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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old male construction worker presents to the clinic with concerns about his...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male construction worker presents to the clinic with concerns about his recent behavior at work. Over the past week, he has been very talkative and easily distracted while on the job. This is unusual for him as he typically prefers to stay focused and get his work done efficiently. He also reports feeling more energetic than usual and needing less sleep. He denies any impulsive behavior, drug use, or sexual promiscuity. There is no significant medical history, but his father has a history of bipolar disorder.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Routine referral to the community mental health team

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of hypomania in primary care, it is important to refer them to the community mental health team for confirmation of the diagnosis before prescribing any medication. Quetiapine is often used as a first-line treatment for acute bipolar disorder, but it should not be prescribed until the diagnosis is confirmed. SSRIs are not recommended for depressive episodes in bipolar disorder, and olanzapine and fluoxetine should only be used in rare circumstances for acute depression. Lithium is a common medication for bipolar disorder, but it should not be prescribed until the diagnosis is confirmed. Routine referral to the community mental health team is advised for patients presenting with hypomania in primary care, and urgent referral may be necessary if the patient is at risk of self-harm or harm to others. Referral may also be necessary if the patient demonstrates poor judgment in areas such as employment, personal relationships, finances, driving, sexual activity, or drug use.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.3
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of sporadic abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of sporadic abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She believes her last menstrual cycle was 8 weeks ago but is uncertain. She has no prior gynecological history and has never been pregnant before. Her vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg and a pulse rate of 79 bpm. A pregnancy test conducted in the department is positive, and a transvaginal ultrasound confirms a pregnancy in the adnexa with a fetal heartbeat present. What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Surgical management - salpingectomy or salpingostomy

      Explanation:

      The patient has a confirmed ectopic pregnancy, which requires definitive treatment even though there is no evidence of rupture. While expectant management may be an option for those without acute symptoms and decreasing beta-HCG levels, close monitoring is necessary and intervention is recommended if symptoms arise or beta-HCG levels increase. If a fetal heartbeat is present, conservative and medical management are unlikely to be successful and may increase the risk of rupture, which is a medical emergency. Therefore, surgical removal of the ectopic is the most appropriate option. If the opposite tube is healthy, salpingectomy may be the preferred choice. However, if the opposite tube is damaged, salpingostomy may be considered to preserve the functional tube and reduce the risk of future infertility.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      46.5
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed as being vitamin B12-deficient with a B12...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed as being vitamin B12-deficient with a B12 level of < 50 pmol/l (160–900 pmol/l) and a haemoglobin (Hb) level of 85 (115–155 g/l). It is not diet-related.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg im three times a week for two weeks and then 1 mg im 3-monthly

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pernicious Anemia with Hydroxocobalamin

      Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, often due to the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Hydroxocobalamin is a form of vitamin B12 that can be used for supplementation in patients with pernicious anemia. Here are some treatment options with hydroxocobalamin:

      1. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM three times a week for two weeks, then 1 mg IM every three months: This is the standard dose for patients with pernicious anemia without neurological deficits.

      2. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM on alternate days indefinitely: This is used for patients with pernicious anemia and neurological involvement until symptom improvement reaches a plateau, then maintenance involves 1 mg IM every two months.

      3. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IV three times a week for two weeks, then monthly: This is used for the treatment of cyanide poisoning, not for pernicious anemia.

      4. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM three times a week for two weeks, then oral 1 mg hydroxocobalamin: Oral supplementation is not appropriate for patients with pernicious anemia due to absorption issues.

      5. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg subcutaneously three times a week for two weeks, monthly for three months, then 3-monthly: Hydroxocobalamin is administered IM, not subcutaneously.

      In conclusion, hydroxocobalamin is an effective treatment option for pernicious anemia, but the dosage and administration route should be carefully considered based on the patient’s individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 22-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a lump in his...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a lump in his testicle. Upon examination, the mass is found to be painless, irregularly surfaced, hard, and about 2 cm in size. It does not transilluminate. What is the probable cause of the testicular lump?

