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  • Question 1 - There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the school where...

    Correct

    • There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the school where you are currently teaching. You are working as part of the team conducting initial triage at the scene of the incident.

      Which of the following statements about initial triage at the scene of a major incident is accurate?

      Your Answer: P3 patients will need medical treatment, but this can safely be delayed

      Explanation:

      Triage is a crucial process that involves determining the priority of patients’ treatment based on the severity of their condition and their chances of recovery. Its purpose is to ensure that limited resources are used efficiently, maximizing the number of lives saved. During a major incident, primary triage takes place in the bronze area, which is located within the inner cordon.

      In the context of a major incident, priorities are assigned numbers from 1 to 3, with 1 being the highest priority. These priorities are also color-coded for easy identification:
      – P1: Immediate priority. This category includes patients who require immediate life-saving intervention to prevent death. They are color-coded red.
      – P2: Intermediate priority. Patients in this group also require significant interventions, but their treatment can be delayed for a few hours. They are color-coded yellow.
      – P3: Delayed priority. Patients in this category require medical treatment, but it can be safely delayed. This category also includes walking wounded individuals. The classification as P3 is based on the motor score of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which predicts a favorable outcome. They are color-coded green.

      The fourth classification is for deceased individuals. It is important to identify and classify them to prevent the unnecessary use of limited resources on those who cannot be helped. Dead bodies should be left in their current location, both to avoid wasting resources and because the area may be considered a crime scene. Deceased individuals are color-coded black.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man comes in with bleeding from a tooth socket that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes in with bleeding from a tooth socket that began 2 hours after a dental extraction. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 88 bpm, blood pressure of 128/82, oxygen saturation of 99% on room air, and a temperature of 36.4°C.
      What kind of dental bleeding has occurred in this case?

      Your Answer: Primary haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Reactionary haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a reactionary haemorrhage following their recent dental extraction.

      There are three types of haemorrhage that can occur after a dental extraction. The first is immediate haemorrhage, which happens at the time of extraction. The second is reactionary haemorrhage, which occurs 2-3 hours after the extraction when the vasoconstrictor effects of the local anaesthetic wear off. The third is secondary haemorrhage, which typically happens at 48-72 hours and occurs if the clot becomes infected.

      To manage this situation, the first step is to clean and rinse the mouth, removing any excessive clot. Then, a square of gauze should be rolled up into a pledgelet that is approximately twice the size of the bleeding socket and inserted. The patient should be instructed to bite down on it to apply pressure for about 10-20 minutes.

      If the bleeding continues after this initial management, the area should be anaesthetised using lidocaine with adrenaline. Following the anaesthesia, a horizontal mattress suture should be inserted, pulling the gum over the bone edges tightly enough to blanch them. It is important to refer the patient to the on-call dental surgeon at this point.

      There are several risk factors for dental haemorrhage, including hypertension, the use of anticoagulants such as warfarin, and hereditary bleeding disorders like von Willebrand disease or haemophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A fit and healthy 40-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of facial...

    Correct

    • A fit and healthy 40-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of facial palsy that began 48 hours ago. After conducting a thorough history and examination, the patient is diagnosed with Bell's palsy.
      Which of the following statements about Bell's palsy is accurate?

      Your Answer: ‘Bell’s phenomenon’ is the rolling upwards and outwards of the eye on the affected side when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by a facial paralysis that affects the lower motor neurons. It can be distinguished from an upper motor neuron lesion by the inability to raise the eyebrow and the involvement of the upper facial muscles.

      One distinctive feature of Bell’s palsy is the occurrence of Bell’s phenomenon, which refers to the upward and outward rolling of the eye on the affected side when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth.

      Approximately 80% of sudden onset lower motor neuron facial palsies are attributed to Bell’s palsy. It is believed that this condition is caused by swelling of the facial nerve within the petrous temporal bone, which is secondary to a latent herpesvirus, specifically HSV-1 and HZV.

      Unlike some other conditions, Bell’s palsy does not lead to sensorineural deafness and tinnitus.

      Treatment options for Bell’s palsy include the use of steroids and acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old woman is prescribed haloperidol for a psychiatric condition in the 2nd-trimester...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman is prescribed haloperidol for a psychiatric condition in the 2nd-trimester of her pregnancy. As a result of this treatment, the newborn develops a malformation.

      Which of the following malformations is the most likely to occur as a result of using this medication during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Extrapyramidal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haloperidol, when administered during the third trimester of pregnancy, can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn. These symptoms may include agitation, poor feeding, excessive sleepiness, and difficulty breathing. The severity of these side effects can vary, with some infants requiring intensive care and extended hospital stays. It is important to closely monitor exposed neonates for signs of extrapyramidal syndrome or withdrawal. Haloperidol should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits clearly outweigh the risks to the fetus.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given during the second and third trimesters, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When administered late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given during the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given during the second and third trimesters, they can result in fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This drug can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Administration of chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If given during the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When administered during the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given during the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. If given during the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman presents with intense pain in her left eye and sudden...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with intense pain in her left eye and sudden vision loss in the same eye. She has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting. After conducting a comprehensive examination and measuring the intraocular pressure, you diagnose her with acute closed-angle glaucoma. You provide analgesics and administer IV acetazolamide as the initial treatment.
      What other treatment option could potentially benefit this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical pilocarpine

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is a serious eye condition requiring immediate medical attention. It occurs when the iris pushes forward and blocks the fluid access to the trabecular meshwork, leading to increased pressure within the eye and damage to the optic nerve.

      The main symptoms of acute closed-angle glaucoma include severe eye pain, decreased vision, redness around the cornea, swelling of the cornea, a fixed semi-dilated pupil, nausea, vomiting, and episodes of blurred vision or seeing haloes.

      To confirm the diagnosis, tonometry is performed to measure the intraocular pressure. Normal pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mmHg, but in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is often higher than 30 mmHg. Goldmann’s applanation tonometer is commonly used in hospitals for this purpose.

      Management of acute closed-angle glaucoma involves providing pain relief, such as morphine, and antiemetics if the patient is experiencing vomiting. Intravenous acetazolamide is administered to reduce intraocular pressure. Additionally, a topical miotic medication like pilocarpine is started about an hour after initiating other treatments to help constrict the pupil, as it may initially be paralyzed and unresponsive.

      Overall, acute closed-angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention to alleviate symptoms and prevent further damage to the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with a high temperature, cough,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with a high temperature, cough, and difficulty breathing. After conducting additional tests, she is diagnosed with a reportable illness. You fill out the notification form and reach out to the local health protection team.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Legionnaires’ disease

      Explanation:

      Public Health England (PHE) has the primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is not the main focus, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient since 1968.

      Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to inform the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) about suspected cases of specific infectious diseases.

      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 outline the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has been examined by...

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    • You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has been examined by one of the medical students. The medical student has made a preliminary diagnosis of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). What is a characteristic symptom commonly associated with HSP?

      Your Answer: Arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with HSP commonly experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, gastrointestinal issues like nausea and diarrhea, joint inflammation in multiple joints (polyarthritis), and involvement of the kidneys.

      Further Reading:

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is commonly seen in children following an infection, with 90% of cases occurring in children under 10 years of age. The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal upset, and polyarthritis. Renal involvement occurs in approximately 50% of cases, with renal impairment typically occurring within 1 day to 1 month after the onset of other symptoms. However, renal impairment is usually mild and self-limiting, although 10% of cases may have serious renal impairment at presentation and 1% may progress to end-stage kidney failure long term. Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, and treatment for nephropathy is generally supportive. The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, with the condition typically resolving fully within 4 weeks, especially in children without renal involvement. However, around 1/3rd of patients may experience relapses, which can occur for several months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Correct

    • A 67 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned neighbors. They inform you that the patient is frequently intoxicated, but this morning they discovered him wandering in the street and he appeared extremely disoriented and unstable, which is out of character for him. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, you observe that he has been experiencing abnormal liver function tests for several years and a history of alcohol abuse has been documented. You suspect that the underlying cause of his condition is Wernicke's encephalopathy.

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological condition that occurs due to a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1). It is characterized by symptoms such as confusion, difficulty with coordination, low body temperature, low blood pressure, involuntary eye movements, and vomiting.

      Further Reading:

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.

      Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.

      The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.

      Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.

      Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.

      Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.

      Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.

      In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with right-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with right-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine dipstick shows microscopic hematuria. She is later diagnosed with renal colic.
      Which of the following stone types is the least frequently seen?

      Your Answer: Cystine stones

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract stones form when the concentration of salt and minerals in the urine becomes too high. These stones can be classified into five types based on their mineral composition and how they develop.

      The most common type of stone is the calcium stone, which can be further divided into calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones. These account for 60-80% of all urinary tract stones.

      Another type is the struvite or magnesium ammonium phosphate stone, making up about 10-15% of cases. Uric acid stones, also known as urate stones, occur in 3-10% of cases.

      Cystine stones are less common, accounting for less than 2% of urinary tract stones. Finally, there are drug-induced stones, which are caused by certain medications such as triamterene, protease inhibitors like indinavir sulphate, and sulfa drugs. These account for approximately 1% of cases.

      By understanding the different types of urinary tract stones, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, muscle...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, muscle cramps, and severe fatigue that have been progressively worsening over the past 1-2 weeks. The initial blood test results are as follows:

      Na+ 117 mmol/l
      K+ 3.9 mmol/l
      Urea 8.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 101 µmol/l

      Based on these findings, the most probable underlying cause is suspected to be SIADH.

      Your Answer: Small cell lung cancer

      Explanation:

      SIADH, also known as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, is frequently observed in individuals diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. The condition can also be caused by malignancy, pulmonary disorders, and certain medications.

      Further Reading:

      Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.

      There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.

      The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.

      Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.

      It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For the past two days, she has had severe diarrhea and vomiting. She has not passed urine so far today. She normally weighs 20 kg. On examination, she has sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes. She is tachycardic and tachypneic and has cool peripheries. Her capillary refill time is prolonged.
      What is her estimated fluid loss?

      Your Answer: 2000 ml

      Correct Answer: 3000 ml

      Explanation:

      Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. When a child is 5% dehydrated, it means that their body has lost 5 grams of fluid per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 ml of fluid per kilogram. In the case of 10% dehydration, the body has lost 100 ml of fluid per kilogram.

      For example, if a child is 10% dehydrated and weighs 30 kilograms, their estimated fluid loss would be 100 ml/kg x 30 kg = 3000 ml.

      The clinical features of dehydration and shock are summarized below:

      Dehydration (5%):
      – The child appears unwell
      – Their heart rate may be normal or increased (tachycardia)
      – Their respiratory rate may be normal or increased (tachypnea)
      – Peripheral pulses are normal
      – Capillary refill time (CRT) is normal or slightly prolonged
      – Blood pressure is normal
      – Extremities feel warm
      – Urine output is decreased
      – Skin turgor is reduced
      – Eyes may appear sunken
      – The fontanelle (soft spot on the baby’s head) may be depressed
      – Mucous membranes are dry

      Clinical shock (10%):
      – The child appears pale, lethargic, and mottled
      – Heart rate is increased (tachycardia)
      – Respiratory rate is increased (tachypnea)
      – Peripheral pulses are weak
      – Capillary refill time (CRT) is prolonged
      – Blood pressure is low (hypotension)
      – Extremities feel cold
      – Urine output is decreased
      – Level of consciousness is decreased

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given isoniazid...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given isoniazid as part of her medication. As a result of this treatment, the newborn develops a defect.

      Which of the following defects is the most probable outcome due to the use of this medication during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Neuropathy

      Explanation:

      The standard drug regimen for tuberculosis is generally safe to use during pregnancy, with the exception of streptomycin which should be avoided. However, the use of isoniazid during pregnancy has been associated with potential risks such as liver damage in the mother and the possibility of neuropathy and seizures in the newborn.

      Here is a list outlining some commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If taken during the second and third trimesters, these medications can lead to reduced blood flow, kidney failure, and a condition called oligohydramnios.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity, resulting in hearing loss in the baby.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can increase the risk of first trimester abortions, delayed labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and a condition called fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When taken late in pregnancy, these medications can cause respiratory depression in the baby and lead to a withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If taken during the first trimester, these drugs can cause abnormalities in the fingers and toes. If taken during the second and third trimesters, they may result in fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This medication can increase the risk of hemorrhagic disease in the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug in newborns can lead to a condition known as grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If taken during the first trimester, corticosteroids may increase the risk of orofacial clefts in the baby.

      Danazol: When taken during the first trimester, this medication can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect the development of male sex organs in the baby.

      Haloperidol: If taken during the first trimester, this medication may increase the risk of limb malformations. If taken during the third trimester, it can lead to an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with an ear injury that happened while playing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with an ear injury that happened while playing soccer earlier today. The helix of her ear is swollen, red, and causing pain. The swelling is soft and can be compressed.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Auricular subchondral haematoma

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed an acute auricular subchondral haematoma. It occurs when blood and serum collect in the space between the cartilage and the supporting perichondrium due to a shearing force that separates the perichondrium from the underlying cartilage.

      It is important to differentiate this condition from cauliflower ear, which is a common complication that arises when an auricular haematoma is not treated. If a subchondral haematoma is left untreated, the damaged perichondrium forms a fibrocartilage plate, leading to scarring and cartilage regeneration. This results in an irregular and thickened pinna, typically along the helical rim.

      The management of an auricular haematoma involves the following steps:

      1. Infiltration with a local anaesthetic, such as 1% lidocaine.
      2. Drainage or needle aspiration of the haematoma.
      3. Application of firm packing and compression bandaging to prevent re-accumulation.
      4. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

      By following these management steps, the patient can effectively address and treat the auricular haematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of palpitations....

    Correct

    • You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of palpitations. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe a faint second heart sound (S2).
      What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.

      A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).

      On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).

      A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.

      Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25 year old third year medical student is brought into the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old third year medical student is brought into the emergency department for a check up after fainting while observing a prolonged delivery that required an emergency C-section. The patient complains of feeling warm and sweaty for a couple of minutes before becoming lightheaded and losing consciousness. There were no reports of loss of bladder or bowel control, and no tongue biting was observed. Physical examination reveals no focal neurological deficits and a normal cardiovascular examination. Blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg when lying down and 120/72 mmHg when standing.

      What is the probable cause of the fainting episode?

      Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the fainting episode in this 25-year-old third year medical student is vasovagal syncope. Vasovagal syncope is a common type of fainting that occurs in response to certain triggers, such as emotional stress, pain, or seeing blood. In this case, the prolonged delivery and emergency C-section likely triggered the patient’s vasovagal response.

      The patient’s symptoms of feeling warm and sweaty before fainting are consistent with vasovagal syncope. During a vasovagal episode, there is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate, leading to a temporary loss of consciousness. The absence of loss of bladder or bowel control and tongue biting further support this diagnosis.

      The physical examination findings of no focal neurological deficits and a normal cardiovascular examination also align with vasovagal syncope. Additionally, the blood pressure measurements of 122/74 mmHg when lying down and 120/72 mmHg when standing suggest orthostatic hypotension, which is commonly seen in vasovagal syncope.

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.

      When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.

      During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.

      There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department with a one...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department with a one day history of gradually worsening suprapubic pain, increased urinary frequency, and foul-smelling urine. The patient has a temperature of 37.2ºC and her vital signs are within normal limits. Urine dipstick testing reveals the presence of nitrites, leukocytes, and blood. The patient reports no regular medication use and the last time she took any acute medication was approximately 6 months ago when she was prescribed antihistamines for hayfever symptoms. Based on these findings, the most likely cause of her symptoms is a urinary tract infection. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms of suprapubic pain, increased urinary frequency, and foul-smelling urine, along with the presence of nitrites, leukocytes, and blood in the urine dipstick test, the most likely cause of her symptoms is a urinary tract infection (UTI). The most probable causative organism for UTIs is Escherichia coli.

      Further Reading:

      A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection that occurs in any part of the urinary system, from the kidneys to the bladder. It is characterized by symptoms such as dysuria, nocturia, polyuria, urgency, incontinence, and changes in urine appearance and odor. UTIs can be classified as lower UTIs, which affect the bladder, or upper UTIs, which involve the kidneys. Recurrent UTIs can be due to relapse or re-infection, and the number of recurrences considered significant depends on age and sex. Uncomplicated UTIs occur in individuals with a normal urinary tract and kidney function, while complicated UTIs are caused by anatomical, functional, or pharmacological factors that make the infection persistent, recurrent, or resistant to treatment.

      The most common cause of UTIs is Escherichia coli, accounting for 70-95% of cases. Other causative organisms include Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Proteus mirabilis, and Klebsiella species. UTIs are typically caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract entering the urinary tract through the urethra. Other less common mechanisms of entry include direct spread via the bloodstream or instrumentation of the urinary tract, such as catheter insertion.

      Diagnosis of UTIs involves urine dipstick testing and urine culture. A urine culture should be sent in certain circumstances, such as in male patients, pregnant patients, women aged 65 years or older, patients with persistent or unresolved symptoms, recurrent UTIs, patients with urinary catheters, and those with risk factors for resistance or complicated UTIs. Further investigations, such as cystoscopy and imaging, may be required in cases of recurrent UTIs or suspected underlying causes.

      Management of UTIs includes simple analgesia, advice on adequate fluid intake, and the prescription of appropriate antibiotics. The choice of antibiotic depends on the patient’s gender and risk factors. For women, first-line antibiotics include nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim, while second-line options include nitrofurantoin (if not used as first-line), pivmecillinam, or fosfomycin. For men, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are the recommended antibiotics. In cases of suspected acute prostatitis, fluoroquinolone antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin may be prescribed for a 4-week course.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      10.6
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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents with central chest discomfort. Her ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but her discomfort subsides, and ECG returns to normal after receiving GTN spray and IV morphine. She was also given 300 mg of aspirin in the ambulance en route to the hospital. Her vital signs are as follows: SaO2 99% on room air, HR 89 bpm, and BP 139/82 mmHg. A troponin test has been scheduled and she is scheduled for an urgent coronary angiography.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely experiencing an acute coronary syndrome, possibly a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) or unstable angina. The troponin test will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but this normalized after treatment with GTN and morphine, ruling out a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

      Immediate pain relief should be provided. GTN (sublingual or buccal) can be used, but intravenous opioids like morphine should be considered, especially if a heart attack is suspected.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications like bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered right after presentation.

      Fondaparinux should be given to patients without a high bleeding risk, unless coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours of admission. Unfractionated heparin can be an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who will undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours. For patients with significant renal impairment, unfractionated heparin can also be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for a SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman suffers a gunshot wound to the chest in a domestic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman suffers a gunshot wound to the chest in a domestic dispute. A FAST scan is performed, which shows the presence of intra-thoracic free fluid.

      Which of the following organs is most likely to be injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Small bowel

      Explanation:

      Low-velocity gunshot wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. On the other hand, high-velocity gunshot wounds transfer a greater amount of kinetic energy to the abdominal viscera. These types of wounds can cause more extensive damage in the surrounding area of the missile’s path due to temporary cavitation.

      When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma as a result of gunshot wounds, certain organs are more commonly injured. The small bowel is affected in approximately 50% of cases, followed by the colon in 40% of cases. The liver is injured in around 30% of cases, while abdominal vascular structures are affected in about 25% of cases.

      Please note that these statistics have been obtained from the most recent edition of the ATLS manual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department anxious, confused, and agitated. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department anxious, confused, and agitated. He has also vomited several times. He has recently been prescribed a course of amoxicillin for a presumed sinus infection by his primary care physician. You are unable to obtain a coherent medical history from him, but he has his regular medications with him, which include: ibuprofen, atorvastatin, and metformin. He has a friend with him who states he stopped taking his medications a few days ago. His vital signs are: temperature 38.9°C, heart rate 138, respiratory rate 23, blood pressure 173/96, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Correct Answer: Thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm is a rare condition that affects only 1-2% of patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is crucial to diagnose it promptly because it has a high mortality rate of approximately 10%. Thyroid storm is often triggered by a physiological stressor, such as stopping antithyroid therapy prematurely, recent surgery or radio-iodine treatment, infections (especially chest infections), trauma, diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperosmolar diabetic crisis, thyroid hormone overdose, pre-eclampsia. It typically occurs in patients with Graves’ disease or toxic multinodular goitre and presents with sudden and severe hyperthyroidism. Symptoms include high fever (over 41°C), dehydration, rapid heart rate (greater than 140 beats per minute) with or without irregular heart rhythms, low blood pressure, congestive heart failure, nausea, jaundice, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, confusion, agitation, delirium, psychosis, seizures, or coma.

      To diagnose thyroid storm, various blood tests should be conducted, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, blood glucose, coagulation screen, CRP, and thyroid profile (T4/T3 and TSH). A bone profile/calcium test should also be done as 10% of patients develop hypocalcemia. Blood cultures should be taken as well. Other important investigations include a urine dipstick/MC&S, chest X-ray, and ECG.

      The management of thyroid storm involves several steps. Intravenous fluids, such as 1-2 liters of 0.9% saline, should be administered. Airway support and management should be provided as necessary. A nasogastric tube should be inserted if the patient is vomiting. Urgent referral for inpatient management is essential. Paracetamol (1 g PO/IV) can be given to reduce fever. Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam (5-20 mg PO/IV), can be used for sedation. Steroids, like hydrocortisone (100 mg IV), may be necessary if there is co-existing adrenal suppression. Antibiotics should be prescribed if there is an intercurrent infection. Beta-blockers, such as propranolol (80 mg PO), can help control heart rate. High-dose carbimazole (45-60 mg/day) is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints of chest discomfort. The nurse has handed you the ECG report, as the ECG machine has indicated 'anterior infarction' in its comments.

      Which leads would you anticipate observing ST elevation in an acute anterior STEMI?

      Your Answer: V3-V4

      Explanation:

      The leads V3 and V4 represent the anterior myocardial area.

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4.2
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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided with a wall. He was rescued at the scene and has been brought to the hospital by ambulance. He is currently wearing a cervical immobilization device. He is experiencing chest pain on the left side and is having difficulty breathing. As the leader of the trauma response team, his vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 110, blood pressure of 102/63, oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15 out of 15. Upon examination, he has extensive bruising on the left side of his chest and shows reduced chest expansion, dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds throughout the entire left hemithorax.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Massive haemothorax

      Explanation:

      A massive haemothorax occurs when more than 1500 mL of blood, which is about 1/3 of the patient’s blood volume, rapidly accumulates in the chest cavity. The classic signs of a massive haemothorax include decreased chest expansion, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion. Both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds, but they can be differentiated through percussion. Hyperresonance indicates tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.

      The first step in managing a massive haemothorax is to simultaneously restore blood volume and decompress the chest cavity by inserting a chest drain. In most cases, the bleeding in a haemothorax has already stopped by the time management begins, and simple drainage is sufficient. It is important to use a chest drain of adequate size (preferably 36F) to ensure effective drainage of the haemothorax without clotting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness,...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness, and sensitivity to light. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 124, blood pressure 86/43, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 95%, and temperature 39.5oC. She has recently developed a rash of small red spots on her legs that do not fade when pressed.
      What is the MOST suitable next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg

      Explanation:

      In a child with a non-blanching rash, it is important to consider the possibility of meningococcal septicaemia. This is especially true if the child appears unwell, has purpura (lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter), a capillary refill time of more than 3 seconds, or neck stiffness. In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      In this particular case, the child is clearly very sick and showing signs of septic shock. It is crucial to administer a single dose of benzylpenicillin without delay and arrange for immediate transfer to the nearest Emergency Department via ambulance.

      The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin based on age are as follows:
      – Infants under 1 year of age: 300 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children aged 1 to 9 years: 600 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children and adults aged 10 years or older: 1.2 g of IM or IV benzylpenicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old man presents with brief episodes of vertigo that are worse in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with brief episodes of vertigo that are worse in the evening and is triggered by head movement and turning in bed. Each episode lasts only a couple of minutes. He experiences nausea during the attacks but has not vomited. He has no previous history of hearing loss or tinnitus.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

      Explanation:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) occurs when there is dysfunction in the inner ear. This dysfunction causes the otoliths, which are located in the utricle, to become dislodged from their normal position and migrate into one of the semicircular canals over time. As a result, these detached otoliths continue to move even after head movement has stopped, leading to vertigo due to the conflicting sensation of ongoing movement with other sensory inputs.

      While the majority of BPPV cases have no identifiable cause (idiopathic), approximately 40% of cases can be attributed to factors such as head injury, spontaneous labyrinthine degeneration, post-viral illness, middle ear surgery, or chronic middle ear disease.

      The main clinical features of BPPV include symptoms that are provoked by head movement, rolling over, and upward gaze. These episodes are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are often worse in the mornings. Unlike other inner ear disorders, BPPV does not cause hearing loss or tinnitus. Nausea is a common symptom, while vomiting is rare. The Dix-Hallpike test can be used to confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      It is important to note that vestibular suppressant medications have not been proven to be beneficial in managing BPPV. These medications do not improve symptoms or reduce the duration of the disease.

      The treatment of choice for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre. This maneuver aims to reposition the dislodged otoliths back into the utricles from the semicircular canals. A 2014 Cochrane review concluded that the Epley manoeuvre is a safe and effective treatment for BPPV, with a number needed to treat of 2-4.

      Referral to an ENT specialist is recommended for patients with BPPV in the following situations: if the treating clinician is unable to perform or access the Epley manoeuvre, if the Epley manoeuvre has not been beneficial after repeated attempts (minimum two), if the patient has been symptomatic for more than 4 weeks, or if the patient has experienced more than 3 episodes of BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old right-handed woman experiences a stroke. During examination, it is observed that...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old right-handed woman experiences a stroke. During examination, it is observed that she has weakness in her left arm and neglect on the left side of her body. Which blood vessel is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:

      Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.

      Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.

      Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.

      It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You have advised an elderly patient to stop driving following their visit to...

    Correct

    • You have advised an elderly patient to stop driving following their visit to the emergency department. A few days later, you spot the patient at a gas station near the hospital, filling up their car and driving away. What would be the most suitable course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Contact the patient and try to persuade them to stop driving

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC, if a doctor becomes aware that a patient is driving despite being unfit to do so, they should do everything they can to convince the patient to stop driving. If these efforts are unsuccessful and the patient continues to drive, the GMC advises promptly contacting the DVLA or DVA and sharing any pertinent medical information with the medical adviser, ensuring confidentiality.

