes of chest pain, but exercise-induced chest pain is more likely to be cardiac in nature. Exercise electrocardiograms are no longer recommended to diagnose or exclude stable angina in patients without known coronary artery disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 5 - For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool...

    Incorrect

    • For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool (such as QRISK) in order to ascertain their likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with type 1 diabetes with a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol and no nephropathy or microalbuminuria

      Explanation:

      High Risk Patients for Cardiovascular Disease

      Certain patients are automatically considered at high risk for cardiovascular disease (CVD) and do not require the use of a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2. These high-risk patients include those with pre-existing CVD, those aged 85 and above, those with an eGFR <60 ml/min/1.73m2 and/or albuminuria, those with familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited lipid disorders, and those with type 1 diabetes who are over 40 years old, have a history of diabetes for at least 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other CVD risk factors. However, for patients with a BMI of 38, a CVD risk assessment tool should be used. It is important to note that for patients with a BMI higher than 40 kg/m2, their risk may be underestimated by standard CVD risk assessment tools. By identifying high-risk patients, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He recalled rushing for the train before feeling dizzy. His father recently died suddenly because of a heart problem. On examination, he has a ‘jerky’ pulse, a thrusting apex beat with double impulse and a late ejection systolic murmur which diminishes on squatting.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic heart condition that is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young people. It is characterized by an enlarged left ventricle, which can cause obstruction of blood flow. A jerky pulse and an intensifying systolic murmur during activities that decrease blood volume in the left ventricle are common examination findings. Aortic stenosis, Brugada syndrome, mitral regurgitation, and mitral valve prolapse are other heart conditions that have different symptoms and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin therapy. Recently, her INR levels have decreased, leading to an increase in the warfarin dosage. What new treatments could be responsible for this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St John's wort

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Warfarin

      Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can affect the metabolism of other drugs. In the case of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, certain drugs can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness.

      St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. On the other hand, allopurinol can interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect. Similarly, amiodarone inhibits the metabolism of coumarins, which can lead to an enhanced anticoagulant effect.

      Clarithromycin, a drug that inhibits CYP3A isozyme, can enhance the anticoagulant effect of coumarins, including warfarin. This is because warfarin is metabolized by the same CYP3A isozyme as clarithromycin. Finally, sertraline may also interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect.

      In summary, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions when taking warfarin, as they can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 9 - How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac angioplasty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 week

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance after angioplasty – refrain from driving for a period of 7 days.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic for a medication review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic for a medication review. He has been prescribed clopidogrel after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack during an overnight hospital stay. Which medication from his repeat prescription is expected to decrease the efficacy of clopidogrel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Using clopidogrel and omeprazole/esomeprazole at the same time can decrease the effectiveness of clopidogrel.

      Research has demonstrated that taking clopidogrel and omeprazole simultaneously can lead to a decrease in exposure to the active metabolite of clopidogrel. This interaction is considered moderate in severity according to the BNF, and the manufacturer recommends avoiding concurrent use. The same holds true for esomeprazole.

      There is no evidence to suggest that any of the other medications listed have an impact on the effectiveness of clopidogrel.

      Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease

      Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.

      Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with the practice nurse for her type 2 diabetes. During the review, the nurse found that her blood pressure was elevated. Mrs. Smith has since borrowed a friend's BP monitor and has recorded her readings on a spreadsheet, which she has brought to show you. She has already calculated the average BP, which is 142/91 mmHg. Mrs. Smith has been researching on the internet and is interested in starting medication to reduce her cardiovascular risk, especially since she already has diabetes.

      According to NICE, what antihypertensive medication is recommended for Mrs. Smith?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, the recommended first-line medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, regardless of age. Alpha-blockers or beta-blockers are usually considered as a 4th-line option. Calcium channel blockers were previously recommended for patients aged 55 or over, but the updated NICE guidelines prioritize ACE inhibitors or ARBs. It is not appropriate to monitor the patient annually without commencing treatment, as they have confirmed stage 1 hypertension and a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse check. She has a medical history of fatty liver disease and well-managed hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine. Her weekly alcohol consumption is 14 units.