      Your Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      The lump’s characteristics suggest that it is a tumour, specifically due to its hard and irregular nature. However, the age of the patient is a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour. Teratomas are typically found in individuals aged 20-30, while seminomas are more common in those aged 30-50. Gonadal teratomas are tumours that can be benign or malignant and affect the gonads, specifically the ovaries in women and the testicles in men. They are predominantly young tumours that affect children and adolescents.

      In summary, the identification and differentiation of tumours depend on various factors, including the lump’s characteristics and the patient’s age. these factors is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and denies experiencing any abdominal pain, dizziness, or shoulder tip pain. She reports passing less than a teaspoon of blood without any clots. The patient has no history of ectopic pregnancy. During examination, her heart rate is 85 beats per minute, blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform a serum beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) blood test and repeat in 120 hours

      Correct Answer: Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Conduct a blood test to measure the levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum, and then repeat the test after 120 hours.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor and expresses concern about her ability to...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor and expresses concern about her ability to manage her finances in the future. She wishes for her daughter to have the authority to make financial decisions on her behalf and knows that she must complete a form to make this possible.
      What organization is responsible for registering these forms?

      Your Answer: Office of the Public Guardian

      Explanation:

      Government Agencies and Their Roles in Supporting Vulnerable People

      The UK government has several agencies that work to support vulnerable people in different ways. One of these agencies is the Office of the Public Guardian, which helps individuals who lack capacity to make decisions about their health and finances. All lasting power of attorneys must be registered with this agency.

      Another agency is the Official Solicitor and Public Trustee, which collaborates with the Ministry of Justice to provide services to vulnerable people within the justice system. Public Health England is responsible for responding to public health emergencies and advising the government, NHS, and public.

      The National Information Board brings together information and technology from the NHS, public health, social care, and local government. Lastly, the Pensions Regulator works with employers, pension specialists, and business advisers to provide guidance on work-based pension schemes. These agencies play a crucial role in supporting vulnerable people and ensuring their rights are protected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man was saved from a building blaze. Consequently, he sustained burns...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was saved from a building blaze. Consequently, he sustained burns on his entire back and left leg. What is the percentage of his total body surface area (TBSA) that has been impacted?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Correct Answer: 45%

      Explanation:

      Calculating Total Body Area Affected by Burns using the Rule of 9s

      The rule of 9s is a commonly used method for calculating the total body area affected by burns. According to this rule, the body is divided into different regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area (TBSA). For instance, the head represents 9% of the TBSA, with 4.5% for the anterior head and 4.5% for the posterior head. The anterior and posterior torso each represent 18% of the TBSA, while each arm and leg represents 9%. The genitalia/perineum represents 1% of the TBSA.

      As a rule of thumb, the patient’s palm can be used to estimate 1% of the TBSA for burns not involving whole body areas. For example, if a patient has burns on their right leg (18%), left leg (18%), and right arm (9%), the total body area affected by burns would be 45%.

      Other percentages can also be calculated using the rule of 9s. For instance, 30% would indicate burns to both legs only (18% for each leg), while 36% would indicate burns to both legs only (18% for each leg). 40% would be consistent with burns to the right leg (18%), left leg (18%), and right arm (9%). 54% would indicate burns to both arms and both legs (18% for each leg, 9% for each arm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents at her booking visit...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents at her booking visit at 38 weeks’ gestation. Her booking blood tests include a CD4 count of 480 and a viral load of 40 copies/ml. She is not currently on any antiretrovirals. She wishes to have a vaginal delivery if possible.
      Which of the following best describes this patient’s HIV management during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Zidovudine monotherapy starting now until delivery

      Correct Answer: Combined antiretroviral therapy starting by 24 weeks and continuing lifelong

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral Therapy Options for Pregnant Women with HIV

      The British HIV Association recommends that all pregnant women who are HIV-positive should be started on combined antiretroviral therapy in the second trimester and continue it lifelong. This therapy consists of three agents. Even if the viral load is low, antiretroviral therapy is still recommended.