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts are a common occurrence in the emergency department and can have serious consequences if they happen while a person is driving. It is crucial for doctors in the ED to be familiar with the guidelines set by the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency) regarding driving restrictions for patients who have experienced a blackout.

      The DVLA has specific rules for different types of conditions that may cause syncope (loss of consciousness). For group 1 license holders (car/motorcycle use), if a person has had a first unprovoked isolated seizure, they must refrain from driving for 6 months or 12 months if there is an underlying causative factor that may increase the risk. They must also notify the DVLA. For group 2 license holders (bus and heavy goods vehicles), the restrictions are more stringent, with a requirement of 12 months off driving for a first unprovoked isolated seizure and 5 years off driving if there is an underlying causative factor.

      For epilepsy or multiple seizures, both group 1 and group 2 license holders must remain seizure-free for 12 months before their license can be considered. They must also notify the DVLA. In the case of a stroke or isolated transient ischemic attack (TIA), group 1 license holders need to refrain from driving for 1 month, while group 2 license holders must wait for 12 months before being re-licensed subject to medical evaluation. Multiple TIAs require 3 months off driving for both groups.

      Isolated vasovagal syncope requires no driving restriction for group 1 license holders, but group 2 license holders must refrain from driving for 3 months. Both groups must notify the DVLA. If syncope is caused by a reversible and treated condition, group 1 license holders need 4 weeks off driving, while group 2 license holders require 3 months. In the case of an isolated syncopal episode with an unknown cause, group 1 license holders must refrain from driving for 6 months, while group 2 license holders will have their license refused or revoked for 12 months.

      For patients who continue to drive against medical advice, the GMC (General Medical Council) has provided guidance on how doctors should manage the situation. Doctors should explain to the patient why they are not allowed to drive and inform them of their legal duty to notify the DVLA or DVA (Driver and Vehicle Agency in Northern Ireland). Doctors should also record the advice given to the patient in their medical record

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old male with a past medical history of high blood pressure arrives...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male with a past medical history of high blood pressure arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden chest and interscapular pain that feels like tearing. You suspect aortic dissection. Which of the following signs and symptoms aligns with the diagnosis of aortic dissection?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure differential of more than 10 mmHg between left and right arms

      Explanation:

      A significant proportion of the population experiences a difference of 10 mmHg or more in blood pressure between their upper limbs. Pericarditis can be identified by the presence of saddle-shaped ST elevation and pain in the trapezius ridge. Aortic dissection is characterized by a diastolic murmur with a decrescendo pattern, which indicates aortic incompetence.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a swollen, red, and hot left knee....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a swollen, red, and hot left knee. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.6°C. The knee feels warm to touch and is stiff, making it impossible for the patient to move it.

      Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this situation?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, which occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint and causes pus formation. The clinical features of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty in moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and overall feeling of being unwell.

      The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria can also be responsible. These include Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea (typically seen in sexually active young adults with macules or vesicles on the trunk), and Escherichia coli (common in intravenous drug users, the elderly, and seriously ill individuals).

      According to the current recommendations by NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) and the BNF (British National Formulary), the treatment for septic arthritis involves using specific antibiotics. Flucloxacillin is the first-line choice, but if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is suspicion of MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus), vancomycin is recommended. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic.

      The suggested duration of treatment for septic arthritis is 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with left-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with left-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine dipstick shows microscopic blood in the urine. She is later diagnosed with renal colic.
      What is the most frequently occurring type of kidney stone?

      Your Answer: Calcium containing stones

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract stones form when the concentration of salt and minerals in the urine becomes too high. These stones can be classified into five types based on their mineral composition and how they develop.

      The most common type of stone is the calcium stone, which can be further divided into calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones. These account for 60-80% of all urinary tract stones.

      Another type is the struvite or magnesium ammonium phosphate stone, making up about 10-15% of cases. Uric acid stones, also known as urate stones, occur in 3-10% of cases.

      Cystine stones are less common, accounting for less than 2% of urinary tract stones. Finally, there are drug-induced stones, which are caused by certain medications such as triamterene, protease inhibitors like indinavir sulphate, and sulfa drugs. These account for approximately 1% of cases.

      By understanding the different types of urinary tract stones, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old woman comes in sweating and in distress, complaining of abdominal discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in sweating and in distress, complaining of abdominal discomfort and feeling nauseous. She has a history of excessive alcohol consumption and has just completed a weekend of heavy drinking. During the examination, there is significant tenderness in her abdomen, particularly in the upper middle area, and bruising is noticeable around her belly button and on the sides of her abdomen.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.

      The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Many cases are also of unknown origin. To remember the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful:

      – I: Idiopathic
      – G: Gallstones
      – E: Ethanol
      – T: Trauma
      – S: Steroids
      – M: Mumps
      – A: Autoimmune
      – S: Scorpion stings
      – H: Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia
      – E: ERCP
      – D: Drugs

      The clinical features of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting, referral of pain to specific dermatomes (or shoulder tip via the phrenic nerve), fever/sepsis, epigastric tenderness, jaundice, and signs such as Gray-Turner sign (ecchymosis of the flank) and Cullen sign (ecchymosis of the peri-umbilical area).

      The stimulation of the thoracic splanchnic nerves is responsible for the referred pain to the T6-10 dermatomes that is sometimes observed in pancreatitis and other pancreatic disorders.

      When investigating acute pancreatitis in the emergency department, it is important to perform blood glucose testing, a full blood count (which often shows an elevated white cell count), urea and electrolyte testing, calcium testing, liver function tests, coagulation screening, serum amylase testing (which should be more than 5 times the normal limit), an ECG, arterial blood gas analysis, and an abdominal X-ray.

      Treatment for acute pancreatitis involves providing the patient with oxygen, adequate pain relief (including antiemetics), and fluid resuscitation. A nasogastric tube and urinary catheter should be inserted, and fluid balance should be carefully monitored. Most patients require management in a high dependency unit (HDU) or intensive care unit (ICU) setting.

      Acute pancreatitis has a significant mortality rate, and complications are common. Early complications may include severe sepsis and circulatory shock, acute renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, hypocalcemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome and pancreatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      7.8
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  • Question 30 - A 37 year old male comes to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old male comes to the emergency department with complaints of vertigo and tinnitus on the right side for the last 3 hours. You suspect Meniere's disease. What is the most accurate description of the pathophysiology of Meniere's disease?

      Your Answer: Excessive endolymphatic pressure & dilation of the membranous labyrinth

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is believed to occur due to increased pressure and gradual enlargement of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear, also known as the membranous labyrinth.

      Further Reading:

      Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss. The exact cause of the disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to excessive pressure and dilation of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear. Meniere’s disease is more common in middle-aged adults, but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally.

      The clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that can last from minutes to hours. These attacks often occur in clusters, with several episodes happening in a week. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure. Nystagmus and a positive Romberg test are common findings, and the Fukuda stepping test may also be positive. While symptoms are typically unilateral, bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests can be used to help diagnose Meniere’s disease. In Rinne’s test, air conduction should be better than bone conduction in both ears. In Weber’s test, the sound should be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side due to the sensorineural hearing loss.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms often resolve within 5-10 years, but most patients are left with some residual hearing loss. Psychological distress is common among patients with this condition.

      The diagnostic criteria for Meniere’s disease include clinical features consistent with the disease, confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry, and exclusion of other possible causes.

      Management of Meniere’s disease involves an ENT assessment to confirm the diagnosis and perform audiometry. Patients should be advised to inform the DVLA and may need to cease driving until their symptoms are under control. Acute attacks can be treated with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and hospital admission may be necessary in some cases. Betahistine may be beneficial for prevention of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      7.5
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  • Question 31 - A 35-year-old woman with a long history of heavy alcohol abuse and liver...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a long history of heavy alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, worsening ascites, and confusion. You suspect she may have spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and decide to perform an ascitic tap.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason to avoid performing an ascitic tap?

      Your Answer: Platelet count of 40 x 103/µl

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) requires an abdominal paracentesis of ascitic tap. Other reasons for performing a diagnostic tap include determining the cause of ascites, distinguishing between transudate and exudate, and detecting cancerous cells. Additionally, a therapeutic paracentesis can be done to alleviate respiratory distress or abdominal pain caused by the ascites.

      However, there are certain contraindications to consider. These include having an uncooperative patient, a skin infection at the proposed puncture site, being pregnant, or experiencing severe bowel distension. Relative contraindications involve having severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 20 x 103/μL) or coagulopathy (INR greater than 2.0).

      For patients with an INR greater than 2.0, it is recommended to administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP) before the procedure. One approach is to infuse one unit of fresh frozen plasma prior to the procedure and then proceed with the paracentesis while the second unit is being infused.

      In the case of patients with a platelet count lower than 20 x 103/μL, it is advisable to provide a platelet infusion before the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 62-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea....

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. He is a non-drinker.

      His venous bloods are shown below:

      Hb: 13.5 g/dL
      White cell count: 14.2 x 109/L
      Blood glucose 7.9 mmol/L
      AST 275 IU/L
      LDH 290 IU/L
      Amylase: 980 IU/L

      What is his Ranson score at admission?

      Your Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause the organ to digest itself. The symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and pain that may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or shoulder tip due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Other signs include fever, tenderness in the epigastric area, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner and Cullen signs, which are ecchymosis of the flank and peri-umbilical area, respectively.

      To determine the severity of acute pancreatitis, the Ranson criteria are used as a clinical prediction rule. A score greater than three indicates severe pancreatitis with a mortality rate of over 15%. The criteria assessed upon admission include age over 55 years, white cell count above 16 x 109/L, blood glucose level higher than 11 mmol/L, serum AST level exceeding 250 IU/L, and serum LDH level surpassing 350 IU/L.

      In this particular case, the patient’s Ranson score is three. This is based on the fact that she is 56 years old, her white cell count is 16.7 x 109/L, and her AST level is 358 IU/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      18.3
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  • Question 33 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type B Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You conduct an ECG.
      Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type B Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?

      Your Answer: Can resemble left bundle branch block

      Correct Answer: Dominant R wave in V1

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).

      In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.

      There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).

      Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 25-year-old woman visits your office expressing concern about a recent unprotected sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits your office expressing concern about a recent unprotected sexual encounter that occurred three days ago. She is extremely anxious and determined to prevent pregnancy. The patient has a history of asthma and currently takes Clenil Modulite. Her BMI is 30.

      What is the most appropriate choice for her in this situation?

      Your Answer: Levonelle 1.5 mg

      Correct Answer: Copper IUD

      Explanation:

      Women have three options when requesting emergency contraception. The first option is Levonelle 1.5 mg, which contains levonorgestrel and can be used up to 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking the tablet, another one should be given. Levonelle mainly works by preventing ovulation.

      The second option is ulipristal acetate, the newest treatment available. It can be used up to 120 hours after UPSI. If vomiting occurs within 3 hours of ingestion, another tablet should be given. Ulipristal acetate also works by inhibiting ovulation. However, it should be avoided in patients taking enzyme-inducing drugs, those with severe hepatic impairment, or those with severe asthma requiring oral steroids.

      The third option is the copper IUD, which can be fitted up to 5 days after UPSI or ovulation, whichever is longer. The failure rate of the copper IUD is less than 1 in 1000, making it 10-20 times more effective than oral emergency contraceptive options. It is important to note that Levonelle and ulipristal may be less effective in women with higher BMIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      8.8
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  • Question 35 - A 10 year old male is brought into the emergency department due to...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old male is brought into the emergency department due to worsening fatigue, vomiting, and frequent urination over the past 48 hours. You assess for potential underlying causes, including diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is characterized by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia, acidosis and ketonaemia

      Explanation:

      DKA is characterized by three main symptoms: high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia), an acidic pH in the body (acidosis), and an increased presence of ketones in the blood (ketonaemia).

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain accompanied...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain accompanied by diarrhea. She states that she has experienced several similar episodes over the past year, with the diarrhea often being watery and bloody. The patient also reports feeling constantly fatigued recently. Upon examination, tenderness is noted upon deep palpation in both lower quadrants, but there is no guarding or rigidity. Bowel sounds are audible. The patient's vital signs and initial blood test results are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 140/82 mmHg
      Pulse: 93 bpm
      Respiration rate: 16 bpm
      Oxygen saturations: 98% on room air
      Temperature: 37.3ºC

      Hemoglobin: 111 g/l
      Platelets: 324 * 109/l
      White blood cells: 11.2 * 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume: 78 fL
      Ferritin: 21 ng/mL

      The patient has not traveled abroad in years due to COVID-19 and rarely consumes alcohol. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Colonoscopy with histology is a useful tool in determining the extent and severity of ulcerative colitis. Chronic bloody diarrhea, lasting for more than four weeks, can be caused by various conditions. In this age group, the top differentials include inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and infective causes such as C.diff and giardia. Other potential causes include drug use (such as laxatives and alcohol), hyperthyroidism (usually accompanied by other signs), coeliac disease (although blood in the stool is not a common symptom), and malabsorption syndromes like pancreatic insufficiency.

      When IBD is suspected, fecal calprotectin is often tested and typically found to be elevated. This test is usually performed before colonoscopy and biopsy in individuals under 40 years old. However, in those over 40, a colonoscopy is often the initial investigation to assess for possible underlying malignancy. It is important to note that calprotectin is not specific to IBD and can also be elevated in other conditions such as infectious enteritis and colorectal neoplasia, which limits its diagnostic value. NICE guidelines advise against using calprotectin in individuals with bloody diarrhea.

      Initial investigations for chronic bloody diarrhea should include thyroid function testing, coeliac screening, and stool analysis for microscopy and culture. It is worth noting that different hospitals may vary in the specific tests included in stool microscopy and culture, but most labs will typically test for ova, cysts, and parasites. Stool antigen tests are commonly used to detect H.pylori. Vitamin B12 testing may also be appropriate, although deficiency in this vitamin usually leads to a macrocytic anemia and is therefore unlikely to contribute significantly to the diagnosis.

      Further Reading:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation of the intestinal tract and an imbalance of the intestinal microbiota. The two main forms of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis (UC). In some cases, it is not possible to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and UC, and the term inflammatory bowel disease type-unclassified may be used.

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. It most commonly involves the ileum and colon. The inflammation in Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall, leading to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Risk factors for developing Crohn’s disease include a family history, smoking, infectious gastroenteritis, appendicectomy, and the use of NSAIDs and oral contraceptive drugs. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease can vary but often include diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and perianal disease. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and uveitis, can also occur.

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that primarily affects the large bowel. The inflammation in UC is limited to the intestinal mucosa and does not involve skip lesions like in Crohn’s disease. Risk factors for developing UC include a family history, not smoking, and no appendix. Symptoms of UC include bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis and uveitis, can also occur. Complications of UC include toxic megacolon, bowel obstruction, bowel perforation, strictures, fistula formation, anemia, malnutrition, and colorectal cancer.

      Diagnosing IBD involves various investigations, including blood tests, stool microscopy and culture, fecal calprotectin testing, endoscopy with biopsy, and imaging modalities such as CT and MR enterography. The management of Crohn’s disease and UC is complex and may involve corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs, biologic therapy, surgery, and nutritional support. Patients with IBD should also be monitored for nutritional deficiencies, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      14.5
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  • Question 37 - A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after injuring himself in a fall. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that he was diagnosed with mitral stenosis last year. You advise the medical students to assess the patient for indications of this condition.

      What is a typical symptom observed in individuals with mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Malar flush

      Explanation:

      One of the clinical features of mitral stenosis is malar flush, which refers to a reddening or flushing of the cheeks. Other clinical features include a mid-late diastolic murmur that is best heard during expiration, a loud S1 heart sound with an opening snap, a low volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, and signs of pulmonary edema such as crepitations or the presence of white or pink frothy sputum.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood film.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Sickle-cell disease

      Explanation:

      Target cells, also referred to as codocytes or Mexican hat cells, are a distinct type of red blood cells that display a unique appearance resembling a shooting target with a bullseye. These cells are commonly observed in individuals with sickle-cell disease, distinguishing it from the other conditions mentioned in the provided options. Hence, sickle-cell disease is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Additionally, target cells can also be associated with other conditions such as thalassaemia, liver disease, iron-deficiency anaemia, post splenectomy, and haemoglobin C disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - You are managing a 68-year-old male patient who has been intubated due to...

    Correct

    • You are managing a 68-year-old male patient who has been intubated due to the development of acute severe respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). While adjusting the ventilator settings, your consultant emphasizes the significance of employing lung protective ventilation to prevent ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI). What is a crucial element of lung protective ventilation?

      Your Answer: Use low tidal volumes

      Explanation:

      Lung protective ventilation involves several important elements, with low tidal volumes being a crucial component. Specifically, using tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg is recommended to minimize the risk of lung injury. Additionally, it is important to maintain inspiratory pressures, also known as plateau pressure, below 30 cm of water to further protect the lungs. Lastly, permissible hypercapnia, or allowing for higher levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, is another key aspect of lung protective ventilation.

      Further Reading:

      ARDS is a severe form of lung injury that occurs in patients with a predisposing risk factor. It is characterized by the onset of respiratory symptoms within 7 days of a known clinical insult, bilateral opacities on chest X-ray, and respiratory failure that cannot be fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. Hypoxemia is also present, as indicated by a specific threshold of the PaO2/FiO2 ratio measured with a minimum requirement of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) ≥5 cm H2O. The severity of ARDS is classified based on the PaO2/FiO2 ratio, with mild, moderate, and severe categories.

      Lung protective ventilation is a set of measures aimed at reducing lung damage that may occur as a result of mechanical ventilation. Mechanical ventilation can cause lung damage through various mechanisms, including high air pressure exerted on lung tissues (barotrauma), over distending the lung (volutrauma), repeated opening and closing of lung units (atelectrauma), and the release of inflammatory mediators that can induce lung injury (biotrauma). These mechanisms collectively contribute to ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI).

      The key components of lung protective ventilation include using low tidal volumes (5-8 ml/kg), maintaining inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) below 30 cm of water, and allowing for permissible hypercapnia. However, there are some contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as an unacceptable level of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia. These factors need to be carefully considered when implementing lung protective ventilation strategies in patients with ARDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You assess a patient who has a confirmed diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. She...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has a confirmed diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. She has been living with the disease for several years and is currently in the advanced stages of the condition.
      Which of the following clinical manifestations is typically observed only in the later stages of Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Hypokinesia

      Correct Answer: Cognitive impairment

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:

      – Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
      – Bradykinesia (slow movement)
      – Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
      – Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)

      Other commonly observed clinical features include:

      – Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
      – Loss of facial expression
      – Monotonous, slurred speech
      – Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
      – Increased salivation and dribbling
      – Difficulty with fine movements

      Initially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:

      – Postural instability
      – Cognitive impairment
      – Orthostatic hypotension

      Although PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.3
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  • Question 41 - A 45-year-old patient has sustained an injury to their left upper limb, resulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has sustained an injury to their left upper limb, resulting in a peripheral neuropathy. Upon examination, the patient presents with clawing of their hand, with hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the little and ring fingers. However, their wrist flexion remains normal. Sensory loss is observed over the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers, while sensation in the rest of the hand and forearm, including the palm and dorsal aspect of all fingers, is normal. Additionally, Froment's sign is positive.

      Which specific nerve has been affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at the elbow

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve at the wrist

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8-T1 nerve roots. It may also carry fibers from C7 on occasion. This nerve has both motor and sensory functions.

      In terms of motor function, the ulnar nerve innervates the muscles of the hand, excluding the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals (which are supplied by the median nerve). It also innervates two muscles in the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.

      Regarding sensory function, the ulnar nerve provides innervation to the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the associated palm and dorsal hand area. There are three sensory branches responsible for the cutaneous innervation of the ulnar nerve. Two of these branches arise in the forearm and travel into the hand: the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the skin of the medial half of the palm, and the dorsal cutaneous branch, which innervates the dorsal skin of the medial one and a half fingers and the associated dorsal hand. The third branch arises in the hand and is called the superficial branch, which innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers.

      When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the anterior forearm will be spared. However, if the ulnar nerve is injured at the wrist, these muscles will be affected. Additionally, when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, flexion of the wrist can still occur due to the intact median nerve, but it will be accompanied by abduction as the flexor carpi ulnaris adducts the hand. On the other hand, wrist flexion will be unaffected when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the wrist.

      The sensory function also differs depending on the site of damage. When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, all three cutaneous branches will be affected, resulting in complete sensory loss in the areas innervated by the ulnar nerve. However, if the damage occurs at the wrist, the two branches that arise in the forearm may be spared.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at either the elbow or wrist leads to a characteristic claw hand appearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to...

    Correct

    • A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to have experienced a grade IV hemorrhage. The patient's weight is approximately 60 kg.
      Which of the following physiological indicators aligns with a diagnosis of grade IV hemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Blood loss of greater than 2 L in a 70 kg male

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.

      The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 43 - A 65-year-old man comes in with a painful swelling in his right groin....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with a painful swelling in his right groin. He had an appendicectomy 25 years ago and has no other medical history. You suspect it may be a hernia. The swelling gradually appears when he stands and can be pushed back in a upward and outward direction. It extends into his scrotum and is located above and towards the center of the pubic tubercle.
      What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Correct Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An inguinal hernia occurs when the contents of the abdominal cavity protrude through the inguinal canal. There are two main types of inguinal hernias: indirect and direct. Indirect hernias, which account for 75% of cases, originate lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and follow the path of the spermatic cord or round ligament through the internal inguinal ring and along the inguinal canal. On the other hand, direct hernias, which make up 25% of cases, originate medial to the inferior epigastric artery and protrude through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      Indirect inguinal hernias can be distinguished from direct hernias by several features. They have an elliptical shape, unlike the round shape of direct hernias. They are also less likely to be easily reducible and reduce spontaneously on reclining. Additionally, indirect hernias take longer to appear when standing compared to direct hernias, which appear immediately. They can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally, while direct hernias reduce superiorly and posteriorly. Pressure over the deep inguinal ring can control indirect hernias. However, they are more prone to strangulation due to the narrow neck of the deep inguinal ring and can extend into the scrotum.

      In contrast, a femoral hernia occurs when the abdominal cavity contents protrude through the femoral canal. These hernias occur below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, whereas inguinal hernias occur above and medial to the pubic tubercle. Femoral hernias are more easily visible when the patient is lying supine.

      A sports hernia, also known as athletic pubalgia, is characterized by chronic groin pain in athletes and the presence of a dilated superficial inguinal ring. However, there is no palpable hernia during examination.

      It is important to note that the hernia described here is not located near any scars, making it unlikely to be an incisional hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 44 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe and persistent nausea...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe and persistent nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant. She is struggling to keep anything down and has experienced some weight loss over the past couple of weeks. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 103 bpm, respiratory rate 14, blood pressure 113/70 mmHg. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and a urine dipstick reveals 3+ ketones.

      What is the MOST appropriate initial anti-emetic medication to be used in this case?

      Your Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Vomiting is a common occurrence during the early stages of pregnancy, typically happening between 7 and 12 weeks. However, there is a more severe condition called hyperemesis gravidarum, which involves uncontrollable and intense nausea and vomiting. This condition can lead to imbalances in fluids and electrolytes, significant ketonuria, malnutrition, and weight loss. It is relatively rare, affecting less than 1% of pregnancies.

      For mild cases of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy, dietary adjustments and non-pharmacological methods like consuming ginger or using P6 wrist acupressure can often provide relief.

      In severe cases where heavy ketonuria and severe dehydration are present, hospital admission is usually necessary for intravenous fluid rehydration. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary (CKS) on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy recommends using oral promethazine, oral cyclizine, or oral prochlorperazine as the first-line treatment if an anti-emetic is needed. After 24 hours, the situation should be reassessed to determine if the initial treatment is effective. If not, a second-line drug like metoclopramide or ondansetron should be considered.

      It’s important to exercise caution when using metoclopramide in patients under the age of 20 due to the increased risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) and histamine H2-receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine) can be beneficial for women experiencing significant dyspepsia alongside their nausea and vomiting.

      For more information, refer to the NICE CKS on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 28-year-old with a past of opioid misuse is brought into the ER...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old with a past of opioid misuse is brought into the ER after being discovered in a collapsed state with decreased level of consciousness. You are worried about the patient's airway. Your consultant recommends using a nasopharyngeal airway adjunct instead of an oropharyngeal airway adjunct. Why is a nasopharyngeal airway preferred in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Less likely to provoke the gag reflex

      Explanation:

      When a patient is semi-conscious, it is less likely for the nasopharyngeal airway adjuncts (NPA’s) to trigger the gag reflex compared to oropharyngeal airways. Therefore, NPA’s are typically the preferred option in these cases.

      Further Reading:

      Techniques to keep the airway open:

      1. Suction: Used to remove obstructing material such as blood, vomit, secretions, and food debris from the oral cavity.

      2. Chin lift manoeuvres: Involves lifting the head off the floor and lifting the chin to extend the head in relation to the neck. Improves alignment of the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes.

      3. Jaw thrust: Used in trauma patients with cervical spine injury concerns. Fingers are placed under the mandible and gently pushed upward.

      Airway adjuncts:

      1. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA): Prevents the tongue from occluding the airway. Sized according to the patient by measuring from the incisor teeth to the angle of the mandible. Inserted with the tip facing backwards and rotated 180 degrees once it touches the back of the palate or oropharynx.

      2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA): Useful when it is difficult to open the mouth or in semi-conscious patients. Sized by length (distance between nostril and tragus of the ear) and diameter (roughly that of the patient’s little finger). Contraindicated in basal skull and midface fractures.

      Laryngeal mask airway (LMA):

      – Supraglottic airway device used as a first line or rescue airway.
      – Easy to insert, sized according to patient’s bodyweight.
      – Advantages: Easy insertion, effective ventilation, some protection from aspiration.
      – Disadvantages: Risk of hypoventilation, greater gastric inflation than endotracheal tube (ETT), risk of aspiration and laryngospasm.

