00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of gum swelling. Upon examination, significant gum hypertrophy is noted.
      Which SPECIFIC anti-epileptic medication is she most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is widely known for its ability to cause gum hypertrophy. This condition is believed to occur as a result of decreased folate levels, but studies have shown that taking folic acid supplements can help prevent it. In addition to gum hypertrophy, other side effects that may occur with phenytoin use include megaloblastic anemia, nystagmus, ataxia, hypertrichosis, pruritic rash, hirsutism, and drug-induced lupus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with depression during the 2nd-trimester of her pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with depression during the 2nd-trimester of her pregnancy and is started on fluoxetine. As a result of this treatment, the baby develops a complication.
      Which of the following complications is the most likely to occur due to the use of this medication during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

      Explanation:

      During the third trimester of pregnancy, the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) has been associated with a discontinuation syndrome and persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. It is important to be aware of the adverse effects of various drugs during pregnancy. For example, ACE inhibitors like ramipril, if given in the second and third trimester, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin can lead to ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks. Late administration of benzodiazepines like diazepam during pregnancy can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the first trimester, may cause phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimester can lead to fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine has been associated with hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects. Chloramphenicol can cause grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, if administered in the first trimester, can result in masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development. Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability. The use of lithium in the first trimester increases the risk of fetal cardiac malformations, while its use in the second and third trimesters can result in hypotonia, lethargy, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, goiter, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68 year old patient with dementia is brought into the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old patient with dementia is brought into the emergency department by a caregiver due to a suspected accidental overdose. The caregiver reports finding several of the patient's medication bottles with multiple tablets missing. An ECG is conducted and reveals a prolonged QT interval. The caregiver presents you with the medication containers. Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit for the prolonged QT interval?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and antidepressants are drugs that are known to cause QT prolongation, which is a potentially dangerous heart rhythm abnormality. Similarly, SSRIs and other antidepressants are also associated with QT prolongation. On the other hand, beta-blockers like bisoprolol are used to shorten the QT interval and are considered as a treatment option for long QT syndrome. However, it’s important to note that sotalol, although classified as a beta blocker, acts differently by blocking potassium channels. This unique mechanism of action makes sotalol a class III anti-arrhythmic agent and may result in QT interval prolongation.

      Further Reading:

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a condition characterized by a prolonged QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG), which represents abnormal repolarization of the heart. LQTS can be either acquired or congenital. Congenital LQTS is typically caused by gene abnormalities that affect ion channels responsible for potassium or sodium flow in the heart. There are 15 identified genes associated with congenital LQTS, with three genes accounting for the majority of cases. Acquired LQTS can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and bradycardia from other causes.

      The normal QTc values, which represent the corrected QT interval for heart rate, are typically less than 450 ms for men and less than 460ms for women. Prolonged QTc intervals are considered to be greater than these values. It is important to be aware of drugs that can cause QT prolongation, as this can lead to potentially fatal arrhythmias. Some commonly used drugs that can cause QT prolongation include antimicrobials, antiarrhythmics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiemetics, and others.

      Management of long QT syndrome involves addressing any underlying causes and using beta blockers. In some cases, an implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD) may be recommended for patients who have experienced recurrent arrhythmic syncope, documented torsades de pointes, previous ventricular tachyarrhythmias or torsades de pointes, previous cardiac arrest, or persistent syncope. Permanent pacing may be used in patients with bradycardia or atrioventricular nodal block and prolonged QT. Mexiletine is a treatment option for those with LQT3. Cervicothoracic sympathetic denervation may be considered in patients with recurrent syncope despite beta-blockade or in those who are not ideal candidates for an ICD. The specific treatment options for LQTS depend on the type and severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are following up on a 21-year-old patient you saw who was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • You are following up on a 21-year-old patient you saw who was admitted following a paracetamol overdose. Which of the following is a poor prognostic indicator and indication for liver transplant in paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer: Arterial pH < 7.30 on or after day 2 following overdose

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      A pH level in the arteries that is below 7.30 on or after the second day following a paracetamol overdose is considered a poor indicator of prognosis. Additionally, a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) of over 100 seconds (indicated by an international normalized ratio (INR) of over 6.5), along with a high plasma creatinine level of over 300 μmol/L and grade 3 or 4 hepatic encephalopathy, are also poor prognostic indicators and may indicate the need for a liver transplant. Furthermore, an increase in PT between the third and fourth day after the overdose is also considered a poor prognostic indicator.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his parents and admits to ingesting 48 paracetamol tablets. What are the criteria for administering activated charcoal in this case?