      For women who refuse combined antiretroviral therapy, zidovudine monotherapy can be offered if the patient has a CD4 count of > 350 and a viral load of < 10 000 copies/ml and agrees to a Caesarean section. This option is less effective than combined therapy but can still be considered. If zidovudine monotherapy is chosen, it should be started in the second trimester and continued until delivery. During delivery, a zidovudine infusion should be running. If the viral load remains < 50 copies/ml, a planned vaginal delivery can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 5-day-old neonate presents with sudden onset bilious vomiting. These episodes of vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old neonate presents with sudden onset bilious vomiting. These episodes of vomiting are occurring frequently. On examination, he has a swollen, firm abdomen, is pale and appears dehydrated. He has not passed stool in the last 24 hours. He was born at term and there were no complications around the time of his delivery.
      What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis

      Correct Answer: Malrotation

      Explanation:

      Malrotation is most commonly seen in neonates within the first 30 days of life, and it often presents with bilious vomiting. The abdomen may initially be soft and non-tender, but if left untreated, it can lead to gut strangulation. In this scenario, the child’s distended and firm abdomen and lack of stool suggest this complication.

      Appendicitis is rare in neonates and becomes more common in children over 3 years old. Symptoms of appendicitis in children typically include right-sided abdominal pain, fever, anorexia, and vomiting. Bilious vomiting, as seen in this case, would be unusual unless the condition had been present for a long time.

      Necrotising enterocolitis usually presents in neonates with abdominal pain, swelling, diarrhoea with bloody stool, green/yellow vomit, lethargy, refusal to eat, and lack of weight gain. It is more common in premature babies and tends to have a more gradual onset, rather than presenting as an acutely unwell and dehydrated neonate.

      Vomiting associated with pyloric stenosis is typically non-bilious and projectile, and it usually occurs between 4-8 weeks of age. Weight loss and dehydration are common at presentation, and visible peristalsis and a palpable olive-sized pyloric mass may be felt during a feed. Lack of ability to pass stool and a distended abdomen are not typical features of this condition.

      Causes and Treatments for Bilious Vomiting in Neonates

      Bilious vomiting in neonates can be caused by various disorders, including duodenal atresia, malrotation with volvulus, jejunal/ileal atresia, meconium ileus, and necrotising enterocolitis. Duodenal atresia occurs in 1 in 5000 births and is more common in babies with Down syndrome. It typically presents a few hours after birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows a double bubble sign. Treatment involves duodenoduodenostomy. Malrotation with volvulus is usually caused by incomplete rotation during embryogenesis and presents between 3-7 days after birth. An upper GI contrast study or ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves Ladd’s procedure. Jejunal/ileal atresia is caused by vascular insufficiency in utero and occurs in 1 in 3000 births. It presents within 24 hours of birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels. Treatment involves laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis. Meconium ileus occurs in 15-20% of babies with cystic fibrosis and presents in the first 24-48 hours of life with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Diagnosis involves an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels, and a sweat test can confirm cystic fibrosis. Treatment involves surgical decompression, and segmental resection may be necessary for serosal damage. Necrotising enterocolitis occurs in up to 2.4 per 1000 births, with increased risks in prematurity and inter-current illness. It typically presents in the second week of life and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows dilated bowel loops, pneumatosis, and portal venous air. Treatment involves conservative and supportive measures for non-perforated cases, while laparotomy and resection are necessary for perforated cases or ongoing clinical deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain. The pain started yesterday and is increasing in intensity. She has had loose stools for a few days and has been feeling nauseated. She has not vomited. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, there is tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bloods: haemoglobin (Hb) 116 g/l; white cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Diverticulitis is a condition where small pouches in the bowel wall become inflamed, often due to blockages. This is more common in older individuals and can cause symptoms such as fever, nausea, and abdominal pain. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and rest, but surgery may be necessary in severe cases. It is important to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions, such as colorectal cancer, with lower gastrointestinal endoscopy. In contrast, Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are less likely diagnoses in a 75-year-old patient without prior gastrointestinal history. Diverticulosis, the presence of these pouches without inflammation, is often asymptomatic and more common in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/3) 67%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Plastics (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
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