      Her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
      - Creatinine 108 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Estimated GFR (eGFR) 57 mL/min/1.73 m² (>90)
      - ALT 50 u/L (3 - 40)

      To evaluate her bleeding risk before initiating anticoagulation therapy, her ORBIT score is computed.

      What factors would increase this patient's ORBIT score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The ORBIT score includes anaemia and renal impairment as factors that indicate a higher risk of bleeding in patients with atrial fibrillation who are receiving anticoagulation treatment. This scoring tool is now recommended by NICE guidelines for assessing bleeding risk. The ORBIT score consists of five parameters, including age (75+ years), anaemia (haemoglobin <130 g/L in males, <120 g/L in females), bleeding history, and renal impairment (eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m²). In this patient's case, her anaemia and renal function would meet the criteria for scoring. Age is not a relevant factor as she is under 75 years old. Alcohol intake is not a criterion used in the ORBIT score, and hypertension is not included in this scoring tool but would be considered in the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring tool for assessing stroke risk. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation. When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding. For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the Emergency Department (ED). He is found to be in ventricular tachycardia and is successfully cardioverted. Further investigations reveal an underlying long QT syndrome, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is inserted. The man works as an HGV driver. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive HGV vehicles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Permanent bar

      Explanation:

      Regardless of the circumstances, the loss of HGV licence is indicated by ICD.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of small...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of small cell lung cancer and ischemic heart disease. His cancer was detected five months ago and he recently finished a round of chemotherapy. In terms of his heart health, he experienced a heart attack two years ago and underwent primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has not had any angina since then.

      Over the past week, he has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, particularly at night, and has an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. Upon examination, his chest appears normal, but he does have distended neck veins and periorbital edema. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Superior Vena Cava Obstruction

      Superior vena cava obstruction is a medical emergency that occurs when the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, is compressed. This condition is commonly associated with lung cancer, but it can also be caused by other malignancies, aortic aneurysm, mediastinal fibrosis, goitre, and SVC thrombosis. The most common symptom of SVC obstruction is dyspnoea, but patients may also experience swelling of the face, neck, and arms, headache, visual disturbance, and pulseless jugular venous distension.

      The management of SVC obstruction depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s individual circumstances. Endovascular stenting is often the preferred treatment to relieve symptoms, but certain malignancies may require radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy instead. Glucocorticoids may also be given, although the evidence supporting their use is weak. It is important to seek advice from an oncology team to determine the best course of action for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her heart failure treatment.

      She has a blood pressure reading of 165/90 mmHg. At present, she is taking furosemide and aspirin, and she feels short of breath when walking uphill.

      What would be the best medication to include in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatments for Heart Failure

      ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are the primary medications used in the treatment of heart failure. The SOLVD and CONSENSUS trials have shown that ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone in the management of heart failure. It has been proven that higher doses of ACE inhibitors provide greater benefits. These medications are generally well-tolerated, particularly in mild cases. If ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, an ARB can be used as an alternative. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists are also recommended as a first-line treatment for heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There is no previous history of any abnormal cardiac findings.
      Select from the list the single most likely explanation of this murmur.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiological

      Explanation:

      Systolic Murmurs in Pregnancy: Causes and Characteristics

      During pregnancy, the increased blood volume and flow through the heart can result in the appearance of innocent murmurs. In fact, a study found that 93.2% of healthy pregnant women had a systolic murmur at some point during pregnancy. These murmurs are typically systolic, may have a diastolic component, and can occur at any stage of pregnancy. They are often located at the second left intercostal space or along the left sternal border, but can radiate widely. If there is any doubt, referral for cardiological assessment is recommended.