      Note: Proper training and assessment of the patient’s condition are essential for airway management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 40 minutes before his arrival. On arrival, he is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. He is a known epileptic and is currently taking lamotrigine for seizure prevention. He has received a single dose of rectal diazepam by the paramedics en route approximately 15 minutes ago. His vital signs are as follows: HR 92, BP 120/70, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 36.8°C. His blood glucose level is 4.5 mmol/L, and he has an intravenous line in place.
      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?

      Your Answer: Thiopental sodium bolus

      Correct Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In such cases, the next step in managing the patient would be to administer a second dose of benzodiazepine. Since the patient already has an intravenous line in place, this would be the most appropriate route to choose.

      The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures, which are outlined in the following table:

      1st stage (Early status, 0-10 minutes):
      – Secure the airway and provide resuscitation
      – Administer oxygen
      – Assess cardiorespiratory function
      – Establish intravenous access

      2nd stage (0-30 minutes):
      – Institute regular monitoring
      – Consider the possibility of non-epileptic status
      – Start emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy
      – Perform emergency investigations
      – Administer glucose (50 ml of 50% solution) and/or intravenous thiamine as Pabrinex if there is any suggestion of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition
      – Treat severe acidosis if present

      3rd stage (0-60 minutes):
      – Determine the underlying cause of status epilepticus
      – Alert the anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU)
      – Identify and treat any medical complications
      – Consider pressor therapy when appropriate

      4th stage (30-90 minutes):
      – Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit
      – Establish intensive care and EEG monitoring
      – Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring if necessary
      – Start initial long-term, maintenance AED therapy

      Emergency investigations for status epilepticus include blood tests for gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of the convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be performed to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, depend on the clinical circumstances.

      Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature. ECG, biochemistry, blood gases, clotting, and blood count should also be monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling unwell in...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling unwell in the Pediatric Emergency Department. Upon reviewing her urea & electrolytes, you observe that her potassium level is elevated at 6.7 mmol/l. An ECG is conducted, which reveals normal sinus rhythm. A nebulizer treatment with salbutamol is administered, and shortly after, an arterial blood gas is performed. The child's pH is 7.41, but her potassium level remains unchanged.
      As per the APLS guidelines, which medication should be utilized next?

      Your Answer: Insulin and glucose infusion

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is when the level of potassium in the blood is higher than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be categorized as mild, moderate, or severe depending on the specific potassium levels. Mild hyperkalaemia is between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, moderate hyperkalaemia is between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l, and severe hyperkalaemia is above 6.5 mmol/l. The most common cause of hyperkalaemia in renal failure, which can be acute or chronic. Other causes include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.

      Calcium is used to counteract the harmful effects of hyperkalaemia on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane and preventing abnormal depolarization. It works quickly, usually within 15 minutes, but its effects are not long-lasting. Calcium is considered a first-line treatment for arrhythmias and significant ECG abnormalities caused by hyperkalaemia, such as widening of the QRS interval, loss of the P wave, and cardiac arrhythmias. However, arrhythmias are rare at potassium levels below 7.5 mmol/l.

      It’s important to note that calcium does not lower the serum potassium level. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with other therapies that actually help reduce potassium levels, such as insulin and salbutamol. If the pH is measured to be above 7.35 and the potassium level remains high despite nebulized salbutamol, the APLS guidelines recommend the administration of an insulin and glucose infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant comes in with abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant comes in with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, her cervix is found to be open. A local early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU) performs an ultrasound scan. The scan is unable to detect a fetal heartbeat but does show the presence of retained products of conception.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Incomplete miscarriage

      Explanation:

      An incomplete miscarriage occurs when a miscarriage occurs, but the products of conception have not been fully expelled from the uterus. This commonly happens between weeks 8 and 14 of pregnancy.

      Symptoms of an incomplete miscarriage include pain and bleeding, and the cervix is usually open. A diagnosis can be confirmed through an ultrasound scan, which will show the absence of a fetal heartbeat and retained products.

      Treatment for an incomplete miscarriage can be done medically, such as using misoprostol, or surgically, like undergoing an ERPC procedure.

      There are potential complications that can arise from an incomplete miscarriage, including endometritis, myometritis, septic shock, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 35 year old homeless patient presents with blistered and discolored feet after...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old homeless patient presents with blistered and discolored feet after spending multiple days on the streets during freezing temperatures. Frostbite is diagnosed, and the plan is to initiate Rewarming of the affected area. Which of the following statements about frostbite is accurate?

      Your Answer: Reperfusion is usually very painful

      Explanation:

      Reperfusion after a frostbite injury can be extremely painful, so it is important to provide strong pain relief. If there are clear blisters, they should be opened and aloe vera should be applied every 6 hours. However, if there are blisters with blood, they should not be opened, but aloe vera can still be used topically. Taking 400 mg of ibuprofen orally, if there are no contraindications, can help reduce inflammation and improve the outcome of frostbite. Technetium-99m pertechnetate scintigraphy is the preferred method for assessing blood flow in the affected area. To treat frostbite, it is recommended to re-warm the affected areas by immersing them in warm water.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 72 year old male attends the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male attends the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded, experiencing shortness of breath, and having irregular heartbeats. He states that these symptoms started six hours ago. Upon listening to his chest, clear lung fields are detected but an irregularly irregular pulse is observed. The patient has type 2 diabetes, which is currently controlled through diet. The only medications he takes are:
      - Lisinopril 2.5 mg once daily
      - Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
      There is no history of heart disease, vascular disease, or stroke. The recorded observations are as follows:
      - Blood pressure: 148/92 mmHg
      - Pulse rate: 86 bpm
      - Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      - Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
      An ECG is performed, confirming atrial fibrillation. As part of the management, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      What is this patient's score?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The patient is currently taking 20 mg of Atorvastatin once daily. They do not have a history of heart disease, vascular disease, or stroke. Their blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg, pulse rate is 86 bpm, and respiration rate is 1.

      Further Reading:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 42-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.
      His venous bloods are shown below:
      Hb: 14.5 g/dL
      White cell count: 15.2 x 109/L
      Blood glucose 7.9 mmol/L
      AST 512 IU/L
      LDH 420 IU/L
      Amylase: 1200 IU/L
      What is the most likely underlying cause for his pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol abuse

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a frequently encountered and serious source of acute abdominal pain. It involves the sudden inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.

      The clinical manifestations of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. The pain may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or even to the shoulder tip through the phrenic nerve if the diaphragm is irritated. Other symptoms may include fever or sepsis, tenderness in the epigastric region, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner sign (bruising on the flank) or Cullen sign (bruising around the belly button).

      The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Additionally, many cases are considered idiopathic, meaning the cause is unknown. To aid in remembering the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful. Each letter represents a potential cause: Idiopathic, Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion stings, Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia, ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography), and Drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 16-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of a headache, stiffness in...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of a headache, stiffness in his neck, and sensitivity to light. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 124, blood pressure 86/43, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 95%, and temperature 39.5oC. He has recently noticed a rash on his legs that does not fade when pressed.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia

      Explanation:

      A non-blanching rash in a child should always raise suspicion of meningococcal septicaemia, especially if the child appears unwell, has purpura lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter, a capillary refill time of more than 3 seconds, or neck stiffness. In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      In this particular case, the child is clearly very sick and showing signs of septic shock. It is crucial to administer a single dose of benzylpenicillin without delay and arrange for immediate transfer to the nearest Emergency Department via ambulance.

      The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin based on age are as follows:
      – Infants under 1 year of age: 300 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children aged 1 to 9 years: 600 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children and adults aged 10 years or older: 1.2 g of IM or IV benzylpenicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department due to a worsening of their symptoms. Your consultant administers an initial dose of intravenous aminophylline, and the patient's symptoms start to improve. The consultant requests that you obtain a blood sample to measure the patient's theophylline levels after an appropriate duration of treatment.
      How much time should elapse before obtaining the blood sample following the initiation of this treatment?

      Your Answer: 4-6 hours

      Explanation:

      In order to achieve satisfactory bronchodilation, most individuals require a plasma theophylline concentration of 10-20 mg/litre (55-110 micromol/litre). However, it is possible for a lower concentration to still be effective. Adverse effects can occur within the range of 10-20 mg/litre, and their frequency and severity increase when concentrations exceed 20 mg/litre.

      To measure plasma theophylline concentration, a blood sample should be taken five days after starting oral treatment and at least three days after any dose adjustment. For modified-release preparations, the blood sample should typically be taken 4-6 hours after an oral dose (specific sampling times may vary, so it is advisable to consult local guidelines). If aminophylline is administered intravenously, a blood sample should be taken 4-6 hours after initiating treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 38-year-old man from East Africa comes in with a fever, night sweats,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man from East Africa comes in with a fever, night sweats, a cough, and haemoptysis. He has a confirmed diagnosis of HIV and a CD4 count of 115 cells/mm3.

      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      The co-epidemic of tuberculosis and HIV is a significant global health challenge at present. According to the WHO, there were 10 million new cases of tuberculosis in 2019, with approximately 11% of these cases being co-infected with HIV. Tuberculosis is the most common contagious infection in individuals with compromised immune systems due to HIV, often leading to death.

      Tuberculosis is caused by an infection with the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. While it primarily affects the lungs, it can also impact various other parts of the body. The disease is spread through aerosol transmission, meaning it is transmitted through droplets in the air.

      The primary symptoms of tuberculosis infection include a chronic cough, coughing up blood (haemoptysis), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. In individuals who have not been previously affected, tuberculosis can cause a primary lesion known as the Ghon focus. This lesion typically develops in the upper lobes of the lungs.

      In 15-20% of cases, the infection spreads to extrapulmonary sites such as the pleura, central nervous system, lymphatics, bones, joints, and genitourinary system. Extrapulmonary tuberculosis that affects the spine is known as Pott’s disease, primarily affecting the lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae. Cervical tuberculous lymphadenopathy, also known as scrofula, is characterized by cold abscesses without erythema or warmth.

      Only a small percentage of patients, around 5-10%, go on to develop post-primary tuberculosis, also known as reactivation tuberculosis. This typically occurs a year or two after the primary infection and is more likely to happen in individuals with a weakened immune system. Reactivation tuberculosis often involves the lung apex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. She has been in a car accident and has sustained severe burns. You examine her airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. Your plan is to intubate the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
      As per the ATLS guidelines, what is the minimum internal diameter of the endotracheal tube that should be utilized?

      Your Answer: 6.5 mm

      Correct Answer: 7.5 mm

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a fall. You observe that the patient has several risk factors for osteoporosis and conduct a Qfractureâ„¢ assessment. What is the threshold for conducting a DXA (DEXA) bone density scan?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.

      Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.

      The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.

      There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.

      Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.

      Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.

      Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 28 year old female presents at the emergency department with a circular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents at the emergency department with a circular saw laceration. You opt to examine the wound using local anesthesia. What is the maximum dosage of Prilocaine that can be administered?

      Your Answer: 3 mg/Kg

      Correct Answer: 6 mg/Kg

      Explanation:

      The highest amount of Prilocaine that can be administered without adrenaline is 6 mg per kilogram of body weight. However, if Prilocaine is used in combination with adrenaline, the maximum dose increases to 8mg per kilogram.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - You are part of the team working on a child with severe burns....

    Correct

    • You are part of the team working on a child with severe burns. The child has a suspected inhalation injury and needs to be intubated before being transferred to the local burns unit. During direct laryngoscopy, which classification system is used to evaluate the glottic opening?

      Your Answer: Cormack and Lehane classification

      Explanation:

      The tracheal opening can be classified using the Cormack-Lehane grading system. This system categorizes the views obtained through direct laryngoscopy based on the structures that are visible. More information about this classification system can be found in the notes provided below.

      Further Reading:

      A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.

      Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.

      If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.

      Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      4
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  • Question 59 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. He is currently prescribed 15 mg sustained-release morphine twice daily for pain management, but is now encountering breakthrough pain.
      According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first-line rescue medication for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: Oral immediate-release morphine

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      4.5
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  • Question 60 - A 35-year-old woman is given chloramphenicol for an infection while she is pregnant....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is given chloramphenicol for an infection while she is pregnant. As a result of this treatment, the newborn develops a deformity.
      Which of the following deformities is most likely to occur as a result of using this medication during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Grey baby syndrome

      Explanation:

      Grey baby syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur in neonates, especially premature babies, as a result of the build-up of the antibiotic chloramphenicol. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including ashen grey skin color, poor feeding, vomiting, cyanosis, hypotension, hypothermia, hypotonia, cardiovascular collapse, abdominal distension, and respiratory difficulties.

      During pregnancy, there are several drugs that can have adverse effects on the developing fetus. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, if given in the second and third trimesters, can lead to hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses of aspirin (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the first trimester, may lead to phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimesters can result in fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol, as mentioned earlier, can cause grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, if administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride, as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.4
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  • Question 61 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a persistent sore throat that has been bothering...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a persistent sore throat that has been bothering her for the past five days. She denies having any symptoms of a cold and does not have a cough. She has a clean medical history, does not take any medications, and has no known drug allergies. During the examination, she has a normal body temperature and a few tender lymph nodes in her neck. Her throat and tonsils appear red and inflamed, with a significant amount of exudate on her left tonsil.

      Using the FeverPAIN Score to evaluate her sore throat, what would be the most appropriate course of action for her at this point?

      Your Answer: She should be offered a 'back-up prescription' for penicillin V

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, recommendations for antibiotic use are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates an unlikely streptococcal infection, with antibiotics not recommended; a score of 2-3 suggests a 34-40% chance of streptococcus, and delayed prescribing of antibiotics may be considered; a score of 4 or higher indicates a 62-65% chance of streptococcus, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended for severe cases, or a short back-up prescription may be given for 48 hours.

      The Fever PAIN score was developed through a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was tested in a trial comparing three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, score-directed prescribing, and a combination of the score with a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and reduced antibiotic prescribing by one third. The addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      According to the current NICE guidelines, if antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin is recommended as the first-choice antibiotic. In cases of true penicillin allergy, clarithromycin can be used as an alternative. For pregnant women with a penicillin allergy, erythromycin is prescribed. It is important to note that the threshold for prescribing antibiotics should be lower for individuals at risk of rheumatic fever and vulnerable groups managed in primary care, such as infants, the elderly, and those who are immunosuppressed or immunocompromised. Antibiotics should not be withheld if the person has severe symptoms and there are concerns about their clinical condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      15.6
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  • Question 62 - A 32-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm leg...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm leg laceration. After assessing the wound, it is determined that suturing under anesthesia is necessary. You intend to supervise one of the medical students in closing the wound. Before beginning the procedure, you have a discussion about the risks associated with local anesthesia. Methemoglobinemia is primarily associated with which type of anesthetic agent?

      Your Answer: Prilocaine

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition that can occur when prilocaine is used, particularly when administered at doses higher than 16 mg/kg.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      6.9
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  • Question 63 - A 45-year-old executive presents with a painful, swollen right calf after a recent...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old executive presents with a painful, swollen right calf after a recent flight from New York. You evaluate him for a potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT). As part of your evaluation, you compute a two-level Wells score, which is two points.

      What would be the most suitable next course of action in his treatment?

      Your Answer: Proximal leg vein ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for suspected DVT state that if a person scores two points or more on the DVT Wells score, they are likely to have DVT. On the other hand, if a person scores one point or less, it is unlikely that they have DVT.

      For individuals who are likely to have DVT, it is recommended to offer a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan with the results available within 4 hours if possible. However, if the ultrasound scan cannot be done within 4 hours, the following steps should be taken: a D-dimer test should be offered, followed by interim therapeutic anticoagulation. It is preferable to choose an anticoagulant that can be continued if DVT is confirmed. Additionally, a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be conducted with the results available within 24 hours.

      For individuals who are unlikely to have DVT, it is advised to offer a D-dimer test with the results available within 4 hours. If obtaining the results within 4 hours is not possible, interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be provided while awaiting the result. If feasible, an anticoagulant that can be continued if DVT is confirmed should be chosen.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on deep vein thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      9
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  • Question 64 - A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection after finding eggs in their stool.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this infection?

      Your Answer: Praziquantel

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.6
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  • Question 65 - A 70-year-old man with a known history of Alzheimer's disease and a previous...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a known history of Alzheimer's disease and a previous heart attack experiences urinary incontinence and a sudden decline in his cognitive function. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or discomfort while urinating.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI) can be difficult to detect in elderly patients, especially those with dementia. Common signs like painful urination and abdominal discomfort may be absent. Instead, these patients often experience increased confusion, restlessness, and a decline in cognitive abilities. Therefore, if an elderly patient suddenly develops urinary incontinence and experiences a rapid deterioration in cognitive function, it is highly likely that they have a UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has...

    Correct

    • You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has been taking amiodarone for several years.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding the effects of amiodarone on the eye is true?

      Your Answer: Corneal microdeposits are almost universally present in patients taking amiodarone for longer than six months

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.

      Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.9
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  • Question 67 - You evaluate a 78-year-old woman who has come in after a fall. She...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 78-year-old woman who has come in after a fall. She is frail and exhibits signs of recent memory loss. You administer an abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) and record the findings in her medical records.
      Which ONE of the following is NOT included in the abbreviated mental test score (AMTS)?

      Your Answer: Repeating back a phrase

      Explanation:

      The 30-point Folstein mini-mental state examination (MMSE) includes a task where the examiner asks the individual to repeat back a phrase. However, this task is not included in the AMTS. The AMTS consists of ten questions that assess different aspects of cognitive function. These questions cover topics such as age, time, year, location, recognition of people, date of birth, historical events, present monarch or prime minister, counting backwards, and recall of an address. The AMTS is a useful tool for evaluating memory loss and is referenced in the RCEM syllabus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 45-year-old patient comes to the emergency department with a complaint of increasing...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient comes to the emergency department with a complaint of increasing hearing loss in the right ear over the past few months. During the examination, tuning fork tests are performed. Weber's test shows lateralization to the left side, and Rinne's testing is positive in both ears.

      Based on this assessment, which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Based on the assessment findings, the most likely diagnosis for the 45-year-old patient with increasing hearing loss in the right ear is an acoustic neuroma. This is suggested by the lateralization of Weber’s test to the left side, indicating that sound is being heard better in the left ear. Additionally, the positive Rinne’s test in both ears suggests that air conduction is better than bone conduction, which is consistent with an acoustic neuroma. Other possible diagnoses such as otosclerosis, otitis media, cerumen impaction, and tympanic membrane perforation are less likely based on the given information.

      Further Reading:

      Hearing loss is a common complaint that can be caused by various conditions affecting different parts of the ear and nervous system. The outer ear is the part of the ear outside the eardrum, while the middle ear is located between the eardrum and the cochlea. The inner ear is within the bony labyrinth and consists of the vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea. The vestibulocochlear nerve connects the inner ear to the brain.

      Hearing loss can be classified based on severity, onset, and type. Severity is determined by the quietest sound that can be heard, measured in decibels. It can range from mild to profound deafness. Onset can be sudden, rapidly progressive, slowly progressive, or fluctuating. Type of hearing loss can be either conductive or sensorineural. Conductive hearing loss is caused by issues in the external ear, eardrum, or middle ear that disrupt sound transmission. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by problems in the cochlea, auditory nerve, or higher auditory processing pathways.

      To diagnose sensorineural and conductive deafness, a 512 Hz tuning fork is used to perform Rinne and Weber’s tests. These tests help determine the type of hearing loss based on the results. In Rinne’s test, air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC) are compared, while Weber’s test checks for sound lateralization.

      Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by the abnormal accumulation of skin cells in the middle ear or mastoid air cell spaces. It is believed to develop from a retraction pocket that traps squamous cells. Cholesteatoma can cause the accumulation of keratin and the destruction of adjacent bones and tissues due to the production of destructive enzymes. It can lead to mixed sensorineural and conductive deafness as it affects both the middle and inner ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      9.7
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  • Question 69 - A 10 year old girl is brought into the emergency department by worried...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old girl is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child mentioned having stomach pain and feeling nauseous yesterday but began vomiting this morning and now appears sleepy. After evaluating her, you examine the results of the venous blood gas and glucose (provided below):

      pH 6.98
      Bicarbonate 9 mmol/l
      Glucose 28 mmol/l

      The girl weighs 35kg. What is the calculated fluid deficit for this patient?

      Your Answer: 3000ml

      Explanation:

      Fluid deficit in children and young people with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is determined by measuring their blood pH and bicarbonate levels. If the blood pH is below 7.1 and/or the bicarbonate level is below 5, it indicates a fluid deficit. This simplified explanation uses a cutoff value of 5 to determine the severity of the fluid deficit in DKA.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 70 - A 21 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. The patient denies having a cough. Upon examination, the patient's temperature is measured at 38.3°C, blood pressure at 122/78 mmHg, and pulse rate at 92 bpm. There is visible white exudate on both tonsils and tenderness and swelling when palpating the lymph nodes around the sternocleidomastoid muscles on both sides.

      What is the CENTOR score for this patient?

      Your Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The CENTOR score is a clinical prediction rule used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a streptococcal infection, which is commonly associated with sore throat. It is based on the presence or absence of four clinical criteria: fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and absence of cough. Each criterion is assigned one point, and the total score ranges from 0 to 4. In this case, the patient has a fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and no cough, resulting in a CENTOR score of 4. A higher score indicates a higher likelihood of a streptococcal infection, and further diagnostic testing or treatment may be warranted.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      15.3
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  • Question 71 - A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active at the moment and has no other health issues. She does not report any itching symptoms but has observed a strong fishy odor in the discharge.
      Which organisms should be the primary target for initial treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis only

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common condition that affects up to a third of women during their childbearing years. It occurs when there is an overgrowth of bacteria, specifically Gardnerella vaginalis. This bacterium is anaerobic, meaning it thrives in environments without oxygen. As it multiplies, it disrupts the balance of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a rise in pH levels and a decrease in lactic acid-producing lactobacilli. It’s important to note that BV is not a sexually transmitted infection.

      The main symptom of BV is a greyish discharge with a distinct fishy odor. However, it’s worth mentioning that around 50% of affected women may not experience any symptoms at all.

      To diagnose BV, healthcare providers often use Amsel’s criteria. This involves looking for the presence of three out of four specific criteria: a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, a positive fishy smell test when potassium hydroxide is added, the presence of clue cells on microscopy, and a thin, white, homogeneous discharge.

      The primary treatment for BV is oral metronidazole, typically taken for 5-7 days. This medication has an initial cure rate of about 75%. It’s crucial to provide special care to pregnant patients diagnosed with BV, as it has been linked to an increased risk of late miscarriage, early labor, and chorioamnionitis. Therefore, prompt treatment for these patients is of utmost importance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      4.6
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  • Question 72 - A 36 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a syncopal episode. The patient reports several weeks of generalized weakness, muscle aches, and feeling dizzy when standing which has been gradually worsening. On examination, you note pigmented areas on the lips, tongue, and gums with patches of vitiligo around the hands and wrists. Observation and blood test results are shown below:

      Hb 132 g/l
      Platelets 124 * 109/l
      WBC 8.0 * 109/l
      Na+ 128 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 µmol/l
      Glucose 3.1 mmol/l

      Blood pressure 94/56 mmHg
      Pulse 102 bpm
      Respirations 18 bpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease, also known as adrenal insufficiency, is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms over several weeks, although it can sometimes occur suddenly. The diagnosis of Addison’s disease can be challenging as its symptoms, such as fatigue, muscle pain, weight loss, and nausea, are non-specific. However, a key feature is low blood pressure. The disease is associated with changes in pigmentation, ranging from increased pigmentation due to elevated ACTH levels to the development of vitiligo caused by the autoimmune destruction of melanocytes.

      Patients with Addison’s disease often exhibit hyponatremia (low sodium levels) and hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). If the patient is dehydrated, this may be reflected in elevated urea and creatinine levels. While hypercalcemia (high calcium levels) and hypoglycemia (low blood sugar levels) can occur in Addison’s disease, they are less common than hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.

      In contrast, diabetes insipidus, characterized by normal or elevated sodium levels, does not cause pigmentation changes. Cushing’s syndrome, which results from excess steroid production, is almost the opposite of Addison’s disease, with hypertension (high blood pressure) and hypokalemia (low potassium levels) being typical symptoms. Phaeochromocytoma, on the other hand, is associated with episodes of high blood pressure and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.2
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  • Question 73 - You assess a client who has recently experienced a significant decline in mood...

    Correct

    • You assess a client who has recently experienced a significant decline in mood and has been contemplating self-harm. Which ONE of the following characteristics is NOT indicative of depression?

      Your Answer: Increased reactivity

      Explanation:

      Loss of reactivity, in contrast to heightened reactivity, is a common trait seen in individuals with depression. The clinical manifestations of depression encompass various symptoms. These include experiencing a persistent low mood, which may fluctuate throughout the day. Another prominent feature is anhedonia, which refers to a diminished ability to experience pleasure. Additionally, individuals with depression often exhibit antipathy, displaying a lack of interest or enthusiasm towards activities or people. Their speech may become slow and have a reduced volume. They may also struggle with maintaining attention and concentration. Furthermore, depression can lead to a decrease in self-esteem, accompanied by thoughts of guilt and worthlessness. Insomnia, particularly early morning waking, is a classic symptom of depression. Other common signs include a decrease in libido, low energy levels, increased fatigue, and a poor appetite resulting in weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has ingested a significant...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has ingested a significant amount of aspirin.
      What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate to be present during the initial phases of an aspirin overdose?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      An overdose of aspirin often leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the stimulation of the respiratory center causes hyperventilation and results in respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acidic effects of aspirin cause an increase in the anion gap and metabolic acidosis.

      Here is a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders:

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation due to factors such as anxiety, pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, and the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis can occur in individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), life-threatening asthma, pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opioids or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular diseases, and obesity.

      Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can result from conditions such as lactic acidosis (caused by factors like hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or tissue infarction), ketoacidosis (associated with diabetes, starvation, or excessive alcohol consumption), renal failure, and poisoning (including the late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be seen in renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, and adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4.6
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  • Question 75 - A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency department acutely ill...

    Correct

    • A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency department acutely ill and is transferred to resus. Your consultant suspects thyrotoxic crisis and instructs you to prepare the necessary medication. What drugs are typically administered during the initial treatment of thyrotoxic crisis?