      Your Answer: Patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting paracetamol and stated dose is in excess of 150 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal should be given to patients who have ingested paracetamol and meet two criteria: they must present within one hour of ingestion, and they must have taken a dose of paracetamol that is equal to or greater than 150 mg/kg. The recommended dose of activated charcoal is 50g, which is typically administered as 300ml. It is important to note that the dose criteria of 150 mg/kg is based on the amount of paracetamol reported by the patient, not on paracetamol levels, which should not be assessed until at least four hours after ingestion.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman presents with painful bilateral gynaecomastia. She began taking a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with painful bilateral gynaecomastia. She began taking a new medication a few months ago.
      Which medication is the SINGLE LEAST likely cause for this adverse drug effect?

      Your Answer: Cimetidine

      Correct Answer: Ranitidine

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia, a condition characterized by the enlargement of breast tissue in males, can be caused by certain drugs. Some medications that have been associated with gynaecomastia include Cimetidine, Omeprazole, Spironolactone, Digoxin, Furosemide, Finasteride, and certain antipsychotics. Interestingly, Ranitidine, another medication commonly used for gastric issues, does not tend to cause gynaecomastia. In fact, studies have shown that gynaecomastia caused by Cimetidine can be resolved when it is substituted with Ranitidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman with a known history of asthma presents with a headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a known history of asthma presents with a headache, nausea, and abdominal pain. Her heart rate is elevated at 117 bpm. She currently takes a salbutamol inhaler and theophylline for her asthma. She had visited the Emergency Department a few days earlier and was prescribed an antibiotic.
      Which antibiotic was most likely prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.

      Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.

      Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.

      Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.

      There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.

      The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.

      Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      76.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient complained of feeling sick. On checking the patient's medication, the son suspects he may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. Which electrolyte imbalance is most frequently linked to triggering digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Digoxin toxicity can be triggered by hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the body. This occurs because digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites, and when potassium levels are low, there is less competition for digoxin to bind to these sites. Additionally, other factors such as hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypernatraemia, and acidosis can also contribute to digoxin toxicity.

      Further Reading:

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.

      ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old male with schizophrenia is brought to the emergency department by the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male with schizophrenia is brought to the emergency department by the CPN after admitting to ingesting approximately 100 aspirin tablets one hour ago. He is now experiencing tinnitus. When would you initially measure salicylate levels in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 hours post ingestion

      Explanation:

      If a person shows symptoms after ingesting salicylate, their salicylate levels should be measured 2 hours after ingestion. However, if the person does not show any symptoms, the levels should be measured 4 hours after ingestion. It is important to note that if enteric coated preparations are taken, salicylate levels may continue to increase for up to 12 hours. Therefore, it is necessary to regularly check the levels every 2-3 hours until they start to decrease.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department and informs you that they...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department and informs you that they have taken an overdose. The patient states that they are unsure of the exact number of tablets consumed but estimate it to be around 100 aspirin tablets. You are concerned about the severity of the overdose and its potential consequences. Which of the following is an indication for haemodialysis in patients with salicylate poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salicylate level of 715 mg/L

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis is recommended for patients with salicylate poisoning if they meet any of the following criteria: plasma salicylate level exceeding 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that does not improve with treatment (plasma pH below 7.2), acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures, coma, unresolved central nervous system effects despite correcting acidosis, persistently high salicylate concentrations that do not respond to urinary alkalinisation. Severe cases of salicylate poisoning, especially in patients under 10 years old or over 70 years old, may require dialysis earlier than the listed indications.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents and reveals that she ingested 36 paracetamol tablets 6 hours ago. What is the most accurate explanation for how an overdose of paracetamol leads to liver damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine binds to and denatures hepatocytes