      Aortic stenosis produces a specific type of systolic murmur that begins shortly after the first heart sound and ends just before the second heart sound. It is best heard in the second right intercostal space. Mitral murmurs, on the other hand, are best heard at the apex and can radiate to the axilla. Mitral incompetence produces a pansystolic murmur of even intensity throughout systole, while mitral valve prolapse produces a mid-systolic click. A ventricular septal defect produces a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard along the left sternal edge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old woman presents with a leg ulcer above the right medial malleolus....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with a leg ulcer above the right medial malleolus. Compression bandaging is being considered as a treatment option. Without diabetes, what is the minimum ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) recommended by SIGN guidelines to ensure the safety of compression bandaging?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.8

      Explanation:

      It is safe to use compression therapy for patients with leg ulcers who have an ABPI of 0.8 or higher.

      Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index for Evaluating Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It measures the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the lower leg to that in the arms. A lower blood pressure in the legs, resulting in an ABPI of less than 1, is an indicator of PAD. This test is particularly useful in evaluating patients with suspected PAD, such as a male smoker who presents with intermittent claudication.

      In addition, it is important to determine the ABPI in patients with leg ulcers. Compression bandaging is often used to treat venous ulcers, but it can be harmful in patients with PAD as it further restricts blood supply to the foot. Therefore, ABPIs should always be measured in patients with leg ulcers to determine if compression bandaging is appropriate.

      The interpretation of ABPI values is as follows: a value greater than 1.2 may indicate calcified, stiff arteries, which can be seen in advanced age or PAD. A value between 1.0 and 1.2 is considered normal, while a value between 0.9 and 1.0 is acceptable. A value less than 0.9 is likely indicative of PAD, and values less than 0.5 indicate severe disease that requires urgent referral. The ABPI is a reliable test, with values less than 0.90 having a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 98% for PAD. Compression bandaging is generally considered acceptable if the ABPI is greater than or equal to 0.8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman of African origin comes in for a routine health check....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman of African origin comes in for a routine health check. She is a non-smoker, drinks 14 units of alcohol per week, is physically fit, active, and enjoys regular moderate exercise and a balanced diet. Her BMI is 26.8 kg/m2. Her average BP measured by home monitoring for 7 days is 160/95.
      What is the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Hypertension

      Patients diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure reading of >150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension) should be offered drug therapy. For patients younger than 55 years, an ACE inhibitor is recommended as the first-line treatment. However, patients over the age of 55 and black patients of any age should initially be treated with a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide diuretic. These recommendations aim to provide effective treatment options for patients with hypertension based on their age and race.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction in the ED. They have been administered aspirin 300 mg stat and glyceryl trinitrate spray (2 puffs). As per the latest NICE recommendations, which patients should be given ticagrelor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit patient

      Explanation:

      Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.

      Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation

      Cardioversion may be used in two scenarios for atrial fibrillation (AF): as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      In the elective scenario for rhythm control, the 2014 NICE guidelines recommend offering rate or rhythm control if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and starting rate control if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain.

      If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised. Patients who have risk factors for ischaemic stroke should be put on lifelong oral anticoagulation. Otherwise, patients may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological methods.

      If the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately. NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological.

      If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - What is the correct option for measuring blood pressure using either an automated...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct option for measuring blood pressure using either an automated machine or a manual method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients should rest for 5 minutes before the measurement is taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Measuring Blood Pressure

      When measuring blood pressure, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accurate readings. The patient should be seated for at least five minutes, in a relaxed state without moving or speaking. Blood pressure should be recorded three times, initially testing in both arms. If there is a sustained difference of more than 20 mmHg, use the arm with the higher reading for subsequent measurements. The arm must be supported at the level of the heart.

      If the blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, up to three readings should be taken, and the lower of the last two recorded as the blood pressure. It is important to note that automated devices may not measure blood pressure accurately if there is pulse irregularity, such as atrial fibrillation. In such cases, blood pressure should be measured manually using direct auscultation over the brachial artery. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure accurate blood pressure readings for their patients.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident....

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident. The staff are worried about his increasing unsteadiness on his feet in the past few months, which has led to several near-falls. They are also concerned that his DOAC medication puts him at risk of a bleed if he falls and hits his head.

      His current medications include amlodipine, ramipril, edoxaban, and alendronic acid.