      Your Answer: Antithyroid drug, beta blocker, corticosteroids and iodine solution

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, is a rare and dangerous complication of hyperthyroidism. The initial management of this condition involves the use of specific medications. These medications include a beta blocker, a corticosteroid, an antithyroid drug, and an iodine solution.

      The beta blocker used is typically propranolol, which is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg over 1 minute. If a beta blocker is contraindicated, a calcium channel blocker such as diltiazem may be used instead, at a dose of 0.25 mg/kg over 2 minutes.

      For corticosteroids, hydrocortisone is commonly used and given intravenously at a dose of 200 mg. Alternatively, dexamethasone can be used at a dose of 2 mg intravenously.

      The antithyroid drug used is usually propylthiouracil, which is given orally, through a nasogastric tube, or rectally, at a dose of 200 mg.

      An iodine solution, specifically Lugol’s iodine, is also part of the initial management. However, it should not be administered until at least 1 hour after the antithyroid drug has been given. This is because iodine can exacerbate thyrotoxicosis by stimulating thyroid hormone synthesis. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, inhibits the normal interactions of iodine and peroxidase with thyroglobulin, preventing the formation of T4 and T3. Therefore, it is given first and allowed time to take effect before iodine is administered.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.6
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  • Question 76 - You are present at a pediatric cardiac arrest. The resuscitation team has, unfortunately,...

    Incorrect

    • You are present at a pediatric cardiac arrest. The resuscitation team has, unfortunately, been unable to establish intravenous (IV) access. The anesthesiologist recommends administering a bolus dose of adrenaline through the endotracheal tube (ETT). The child weighs 30 kg.
      What is the appropriate dose of adrenaline to administer via the ETT in this scenario?

      Your Answer: 30 mcg

      Correct Answer: 2.5 mg

      Explanation:

      When administering adrenaline through the ET tube in pediatric cardiac arrest, the recommended dose is 100 mcg/kg. In this particular scenario, the child weighs 25 kg, so the appropriate amount to administer would be 2500 mcg (equivalent to 2.5 mg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 28-year-old man is brought in by ambulance. He is unconscious and was...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought in by ambulance. He is unconscious and was discovered next to an empty container of antifreeze by his girlfriend.
      What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate in a patient with ethylene glycol poisoning?

      Your Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      The following list provides a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders.

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. It can also occur due to pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.

      Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can occur due to lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). It can also be a result of renal failure or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.8
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  • Question 78 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department because she is extremely anxious...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department because she is extremely anxious about various symptoms she is experiencing. She has been feeling more panicky than usual and constantly worries about her health. She is experiencing headaches and difficulty swallowing, which she is very concerned might indicate a serious underlying condition. She also has occasional panic attacks. She avoids certain situations that she believes could harm her health and even tries to avoid social and work situations, although others don't seem to understand her concerns.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is the most probable diagnosis in this case.

      The primary distinction between GAD and panic disorder lies in their symptoms. GAD is primarily characterized by anxiety, whereas panic disorder is characterized by panic attacks. Individuals with GAD typically do not experience frequent panic attacks, although they may occasionally occur. In this patient’s case, while he did experience occasional panic attacks, they were not his main symptom, and his anxiety was not centered around these episodes.

      GAD is associated with persistent physical symptoms such as muscle tension, aches, headaches, fatigue, trembling, twitching, irritability, difficulty swallowing, and the sensation of a lump in the throat.

      On the other hand, panic disorder primarily revolves around the panic attacks themselves. A panic attack is a brief and intense episode characterized by overwhelming feelings of dread and fear, which may or may not be triggered by a specific situation. Common physical symptoms experienced during panic attacks include dizziness, sweating, chills, nausea, trembling, shaking, abdominal cramps, throat tightness, shortness of breath, numbness in the extremities, rapid heartbeat, palpitations, and chest pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 45-year-old patient presents with frequent bruising and recurrent nosebleeds. She informs you...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with frequent bruising and recurrent nosebleeds. She informs you that she has a rare platelet disorder and provides you with her outpatient letter from the hematology department, which includes details about the condition. According to the letter, her disorder is attributed to decreased levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

      Explanation:

      Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia is an uncommon condition affecting platelets, where they have a deficiency or abnormality in glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. This disorder leads to platelet dysfunction and can result in various complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she discovered in her father's bag.

      Which of the following symptoms of ibuprofen overdose is more frequently observed in children compared to adults?

      Your Answer: Cutaneous flushing

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperpyrexia and hypoglycemia are more frequently observed in children than in adults due to salicylate poisoning. Both adults and children may experience common clinical manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, deafness, sweating, dehydration, hyperventilation, and cutaneous flushing. However, it is important to note that xanthopsia is associated with digoxin toxicity, not salicylate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      11.8
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  • Question 81 - A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department following a fall which occurred while the patient was getting out of bed. The patient complains of feeling dizzy as he got out of bed before experiencing tunnel vision and briefly losing consciousness. The patient is certain he only blacked out for a few seconds as the time on the bedside clock had not changed. The patient informs you that he has had several similar episodes over the past few months when getting out of bed, but most of the time he only feels dizzy and doesn't faint. He denies any loss of bladder or bowel control or biting his tongue. An ECG is performed which shows normal sinus rhythm. You note the patient takes the following medication:
      Lisinopril 10 mg OD
      Fluoxetine 20 mg OD

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orthostatic hypotension

      Explanation:

      Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where patients feel lightheaded and may experience tunnel vision when they stand up from a lying down position. These symptoms are often worse in the morning. The patient’s history of recurrent episodes after being in a supine position for a long time strongly suggests orthostatic hypotension. There are no signs of epilepsy, such as deja-vu or jambs vu prodrome, tongue biting, loss of bladder or bowel control, or postictal confusion. The normal ECG and consistent timing of symptoms make postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (PAF) less likely. There are no neurological deficits to suggest a transient ischemic attack (TIA). The prodromal symptoms, such as tunnel vision and lightheadedness, align more with orthostatic hypotension rather than vasovagal syncope, which typically occurs after long periods of standing and is characterized by feeling hot and sweaty. Although carotid sinus syndrome could be considered as a differential diagnosis, as the patient’s head turning on getting out of bed may trigger symptoms, it is not one of the options.

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.

      When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.

      During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.

      There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - You review a 25-year-old man who presented with a 20-minute history of epistaxis....

    Correct

    • You review a 25-year-old man who presented with a 20-minute history of epistaxis. The bleeding stopped promptly with basic first aid measures and he has remained stable for more than an hour with no signs of recurrent bleeding. You get ready to send him home.
      Which of the following medications should be considered for discharge?

      Your Answer: Topical Naseptin cream

      Explanation:

      When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s airway and circulation.

      If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated. Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula and collect blood samples for tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting studies, and blood typing and crossmatching (depending on the amount of blood loss). These patients should be closely monitored in a majors area or a designated observation area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.

      First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
      1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there are signs of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the back of the throat.
      2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
      3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
      4. If the patient is unable to comply with pinching their own nose, an alternative technique is to ask a relative or staff member to apply external pressure using a device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
      5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones of the nose will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead has not been proven to affect nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may help reduce nasal blood flow.

      If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it may be beneficial to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and inflammation. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      8.7
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  • Question 83 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a patient...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a patient who has experienced cardiac arrest. The team is getting ready to administer amiodarone. What is the mechanism of action of amiodarone in the context of cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Blockade of potassium channels

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone functions by inhibiting voltage-gated potassium channels, leading to an extended repolarization period and decreased excitability of the heart muscle.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      3.5
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  • Question 84 - A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a car accident. You evaluate the patient's risk of cervical spine injury using the Canadian C-spine rule. What is included in the assessment for the Canadian C-spine rule?

      Your Answer: Ask patient to rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right

      Explanation:

      The Canadian C-spine assessment includes evaluating for tenderness along the midline of the spine, checking for any abnormal sensations in the limbs, and assessing the ability to rotate the neck 45 degrees to the left and right. While a significant portion of the assessment relies on gathering information from the patient’s history, there are also physical examination components involved. These include testing for tenderness along the midline of the cervical spine, asking the patient to perform neck rotations, ensuring they are comfortable in a sitting position, and assessing for any sensory deficits in the limbs. It is important to note that any reported paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs can also be taken into consideration during the assessment.

      Further Reading:

      When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.

      If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.

      NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.

      Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      4.4
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  • Question 85 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a history of a high temperature, loss...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a history of a high temperature, loss of smell, a persistent cough, and increasing difficulty breathing. He underwent a COVID-19 test two days ago, which has returned positive.
      Which established scoring system can be utilized to forecast the risk of severe respiratory illness within 24 hours for patients admitted from the emergency department with COVID-19?

      Your Answer: qCSI Score

      Explanation:

      The qCSI Score, also known as the Quick COVID-19 Severity Index, is a tool that can predict the risk of critical respiratory illness in patients who are admitted from the emergency department with COVID-19. This score takes into consideration three criteria: respiratory rate, pulse oximetry, and oxygen flow rate. By assessing these factors, the qCSI Score can provide an estimation of the 24-hour risk of severe respiratory complications in these patients.

      On the other hand, the qSOFA Score is a different tool that is used to identify high-risk patients for in-hospital mortality when there is a suspicion of infection, particularly in cases of sepsis. However, it is important to note that the qSOFA Score is not specifically designed for use in the setting of febrile neutropenia.

      Another scoring system, known as the CURB-65 Score, is utilized to estimate the mortality risk associated with community-acquired pneumonia. This score helps healthcare professionals determine whether a patient should receive inpatient or outpatient treatment based on their likelihood of experiencing adverse outcomes.

      Lastly, the SCAP Score is a scoring system that predicts the risk of adverse outcomes in patients with community-acquired pneumonia who present to the emergency department. By assessing various clinical factors, this score can provide valuable information to healthcare providers regarding the potential severity of the illness and the need for further intervention.

      In addition to these scores, there is also the MASCC Risk Index Score, which is specifically used in the context of cancer patients receiving supportive care. This score helps assess the risk of complications in this vulnerable population and aids in making informed decisions regarding their treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a two...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a two day history of nausea and vomiting. He has reduced GCS, is hypotensive and tachycardic. His wife tells you he has Addison's but frequently neglects to take his medication. Concerning Addison's, which electrolyte imbalance is most frequently linked to the condition?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      The electrolyte imbalances that are commonly observed in individuals with Addison’s disease are decreased sodium levels, increased potassium levels, increased calcium levels, and decreased glucose levels. In cases of Addisonian crisis, which is a severe form of Addison’s disease, patients may also experience hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), hypercalcemia (high calcium levels), and hypoglycemia (low glucose levels). Additionally, these patients may often develop acidosis.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.2
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  • Question 87 - A 5-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and vomiting. Her mother informs you that she has been losing weight recently and has been drinking a lot of fluids and urinating frequently. During the examination, you observe that she is drowsy and visibly dehydrated. She is breathing deeply and rapidly. A blood glucose test reveals very high levels. The urine dipstick shows 3+ ketones, and a venous blood gas test indicates a pH of 7.14. The diagnosis is diabetic ketoacidosis.
      How long should it take to correct this fluid deficit?

      Your Answer: 48 hours

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). To confirm the diagnosis, it is necessary to establish that his blood glucose levels are elevated, he has significant ketonuria or ketonaemia, and that he is acidotic.

      DKA is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is a lack of insulin, leading to an inability to metabolize glucose. This results in high blood sugar levels and an osmotic diuresis, causing excessive thirst and increased urine production. Dehydration becomes inevitable when the urine output exceeds the patient’s ability to drink. Additionally, without insulin, fat becomes the primary energy source, leading to the production of large amounts of ketones and metabolic acidosis.

      The key features of DKA include hyperglycemia (blood glucose > 11 mmol/l), ketonaemia (> 3 mmol/l) or significant ketonuria (> 2+ on urine dipstick), and acidosis (bicarbonate < 15 mmol/l and/or venous pH < 7.3). Clinical symptoms of DKA include nausea, vomiting, excessive thirst, excessive urine production, abdominal pain, signs of dehydration, a smell of ketones on breath (similar to pear drops), deep and rapid respiration (Kussmaul breathing), confusion or reduced consciousness, and tachycardia, hypotension, and shock. Investigations that should be performed include blood glucose measurement, urine dipstick (which will show marked glycosuria and ketonuria), blood ketone assay (more sensitive and specific than urine dipstick), blood tests (full blood count and urea and electrolytes), and arterial or venous blood gas analysis to assess for metabolic acidosis. The main principles of managing DKA are as follows: – Fluid boluses should only be given to reverse signs of shock and should be administered slowly in 10 ml/kg aliquots. If there are no signs of shock, fluid boluses should not be given, and specialist advice should be sought if a second bolus is required.
      – Rehydration should be done with replacement therapy over 48 hours after signs of shock have been reversed.
      – The first 20 ml/kg of fluid resuscitation should be given in addition to replacement fluid calculations and should not be subtracted from the calculations for the 48-hour fluid replacement.
      – If a child in DKA shows signs of hypotensive shock, the use of inotropes may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.2
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  • Question 88 - A 60 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of headache...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of headache and palpitations. Upon assessment, the patient appears sweaty and his blood pressure is measured at 224/122 mmHg. The patient expresses fear of potential death. He mentions experiencing similar episodes in the past few weeks, although not as severe as this one. Which of the following tests would be the most suitable to determine the suspected underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Plasma metanephrines

      Explanation:

      When there is suspicion of phaeochromocytoma, the first tests to be done are plasma and/or urinary metanephrines. This patient exhibits paroxysmal symptoms that are consistent with phaeochromocytoma, such as high blood pressure, headache, sweating, anxiety, and fear. The initial diagnostic tests aim to confirm any metabolic disturbances by measuring levels of plasma and/or urine metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA). If these levels are found to be elevated, further imaging tests will be needed to determine the location and structure of the phaeochromocytoma tumor.

      Further Reading:

      Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.

      The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.

      Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.

      The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.4
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  • Question 89 - A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided with a wall. He was rescued at the scene and has been brought to the hospital by ambulance. He is currently wearing a cervical immobilization device. He is experiencing chest pain on the left side and difficulty breathing. As the leader of the trauma response team, his vital signs are as follows: heart rate 110, blood pressure 102/63, oxygen saturation 90% on room air. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15 out of 15. Upon examination, he has extensive bruising on the left side of his chest, reduced chest expansion, dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds throughout the entire left side of his chest. He is receiving high-flow oxygen and a blood transfusion of his specific blood type has been initiated.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Chest drain insertion

      Explanation:

      A massive haemothorax occurs when more than 1500 mL of blood, which is about 1/3 of the patient’s blood volume, rapidly accumulates in the chest cavity. The classic signs of a massive haemothorax include decreased chest expansion, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion. Both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds, but they can be differentiated through percussion. Hyperresonance indicates tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.

      The first step in managing a massive haemothorax is to simultaneously restore blood volume and decompress the chest cavity by inserting a chest drain. In most cases, the bleeding in a haemothorax has already stopped by the time management begins, and simple drainage is sufficient. It is important to use a chest drain of adequate size (preferably 36F) to ensure effective drainage of the haemothorax without clotting.

      If 1500 mL of blood is immediately drained or if the rate of ongoing blood loss exceeds 200 mL per hour for 2-4 hours, early thoracotomy should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      12.3
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  • Question 90 - A 27 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his partner due to increasing drowsiness. The patient's partner informs you that the patient was involved in a physical altercation approximately 40 minutes ago. The patient was struck in the temple and experienced a brief loss of consciousness for around 20 seconds. Initially, the patient appeared to be fine, but after about 20 minutes, he started becoming progressively more drowsy. A CT scan reveals the presence of an extradural hematoma. Which cranial nerve palsy is most commonly observed in this condition?

      Your Answer: Abducens nerve

      Explanation:

      Abducens nerve palsy is often linked to extradural hematoma. When there is a mass effect, downward brain herniation can occur, leading to the involvement of the 6th cranial nerve (abducens nerve, CN VI). This nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for eye abduction. When the abducens nerve is affected, the lateral rectus muscle is unable to function properly, resulting in an inward turning of the affected eye towards the nose (esotropia).

      Further Reading:

      Extradural haematoma (EDH) is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and the outer layer of the dura, the dura mater. It is typically caused by head trauma and is often associated with a skull fracture, with the pterion being the most common site of injury. The middle meningeal artery is the most common source of bleeding in EDH.

      Clinical features of EDH include a history of head injury with transient loss of consciousness, followed by a lucid interval and gradual loss of consciousness. Other symptoms may include severe headache, sixth cranial nerve palsies, nausea and vomiting, seizures, signs of raised intracranial pressure, and focal neurological deficits.

      Imaging of EDH typically shows a biconvex shape and may cause mass effect with brain herniation. It can be differentiated from subdural haematoma by its appearance on imaging.

      Management of EDH involves prompt referral to neurosurgery for evacuation of the haematoma. In some cases with a small EDH, conservative management may be considered. With prompt evacuation, the prognosis for EDH is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.6
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  • Question 91 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing severe pain in his limbs and chest. Despite taking the maximum dose of paracetamol, codeine phosphate, and ibuprofen regularly, his symptoms are no longer being adequately controlled. You decide to discontinue the use of codeine phosphate and initiate stronger opioids.
      What is the most suitable course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Sustained-release oral morphine

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose of paracetamol tablets 45 minutes ago. He is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of his blood circulation. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer?

      Your Answer: 50 g orally

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4.8
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  • Question 93 - You are part of the resus team treating a 42-year-old female patient with...

    Correct

    • You are part of the resus team treating a 42-year-old female patient with a severe head injury after falling from a ladder. As the patient's GCS continues to decline, your consultant instructs you to prepare for rapid sequence induction. You gather the necessary supplies and prepare etomidate as the induction agent. Upon reviewing the patient's details, you observe that she weighs 65kg. What would be the appropriate dose of etomidate for this patient during RSI?

      Your Answer: 21mg

      Explanation:

      The recommended dose of etomidate for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is typically 0.3mg per kilogram of body weight. For example, a patient weighing 70 kilograms would receive a dose of 21mg (70 x 0.3 = 21mg). This dosage falls within the accepted range of 0.15-0.3 mg/kg as suggested by the British National Formulary (BNF). Therefore, the only option within this range is the fourth option.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      5.1
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  • Question 94 - A 15 year old female is brought to the emergency department by a...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old female is brought to the emergency department by a family member after collapsing at home. The triage nurse asks you to evaluate the patient after obtaining vital signs and a capillary glucose. The results are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 88/58 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 118 bpm
      Respiration rate: 38 bpm
      Temperature: 37.5ºC
      Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
      Glucose level: 28 mmol/l

      Further tests confirm a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Administer 500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride solution over 10-15 minutes

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to administer sodium chloride solution gradually over a period of 10-15 minutes. If the systolic does not respond adequately, the bolus dose may need to be repeated. It is important to note that patients with DKA often have a fluid deficit of more than 5 liters, which should be taken into consideration.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.7
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  • Question 95 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with facial swelling that worsens when she eats....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with facial swelling that worsens when she eats. You suspect she may have sialolithiasis.
      Which salivary gland is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Submandibular gland

      Explanation:

      Sialolithiasis is a medical condition characterized by the formation of a calcified stone, known as a sialolith, within one of the salivary glands. The submandibular gland, specifically Wharton’s duct, is the site of approximately 90% of these occurrences, while the parotid gland accounts for most of the remaining cases. In rare instances, sialoliths may also develop in the sublingual gland or minor salivary glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 3 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. The parents inform you that the patient has had a persistent cough and runny nose for the past 2-3 days. However, today they noticed that the patient was having difficulty breathing and was coughing up a lot of mucus. They suspected that the patient might have croup. Upon examination, you hear audible stridor and observe rapid breathing. There are no signs of difficulty swallowing or excessive drooling. The patient is given dexamethasone and nebulized adrenaline, but subsequent observations reveal an increase in respiratory rate and the patient appears increasingly tired.

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial tracheitis

      Explanation:

      Patients who have bacterial tracheitis usually do not show any improvement when treated with steroids and adrenaline nebulizers. The symptoms of bacterial tracheitis include a prelude of upper respiratory tract infection symptoms, followed by a rapid decline in health with the presence of stridor and difficulty breathing. Despite treatment with steroids and adrenaline, there is no improvement in the patient’s condition. On the other hand, patients with epiglottitis commonly experience difficulty swallowing and excessive saliva production.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      12.7
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  • Question 97 - A 32-year-old woman with chronic anemia secondary to a diagnosis of sickle cell...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with chronic anemia secondary to a diagnosis of sickle cell disease receives a blood transfusion. A few minutes after the blood transfusion has started, she experiences wheezing, chest discomfort, nausea, and widespread itching with a rash. Her blood pressure drops to 76/40 mmHg.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a potentially life-saving treatment that can provide great clinical benefits. However, it also carries several risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, immune dilution, and transfusion errors. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and efforts to minimize the use of transfusion, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.

      One rare complication of blood transfusion is transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD). This condition typically presents with fever, rash, and diarrhea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Laboratory findings may show pancytopenia and abnormalities in liver function. Unlike GVHD after marrow transplantation, TA-GVHD leads to severe marrow aplasia with a mortality rate exceeding 90%. Unfortunately, there are currently no effective treatments available for this condition, and survival is rare, with death usually occurring within 1-3 weeks of the first symptoms.

      During a blood transfusion, viable T lymphocytes from the donor are transfused into the recipient’s body. In TA-GVHD, these lymphocytes engraft and react against the recipient’s tissues. However, the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes due to factors such as immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens. Supportive management is the only option for TA-GVHD.

      The following summarizes the main complications and reactions that can occur during a blood transfusion:

      Complication Features Management
      Febrile transfusion reaction
      – Presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise.
      – Most common reaction, occurring in 1 out of 8 transfusions.
      – Usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.
      – Supportive management, with the use of paracetamol for symptom relief.

      Acute haemolytic reaction
      – Symptoms include fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine.
      – Often accompanied by a feeling of ‘impending doom’.
      – Most serious type of reaction, often due to ABO incompatibility caused by administration errors.
      – Immediate action required: stop the transfusion, administer IV fluids, and consider diuretics if necessary.

      Delayed haemolytic reaction
      – Typically occurs 4-8 days after a blood transfusion.
      – Symptoms include fever, anemia and/or hyperbilirubinemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      10.3
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  • Question 98 - You evaluate a 35-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with an anal...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with an anal fissure. He has been undergoing treatment for the last two months, which includes lactulose, senna, topical creams with local anesthetics, and topical GTN ointment. However, his symptoms continue to persist, and he describes the pain during bowel movements as intolerable.
      What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Topical diltiazem

      Correct Answer: Botulinum toxin injection

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a tear in the wall of the anal mucosa that exposes the circular muscle layer. The majority of these tears occur in the posterior midline. The most common cause is the passage of a large, hard stool after a period of constipation. If multiple fissures are present, it may indicate an underlying condition such as Crohn’s disease or tuberculosis.

      Both men and women are equally affected by anal fissures, and they are most commonly seen in individuals in their thirties. The typical symptoms of an anal fissure include intense, sharp pain during bowel movements, which can last up to an hour after passing stool. Additionally, there may be spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping, and a history of constipation.

      The initial management of an anal fissure involves non-operative measures such as using stool softeners and bulking agents. To alleviate the intense anal pain, analgesics and topical local anesthetics may be prescribed. According to a recent meta-analysis, first-line therapy should involve the use of topical GTN or diltiazem, with botulinum toxin being used as a rescue treatment if necessary (Modern perspectives in the treatment of chronic anal fissures. Ann R Coll Surg Engl. 2007 Jul;89(5):472-8.)

      Sphincterotomy, a surgical procedure, should be reserved for fissures that do not heal and has a success rate of 90%. Anal dilatation, also known as Lord’s procedure, is rarely used nowadays due to the high risk of subsequent fecal incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      17.8
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  • Question 99 - A 25-year-old woman presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. She has recently returned from a vacation in Brazil. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.2°C, oxygen saturation 93% on room air, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 24, blood pressure 122/63 mmHg. On examination, she has a tender, swollen left calf. Her chest X-ray shows no apparent abnormalities.
      Which of the following tests should be ordered?

      Your Answer: Doppler ultrasound scan of leg

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical history and examination, it strongly indicates that the patient may have a pulmonary embolism caused by a deep vein thrombosis in his right leg. To confirm this, it is recommended that he undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram and doppler ultrasound scan of his right leg.

      The typical symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, coughing, and/or coughing up blood. Additionally, there may be symptoms suggesting the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Other signs to look out for are rapid breathing and heart rate, fever, and in severe cases, signs of systemic shock, a gallop heart rhythm, and increased jugular venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a history of breathing difficulties, fever, and a cough. He is irritable and having difficulty eating. On examination, his temperature is 38.6°C, and you hear fine inspiratory crackles throughout his chest.

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Nasopharyngeal aspirate

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a short-term infection of the lower respiratory tract that primarily affects infants aged 2 to 6 months. It is commonly caused by a viral infection, with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) being the most prevalent culprit. RSV infections are most prevalent during the winter months, typically occurring between November and March. In the UK, bronchiolitis is the leading cause of hospitalization among infants.

      The typical symptoms of bronchiolitis include fever, difficulty breathing, coughing, poor feeding, irritability, apnoeas (more common in very young infants), and wheezing or fine inspiratory crackles. To confirm the diagnosis, a nasopharyngeal aspirate can be taken for RSV rapid testing. This test is useful in preventing unnecessary further testing and facilitating the isolation of the affected infant.

      Most infants with acute bronchiolitis experience a mild, self-limiting illness that does not require hospitalization. Treatment primarily focuses on supportive measures, such as ensuring adequate fluid and nutritional intake and controlling the infant’s temperature. The illness typically lasts for 7 to 10 days.

      However, hospital referral and admission are recommended in certain cases, including poor feeding (less than 50% of usual intake over the past 24 hours), lethargy, a history of apnoea, a respiratory rate exceeding 70 breaths per minute, nasal flaring or grunting, severe chest wall recession, cyanosis, oxygen saturations below 90% for children aged 6 weeks and over, and oxygen saturations below 92% for babies under 6 weeks or those with underlying health conditions.

      If hospitalization is necessary, treatment involves supportive measures, supplemental oxygen, and nasogastric feeding as needed. There is limited or no evidence supporting the use of antibiotics, antivirals, bronchodilators, corticosteroids, hypertonic saline, or adrenaline nebulizers in the management of bronchiolitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 72-year-old woman is evaluated in the cardiac care unit 2 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is evaluated in the cardiac care unit 2 days after experiencing a heart attack. She complains of significant shortness of breath. During the physical examination, a pansystolic murmur is audible and is most prominent at the lower left sternal border.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Post myocardial infarction ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a rare but serious complication that occurs when the cardiac wall ruptures. It typically develops 2-3 days after a heart attack, and if left untreated, 85% of patients will die within two months. The murmur associated with VSD is a continuous sound throughout systole, and it is loudest at the lower left sternal edge. A palpable vibration, known as a thrill, is often felt along with the murmur.

      Dressler’s syndrome, on the other hand, is a type of pericarditis that occurs 2-10 weeks after a heart attack or cardiac surgery. It is characterized by sharp chest pain that is relieved by sitting forwards. Other signs of Dressler’s syndrome include a rubbing sound heard when listening to the heart, pulsus paradoxus (an abnormal drop in blood pressure during inspiration), and signs of right ventricular failure.

      Mitral regurgitation also causes a continuous murmur throughout systole, but it is best heard at the apex of the heart and may radiate to the axilla (armpit).

      Tricuspid stenosis, on the other hand, causes an early diastolic murmur that is best heard at the lower left sternal edge during inspiration.

      Lastly, mitral stenosis causes a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur that is best heard at the apex of the heart. To listen for this murmur, the patient should be in the left lateral position, and the stethoscope bell should be used during expiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - You assess a 40-year-old woman with severe otitis externa in her RIGHT ear.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 40-year-old woman with severe otitis externa in her RIGHT ear.
      Which ONE combination of examination findings would you anticipate discovering?

      Your Answer: Weber’s test lateralising to the right and Rinne’s test false negative on right

      Correct Answer: Weber’s test lateralising to the left and Rinne’s test true negative on left

      Explanation:

      In a patient with severe otitis externa on the left side, it is expected that they will experience conductive deafness on the left side. This means that their ability to hear sound will be impaired due to a problem in the ear canal or middle ear. When conducting a Rinne’s test, a vibrating 512 Hz tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process until the patient can no longer hear the sound. Then, the top of the tuning fork is positioned 2 cm from the external auditory meatus, and the patient is asked where they hear the sound loudest.

      In individuals with normal hearing, the sound from the tuning fork should still be audible outside the external auditory canal even after it can no longer be heard on the mastoid. This is because air conduction should be better than bone conduction. However, in cases of conductive hearing loss, the patient will no longer be able to hear the tuning fork once it is removed from the mastoid. This indicates that their bone conduction is greater than their air conduction, suggesting an obstruction in the ear canal that prevents sound waves from reaching the cochlea. This is referred to as a true negative result.

      It is important to note that a Rinne’s test may yield a false negative result if the patient has a severe unilateral sensorineural deficit. In this case, they may still sense the sound in the unaffected ear due to the transmission of sound through the base of the skull. In contrast, individuals with sensorineural hearing loss will have diminished ability to hear the tuning fork both on the mastoid and outside the external auditory canal compared to the opposite ear. The sound will disappear earlier on the mastoid and outside the external auditory canal in the affected ear.

      When performing Weber’s test, a vibrating 512 Hz tuning fork is placed on the center of the patient’s forehead. The patient is then asked if they perceive the sound in the middle of the forehead or if it lateralizes to one side. If the sound lateralizes to one side, it can indicate either ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes ago. She is currently using tissues to catch the drips and you have been asked to see her urgently by the triage nurse. Her vital signs are stable, and she has no signs of bleeding excessively. The nurse has inserted an IV line.
      What should be the initial course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes

      Explanation:

      When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.

      Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.

      First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
      1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
      2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
      3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
      4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
      5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.

      If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 40-year-old teacher presents with a red itchy urticarial rash on her arms...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old teacher presents with a red itchy urticarial rash on her arms 20 minutes after wearing a pair of latex gloves.
      Which of the following mediates the allergic reaction in this case?

      Your Answer: IgE

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reactions are allergic reactions that occur when a person is exposed again to a particular antigen, known as an allergen. These reactions are triggered by IgE and typically happen within 15 to 30 minutes after exposure to the allergen.

      A rapid onset of an urticarial rash, which occurs shortly after being exposed to an allergen (such as latex), is highly likely to be caused by a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of lower back pain...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of lower back pain and numbness in both feet. Three days ago, she experienced a sharp, shooting pain in her back after lifting a heavy object at work. The pain has worsened over the past three days, and she has now developed weakness in her right leg. She is also experiencing difficulty with urination. Her medical history includes a previous laminectomy for a herniated lumbar disc four years ago. During the examination, normal power is observed in her left leg, but reduced power is noted in the right leg. Motor strength is reduced to 3 out of 5 in the hamstrings, 2 out of 5 in the ankle and toe plantar flexors, and 0 out of 5 in the ankle dorsiflexors and extensor hallucis longus. The right ankle and Achilles tendon reflexes are absent. Sensory examination reveals reduced sensation in the right calf, right foot, labia, and perianal area. Rectal examination reveals reduced sphincter tone.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious complication that can occur when a disc ruptures. This happens when the material from the disc is pushed into the spinal canal and puts pressure on the bundle of nerves in the lower back and sacrum. As a result, individuals may experience loss of control over their bladder and bowel functions.

      There are certain red flags that may indicate the presence of CES. These include experiencing sciatica on both sides of the body, having severe or worsening neurological issues in both legs (such as significant weakness in knee extension, ankle eversion, or foot dorsiflexion), difficulty starting urination or a decreased sensation of urinary flow, loss of sensation in the rectum, experiencing numbness or tingling in the perianal, perineal, or genital areas (also known as saddle anesthesia or paresthesia), and having a lax anal sphincter.

      Conus medullaris syndrome (CMS) is a condition that affects the conus medullaris, which is located above the cauda equina at the T12-L2 level. Unlike CES, CMS primarily causes back pain and may have less noticeable nerve root pain. The main symptoms of CMS are urinary retention and constipation.

      To confirm a diagnosis of CES and determine the level of compression and any underlying causes, an MRI scan is considered the gold-standard investigation. In cases where an MRI is not possible or contraindicated, a CT myelogram or standard CT scans can be helpful. However, plain radiographs have limited value and may only show significant degenerative or traumatic bone diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 68-year-old patient with advanced metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing significant difficulty breathing...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old patient with advanced metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing significant difficulty breathing and appears visibly distressed. Despite his discomfort, he remains mentally alert and reports moderate levels of pain. He has been informed that he has only a few days left to live. Currently, his oxygen saturation levels are at 95% when breathing regular air, and there are no specific signs of chest abnormalities.
      What would be the most suitable course of action to alleviate his breathlessness in this situation?

      Your Answer: Oral morphine

      Explanation:

      Here are some suggestions for managing breathlessness in the final days of life, as provided by NICE:

      1. It is important to identify and treat any reversible causes of breathlessness in the dying person, such as pulmonary edema or pleural effusion.

      2. Non-pharmacological methods can be considered for managing breathlessness in someone nearing the end of life. It is not recommended to start oxygen therapy as a routine measure. Oxygen should only be offered to individuals who are known or suspected to have symptomatic hypoxemia.

      3. Breathlessness can be managed using different medications, including opioids, benzodiazepines, or a combination of both.

      For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on the care of dying adults in the last days of life. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng31

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a fever, chest pain that...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a fever, chest pain that worsens with breathing, and coughing up thick, yellowish sputum. A chest X-ray is done and shows signs of cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobe.

      Which of the following bacteria is most frequently linked to cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobe?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is commonly observed in individuals who are dependent on alcohol. It is more prevalent in men compared to women and typically manifests after the age of 40.

      The clinical manifestations of this condition include fevers and rigors, pleuritic chest pain, purulent sputum, and haemoptysis, which occurs more frequently than with other bacterial pneumonias. Klebsiella pneumoniae tends to affect the upper lobes of the lungs and often leads to the formation of cavitating lesions.

      While Staphylococcus aureus can also cause cavitation, it usually affects multiple lobes and is not limited to the upper lobes. Other potential causes of cavitating pneumonia include Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and, although rare, Legionella pneumophila.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing...

    Correct

    • You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He describes a sensation in which his train of thought is abruptly cut off completely. During the consultation, you observe that his speech is frequently interrupted by prolonged periods of silence, lasting for a minute or two.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Thought blocking

      Explanation:

      Thought blocking is a distressing phenomenon where one’s train of thought is abruptly halted. This occurrence is observed in various psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia. It manifests as sudden pauses in a person’s speech, lasting from a few seconds to even a minute or more.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A 14 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after being bitten on the leg while playing in the woods near his neighborhood. The patient claims that the bite was from a snake that he saw quickly disappear into the bushes after biting him. You present the patient with pictures of native snake species in the area, and the patient identifies the common Eastern garter snake as the culprit. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the treatment of bites from this particular snake species?

      Your Answer: The affected limb should immobilised in a sling

      Explanation:

      The key components of first aid for snake bites in the UK involve immobilizing the patient and the affected limb, as well as administering paracetamol for pain relief. When it comes to venomous snake bites, it is important to immobilize the limb using a splint or sling, but not to use a tourniquet or pressure bandage for adder bites. In certain areas, such as NSW, Australia, where venomous snakes can cause rapidly progressing and life-threatening paralysis, pressure bandage immobilization is recommended. However, this is not the case in the UK. Anti-venom is not always necessary for adder bites, and its administration should be based on a thorough assessment of the patient’s condition and the presence of appropriate indications. Paracetamol is the preferred choice for pain relief in UK snake bites, as aspirin and ibuprofen can worsen bleeding tendencies that may result from adder bites. Similarly, heparin should be avoided for the same reason.

      Further Reading:

      Snake bites in the UK are primarily caused by the adder, which is the only venomous snake species native to the country. While most adder bites result in minor symptoms such as pain, swelling, and inflammation, there have been cases of life-threatening illness and fatalities. Additionally, there are instances where venomous snakes that are kept legally or illegally also cause bites in the UK.

      Adder bites typically occur from early spring to late autumn, with the hand being the most common site of the bite. Symptoms can be local or systemic, with local symptoms including sharp pain, tingling or numbness, and swelling that spreads proximally. Systemic symptoms may include spreading pain, tenderness, inflammation, regional lymph node enlargement, and bruising. In severe cases, anaphylaxis can occur, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and shock.

      It is important for clinicians to be aware of the potential complications and complications associated with adder bites. These can include acute renal failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, acute gastric dilatation, paralytic ileus, acute pancreatitis, and coma and seizures. Anaphylaxis symptoms can appear within minutes or be delayed for hours, and hypotension is a critical sign to monitor.

      Initial investigations for adder bites include blood tests, ECG, and vital sign monitoring. Further investigations such as chest X-ray may be necessary based on clinical signs. Blood tests may reveal abnormalities such as leukocytosis, raised hematocrit, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and abnormal clotting profile. ECG changes may include tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ST segment changes.

      First aid measures at the scene include immobilizing the patient and the bitten limb, avoiding aspirin and ibuprofen, and cleaning the wound site in the hospital. Tetanus prophylaxis should be considered. In cases of anaphylaxis, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is necessary. In the hospital, rapid assessment and appropriate resuscitation with intravenous fluids are required.

      Antivenom may be indicated in cases of hypotension, systemic envenoming, ECG abnormalities, peripheral neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated serum creatine kinase or metabolic acidosis, and extensive or rapidly spreading local swelling. Zagreb antivenom is commonly used in the UK, with an initial dose of 8 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 35-year-old woman with a past medical history of recurrent episodes of profuse...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a past medical history of recurrent episodes of profuse sweating, rapid heartbeat, and sudden high blood pressure is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Alpha-blocker

      Explanation:

      A phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that develops from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas, also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas, are similar tumors that originate in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system but are less common. These tumors secrete catecholamines and cause a range of symptoms and signs related to hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.

      The most common initial symptom is high blood pressure, which can be either sustained or sporadic. Symptoms tend to come and go, occurring multiple times a day or very infrequently. As the disease progresses, the symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.

      Surgical removal is the preferred and definitive treatment option. If the tumor is completely removed without any spread to other parts of the body, it often leads to a cure for hypertension.

      Before surgery, it is crucial to manage the condition medically to reduce the risk of hypertensive crises during the operation. This is typically done by using a combination of non-competitive alpha-blockers (such as phenoxybenzamine) and beta-blockers. Alpha-blockade should be started first, at least 7-10 days before the surgery, to allow for expansion of blood volume. Once this is achieved, beta-blockade can be initiated to help control rapid heart rate and certain irregular heart rhythms. Starting beta-blockade too early can trigger a hypertensive crisis.

      Genetic counseling should also be provided, and any associated conditions should be identified and managed appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A 45-year-old woman has been involved in a car accident. She needs a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been involved in a car accident. She needs a blood transfusion as part of her treatment and experiences a transfusion reaction.
      What is the most frequent type of transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      Febrile transfusion reactions, also known as non-haemolytic transfusion reactions, occur when there is an unexpected increase in body temperature (≥ 38ºC or ≥ 1ºC above the baseline, if the baseline is ≥ 37ºC) during or shortly after a blood transfusion. This temperature rise is usually the only symptom, although sometimes it may be accompanied by chills.

      Febrile transfusion reactions are the most common type of transfusion reaction, happening in approximately 1 out of every 8 transfusions.

      The main cause of febrile transfusion reactions is believed to be the accumulation of cytokines during the storage of blood components, particularly in platelet units. Cytokines are substances released by white blood cells, and the risk of symptoms can be reduced by removing these cells before storage.

      In addition to cytokine accumulation, febrile transfusion reactions can also be triggered by recipient antibodies that have been produced as a result of previous transfusions or pregnancies. These antibodies react to specific antigens, such as human leukocyte antigen (HLA), found on the donor’s lymphocytes, granulocytes, or platelets.

      Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is mainly supportive. Other potential causes of fever should be ruled out, and antipyretic medications like paracetamol can be used to reduce the fever. If another cause is suspected, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, but it can be resumed at a slower rate once other potential causes of fever have been ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)...

    Incorrect

    • You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is currently experiencing severe symptoms. He hands you a note to read that expresses his thoughts about his condition. However, you struggle to comprehend it as it is excessively verbose and highly disorganized.
      Which ONE of the following cognitive impairments is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Logorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Graphorrhea

      Explanation:

      Graphorrhoea is a communication disorder characterized by an excessive use of words and a tendency to ramble in written work. It is similar to word salad, but specifically occurs in written form. This condition is often observed in individuals with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremor, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her observations...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremor, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her observations reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and hasn't had an alcoholic drink since the previous night.
      Which assessment scale should be utilized to guide the treatment of this woman's alcohol withdrawal? Select ONE option.

      Your Answer: CAGE

      Correct Answer: CIWA scale

      Explanation:

      The CIWA scale, also known as the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol scale, is a scale consisting of ten items that is utilized in the evaluation and management of alcohol withdrawal. It is currently recommended by both NICE and the Royal College of Emergency Medicine for assessing patients experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. The maximum score on the CIWA scale is 67, with scores indicating the severity of withdrawal symptoms. A score of less than 5 suggests mild withdrawal, while a score between 6 and 20 indicates moderate withdrawal. Any score above 20 is considered severe withdrawal. The ten items evaluated on the scale encompass common symptoms and signs of alcohol withdrawal, such as nausea/vomiting, tremors, sweating, anxiety, agitation, sensory disturbances, and cognitive impairments.

      In addition to the CIWA scale, there are other screening tools available for assessing various conditions. The CAGE questionnaire is commonly used to screen for alcohol-related issues. The STEPI is utilized as a screening tool for early symptoms of the schizophrenia prodrome. The EPDS is an evidence-based questionnaire that can be employed to screen for postnatal depression. Lastly, the SCOFF questionnaire is a screening tool used to identify the possible presence of eating disorders.

      For further information on the assessment and management of acute alcohol withdrawal, the NICE pathway is a valuable resource. The RCEM syllabus also provides relevant information on this topic. Additionally, the MHC1 module on alcohol and substance misuse offers further reading material for those interested in this subject.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - The ambulance team brings a 72-year-old into the ER with suspected heat stroke....

    Correct

    • The ambulance team brings a 72-year-old into the ER with suspected heat stroke. The patient had been participating in a charity marathon during a period of extreme heat. Which of the following statements about heat stroke is accurate?

      Your Answer: Patients with heatstroke have a systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke can be differentiated from other heat related illnesses by the presence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Patients with heatstroke typically have a core body temperature exceeding 40ºC and lack sweating (unlike heat exhaustion where profuse sweating is common). It is important to note that diuretic treatment is not suitable for heat edema and Dantrolene should not be used to treat environmental heat related illnesses.

      Further Reading:

      Heat Stroke:
      – Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
      – Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
      – Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
      – Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
      – Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
      – Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
      – Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
      – Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°C

      Heat Exhaustion:
      – Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
      – Core temperature elevated but <40°C
      – Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
      – Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
      – Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and rest

      Other Heat-Related Illnesses:
      – Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
      – Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
      – Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydration

      Risk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
      – Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factors

      Management:
      – Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
      – Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
      – Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
      – Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
      – Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
      – Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in to Resus by an ambulance with sirens...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in to Resus by an ambulance with sirens blaring. She has been complaining of a severe headache all morning and developed a high fever and a rash of small red spots. She is now barely responsive, and the medical team decides to intubate her due to her decreased level of consciousness. Urgent action is necessary, and no one in the Emergency Department has had time to put on personal protective equipment. A diagnosis of meningococcal sepsis is later confirmed.

      Who will require post-exposure prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: The intubating clinician

      Explanation:

      The risk of contracting meningococcal disease from a close contact is low. However, the risk is highest within the first seven days after the disease is diagnosed and decreases significantly afterwards.

      Prophylaxis or vaccination for close contacts is typically organized by secondary care. It is recommended for the following individuals, regardless of their meningococcal vaccination status:

      – People who have had prolonged close contact with the infected person in a household-type setting during the seven days prior to the onset of illness. This includes individuals living or sleeping in the same household, students in the same dormitory, partners, or university students sharing a kitchen in a hall of residence.

      – People who have had brief close contact with the infected person, but only if they have been directly exposed to large particle droplets or secretions from the respiratory tract of the case around the time of admission to the hospital.

      Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours after the diagnosis of the index case.

      Post-exposure prophylaxis is recommended for healthcare staff who have been exposed to direct nasopharyngeal secretions (without wearing a mask or personal protective equipment) from a known or highly probable case. This includes situations such as mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, airway management (suction/intubation), or prolonged close care within 1 meter of the patient who has been coughing or sneezing droplet secretions.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of close contacts of patients with meningococcal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to sudden confusion, severe headache, and problems with coordination. Upon initial assessment at triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be significantly elevated at 224/126 mmHg. You suspect the presence of hypertensive encephalopathy. What is the primary treatment option for this condition?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment option for hypertensive encephalopathy, a condition characterized by sudden confusion, severe headache, and coordination problems due to significantly elevated blood pressure, is labetalol.

      Further Reading:

      A hypertensive emergency is characterized by a significant increase in blood pressure accompanied by acute or progressive damage to organs. While there is no specific blood pressure value that defines a hypertensive emergency, systolic blood pressure is typically above 180 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure is above 120 mmHg. The most common presentations of hypertensive emergencies include cerebral infarction, pulmonary edema, encephalopathy, and congestive cardiac failure. Less common presentations include intracranial hemorrhage, aortic dissection, and pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.

      The signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergencies can vary widely due to the potential dysfunction of every physiological system. Some common signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and/or vomiting, chest pain, arrhythmia, proteinuria, signs of acute kidney failure, epistaxis, dyspnea, dizziness, anxiety, confusion, paraesthesia or anesthesia, and blurred vision. Clinical assessment focuses on detecting acute or progressive damage to the cardiovascular, renal, and central nervous systems.

      Investigations that are essential in evaluating hypertensive emergencies include U&Es (electrolyte levels), urinalysis, ECG, and CXR. Additional investigations may be considered depending on the suspected underlying cause, such as a CT head for encephalopathy or new onset confusion, CT thorax for suspected aortic dissection, and CT abdomen for suspected phaeochromocytoma. Plasma free metanephrines, urine total catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrine may be tested if phaeochromocytoma is suspected. Urine screening for cocaine and/or amphetamines may be appropriate in certain cases, as well as an endocrine screen for Cushing’s syndrome.

      The management of hypertensive emergencies involves cautious reduction of blood pressure to avoid precipitating renal, cerebral, or coronary ischemia. Staged blood pressure reduction is typically the goal, with an initial reduction in mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 25% in the first hour. Further gradual reduction to a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg over the next 2 to 6 hours is recommended. Initial management involves treatment with intravenous antihypertensive agents in an intensive care setting with appropriate monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.3
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  • Question 117 - A 35-year-old woman presents with watery diarrhea that has been present since her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with watery diarrhea that has been present since her return from a hiking trip in Peru 8 weeks ago. She has also experienced abdominal cramps and bloating and excessive gas. Stool cultures were done, which came back negative. She was referred to a gastroenterologist and had a small bowel tissue biopsy, which showed subtotal villous atrophy.

      What is the SINGLE most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer: Check IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Correct Answer: Commence metronidazole

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with a malabsorption syndrome, which is supported by the findings of subtotal villous atrophy in his small bowel biopsy. Based on this information, the possible causes can be narrowed down to tropical sprue, coeliac disease, and giardiasis.

      Considering that the patient was previously healthy before his trip to Nepal, it is unlikely that he has coeliac disease. Additionally, tropical sprue is rare outside of the regions around the equator and is uncommon in Nepal. On the other hand, giardiasis is prevalent in Nepal and is the most probable cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Giardiasis is a chronic diarrheal illness caused by a parasite called Giardia lamblia. Infection occurs when individuals ingest cysts present in contaminated food or water. Common symptoms associated with giardiasis include chronic diarrhea, weakness, abdominal cramps, flatulence, smelly and greasy stools, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss.

      Stool culture often yields negative results, so the preferred diagnostic test is a stool ova and parasite (O&P) examination. This test should be repeated three times for accuracy. Additionally, the small bowel biopsy should be re-evaluated to check for the presence of Giardia lamblia.

      The standard treatment for giardiasis involves antibiotic therapy with a nitroimidazole antibiotic, such as metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 2-year-old toddler comes in with a high-grade fever, excessive drooling, and hoarseness....

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old toddler comes in with a high-grade fever, excessive drooling, and hoarseness. The child is displaying obvious stridor and has an elevated heart rate.
      What is the initial step in managing this young patient?

      Your Answer: Call a senior anaesthetist

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.

      In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.

      The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.

      To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.

      When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 35-year-old carpenter presents with shoulder pain that worsens during repetitive overhead work....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old carpenter presents with shoulder pain that worsens during repetitive overhead work. The patient also reports experiencing nighttime pain and difficulty in raising the arm. There is no history of any injury.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subacromial impingement

      Explanation:

      The supraspinatus tendon passes through a narrow space located between the underside of the acromion and acromioclavicular joint, as well as the head of the humerus. When the tendon becomes trapped in this space, it can cause pain and restrict movement, especially during overhead activities. This condition is known as subacromial impingement.

      Impingement can occur due to various factors, such as thickening of the tendon caused by partial tears, inflammation, or degeneration. It can also be a result of the space narrowing due to osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint or the presence of bone spurs. Some individuals may have a naturally downward sloping acromion, which makes them more susceptible to impingement.

      Certain professions that involve a significant amount of overhead work, like plasterers, builders, and decorators, are particularly prone to developing subacromial impingement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 10-week history of loose stools and occasional...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 10-week history of loose stools and occasional blood in his stool. He has experienced a weight loss of 5 kg over the past eight months. During the examination, you detect a mass in his lower right quadrant.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      In patients of this age who have experienced a change in bowel habit, rectal bleeding, and weight loss, the most probable diagnosis is colorectal carcinoma. Considering the patient’s history and examination findings, the other options in this question are significantly less likely. It is crucial to refer this patient promptly to a specialized team that focuses on the treatment of lower gastrointestinal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - A 15 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his parents after he fell while climbing over a fence and sustained a deep cut to the arm where the metal spike pierced the skin. An X-ray reveals no bone damage. You opt to examine and cleanse the wound under sedation as the patient is extremely upset. You choose to sedate the patient with Ketamine. What is the main way in which Ketamine works?

      Your Answer: NMDA receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Ketamine primarily works by blocking NMDA receptors, although its complete mechanism of action is not yet fully comprehended. Ongoing research is exploring its impact on various other receptors.

      Further Reading:

      Procedural sedation is commonly used by emergency department (ED) doctors to minimize pain and discomfort during procedures that may be painful or distressing for patients. Effective procedural sedation requires the administration of analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and amnesia. This is typically achieved through the use of a combination of short-acting analgesics and sedatives.

      There are different levels of sedation, ranging from minimal sedation (anxiolysis) to general anesthesia. It is important for clinicians to understand the level of sedation being used and to be able to manage any unintended deeper levels of sedation that may occur. Deeper levels of sedation are similar to general anesthesia and require the same level of care and monitoring.

      Various drugs can be used for procedural sedation, including propofol, midazolam, ketamine, and fentanyl. Each of these drugs has its own mechanism of action and side effects. Propofol is commonly used for sedation, amnesia, and induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA on the GABA A receptors. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is used for dissociative sedation. Fentanyl is a highly potent opioid used for analgesia and sedation.

      The doses of these drugs for procedural sedation in the ED vary depending on the drug and the route of administration. It is important for clinicians to be familiar with the appropriate doses and onset and peak effect times for each drug.

      Safe sedation requires certain requirements, including appropriate staffing levels, competencies of the sedating practitioner, location and facilities, and monitoring. The level of sedation being used determines the specific requirements for safe sedation.