      What steps should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calculate her ORBIT score

      Explanation:

      It is not enough to withhold anticoagulation solely based on the risk of falls or old age. To determine the risk of stroke or bleeding in atrial fibrillation, objective measures such as the CHA2DS2-VASc and ORBIT scores should be used. The ORBIT score, rather than HAS-BLED, is now recommended by NICE for assessing bleeding risk. A history of falls doesn’t factor into the ORBIT score, but age does. Limiting the patient’s mobility by suggesting she only mobilizes with staff is impractical. There is no rationale for switching the edoxaban to an antiplatelet agent, as antiplatelets are not typically used in atrial fibrillation management unless there is a specific indication. Stopping edoxaban without calculating the appropriate scores could leave the patient at a high risk of stroke.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.

      Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).

      One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.

      Repeat investigations show:

      Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)

      Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.

      What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.

      ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.

      It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended by the practice nurse. Despite taking ramipril 10 mg, amlodipine 5 mg, and atenolol 50 mg, his blood pressure remains elevated at 150/90 mmHg. Upon checking his U&E, his sodium level is 140, potassium level is 3.4, and creatinine level is 110. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hyperaldosteronism

      Such difficult-to-control hypertension and hypokalaemia, despite maximal ACE inhibition, may indicate hyperaldosteronism. The preferred diagnostic investigation is a renin/aldosterone ratio off Antihypertensive medication, with a washout period of four to six weeks. MRI scanning can also help identify an aldosterone-producing tumour. In contrast, phaeochromocytoma typically presents with paroxysms of hypertension, accompanied by headache, anxiety, and sweating. Renal artery stenosis is expected to be associated with an abnormal creatinine in patients using ACE inhibitors. By identifying the underlying cause of hypertension, appropriate treatment can be initiated, leading to better outcomes for patients.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in the past three weeks and is feeling increasingly tired. On examination, his pulse is 40 bpm and his BP 100/60 mmHg. An ECG reveals he is in complete heart block.
      What other finding are you most likely to find?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Variable S1

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Complete Heart Block

      Complete heart block is a condition where there is no coordination between the atrial and ventricular contractions. This results in a variable intensity of the first heart sound, which is the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves. The blood flow from the atria to the ventricles varies from beat to beat, leading to inconsistent intensity of the first heart sound. Additionally, cannon A waves may be observed in the neck, indicating atrial contraction against closed AV valves.

      Narrow pulse pressure is not a characteristic of complete heart block. It is more commonly associated with aortic valve disease. Similarly, aortic stenosis is not typically linked with complete heart block, although it can cause reversed splitting of S2. Giant V waves are not observed in complete heart block, but they suggest tricuspid regurgitation. Reversed splitting of S2 is also not a defining feature of complete heart block, but it can be found in aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block. It is important to note that murmurs may also be present in complete heart block due to concomitant valve disease.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health check. He is a smoker with a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. His fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l and his estimated 10-year risk of a coronary heart disease event is >30%.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends primary prevention for individuals under 84 years old who have a risk of over 10% of developing cardiovascular disease, which can be estimated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. To address modifiable risk factors, interventions such as dietary advice, smoking cessation support, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction should be offered. For lipid management, both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions should be utilized, with atorvastatin 20 mg being the recommended prescription for primary prevention. Lipids should be checked after 3 months, with the aim of reducing non-HDL cholesterol by over 40%. However, excessive drug usage in the elderly should be considered carefully by doctors, as cardiovascular risks exceeding 5-10% may be found in elderly men based on age and gender alone. NICE advises against routinely prescribing fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, nicotinic acid, omega-3 fatty acid compounds, or a combination of a statin and another lipid-modifying drug. First-line treatment for primary hyperlipidaemia is a statin, with other options such as bile acid sequestrants being considered if statins are contraindicated or not tolerated. For primary prevention of CVD, high-intensity statin treatment should be offered to individuals under 84 years old with an estimated 10-year risk of 10% or more using the QRISK assessment tool. Diet modification alone is not recommended for individuals with a risk score over 30%. Ezetimibe can be considered for individuals with primary hypercholesterolaemia if a statin is contraindicated or not tolerated, but it is not the first choice of drug in this scenario.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic for a follow-up on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic for a follow-up on her heart failure management. She is currently on lisinopril 20 mg and carvedilol 25 mg BD. Her main symptoms include shortness of breath on minimal exercise and occasional episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. During the examination, her BP is 136/74, her pulse is 80 and regular. There are bibasal crackles but no other significant findings. The test results show a haemoglobin level of 128 g/L (115-165), white cells count of 7.9 ×109/L (4-11), platelets count of 201 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine level of 149 μmol/L (79-118), and an ejection fraction of 38% on echocardiogram. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add spironolactone to her regime