      After the procedure, patients should be monitored until they meet the criteria for safe discharge. This includes returning to their baseline level of consciousness, having vital signs within normal limits, and not experiencing compromised respiratory status. Pain and discomfort should also be addressed before discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a headache....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a headache. There is currently a scorching heatwave, and he has been working outdoors in heavy protective gear. His skin is dry and hot, he is hyperventilating, and his core temperature is currently 41.7°C. He is very agitated and shivering severely at present.
      Which of the following is the LEAST suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a core temperature higher than 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. There are two forms of heat stroke: classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs during high environmental temperatures and typically affects elderly patients during heat waves, and exertional heat stroke, which occurs during strenuous physical exercise in hot conditions, such as endurance athletes competing in hot weather.

      The main treatment for heat stroke involves supportive measures. It is important to rapidly reduce the core temperature to around 39.0°C. Patients with severe heat stroke should be managed in a critical care setting. The ABCDE approach should be followed, with a focus on cooling the patient. This includes obtaining a definitive airway if the patient is unresponsive, providing ventilation if necessary, using haemodynamic monitoring to guide fluid therapy, correcting electrolyte imbalances, managing blood glucose levels, removing clothes, eliminating the cause of hyperthermia, and monitoring core and skin temperatures.

      There are various cooling techniques that can be used, although there is limited evidence on which approach is the most effective. Some possible methods include simple measures like cold drinks, fanning, ice water packs, and spraying tepid water. Cold water immersion therapy can be beneficial, but it requires the patient to be stable and cooperative, making it impractical for very sick patients. Advanced cooling techniques, such as cold IV fluids, surface cooling devices, intravascular cooling devices, and extracorporeal circuits, may be used for sicker patients.

      Benzodiazepines, like diazepam, can be helpful in managing agitation and shivering in heat stroke patients. They not only reduce excessive heat production but also help to calm the patient. In severe cases of agitation, paralysis may be necessary. Dantrolene is commonly used, although there is currently limited high-level evidence to support its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects, including lowering the seizure threshold, interfering with thermoregulation, causing anticholinergic side effects, hypotension, and hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A 42-year-old woman develops a severe skin rash two weeks after starting a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman develops a severe skin rash two weeks after starting a course of vancomycin. Initially, she experienced general malaise with a mild fever and flu-like symptoms. Subsequently, she developed a rash characterized by multiple 'target lesions' which have now progressed to severe bullous, ulcerating skin lesions with areas of epidermal detachment. It is estimated that the epidermal detachment is affecting 35% of her total body surface area.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe and potentially life-threatening form of erythema multiforme. This condition leads to the detachment of the dermis from the lower layers of the skin. In some cases, it can result in death due to sepsis and failure of multiple organs.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are considered to be different stages of the same mucocutaneous disease, with toxic epidermal necrolysis being more severe. The degree of epidermal detachment is used to differentiate between the two conditions. In Stevens-Johnson syndrome, less than 10% of the body surface area is affected by epidermal detachment, while in toxic epidermal necrolysis, it is greater than 30%. An overlap syndrome occurs when the detachment is between 10-30% of the body surface area.

      Certain medications can trigger Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. These include tetracyclines, penicillins, vancomycin, sulphonamides, NSAIDs, and barbiturates. It is important to be aware of these potential triggers and seek medical attention if any symptoms or signs of these conditions develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into...

    Correct

    • You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You are considering administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the use of atropine?

      Your Answer: Up to 6 doses of 500 mcg can be given every 3-5 minutes

      Explanation:

      When treating adults with bradycardia, it is recommended to administer a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg. These doses can be repeated every 3-5 minutes. The total cumulative dose of atropine should not exceed 3 mg in adults.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - A patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding after receiving heparin. You determine that...

    Correct

    • A patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding after receiving heparin. You determine that protamine sulfate should be used to reverse the anticoagulation. How much protamine sulfate is needed to neutralize 200 IU of heparin?

      Your Answer: 2 mg

      Explanation:

      Protamine sulphate is a potent base that forms a stable salt complex with heparin, an acidic substance. This complex renders heparin inactive, making protamine sulphate a useful tool for neutralizing the effects of heparin. Additionally, protamine sulphate can be used to reverse the effects of LMWHs, although it is not as effective, providing only about two-thirds of the relative effect.

      It is important to note that protamine sulphate also possesses its own weak intrinsic anticoagulant effect. This effect is believed to stem from its ability to inhibit the formation and activity of thromboplastin.

      When administering protamine sulphate, it is typically done through slow intravenous injection. The dosage should be adjusted based on the amount of heparin that needs to be neutralized, the time that has passed since heparin administration, and the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). As a general guideline, 1 mg of protamine can neutralize 100 IU of heparin. However, it is crucial to adhere to a maximum adult dose of 50 mg within a 10-minute period.

      It is worth mentioning that protamine sulphate can have some adverse effects. It acts as a myocardial depressant, potentially leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure). These effects may arise due to complement activation and leukotriene release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A 30-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of paracetamol. He consumed the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of paracetamol. He consumed the overdose 12 hours ago and is unsure of the number of tablets he has taken.
      Which of the following substances can be utilized as an antidote for paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer: Methionine

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is an extremely effective antidote, but its effectiveness decreases quickly if administered more than a few hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions that exceed 75 mg/kg are considered to be significant.

      For patients who decline treatment, methionine is a helpful alternative. It is taken orally in a dosage of 2.5 g every 4 hours, with a total dose of 10 g.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - A 35-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of overall muscle weakness...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of overall muscle weakness and fatigue. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover a previous diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism. Which of the following statements about primary hyperaldosteronism is correct?

      Your Answer: Hypertension is usually resistant to drug treatment

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where hypertension is often difficult to control with antihypertensive medication. The most common electrolyte disturbance seen in this condition is hypokalaemia. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the preferred test is the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR), followed by imaging to identify the underlying cause. It is important to note that renal artery stenosis is a common cause of secondary hyperaldosteronism.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.

      The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.

      Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.

      Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.

      Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on the medication she takes for her heart condition. She informs you that she consumed verapamil SR 160 mg tablets approximately 30 minutes ago. However, her spouse discovered her immediately and promptly brought her to the hospital. Currently, she shows no symptoms. Typically, how much time passes before symptoms begin to manifest in cases of this overdose?

      Your Answer: 8-12 hours

      Correct Answer: 12-16 hours

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that should always be taken seriously as it can be potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into the cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      Significant toxicity can occur with the ingestion of more than 10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules). In children, even 1-2 tablets of immediate or sustained-release verapamil or diltiazem can be harmful. Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of taking standard preparations, but with slow-release versions, the onset of severe toxicity may be delayed by 12-16 hours, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The main clinical manifestations of calcium-channel blocker overdose include nausea and vomiting, low blood pressure, slow heart rate and first-degree heart block, heart muscle ischemia and stroke, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, and high blood sugar levels.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, certain bedside investigations are crucial. These include checking blood glucose levels, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), and obtaining an arterial blood gas sample. Additional investigations that can provide helpful information include assessing urea and electrolyte levels, conducting a chest X-ray to check for pulmonary edema, and performing an echocardiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A 60-year-old woman has developed a thick cord of tissue on the sole...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has developed a thick cord of tissue on the sole of her left foot. She has developed a flexion deformity with her toes curled downwards. She is unable to straighten them. She has a history of epilepsy, which is well managed with her current anticonvulsant medication. A picture of her foot deformity is displayed below:
      What is the MOST LIKELY anticonvulsant that is responsible for this deformity?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      This individual has developed Dupuytren’s contracture, which is a hand deformity characterized by a fixed flexion caused by palmar fibromatosis. The only anticonvulsant treatment believed to be connected to the development of Dupuytren’s contracture is phenytoin. Additionally, other conditions associated with its occurrence include liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, alcoholism, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A 35-year-old dairy farmer presents with a flu-like illness that has been worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old dairy farmer presents with a flu-like illness that has been worsening for the past two weeks. He has high fevers, a pounding headache, and muscle aches. He has now also developed a dry cough, stomach pain, and diarrhea. During the examination, there are no notable chest signs, but a liver edge can be felt 4 cm below the costal margin.

      Today, his blood tests show the following results:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 13.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
      - White blood cell count (WCC): 21.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
      - Neutrophils: 17.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
      - Platelets: 567 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 187 mg/l (normal range: < 5 mg/l)
      - Sodium (Na): 127 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K): 4.4 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine (Creat): 122 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
      - Urea: 7.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
      - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 121 IU/l (normal range: 8-40 IU/l)
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 296 IU/l (normal range: 30-200 IU/l)
      - Bilirubin: 14 micromol/l (normal range: 3-17 micromol/l)

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate antibiotic choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Q fever is a highly contagious infection caused by Coxiella burnetii, which can be transmitted from animals to humans. It is commonly observed as an occupational disease among individuals working in farming, slaughterhouses, and animal research. Approximately 50% of cases do not show any symptoms, while those who are affected often experience flu-like symptoms such as headache, fever, muscle pain, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.

      In some cases, patients may develop an atypical pneumonia characterized by a dry cough and minimal chest signs. Q fever can also lead to hepatitis and enlargement of the liver (hepatomegaly), although jaundice is not commonly observed. Typical blood test results for Q fever include an elevated white cell count (30-40%), ALT/AST levels that are usually 2-3 times higher than normal, increased ALP levels (70%), reduced sodium levels (30%), and reactive thrombocytosis.

      It is important to check patients for heart murmurs and signs of valve disease, as these conditions increase the risk of developing infective endocarditis. Treatment for Q fever typically involves a two-week course of doxycycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - A 3-month-old girl presents with vomiting, poor weight gain, and decreased muscle tone....

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old girl presents with vomiting, poor weight gain, and decreased muscle tone. She is hypotensive and has a rapid heart rate. On examination, you notice that she has enlarged scrotum and increased pigmentation. Blood tests show high potassium, low sodium, and elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels. Venous blood gas analysis reveals the presence of metabolic acidosis.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of inherited disorders that are caused by autosomal recessive genes. The majority of affected patients, over 90%, have a deficiency of the enzyme 21-hydroxylase. This enzyme is encoded by the 21-hydroxylase gene, which is located on chromosome 6p21 within the HLA histocompatibility complex. The second most common cause of CAH is a deficiency of the enzyme 11-beta-hydroxylase. The condition is rare, with an incidence of approximately 1 in 500 births in the UK. It is more prevalent in the offspring of consanguineous marriages.

      The deficiency of 21-hydroxylase leads to a deficiency of cortisol and/or aldosterone, as well as an excess of precursor steroids. As a result, there is an increased secretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary, leading to adrenocortical hyperplasia.

      The severity of CAH varies depending on the degree of 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Female infants often exhibit ambiguous genitalia, such as clitoral hypertrophy and labial fusion. Male infants may have an enlarged scrotum and/or scrotal pigmentation. Hirsutism, or excessive hair growth, occurs in 10% of cases.

      Boys with CAH often experience a salt-losing adrenal crisis at around 1-3 weeks of age. This crisis is characterized by symptoms such as vomiting, weight loss, floppiness, and circulatory collapse.

      The diagnosis of CAH can be made by detecting markedly elevated levels of the metabolic precursor 17-hydroxyprogesterone. Neonatal screening is possible through the detection of persistently elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone.

      In infants presenting with a salt-losing crisis, the following biochemical abnormalities are typically observed: hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia.

      Boys experiencing a salt-losing crisis will require fluid resuscitation, intravenous dextrose, and intravenous hydrocortisone. Affected females may require corrective surgery for their external genitalia. However, they have an intact uterus and ovaries and are able to have children.

      The long-term management of CAH involves lifelong replacement of hydrocortisone to suppress ACTH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - A 32-year-old traveler returns from a visit to West Africa with frequent headaches...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old traveler returns from a visit to West Africa with frequent headaches and occasional fevers. Laboratory tests reveal the presence of malaria. The patient is promptly initiated on treatment, but his condition worsens, leading to the development of jaundice, renal failure, and haemoglobinuria.

      What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this illness?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a contagious illness that is spread by female mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus. It is a parasitic infection caused by the Plasmodium genus. There are five species of Plasmodium that are known to cause disease in humans: Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi.

      The main symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, which is a recurring pattern of symptoms. It begins with a cold phase, during which the patient experiences intense chills. This is followed by a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot. Finally, there is a sweating stage, during which the fever subsides and the patient sweats profusely. Upon examination, the patient may exhibit signs of anemia, jaundice, and have an enlarged liver and spleen, but there is no evidence of swollen lymph nodes.

      If a patient develops haemoglobinuria (the presence of hemoglobin in the urine) and renal failure after treatment, it may indicate a condition called blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum. In this condition, an autoimmune reaction occurs between the parasite and quinine, leading to the destruction of red blood cells, hemoglobinuria, jaundice, and renal failure. Blackwater fever can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and drooling....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and drooling. Speaking is difficult for the child. The medical team calls for an experienced anesthesiologist and ear, nose, and throat surgeon. The child is intubated, and a diagnosis of acute epiglottitis is confirmed.
      Which antibiotic would be the best choice for treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.

      In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.

      The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.

      To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.

      When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - A 60-year-old woman presents with recent weight loss, difficulty breathing, and chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with recent weight loss, difficulty breathing, and chest pain. She has a long history of smoking and has been diagnosed with COPD. A chest X-ray reveals a large mass in the left lung consistent with cancer. You recommend that she be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment, but she refuses and does not want her family to know about her condition. She also states that she does not want to hear any negative news. After assessing her mental capacity and determining that she is competent and has capacity, which of the following statements is true regarding her ongoing care?

      Your Answer: You should document that the patient has declined information

      Explanation:

      There is no indication for an independent psychiatric evaluation of this patient. However, it is important to clearly document in his medical records that you have assessed his mental capacity and determined that he is capable of making decisions. It would not be appropriate in this case to refer him to a specialist against his wishes or to breach confidentiality by discussing his illness with his family or next of kin. According to the guidelines set by the General Medical Council (GMC), it is necessary to document the fact that the patient has declined relevant information. It is also important to avoid pressuring the patient to change their mind in these circumstances.

      For further information, please refer to the GMC guidelines on treatment and care towards the end of life: good practice in decision making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A 82 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 82 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by her two daughters. They are worried as the patient has become more disoriented and restless over the past two nights and has started shouting out. The patient's daughters inform you that the patient has limited mobility, relying on a wheelchair except for very short distances, but typically maintains normal awareness. When attempting to gather a medical history, the patient angrily tells you to 'go away' and repeatedly asks her daughters 'where am I?'

      Your Answer: 1 mg haloperidol by intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      In cases of delirium with challenging behavior, short-term low-dose haloperidol is typically the preferred medication. This patient is likely experiencing delirium due to a urinary tract infection. If the patient’s behavior becomes aggressive or poses a risk to themselves or others, pharmacological intervention may be necessary if non-verbal and verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective or inappropriate. It is important to note that antipsychotics should be avoided in patients with Parkinson’s disease. Low-dose haloperidol can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection. However, if the patient refuses oral medication, alternative methods may need to be considered.

      Further Reading:

      Delirium is an acute syndrome that causes disturbances in consciousness, attention, cognition, and perception. It is also known as an acute confusional state. The DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing delirium include recent onset of fluctuating awareness, impairment of memory and attention, and disorganized thinking. Delirium typically develops over hours to days and may be accompanied by behavioral changes, personality changes, and psychotic features. It often occurs in individuals with predisposing factors, such as advanced age or multiple comorbidities, when exposed to new precipitating factors, such as medications or infection. Symptoms of delirium fluctuate throughout the day, with lucid intervals occurring during the day and worse disturbances at night. Falling and loss of appetite are often warning signs of delirium.

      Delirium can be classified into three subtypes based on the person’s symptoms. Hyperactive delirium is characterized by inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, and agitation. Restlessness and wandering are common in this subtype. Hypoactive delirium is characterized by lethargy, reduced concentration, and appetite. The person may appear quiet or withdrawn. Mixed delirium presents with signs and symptoms of both hyperactive and hypoactive subtypes.

      The exact pathophysiology of delirium is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve multiple mechanisms, including cholinergic deficiency, dopaminergic excess, and inflammation. The cause of delirium is usually multifactorial, with predisposing factors and precipitating factors playing a role. Predisposing factors include older age, cognitive impairment, frailty, significant injuries, and iatrogenic events. Precipitating factors include infection, metabolic or electrolyte disturbances, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, urological disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, severe uncontrolled pain, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, medication use, and psychosocial factors.

      Delirium is highly prevalent in hospital settings, affecting up to 50% of inpatients aged over 65 and occurring in 30% of people aged over 65 presenting to the emergency department. Complications of delirium include increased risk of death, high in-hospital mortality rates, higher mortality rates following hospital discharge, increased length of stay in hospital, nosocomial infections, increased risk of admission to long-term care or re-admission to hospital, increased incidence of dementia, increased risk of falls and associated injuries, pressure sores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 42 year old male attends the emergency department having been found hypothermic...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male attends the emergency department having been found hypothermic and intoxicated due to alcohol. Following initial treatment and a period of observation the patient is deemed safe for discharge. You inform the patient that their weekly alcohol consumption meets the criteria of harmful drinking (high risk drinking) and you recommend the patient takes measures to decrease their alcohol intake.

      Harmful drinking in men is defined as alcohol consumption greater than or equal to how many units per week?

      Your Answer: 35

      Explanation:

      Harmful drinking is when a person consumes at least 35 units of alcohol per week if they are a woman, or at least 50 units per week if they are a man. This level of drinking can lead to negative consequences for their mental and physical health.

      Hazardous drinking, also known as increasing risk drinking, refers to a pattern of alcohol consumption that raises the likelihood of harm. For women, this means drinking more than 14 units but less than 35 units per week, while for men it means drinking more than 14 units but less than 50 units per week.

      High-risk drinking, or harmful drinking, is a pattern of alcohol consumption that causes mental or physical damage. This occurs when a woman drinks 35 units or more per week, or when a man drinks 50 units or more per week.

      Further Reading:

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.

      Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.

      The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.

      Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.

      Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.

      Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.

      Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.

      In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache. This individual is a known heavy drinker, consuming 15-20 units of alcohol daily. It is currently 3 pm, and the patient is visibly intoxicated. Despite the need for assessment, the patient adamantly refuses and insists on leaving.
      What course of action would be most suitable in this situation?

      Your Answer: Suggest a referral to the community drug and alcohol team

      Explanation:

      When considering the management of long-term conditions and promoting patient self-care, it is important to explore various factors. However, out of the given options, the only safe and viable choice is to refer the patient to the community drug and alcohol team. Without further information about the patient’s headache, a CT scan is not necessary. It would be unwise to advise the patient to stop drinking or to allow them to leave the department without assessing their capacity and obtaining their signature on a self-discharge form. At this point, there is insufficient information to make a referral to the medical team.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 50-year-old carpenter comes in with a chief complaint of shoulder pain that...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old carpenter comes in with a chief complaint of shoulder pain that worsens with repetitive overhead tasks. Additionally, he reports experiencing nighttime pain and difficulty in raising his arm. There is no history of any injuries.
      Which muscle is most likely to be affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The supraspinatus tendon passes through a narrow space located between the underside of the acromion and acromioclavicular joint, as well as the head of the humerus. When the tendon becomes trapped in this space, it can cause pain and restrict movement, especially during overhead activities. This condition is known as subacromial impingement.

      Impingement can occur due to various factors, such as thickening of the tendon caused by partial tears, inflammation, or degeneration. It can also be a result of the space narrowing due to osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint or the presence of bone spurs. Some individuals may have a naturally downward sloping acromion, which makes them more susceptible to impingement.

      Certain professions that involve a significant amount of overhead work, like plasterers, builders, and decorators, are particularly prone to developing subacromial impingement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - You assess a patient with a confirmed diagnosis of von Willebrand’s disease (vWD)...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient with a confirmed diagnosis of von Willebrand’s disease (vWD) who is scheduled for a surgical procedure. He wishes to have a conversation about how his condition will affect his surgery.
      Which ONE statement about vWD is accurate?

      Your Answer: It causes a prolongation of the APTT

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is a common hereditary coagulation disorder that affects approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It occurs due to a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. vWF not only binds to factor VIII to protect it from rapid breakdown, but it is also necessary for proper platelet adhesion. When vWF is lacking, both factor VIII levels and platelet function are affected, leading to prolonged APTT and bleeding time. However, the platelet count and thrombin time remain unaffected.

      While some individuals with vWD may not experience any symptoms and are diagnosed incidentally during a clotting profile check, others may present with easy bruising, nosebleeds (epistaxis), and heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia). In severe cases, more significant bleeding and joint bleeding (haemarthrosis) can occur.

      For mild cases of von Willebrand disease, bleeding can be managed with desmopressin. This medication works by stimulating the release of vWF stored in the Weibel-Palade bodies, which are storage granules found in the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels and heart. By increasing the patient’s own levels of vWF, desmopressin helps improve clotting. In more severe cases, replacement therapy is necessary. This involves infusing cryoprecipitate or Factor VIII concentrate to provide the missing vWF. Replacement therapy is particularly recommended for patients with severe von Willebrand’s disease who are undergoing moderate or major surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder describes a feeling in which a voice...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder describes a feeling in which a voice in her mind appears to vocalize her thoughts to her immediately after the thought has been generated.
      Which of the following psychological symptoms is she encountering?

      Your Answer: Écho de la pensée

      Explanation:

      Écho de la pensée, also known as thought echo, is a psychiatric symptom characterized by the perception of a voice in one’s mind that appears to vocalize thoughts immediately after they are generated.

      Thought withdrawal, on the other hand, is a delusional belief where individuals feel that their thoughts have been removed from their own consciousness without their control or consent.

      In contrast, thought insertion is a delusional conviction that someone else is influencing or manipulating their thoughts, causing difficulty in distinguishing between their own thoughts and those that have been inserted by another person.

      Folie à deux, also referred to as induced psychosis, is a specific type of delusional disorder that is shared by two or more individuals who have a close emotional relationship.

      Lastly, echophonia refers to the replication of the voice that can sometimes be heard when listening to the chest during auscultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - A middle-aged homeless individual with a history of intravenous drug use complains of...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged homeless individual with a history of intravenous drug use complains of extremely intense back pain, accompanied by a fever and weakness in the left leg. The pain has been disrupting his sleep and hindering his ability to walk. During the examination, tenderness is observed in the lower lumbar spine, along with weakness in left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.

      What is the MOST probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Discitis

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in intravenous drug users and those with weakened immune systems. Gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in 1-2% of cases post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, MRI is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. CT scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is important to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a CRP, to the lab. The choice of antibiotics depends on the specific situation. A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis may include IV flucloxacillin as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy, IV vancomycin if the infection was acquired in the hospital or there is a high risk of MRSA, and possibly IV gentamicin if there is a possibility of a Gram-negative infection. In cases where there is acute kidney injury and Gram-negative cover is required, IV piperacillin-tazobactam alone may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 35-year-old patient with a history of schizophrenia comes in with side effects...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient with a history of schizophrenia comes in with side effects from a medication that he recently began taking for this condition. Upon examination, you observe that he is experiencing severe muscular rigidity, a decreased level of consciousness, and a body temperature of 40ºC.
      Which of the following medications is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      First-generation antipsychotics, also known as conventional or typical antipsychotics, are potent blockers of dopamine D2 receptors. However, these drugs also have varying effects on other receptors such as serotonin type 2 (5-HT2), alpha1, histaminic, and muscarinic receptors.

      One of the major drawbacks of first-generation antipsychotics is their high incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. These include rigidity, bradykinesia, dystonias, tremor, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, there is a rare but life-threatening reaction called neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) that can occur with these medications. NMS is characterized by fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. It typically occurs shortly after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic medication.

      In contrast, second-generation antipsychotics, also known as novel or atypical antipsychotics, have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects and NMS compared to their first-generation counterparts. However, they are associated with higher rates of metabolic effects and weight gain.

      It is important to differentiate serotonin syndrome from NMS as they share similar features. Serotonin syndrome is most commonly caused by serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors.

      Here are some commonly encountered examples of first- and second-generation antipsychotics:

      First-generation:
      – Chlopromazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Fluphenazine
      – Trifluoperazine

      Second-generation:
      – Clozapine
      – Olanzapine
      – Quetiapine
      – Risperidone
      – Aripiprazole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the pills she takes for insomnia. She informs you that the pill she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She consumed the pills approximately 2 hours ago. She is currently experiencing tachycardia, with her most recent heart rate reading being 120 beats per minute. She weighs 65 kg. You administer a dose of propranolol, but there is no improvement in her condition.
      Which of the following treatments could now be given to support her cardiovascular system?

      Your Answer: High dose insulin – euglycaemic therapy

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.

      The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.

      2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.

      3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.

      4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.

      5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - You have a debrief session with your mentor after a case involving a...

    Correct

    • You have a debrief session with your mentor after a case involving a patient who experienced systemic toxicity from local anesthesia. Towards the end of the conversation, your mentor emphasizes the importance of reporting such episodes. In the UK, which of the following organizations should be notified about incidents of local anesthetic systemic toxicity?

      Your Answer: National Patient Safety Agency

      Explanation:

      Instances of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) should be promptly reported to the National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA). Additionally, it is advisable to report any adverse drug reactions to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) through their yellow card scheme. Please refer to the follow-up section in the notes for further details.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - You review a 82-year-old woman currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU) after...

    Correct

    • You review a 82-year-old woman currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU) after presenting with mobility difficulties. Her daughter asks to have a chat with you as she concerned that her mother had lost all interest in the things she used to enjoy doing. She also mentions that her memory has not been as good as it used to be recently.
      Which of the following would support a diagnosis of dementia rather than depressive disorder? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Depression and dementia are both more prevalent in the elderly population and often coexist. Diagnosing these conditions can be challenging due to the overlapping symptoms they share.

      Depression is characterized by a persistent low mood throughout the day, significant unintentional weight changes, sleep disturbances, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, difficulty concentrating, loss of interest in activities, and recurrent thoughts of death. It may also manifest as agitation or slowed movements, which can be observed by others.

      Dementia, on the other hand, refers to a group of symptoms resulting from a pathological process that leads to significant cognitive impairment. This impairment is more severe than what would be expected for a person’s age. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia.

      Symptoms of dementia include memory loss, particularly in the short-term, changes in mood that are usually reactive to situations and improve with support and stimulation, infrequent thoughts about death, alterations in personality, difficulty finding the right words, struggles with complex tasks, urinary incontinence, loss of appetite and weight in later stages, and agitation in unfamiliar environments.

      By understanding the distinct features of depression and dementia, healthcare professionals can better identify and differentiate between these conditions in the elderly population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - An older woman arrives at the Emergency Department in the afternoon, reporting chest...

    Correct

    • An older woman arrives at the Emergency Department in the afternoon, reporting chest discomfort. She has visited the hospital four times within the past two weeks with similar symptoms, and each time her examination and all tests came back normal. She lives alone but has family members living nearby. Her cat passed away recently. During today's examination, she appears to be in a slightly low mood. All systems examinations, ECG, and tests conducted today show no abnormalities.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient? Choose ONE option.

      Your Answer: Send a discharge summary to the GP outlining your findings and suggest that she may benefit from some social support

      Explanation:

      When it comes to decision making and utilizing the wider medical team, it is crucial to always consider the possibility of new medical issues, even if the symptoms have occurred multiple times before. In the case of chest pain in elderly individuals, it is important to conduct further investigations, even if the presentation is similar to previous instances.

      In addition, this patient appears to be displaying signs of depression. The loss of a pet can intensify feelings of loneliness. To address this, it would be wise to send a discharge summary to the patient’s general practitioner, outlining the findings and suggesting the potential benefits of providing social support for the patient.

      By rephrasing and organizing the information with paragraph spacing, the explanation becomes clearer and easier to read.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 62 year old male comes to the emergency department with a painful...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old male comes to the emergency department with a painful swollen right arm that has developed over the past 24 hours. On examination there is redness over most of the forearm and upper arm on the right side which is tender and warm to touch. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure 138/86 mmHg
      Pulse 96 bpm
      Respiration rate 21 bpm
      Temperature 38.1ºC

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Cellulitis is a common cause of swelling in one leg. It is characterized by red, hot, tender, and swollen skin, usually affecting the shin on one side. Other symptoms may include fever, fatigue, and chills. It is important to consider deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as a possible alternative diagnosis, as it can be associated with cellulitis or vice versa. Unlike cellulitis, DVT does not typically cause fever and affects the entire limb below the blood clot, resulting in swelling in the calf, ankle, and foot. Necrotizing fasciitis is a rare condition. Gout primarily affects the joints of the foot, particularly the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Erythema migrans usually produces a distinct target-shaped rash.

      Further Reading:

      Cellulitis is an inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by an infection, usually by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is characterized by symptoms such as erythema, pain, swelling, and heat. In some cases, there may also be systemic symptoms like fever and malaise.

      The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification to determine the appropriate management of cellulitis. Class I cellulitis refers to cases without signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities. Class II cellulitis involves either systemic illness or the presence of a co-morbidity that may complicate or delay the resolution of the infection. Class III cellulitis is characterized by significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromise. Class IV cellulitis involves sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection like necrotizing fasciitis.

      According to the guidelines, patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. This also applies to patients with severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail individuals, immunocompromised patients, those with significant lymphedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild). Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the necessary facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The recommended first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin. For patients allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin or clindamycin is recommended. In cases where patients have failed to respond to flucloxacillin, local protocols may suggest the use of oral clindamycin. Severe cellulitis should be treated with intravenous benzylpenicillin and flucloxacillin.

      Overall, the management of cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the presence of any systemic symptoms or complications. Prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications and promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with recurring nosebleeds. During the examination, you observe...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with recurring nosebleeds. During the examination, you observe a small bleeding point in the front of the nose.
      What is the PRIMARY location for anterior bleeding?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Explanation:

      The upper part of the nose receives blood supply from the anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries, which are derived from the internal carotid artery. On the other hand, the remaining parts of the nose and sinuses are nourished by the greater palatine, sphenopalatine, and superior labial arteries. These arteries are branches of the external carotid arteries.

      In the front part of the nasal septum, there exists a network of blood vessels where the branches of the internal and external carotid artery connect. This network is known as Kiesselbach’s plexus, also referred to as Little’s area. It is worth noting that Kiesselbach’s plexus is the most common location for anterior bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - You assess a 60-year-old individual who has arrived at the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • You assess a 60-year-old individual who has arrived at the emergency department with a progressive increase in difficulty breathing. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that they underwent an echocardiogram a year ago, which revealed moderate tricuspid regurgitation. Which of the following physical indications is linked to tricuspid regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Positive Carvallo's sign

      Explanation:

      Carvallo’s sign is a term used to describe the phenomenon where the systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation becomes louder when taking a deep breath in. Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by a continuous murmur that starts in systole and continues throughout the entire cardiac cycle. This murmur is best heard at the lower left sternal edge and has a low frequency. In addition to Carvallo’s sign, other features of tricuspid regurgitation include the presence of an S3 heart sound, the possibility of atrial arrhythmias such as flutter or fibrillation, the presence of giant C-V waves in the jugular pulse, hepatomegaly (often with a pulsatile nature), and the development of edema, which may be accompanied by lung crepitations or pleural effusions.

      Further Reading:

      Tricuspid regurgitation (TR) is a condition where blood flows backwards through the tricuspid valve in the heart. It is classified as either primary or secondary, with primary TR being caused by abnormalities in the tricuspid valve itself and secondary TR being the result of other conditions outside of the valve. Mild TR is common, especially in young adults, and often does not cause symptoms. However, severe TR can lead to right-sided heart failure and the development of symptoms such as ascites, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly.

      The causes of TR can vary. Primary TR can be caused by conditions such as rheumatic heart disease, myxomatous valve disease, or Ebstein anomaly. Secondary TR is often the result of right ventricular dilatation due to left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension. Other causes include endocarditis, traumatic chest injury, left ventricular systolic dysfunction, chronic lung disease, pulmonary thromboembolism, myocardial disease, left to right shunts, and carcinoid heart disease. In some cases, TR can occur as a result of infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers.

      Clinical features of TR can include a pansystolic murmur that is best heard at the lower left sternal edge, Carvallo’s sign (murmur increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration), an S3 heart sound, and the presence of atrial arrhythmias such as flutter or fibrillation. Other signs can include giant C-V waves in the jugular pulse, hepatomegaly (often pulsatile), and edema with lung crepitations or pleural effusions.

      The management of TR depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition. In severe cases, valve repair or replacement surgery may be necessary. Treatment may also involve addressing the underlying conditions contributing to TR, such as managing left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.2
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  • Question 150 - A 55-year-old man presents with a history of excessive urination and increased thirst....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a history of excessive urination and increased thirst. A diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is suspected.
      Select from the options below the SINGLE result that is most indicative of a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.

      Your Answer: An HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      According to the 2011 recommendations from the World Health Organization (WHO), HbA1c can now be used as a diagnostic test for diabetes. However, this is only applicable if stringent quality assurance tests are in place and the assays are standardized to criteria aligned with international reference values. Additionally, accurate measurement of HbA1c is only possible if there are no conditions present that could hinder its accuracy.

      To diagnose diabetes using HbA1c, a value of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut-off point. It’s important to note that a value lower than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude the possibility of diabetes, as glucose tests are still necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

      When using glucose tests, the following criteria are considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus:
      – A random venous plasma glucose concentration greater than 11.1 mmol/l
      – A fasting plasma glucose concentration greater than 7.0 mmol/l
      – A two-hour plasma glucose concentration greater than 11.1 mmol/l, two hours after consuming 75g of anhydrous glucose in an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

      However, there are certain circumstances where HbA1c is not appropriate for diagnosing diabetes mellitus. These include:
      – ALL children and young people
      – Patients of any age suspected of having Type 1 diabetes
      – Patients with symptoms of diabetes for less than two months
      – Patients at high risk of diabetes who are acutely ill, such as those requiring hospital admission
      – Patients taking medication that may cause a rapid rise in glucose levels, such as steroids or antipsychotics
      – Patients with acute pancreatic damage, including those who have undergone pancreatic surgery
      – Pregnant individuals
      – Presence of genetic, hematologic, and illness-related factors that can influence HbA1c and its measurement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.1
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  • Question 151 - A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with whooping cough. There are two individuals in...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with whooping cough. There are two individuals in the household who are considered to be in a 'priority group' for post-exposure chemoprophylaxis.
      What is the BEST antibiotic to prescribe for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is highly contagious and can be transmitted to about 90% of close household contacts. The Health Protection Agency has identified two priority groups for public health action in managing whooping cough contacts.

      Group 1 consists of individuals who are at a higher risk of severe or complicated infection. This includes infants under one year old who have received less than three doses of the pertussis vaccine.

      Group 2 consists of individuals who are at a higher risk of transmitting the infection to those in Group 1. This includes pregnant women who are at or beyond 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare workers who work with infants and pregnant women, individuals who work with infants too young to be vaccinated (under 4 months old), and individuals who share a household with infants too young to be vaccinated.

      According to current guidance, antibiotic prophylaxis with a macrolide antibiotic, like erythromycin, should only be offered to close contacts if two criteria are met. First, the index case (the person with whooping cough) must have developed symptoms within the past 21 days. Second, there must be a close contact in one of the two priority groups.

      If both criteria are met, all contacts, regardless of their vaccination status and age, should be offered chemoprophylaxis. In this case, the mother is in Group 2, so the current recommendation is that all household contacts, including the mother, father, and brother, should receive chemoprophylaxis.

      Additionally, immunization or a booster dose should be considered for those who have been offered chemoprophylaxis, depending on their current vaccination status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      4.7
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  • Question 152 - A 68-year-old individual presents with rest tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. A diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old individual presents with rest tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. A diagnosis of Parkinson's disease is determined.
      Parkinson's disease primarily occurs due to a loss of dopaminergic cells in which anatomical regions?

      Your Answer: Thalamus

      Correct Answer: Midbrain

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is primarily characterized by the degeneration of cells in the substantia nigra, a region located in the midbrain. The most severely affected part is the pars compacta, which plays a crucial role in motor control. As a result, there is a significant decrease in the activity of cells that secrete dopamine.

      The main symptoms of Parkinson’s disease include tremors that occur when the body is at rest, rigidity in the muscles, and bradykinesia, which refers to a slowness in movement. These symptoms can greatly impact a person’s ability to perform everyday tasks and can progressively worsen over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.8
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  • Question 153 - A 65 year old male comes to the emergency department with a 24...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old male comes to the emergency department with a 24 hour history of increasing dizziness. The patient reports feeling a sensation of spinning upon waking up this morning, and it has progressively worsened throughout the day. The patient mentions that head movements exacerbate the symptoms, but even when remaining still, the spinning sensation persists. There are no complaints of hearing loss, ringing in the ears, changes in vision, or focal neurological abnormalities.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis is characterized by the sudden and prolonged onset of rotational vertigo. This vertigo can occur spontaneously, upon waking up, or gradually worsen throughout the day. It is particularly aggravated by changes in head position, although it remains constant even when the head is still. Unlike other conditions, vestibular neuronitis does not cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or focal neurological deficits. On the other hand, in BPPV, episodes of vertigo are usually brief, lasting less than 20 seconds, and only occur when there is a change in head position.

      Further Reading:

      Vestibular neuritis, also known as vestibular neuronitis, is a condition characterized by sudden and prolonged vertigo of peripheral origin. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection. It is important to note that vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis are not the same condition, as labyrinthitis involves inflammation of the labyrinth. Vestibular neuritis typically affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 60, with a 1:1 ratio of males to females. The annual incidence is approximately 3.5 per 100,000 people, making it one of the most commonly diagnosed causes of vertigo.

      Clinical features of vestibular neuritis include nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement, typically in a horizontal or horizontal-torsional direction away from the affected ear. The head impulse test may also be positive. Other symptoms include spontaneous onset of rotational vertigo, which is worsened by changes in head position, as well as nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness. These severe symptoms usually last for 2-3 days, followed by a gradual recovery over a few weeks. It is important to note that hearing is not affected in vestibular neuritis, and symptoms such as tinnitus and focal neurological deficits are not present.

      Differential diagnosis for vestibular neuritis includes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease, migraine, stroke, and cerebellar lesions. Management of vestibular neuritis involves drug treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, typically through short courses of medication such as prochlorperazine or cyclizine. If symptoms are severe and fluids cannot be tolerated, admission and administration of IV fluids may be necessary. General advice should also be given, including avoiding driving while symptomatic, considering the suitability to work based on occupation and duties, and the increased risk of falls. Follow-up is required, and referral is necessary if there are atypical symptoms, symptoms do not improve after a week of treatment, or symptoms persist for more than 6 weeks.

      The prognosis for vestibular neuritis is generally good, with the majority of individuals fully recovering within 6 weeks. Recurrence is thought to occur in 2-11% of cases, and approximately 10% of individuals may develop BPPV following an episode of vestibular neuritis. A very rare complication of vestibular neuritis is ph

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - A 3-year-old child is brought in by ambulance to the resus area of...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child is brought in by ambulance to the resus area of your Emergency Department. They have been convulsing for the past 5 minutes. You have been unable to gain IV access and plan to administer a dose of buccal midazolam.
      What is the recommended dose of buccal midazolam for treating seizures in this child?

      Your Answer: 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The recommended dosage of buccal midazolam for treating a child experiencing seizures is 0.5 mg per kilogram of body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.2
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  • Question 155 - A 52-year-old type 2 diabetic visits the emergency department on the weekend complaining...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old type 2 diabetic visits the emergency department on the weekend complaining of persistent bloody diarrhea and developing a fever over the past three days. During triage, the patient's temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC. The patient mentions seeing their general practitioner on the day the symptoms started, and due to recent travel to the Middle East, a stool sample was sent for testing. Upon reviewing the pathology result, it is found that the stool sample tested positive for campylobacter. The decision is made to prescribe antibiotics. What is the most appropriate choice?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, when treating a campylobacter infection, clarithromycin is recommended as the first choice of antibiotic. Antibiotics are typically only prescribed for individuals with severe symptoms, such as a high fever, bloody or frequent diarrhea, or for those who have a weakened immune system, like this patient who has diabetes. NICE advises a dosage of clarithromycin 250-500 mg taken twice daily for a duration of 5-7 days. It is best to start treatment within 3 days of the onset of illness.

      Further Reading:

      Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of gastrointestinal infections, particularly travellers diarrhoea. It is a gram-negative bacterium that appears as curved rods. The infection is transmitted through the feco-oral route, often through the ingestion of contaminated meat, especially poultry. The incubation period for Campylobacter jejuni is typically 1-7 days, and the illness usually lasts for about a week.

      The main symptoms of Campylobacter jejuni infection include watery, and sometimes bloody, diarrhea accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, malaise, and headache. In some cases, complications can arise from the infection. Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) is one such complication that is associated with Campylobacter jejuni. Approximately 30% of GBS cases are caused by this bacterium.

      When managing Campylobacter jejuni infection, conservative measures are usually sufficient, with a focus on maintaining hydration. However, in cases where symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhea, or high-output diarrhea, or if the person is immunocompromised, antibiotics may be necessary. NICE recommends the use of clarithromycin, administered at a dose of 250-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days, starting within 3 days of the onset of illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A 45-year-old individual presents with a swollen and painful left knee. The symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old individual presents with a swollen and painful left knee. The symptoms started three days ago. There is no history of any injury, and a joint aspirate is sent for laboratory analysis. The aspirate reveals the presence of pus cells, positively birefringent crystals, and no organisms.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.

      Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial trauma. Imaging tests show that she has a Le Fort III fracture.
      What is the most accurate description of the injury pattern seen in a Le Fort III fracture?

      Your Answer: Transverse fracture of the midface

      Explanation:

      Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.

      The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.

      Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.

      Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.

      Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new job and spends a significant amount of time on a computer. He admits to feeling more stressed than usual lately. He describes his headaches as a tight band around his head that sometimes extends into his neck. The headaches are more severe towards the end of the day and typically last for a couple of hours. He does not experience any aura, sensitivity to light, or nausea during an episode. The headaches occur approximately 4-5 days per month and are relieved by over-the-counter pain medication.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic tension-type headache

      Correct Answer: Episodic tension-type headache

      Explanation:

      This patient’s history is indicative of episodic tension-type headache. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as experiencing headaches on more than 15 days per month.

      Migraine with typical aura presents with temporary visual disturbances such as hemianopia or scintillating scotoma that spreads. Migraine without aura must meet the criteria set by the International Headache Society, which are outlined below:

      1. The patient must have at least five attacks that meet criteria 2-4.
      2. The duration of each headache attack should be between 4 and 72 hours.
      3. The headache must have at least two of the following characteristics:
      – Located on one side of the head
      – Pulsating quality
      – Moderate or severe pain intensity
      – Aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity (e.g., walking or climbing stairs)
      4. During the headache, the patient must experience at least one of the following:
      – Nausea and/or vomiting
      – Sensitivity to light (photophobia) and sound (phonophobia)
      5. The headache should not be attributed to another disorder.

      Medication overuse headache is suspected when a patient uses multiple medications, often at low doses, without experiencing any relief from their headaches. Combination medications containing barbiturates, codeine, and caffeine are frequently involved. The diagnosis can only be confirmed when the symptoms improve after discontinuing the medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.2
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  • Question 159 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful sex, and a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful sex, and a thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative and her last period was four weeks ago. Her temperature today is 38.6°C.

      What is the MOST suitable initial test to perform?

      Your Answer: Endocervical swab

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix. The most common culprits are sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea, with chlamydia being the most prevalent infection seen in UK genitourinary medicine clinics.

      PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms do occur, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It’s important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be mistaken for PID, so a pregnancy test should always be conducted in patients with suspicious symptoms.

      To investigate a potential case of PID, endocervical swabs are taken to test for chlamydia and gonorrhea using nucleic acid amplification tests. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic treatment as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made, without waiting for swab results.

      Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings. However, patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.

      The current recommended treatment for outpatient cases of PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.

      For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment consists of intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. Afterward, the treatment is switched to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day course.

      If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - A 55-year-old man on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48 hours because his symptoms have not improved. Unfortunately, the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent to the lab are still unavailable. He has a history of chronic kidney disease, and his blood tests today show that his eGFR is 40 ml/minute. He has been taking trimethoprim 200 PO BD for the past two days.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Pivmecillinam

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) who are not pregnant, it is recommended to consider either a back-up antibiotic prescription or an immediate antibiotic prescription. This decision should take into account the severity of symptoms and the risk of developing complications, which is higher in individuals with known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or weakened immune systems. The evidence for back-up antibiotic prescriptions is limited to non-pregnant women with lower UTIs where immediate antibiotic treatment is not deemed necessary. It is also important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria. Ultimately, the preferences of the woman regarding antibiotic use should be taken into account.

      If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, it is crucial to review the choice of antibiotic once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.

      The following antibiotics are recommended for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and older:

      First-choice:
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
      – Trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if low risk of resistance*)

      Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice treatment for at least 48 hours, or if first-choice treatment is not suitable):
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
      – Pivmecillinam 400 mg initial dose taken orally, followed by 200 mg taken orally three times daily for 3 days
      – Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose

      *The risk of resistance may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (although this was not used), and in younger individuals in areas where local epidemiology data indicate low resistance rates. Conversely, the risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older individuals in residential facilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the eye clinic with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the eye clinic with a sudden onset of acute follicular conjunctivitis in his right eye. He complains of severe eye pain and has blurred vision with a lot of watery discharge. During the examination, pseudomembrane formation is observed in his eye, and he has preauricular lymphadenopathy on the right side. The doctor informs him that he has been diagnosed with 'epidemic keratoconjunctivitis'.
      What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Adenovirus

      Explanation:

      Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is a type of viral conjunctivitis that is primarily caused by adenoviruses. This highly contagious condition tends to occur in outbreaks. It is a common cause of acute conjunctivitis and has distinct clinical features. These include the sudden onset of acute follicular conjunctivitis, severe pain in the affected eye, a significant amount of watery discharge, the presence of subconjunctival hemorrhages, potential visual changes, hyperemia and chemosis, and the possibility of membranes and pseudomembranes forming. Additionally, ipsilateral preauricular lymphadenopathy may be observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.5
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  • Question 162 - A 35 year old female is brought to the emergency department after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden and severe headache. CT scan confirms the presence of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. You are currently monitoring the patient for any signs of elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) while awaiting transfer to the neurosurgical unit. What is the typical ICP range for a supine adult?

      Your Answer: 5–15 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The normal intracranial pressure (ICP) for an adult lying down is typically between 5 and 15 mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Correct

    • A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is requesting admission for ‘inpatient detox’ and states he would like some ‘medication to alleviate his symptoms’.

      Which of the following is a reason for admitting this patient?

      Your Answer: Age under 16

      Explanation:

      NICE provides a list of reasons for admitting patients with acute alcohol withdrawal. These include individuals who are deemed to be at risk of experiencing withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Additionally, young people under the age of 16 who are going through acute alcohol withdrawal may also require admission. Furthermore, vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties, may also benefit from being admitted for acute alcohol withdrawal. For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      3.9
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  • Question 164 - A 30-year-old woman develops cholestatic jaundice following an adverse drug effect of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman develops cholestatic jaundice following an adverse drug effect of a new medication she has been prescribed.
      Which medication is the LEAST likely to cause this adverse drug effect?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid has the potential to induce acute hepatitis, but it is not considered a known cause of cholestatic jaundice. On the other hand, there are several drugs that have been identified as culprits for cholestatic jaundice. These include nitrofurantoin, erythromycin, cephalosporins, verapamil, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, phenytoin, azathioprine, carbamazepine, oral contraceptive pills, diazepam, ketoconazole, and tamoxifen. It is important to be aware of these medications and their potential side effects in order to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      13.5
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  • Question 165 - A 15 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his parents and admits to taking 32 paracetamol tablets 6 hours ago. Blood tests are conducted, including paracetamol levels. What is the paracetamol level threshold above which the ingestion is deemed 'significant'?

      Your Answer: 75 mg/kg/24 hours

      Explanation:

      If someone consumes at least 75 mg of paracetamol per kilogram of body weight within a 24-hour period, it is considered to be a significant ingestion. Ingesting more than 150 mg of paracetamol per kilogram of body weight within 24 hours poses a serious risk of harm.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4.4
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  • Question 166 - A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6 cm laceration to the right thigh. The wound requires suturing. Your consultant suggests you suture the child under ketamine sedation as the child is upset by the wound. You are confident there are no contraindications and proceed to obtain parental consent. Which of the following risks should be specifically listed on the consent form and discussed with the parent giving consent?

      Your Answer: Rash

      Explanation:

      Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.

      Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.

      During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.

      Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.

      Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.

      Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      5.1
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  • Question 167 - A 10 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a 24 hour history of vomiting and becoming increasingly fatigued. Tests confirm diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Intravenous fluid is being administered. You are requested to prescribe insulin. What is the most suitable insulin regimen?

      Your Answer: Stat SC insulin at 0.05 units per kg

      Correct Answer: IV insulin infusion at 0.05 units/kg/hour

      Explanation:

      To treat DKA, the girl is receiving intravenous fluids to rehydrate her. Additionally, insulin needs to be prescribed to help regulate her blood sugar levels.

      The most suitable insulin regimen in this case would be an IV insulin infusion at 0.05 units/kg/hour. This means that the insulin will be administered through an intravenous line at a rate of 0.05 units per kilogram of the girl’s body weight per hour. This dosage is appropriate for managing DKA and will help to lower her blood sugar levels effectively.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      5.7
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  • Question 168 - You evaluate a 68-year-old woman diagnosed with small-cell lung cancer.
    Which ONE paraneoplastic syndrome...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 68-year-old woman diagnosed with small-cell lung cancer.
      Which ONE paraneoplastic syndrome is most frequently linked to this form of lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      Ectopic production of ACTH is linked to small-cell lung cancer and can lead to Cushing’s syndrome. It can also be observed in cases of pancreatic cancer and thymoma.

      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) is characterized by the presence of periostitis, arthritis, and finger clubbing. On plain X-ray, subperiosteal new bone formation can be detected. This condition primarily affects the long bones and often causes pain. It is most commonly associated with squamous cell lung cancer and pulmonary adenocarcinoma.

      Gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of breast tissue in males, can occur as a result of squamous cell lung cancer. In these cases, it tends to be accompanied by pain.

      Rarely, squamous cell lung cancer can cause ectopic production of TSH, leading to hyperthyroidism.

      Carcinoid syndrome is a condition that arises from carcinoid tumors, which secrete serotonin and kallikreins. This syndrome manifests as episodes of flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm. Additionally, 50% of patients develop a secondary restrictive cardiomyopathy. Carcinoid tumors can occur in various locations, with the small intestine being the most common site. Other locations include the lungs (bronchial adenoma), rectum, appendix, and stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      10.8
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  • Question 169 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following is acknowledged as a primary symptom of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Blunted affect

      Correct Answer: Thought echo

      Explanation:

      The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia, as described by Kurt Schneider, include auditory hallucinations such as hearing 3rd person voices discussing the patient, experiencing thought echo, and receiving commentary on one’s actions. Additionally, passivity phenomena may occur, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are also common in schizophrenia.

      On the other hand, chronic schizophrenia is characterized by negative symptoms. These include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, and poverty of thought and speech. These negative symptoms often persist in individuals with chronic schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      5.9
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  • Question 170 - A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills 45 minutes ago following a heated dispute with their partner. The patient reports consuming approximately 30 tablets in total, consisting of four or five different types. These tablets were sourced from their grandparents medication, although the patient is uncertain about their specific names. They mention the possibility of one tablet being called bisoprolol. What is the recommended antidote for beta-blocker toxicity?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is the preferred initial treatment for beta-blocker poisoning when there are symptoms of slow heart rate and low blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.

      In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.

      Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.

      Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.

      There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4
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  • Question 171 - A 65-year-old man is brought in to see you by his wife. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is brought in to see you by his wife. She is concerned that he may have had a 'mini-stroke.' After conducting a comprehensive history and examination, you conclude that it is highly probable that he has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). You decide to refer him to the nearby specialist TIA clinic.
      What imaging procedure is most likely to be arranged at the TIA clinic?