      Explanation:

      Treatment Guidelines for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure can be managed with a combination of medications, including beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. However, if heart failure control is not optimised on this dual therapy, NICE guidelines (NG106) recommend adding an ARB or aldosterone antagonist. For patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or ARBs, nitrate and hydralazine can be used earlier in the treatment pathway.

      It is important to note that routine referral for revascularisation is not recommended in patients without symptoms of angina. Additionally, cardiac resynchronisation therapy should not be recommended until the patient’s therapy is further optimised. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has a medical history of hypothyroidism, asthma, and high cholesterol. He reports feeling well, and his QRISK score is calculated at 11%.

      The patient is currently taking levothyroxine, atorvastatin, lercanidipine, beclomethasone, and salbutamol. He has no known allergies.

      After taking three readings, his blood pressure averages at 146/92 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addition of losartan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s current therapy doesn’t affect the treatment decision, but an additional medication from either the ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker class is recommended to control their blood pressure. According to updated guidelines from 2019, a thiazide-like diuretic may also be used. As losartan is the only medication from these classes, it is the correct choice. Bisoprolol, doxazosin, and spironolactone are typically reserved for cases of resistant hypertension that do not respond to combinations of a calcium channel blocker, a thiazide-like diuretic, and an ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Since the patient is only on a single therapy, adding any of these options is not currently indicated. Choosing to make no changes to the medication is incorrect, as the patient’s blood pressure remains above the target range of 140/90 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A patient with long-standing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is in their...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with long-standing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is in their 60s now presents with symptoms of right heart failure. Upon examination, they are in sinus rhythm but have peripheral edema, a raised JVP, and a loud pulmonary second heart sound. The diagnosis is cor pulmonale. What is the recommended treatment for right heart failure that develops as a result of lung disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Managing Oedema in Cor Pulmonale Patients

      Patients with oedema caused by cor pulmonale can be treated with diuretic therapy. However, according to NICE guidelines on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (NG115), ACE inhibitors, alpha blockers, and calcium channel blockers should not be used. Digoxin should only be prescribed if the patient also has atrial fibrillation.

      It is important to assess patients for long-term oxygen therapy to manage their condition effectively. For more information on managing oedema in cor pulmonale patients, please refer to the NICE guidelines on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (NG115).

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A patient is at highest risk of developing venous thromboembolism due to which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is at highest risk of developing venous thromboembolism due to which of the following options? Please select only one.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hip fracture

      Explanation:

      Predisposing Factors for Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism is a serious medical condition that occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing pulmonary embolism.

      Strong predisposing factors, with an odds ratio greater than 10, include fractures (hip or leg), hip or knee replacement, major general surgery, major trauma, and spinal cord injury.

      Moderate predisposing factors, with an odds ratio between 2 and 9, include arthroscopic knee surgery, central venous lines, chemotherapy, chronic heart or respiratory failure, hormone replacement therapy, malignancy, oral contraceptive therapy, paralytic stroke, pregnancy/postpartum, previous venous thromboembolism, and thrombophilia.

      Weak predisposing factors, with an odds ratio of 2 or less, include bed rest for more than 3 days, immobility due to sitting (such as prolonged car or air travel), increasing age, laparoscopic surgery (such as cholecystectomy), obesity, pregnancy/antepartum, and varicose veins.

      It is important to be aware of these predisposing factors and take appropriate measures to prevent pulmonary embolism, especially in high-risk individuals.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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