      Your Answer: Carotid imaging

      Explanation:

      The NICE recommendations for managing patients with suspected TIA are as follows:

      – Offer aspirin (300 mg daily) to individuals who have experienced a suspected TIA, unless there are contraindications. This treatment should be started immediately.
      – Immediately refer individuals who have had a suspected TIA for specialist assessment and investigation. They should be seen within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms.
      – Avoid using scoring systems, such as ABCD2, to assess the risk of subsequent stroke or determine the urgency of referral for individuals with suspected or confirmed TIA.
      – Provide secondary prevention measures, in addition to aspirin, as soon as possible after confirming the diagnosis of TIA.

      The NICE recommendations for imaging in individuals with suspected TIA or acute non-disabling stroke are as follows:

      – Do not offer CT brain scanning to individuals with suspected TIA, unless there is clinical suspicion of an alternative diagnosis that CT could detect.
      – After a specialist assessment in the TIA clinic, consider performing an MRI (including diffusion-weighted and blood-sensitive sequences) to determine the area of ischemia, detect hemorrhage, or identify alternative pathologies. If an MRI is conducted, it should be done on the same day as the assessment.
      – Carotid imaging is necessary for all individuals with TIA who, after specialist assessment, are considered candidates for carotid endarterectomy. This imaging should be done urgently.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals over 16 years old: diagnosis and initial management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4
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  • Question 172 - A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the newborn is born with deafness in both ears.
      Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides have the ability to pass through the placenta and can lead to damage to the 8th cranial nerve in the fetus, resulting in permanent bilateral deafness.

      ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if given in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters.

      Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      High doses of aspirin can lead to 1st trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, including diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the 1st trimester, can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol is associated with grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids, if given in the 1st trimester, may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol, if given in the 1st trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride should not be handled by pregnant women as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the 1st trimester, may cause limb malformations. If given in the 3rd trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

      Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.

      Lithium, if given in the 1st trimester, poses a risk of fetal cardiac malformations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      3.3
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  • Question 173 - A 45-year-old man presents with a tremor and difficulty with movement. After being...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a tremor and difficulty with movement. After being referred to a specialist, he is diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Currently, he is in the early stages of the condition.
      Which of the following clinical features is most likely to be present as well?

      Your Answer: Cogwheel rigidity

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:

      – Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
      – Bradykinesia (slow movement)
      – Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
      – Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)

      Other commonly observed clinical features include:

      – Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
      – Loss of facial expression
      – Monotonous, slurred speech
      – Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
      – Increased salivation and dribbling
      – Difficulty with fine movements

      Initially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:

      – Postural instability
      – Cognitive impairment
      – Orthostatic hypotension

      Although PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with anterior uveitis.
    Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with anterior uveitis.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is FALSE?

      Your Answer: It most commonly involves the posterior chamber

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and is characterized by a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and a decrease in visual clarity. In less than 10% of cases, the inflammation may extend to the posterior chamber. The condition can also lead to the formation of adhesions between the iris and the lens or cornea, resulting in an irregularly shaped pupil known as synechia. In severe cases, pus may accumulate in the front part of the eye, specifically the anterior chamber, causing a condition called hypopyon.

      There are various factors that can cause anterior uveitis, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause can be identified. Other causes include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It is worth noting that approximately 50% of patients with anterior uveitis have a strong association with the HLA-B27 genotype.

      Complications that can arise from uveitis include the development of cataracts, glaucoma, band keratopathy (a condition where calcium deposits form on the cornea), and even blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.9
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  • Question 175 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.

      What is the SINGLE most probable UNDERLYING diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reiter’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and typically manifests as a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. In some instances, there may be the presence of pus in the front part of the eye known as hypopyon.

      Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic (no known cause), trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can also be associated with anterior uveitis.

      A significant association has been observed between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the middle spine area and sacroiliitis. It is worth noting that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly after taking the medication, she experiences an acute dystonic reaction.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this reaction? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced acute dystonic reactions are frequently seen in the Emergency Department. These reactions occur in approximately 0.5% to 1% of patients who have been administered metoclopramide or prochlorperazine. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has proven to be effective in treating drug-induced parkinsonism, akathisia, and acute dystonia. In emergency situations, a dose of 10 mg IV of procyclidine can be administered to promptly treat acute drug-induced dystonic reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.4
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  • Question 177 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful red eye accompanied by sensitivity...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful red eye accompanied by sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and reduced vision. The on-call ophthalmology team is consulted, and they diagnose her with anterior uveitis.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE LEAST probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and is characterized by a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and a decrease in visual clarity. In less than 10% of cases, the inflammation may extend to the posterior chamber. The condition can also lead to the formation of adhesions between the iris and the lens or cornea, resulting in an irregularly shaped pupil known as synechia. In severe cases, pus may accumulate in the front part of the eye, specifically the anterior chamber, causing a condition called hypopyon.

      There are various factors that can cause anterior uveitis, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause can be identified. Other causes include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It is worth noting that approximately 50% of patients with anterior uveitis have a strong association with the HLA-B27 genotype.

      Complications that can arise from uveitis include the development of cataracts, glaucoma, band keratopathy (a condition where calcium deposits form on the cornea), and even blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - A 35-year-old woman who has been involved in a car accident is estimated...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who has been involved in a car accident is estimated to have suffered a class I haemorrhage according to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification. The patient weighs approximately 60 kg.
      Which of the following physiological parameters is consistent with a diagnosis of class I haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Increased pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.

      The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      9.3
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  • Question 179 - A 65 year old female is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old female is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a cardiac arrest at a local concert venue where she was attending as a spectator. The patient received a shock from an automated defibrillator device after prompt assessment by the medical team at the venue, leading to a return of spontaneous circulation.

      Your consultant informs you that the objective now is to minimize the severity of the post-cardiac arrest syndrome. You decide to implement a temperature control strategy. What is the desired temperature range for patients following a cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: 35-37.5ºC

      Correct Answer: 32-36ºC

      Explanation:

      After a cardiac arrest, it is recommended to maintain a mild hypothermia state with a target temperature range of 32-36ºC for at least 24 hours. It is important to avoid fever for a period of 72 hours following the cardiac arrest.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      5.2
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  • Question 180 - A man in his early forties who works at a steel mill is...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early forties who works at a steel mill is hit in the front of his abdomen by a steel girder. A FAST scan is conducted, revealing the existence of free fluid within the abdominal cavity.

      Which organ is most likely to have sustained an injury in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Colon

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Blunt abdominal trauma often leads to injuries in certain organs. According to the latest edition of the ATLS manual, the spleen is the most frequently injured organ, with a prevalence of 40-55%. Following closely behind is the liver, which sustains injuries in about 35-45% of cases. The small bowel, although less commonly affected, still experiences injuries in approximately 5-10% of patients. It is worth noting that patients who undergo laparotomy for blunt trauma have a 15% incidence of retroperitoneal hematoma. These statistics highlight the significant impact of blunt abdominal trauma on organ health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      4.2
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  • Question 181 - A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty breathing. Bedside echocardiography reveals significant mitral regurgitation. What is a common clinical characteristic of mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Medially displaced apex beat

      Correct Answer: A 3rd heart sound

      Explanation:

      Mitral regurgitation is characterized by several clinical features. One of the main signs is a pansystolic murmur that can be heard throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur often radiates to the left axilla. Another notable feature is a soft S1 heart sound, which is the first heart sound heard during the cardiac cycle. Additionally, a 3rd heart sound, also known as an added sound, can be detected in patients with mitral regurgitation. As the condition progresses to moderate to severe levels, signs such as a laterally displaced apex beat with a heave may become apparent.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - A 47 year old female comes to the emergency department with a 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old female comes to the emergency department with a 4 day history of pain on the left side of her torso. The patient describes the pain as burning and noticed a rash develop in the painful area a few days ago. Upon examination, you observe blotchy erythema with clustered vesicles on the left side of her torso, extending from the left side of her back to the midline in the distribution of the T10 dermatome.

      What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster

      Explanation:

      Shingles, also known as herpes zoster, occurs when the varicella zoster virus becomes active again in a specific area of the skin. This results in a rash characterized by clusters of fluid-filled blisters or vesicles on a red base. Over time, these blisters will dry up and form crusts before eventually healing.

      Further Reading:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.

      Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.

      Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.

      Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.

      Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - You are requested to evaluate a 78-year-old individual who has experienced excessive bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 78-year-old individual who has experienced excessive bleeding from the right nostril for a duration of 2 hours. During the examination, you observe a bleed originating from Little's area of the nasal septum.

      Which of the following accurately characterizes the arteries that contribute to the arterial anastomosis in Little's area?

      Your Answer: Infraorbital artery, anterior ethmoidal artery, posterior ethmoidal artery and superior labial artery

      Correct Answer: Greater palatine artery, anterior ethmoidal artery, superior labial artery and sphenopalatine artery

      Explanation:

      Kiesselbach’s plexus, also known as Little’s area, is formed by the connection of four or five arteries. These arteries include the greater palatine artery, anterior ethmoidal artery, superior labial artery, and sphenopalatine artery. Some sources also include the posterior ethmoidal artery as part of the plexus. The greater palatine artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, while the anterior ethmoidal artery is a branch of the internal carotid artery. The superior labial artery and sphenopalatine artery are both branches of the external carotid artery. The posterior ethmoidal artery, if included, is a branch of the ophthalmic artery.

      Further Reading:

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed a new diuretic medication. Upon reviewing her blood test results, you observe the presence of hyperkalemia.
      Which of the following diuretics is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a medication used to treat conditions such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, hepatic cirrhosis with ascites and edema, and Conn’s syndrome. It functions as a competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist, primarily working in the distal convoluted tubule. In this area, it hinders the reabsorption of sodium ions and enhances the reabsorption of potassium ions. Spironolactone is commonly known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.

      The main side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, particularly when renal impairment is present. In severe cases, hyperkalemia can be life-threatening. Additionally, there is a notable occurrence of gastrointestinal disturbances, with nausea and vomiting being the most common. Women may experience menstrual disturbances, while men may develop gynecomastia, both of which are attributed to the antiandrogenic effects of spironolactone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - You assess a 42-year-old woman who has a background of schizophrenia. She was...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 42-year-old woman who has a background of schizophrenia. She was initiated on an atypical antipsychotic drug a few months ago and has since experienced significant weight gain.
      Which SPECIFIC atypical antipsychotic medication is most likely to be accountable for her weight gain?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the atypical antipsychotic that is most likely to result in notable weight gain. Additionally, it is linked to the emergence of impaired glucose metabolism and metabolic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the hospital where...

    Correct

    • There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the hospital where you are currently employed. You are part of the team responsible for initial assessment at the scene of the incident.
      Who among the following patients would be classified as P3 status?

      Your Answer: A ‘walking wounded’ patient with minor injuries requiring treatment

      Explanation:

      Triage is a crucial process that involves determining the priority of patients’ treatment based on the severity of their condition and their chances of recovery. Its purpose is to ensure that limited resources are used efficiently, maximizing the number of lives saved. During a major incident, primary triage takes place in the bronze area, which is located within the inner cordon.

      In the context of a major incident, priorities are assigned numbers from 1 to 3, with 1 being the highest priority. These priorities are also color-coded for easy identification:
      – P1: Immediate priority. This category includes patients who require immediate life-saving intervention to prevent death. They are color-coded red.
      – P2: Intermediate priority. Patients in this group also require significant interventions, but their treatment can be delayed for a few hours. They are color-coded yellow.
      – P3: Delayed priority. Patients in this category require medical treatment, but it can be safely delayed. This category also includes walking wounded individuals. The classification as P3 is based on the motor score of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which predicts a favorable outcome. They are color-coded green.

      The fourth classification is for deceased individuals. It is important to identify and classify them to prevent the unnecessary use of limited resources on those who cannot be helped. Dead bodies should be left in their current location, both to avoid wasting resources and because the area may be considered a crime scene. Deceased individuals are color-coded black.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - A 22-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of jaw pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of jaw pain and difficulty in fully closing their mouth. They explain that this issue arose while yawning. The patient has a medical history of Ehlers Danlos syndrome. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sphenomandibular ligament rupture

      Correct Answer: Dislocated temporomandibular joint

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of atraumatic TMJ dislocation is yawning. Individuals with connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndromes have a higher susceptibility to atraumatic dislocation.

      Further Reading:

      TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.

      The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.

      Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.

      If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.

      Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.

      Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.

      After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being attacked by a snake while hiking in the mountains. The patient arrives in the emergency department appearing pale and sickly about 15 minutes after the attack and experiences vomiting during the initial assessment. You suspect the presence of systemic envenomation. What is the recommended minimum period of monitoring for individuals with suspected snake bite envenoming?

      Your Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been bitten by a venomous snake, such as the adder in the UK, should be admitted to the hospital for a minimum of 24 hours. While most snake bites only cause localized symptoms, there is a small chance of life-threatening reactions to the venom. When patients arrive at the emergency department after a snake bite, they should undergo a quick assessment to determine the severity of the envenoming and receive resuscitation if necessary. If indicated, anti-venom should be administered. Following this, patients should be closely monitored for changes in blood pressure and the progression of envenoming for at least 24 hours.

      Further Reading:

      Snake bites in the UK are primarily caused by the adder, which is the only venomous snake species native to the country. While most adder bites result in minor symptoms such as pain, swelling, and inflammation, there have been cases of life-threatening illness and fatalities. Additionally, there are instances where venomous snakes that are kept legally or illegally also cause bites in the UK.

      Adder bites typically occur from early spring to late autumn, with the hand being the most common site of the bite. Symptoms can be local or systemic, with local symptoms including sharp pain, tingling or numbness, and swelling that spreads proximally. Systemic symptoms may include spreading pain, tenderness, inflammation, regional lymph node enlargement, and bruising. In severe cases, anaphylaxis can occur, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and shock.

      It is important for clinicians to be aware of the potential complications and complications associated with adder bites. These can include acute renal failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, acute gastric dilatation, paralytic ileus, acute pancreatitis, and coma and seizures. Anaphylaxis symptoms can appear within minutes or be delayed for hours, and hypotension is a critical sign to monitor.

      Initial investigations for adder bites include blood tests, ECG, and vital sign monitoring. Further investigations such as chest X-ray may be necessary based on clinical signs. Blood tests may reveal abnormalities such as leukocytosis, raised hematocrit, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and abnormal clotting profile. ECG changes may include tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ST segment changes.

      First aid measures at the scene include immobilizing the patient and the bitten limb, avoiding aspirin and ibuprofen, and cleaning the wound site in the hospital. Tetanus prophylaxis should be considered. In cases of anaphylaxis, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is necessary. In the hospital, rapid assessment and appropriate resuscitation with intravenous fluids are required.

      Antivenom may be indicated in cases of hypotension, systemic envenoming, ECG abnormalities, peripheral neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated serum creatine kinase or metabolic acidosis, and extensive or rapidly spreading local swelling. Zagreb antivenom is commonly used in the UK, with an initial dose of 8 mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - You are managing a 32-year-old type 1 diabetic patient who presented feeling generally...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 32-year-old type 1 diabetic patient who presented feeling generally unwell with a blood glucose of 27 mmol/l. The patient is currently being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis. The patient weighs 70kg and is currently receiving the following:
      0.9% sodium chloride 1L with 40 mmol/l potassium chloride over 4 hours
      3 units Actrapid® insulin / hour.

      Monitoring bloods are taken and the results are shown below:

      glucose 12.8 mmol/l
      potassium 3.7 mmol/l
      sodium 145 mmol/l
      pH 7.2

      What is the most appropriate action to take for this patient?

      Your Answer: Discontinue insulin infusion

      Correct Answer: Start 10% glucose infusion at a rate of 125 mL/hour in addition to existing treatment

      Explanation:

      The healthcare provider should also assess the insulin infusion rate. It is important to note that the recommended minimum rate is 0.05 units per kilogram per hour. In this case, the patient weighs 60 kilograms and is currently receiving 3 units of Actrapid® insulin per hour, which is equivalent to 0.05 units per kilogram per hour. Therefore, the patient is already on the lowest possible dose. However, if the patient was on a higher dose of 0.1 units per kilogram per hour, it can be reduced once the glucose level falls below 14 mmol/l.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further questioning, you discover that he has taken an overdose of quetiapine. You discuss the case with your consultant, and she explains that the clinical features of this type of poisoning are due to central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade.

      Which of the following clinical effects occurs as a result of peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.

      The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested an excessive amount of his lithium medication. You measure his lithium level.
      At what level are toxic effects typically observed?

      Your Answer: 0.1 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: 1.5 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The therapeutic range for lithium typically falls between 0.4-0.8 mmol/l, although this range may differ depending on the laboratory. In general, the lower end of the range is the desired level for maintenance therapy and treatment in older individuals. Toxic effects are typically observed when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old patient who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three shocks, the patient experiences a return of spontaneous circulation.

      What are the recommended blood pressure goals following a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Mean arterial pressure 65-100 mmHg

      Explanation:

      After the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), there are two specific blood pressure targets that need to be achieved. The first target is to maintain a systolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg. The second target is to maintain the mean arterial pressure (MAP) within the range of 65 to 100 mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - You assess a patient with a previous diagnosis of bipolar disorder. His family...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient with a previous diagnosis of bipolar disorder. His family members are worried about his conduct.
      What is ONE characteristic symptom of mania?

      Your Answer: Thought echo

      Correct Answer: Thought disorder

      Explanation:

      The flight of ideas observed in mania is considered a type of thought disorder. The primary clinical characteristics of mania include changes in mood, behavior, speech, and thought.

      In terms of mood, individuals experiencing mania often exhibit an elated mood and a sense of euphoria. They may also display irritability and hostility instead of their usual amiability. Additionally, there is an increase in enthusiasm.

      Regarding behavior, individuals in a manic state tend to be overactive and have heightened energy levels. They may lose their normal social inhibitions and engage in more risk-taking behaviors. This can also manifest as increased sexual promiscuity and libido, as well as an increased appetite.

      In terms of speech, individuals with mania often speak in a pressured and rapid manner. Their conversations may be cheerful, and they may engage in rhyming or punning.

      Lastly, in terms of thought, the flight of ideas is a prominent feature of mania and is classified as a thought disorder. Individuals may experience grandiose delusions and have an inflated sense of self-esteem. They may also struggle with poor attention and concentration.

      Overall, mania is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect mood, behavior, speech, and thought.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.

      During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.

      Which treatment is most likely responsible for causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acamprosate

      Correct Answer: Intravenous glucose

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.

      This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.

      Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.6
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  • Question 195 - A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest reveals a traumatic aortic injury.

      Where is her injury most likely to have occurred anatomically?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Correct Answer: Proximal descending aorta

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.

      The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.

      Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.

      A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.

      Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 196 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 25 kg. What is the child's hourly maintenance fluid requirement when he is in good health?

      Your Answer: 75 ml/hour

      Correct Answer: 65 ml/hour

      Explanation:

      The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration becomes evident only after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.

      The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children: Bodyweight:

      – First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg.

      – Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg.

      – Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg.

      Based on this information, the hourly maintenance fluid requirements for this child can be calculated as follows:

      – First 10 kg: 4 ml/kg = 40 ml

      – Second 10 kg: 2 ml/kg = 20 ml

      – Subsequent kg: 1 ml/kg = 5 ml

      Therefore, the total hourly maintenance fluid requirement for this child is 65 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The parents inform you that the child had a slight fever and a runny nose for 48 hours before developing a barking cough last night. During the examination, the child's temperature is recorded as 38.1ºC and you observe a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for croup. In this case, the child’s symptoms align with croup. The recommended initial medication for croup is a one-time oral dose of dexamethasone, regardless of the severity of the condition. The dosage is typically 0.15mg per kilogram of the child’s weight.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      4.3
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  • Question 198 - A 35 year old firefighter is recommended to go to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old firefighter is recommended to go to the emergency department after responding to a house fire where a gas explosion occurred. The firefighter helped evacuate the residents and then inspected the basement where a leaking gas pipe was found.

      What is the most suitable agent to offer this patient for decontamination?

      Your Answer: Sodium Calcium Edetate

      Correct Answer: Prussian blue

      Explanation:

      Prussian blue is a substance that helps remove radioactive caesium from the body, a process known as decorporation. It is specifically effective for caesium exposure. When taken orally, Prussian blue binds to the radioactive caesium, forming a compound that can be excreted from the body, preventing further absorption. By using Prussian blue, the whole body radiation dose can be reduced by approximately two-thirds. Radioactive caesium is utilized in various medical, geological, and industrial applications, although incidents of environmental contamination are rare, they have been reported in Western Australia and Eastern Thailand during the first quarter of 2023.

      Further Reading:

      Radiation exposure refers to the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or a material medium. There are two types of radiation: ionizing and non-ionizing. Non-ionizing radiation, such as radio waves and visible light, has enough energy to move atoms within a molecule but not enough to remove electrons from atoms. Ionizing radiation, on the other hand, has enough energy to ionize atoms or molecules by detaching electrons from them.

      There are different types of ionizing radiation, including alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and X-rays. Alpha particles are positively charged and consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons from the atom’s nucleus. They are emitted from the decay of heavy radioactive elements and do not travel far from the source atom. Beta particles are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay. They are more penetrating than alpha particles but less damaging to living tissue. Gamma rays and X-rays are weightless packets of energy called photons. Gamma rays are often emitted along with alpha or beta particles during radioactive decay and can easily penetrate barriers. X-rays, on the other hand, are generally lower in energy and less penetrating than gamma rays.

      Exposure to ionizing radiation can damage tissue cells by dislodging orbital electrons, leading to the generation of highly reactive ion pairs. This can result in DNA damage and an increased risk of future malignant change. The extent of cell damage depends on factors such as the type of radiation, time duration of exposure, distance from the source, and extent of shielding.

      The absorbed dose of radiation is directly proportional to time, so it is important to minimize the amount of time spent in the vicinity of a radioactive source. A lethal dose of radiation without medical management is 4.5 sieverts (Sv) to kill 50% of the population at 60 days. With medical management, the lethal dose is 5-6 Sv. The immediate effects of ionizing radiation can range from radiation burns to radiation sickness, which is divided into three main syndromes: hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and neurovascular. Long-term effects can include hematopoietic cancers and solid tumor formation.

      In terms of management, support is mainly supportive and includes IV fluids, antiemetics, analgesia, nutritional support, antibiotics, blood component substitution, and reduction of brain edema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      4.5
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  • Question 199 - A 3 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. They inform you that the patient started experiencing diarrhea two days ago and has had 3-4 instances of watery loose stools in the past 24 hours. They mention that the patient vomited a few times yesterday but has not vomited again today. After conducting a thorough assessment, you inform the parents that you suspect the patient has viral gastroenteritis and that supportive treatment is usually recommended. They inquire about the duration of the diarrhea. What is the most appropriate response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In most cases diarrhoea usually lasts for 5–7 days

      Explanation:

      Typically, children with viral gastroenteritis experience diarrhoea for a duration of 5-7 days. Vomiting, on the other hand, usually subsides within 1-2 days.

      Further Reading:

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.

      Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.

      When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.

      In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.

      Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.

      Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 200 - A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling something enter her left ear and experiencing a persistent sensation of it being stuck inside. Upon examination using an otoscope, a small fly is observed moving within the ear canal but appears to be trapped in earwax. The tympanic membrane appears intact.

      What is the most suitable initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Instill the ear canal with 2% lidocaine

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is commonly chosen because it offers some local anesthesia. Alternatively, mineral oil can be used. Cold water irrigation can often cause nausea and vomiting, so it is recommended to use warm water for irrigation. An ENT clinician should be able to remove an insect from the ear canal. However, if removal attempts are unsuccessful or complications arise, a referral may be necessary.

      Further Reading:

      Foreign bodies in the ear or nose are a common occurrence, especially in children between the ages of 2 and 8. Foreign bodies in the ear are more common than those in the nose. Symptoms of foreign bodies in the ear may include ear pain, a feeling of fullness, impaired hearing, discharge, tinnitus, and vertigo. It is important to consider referral to an ENT specialist for the removal of potentially harmful foreign bodies such as glass, sharp objects, button batteries, and tightly wedged items. ENT involvement is also necessary if there is a perforation of the eardrum or if the foreign body is embedded in the eardrum.

      When preparing a patient for removal, it is important to establish rapport and keep the patient relaxed, especially if they are a young child. The patient should be positioned comfortably and securely, and ear drops may be used to anesthetize the ear. Removal methods for foreign bodies in the ear include the use of forceps or a hook, irrigation (except for batteries, perforations, or organic material), suction, and magnets for ferrous metal foreign bodies. If there is an insect in the ear, it should be killed with alcohol, lignocaine, or mineral oil before removal.

      After the foreign body is removed, it is important to check for any residual foreign bodies and to discharge the patient with appropriate safety net advice. Prophylactic antibiotic drops may be considered if there has been an abrasion of the skin.

      Foreign bodies in the nose are less common but should be dealt with promptly due to the risk of posterior dislodgement into the airway. Symptoms of foreign bodies in the nose may include nasal discharge, sinusitis, nasal pain, epistaxis, or blood-stained discharge. Most nasal foreign bodies are found on the anterior or middle third of the nose and may not show up on x-rays.

      Methods for removing foreign bodies from the nose include the mother’s kiss technique, suction, forceps, Jobson horne probe, and foley catheter. The mother’s kiss technique involves occluding the patent nostril and having a parent blow into the patient’s mouth. A foley catheter can be used by inserting it past the foreign body and inflating the balloon to gently push the foreign body out. ENT referral may be necessary if the foreign body cannot be visualized but there is a high suspicion, if attempts to remove the foreign body have failed, if the patient requires sed

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Major Incident Management & PHEM (2/2) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (2/3) 67%
Ear, Nose & Throat (16/17) 94%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (17/23) 74%
Ophthalmology (3/4) 75%
Infectious Diseases (5/6) 83%
Paediatric Emergencies (7/9) 78%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (3/4) 75%
Urology (3/4) 75%
Nephrology (2/3) 67%
Cardiology (10/14) 71%
Neurology (7/13) 54%
Trauma (6/9) 67%
Endocrinology (12/13) 92%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (6/6) 100%
Surgical Emergencies (4/6) 67%
Sexual Health (1/2) 50%
Haematology (6/6) 100%
Respiratory (7/8) 88%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (3/3) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (7/8) 88%
Dermatology (5/5) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (5/5) 100%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (4/4) 100%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (7/10) 70%
Allergy (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (3/3) 100%
Oncological Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Resus (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Passmed