      Explanation:

      Liver damage occurs as a result of an overdose of paracetamol due to the formation of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). When the normal pathways for metabolizing paracetamol are overwhelmed, NAPQI is produced. This toxic metabolite depletes the protective glutathione in the liver, which is usually responsible for neutralizing harmful substances. As a result, there is an insufficient amount of glutathione available to conjugate the excess NAPQI. Consequently, NAPQI binds to hepatocytes, causing their denaturation and ultimately leading to cell death.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent urination, and blurred vision. His blood glucose levels are significantly elevated. He currently takes insulin injections and metformin for his diabetes. You organize for a urine sample to be taken and find that his ketone levels are markedly elevated, and he also has electrolyte abnormalities evident.
      Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute poisoning rather than chronic overexposure. The primary clinical features of theophylline toxicity include headache, dizziness, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, tachycardia and dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypophosphataemia, hypo- or hypercalcaemia, and hyperglycaemia. Seizures are more prevalent in cases of acute overdose compared to chronic overexposure. In contrast, chronic theophylline overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more frequently observed in individuals who have experienced chronic overdose rather than acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department, complaining of feeling unwell for...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department, complaining of feeling unwell for the past 48 hours. After obtaining the patient's medical history, you suspect carbon monoxide poisoning. What is the primary intervention in managing patients with carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100% oxygen

      Explanation:

      In managing patients with carbon monoxide poisoning, the primary intervention is providing 100% oxygen. This is because carbon monoxide has a higher affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. By administering 100% oxygen, the patient is able to displace carbon monoxide from hemoglobin and increase oxygen levels in the blood, which is crucial for the patient’s recovery.

      Further Reading:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) is a dangerous gas that is produced by the combustion of hydrocarbon fuels and can be found in certain chemicals. It is colorless and odorless, making it difficult to detect. In England and Wales, there are approximately 60 deaths each year due to accidental CO poisoning.

      When inhaled, carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin in the blood, forming carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb). It has a higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen, causing a left-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve and resulting in tissue hypoxia. This means that even though there may be a normal level of oxygen in the blood, it is less readily released to the tissues.

      The clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity can vary depending on the severity of the poisoning. Mild or chronic poisoning may present with symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and weakness. More severe poisoning can lead to intoxication, personality changes, breathlessness, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, seizures, blurred vision or blindness, deafness, extrapyramidal features, coma, or even death.

      To help diagnose domestic carbon monoxide poisoning, there are four key questions that can be asked using the COMA acronym. These questions include asking about co-habitees and co-occupants in the house, whether symptoms improve outside of the house, the maintenance of boilers and cooking appliances, and the presence of a functioning CO alarm.

      Typical carboxyhaemoglobin levels can vary depending on whether the individual is a smoker or non-smoker. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers may have levels below 10%. Symptomatic individuals usually have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%.

      When managing carbon monoxide poisoning, the first step is to administer 100% oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered for individuals with a COHb concentration of over 20% and additional risk factors such as loss of consciousness, neurological signs, myocardial ischemia or arrhythmia, or pregnancy. Other management strategies may include fluid resuscitation, sodium bicarbonate for metabolic acidosis, and mannitol for cerebral edema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity.
      Which of the following symptoms is MOST likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clonus

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity presents with various symptoms, including nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, tremor, ataxia, confusion, increased muscle tone, clonus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, convulsions, coma, and renal failure. One notable symptom associated with digoxin toxicity is xanthopsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents and admits to ingesting 36 paracetamol tablets. You determine that the patient fulfills the requirements for receiving activated charcoal. What would be the appropriate dosage to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50 g

      Explanation:

      The recommended dose of activated charcoal for adults and children aged 12 or over to prevent the absorption of poisons in the gastrointestinal tract is 50g.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old patient arrives after an acute overdose of digoxin. She is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient arrives after an acute overdose of digoxin. She is experiencing nausea and is expressing concerns about palpitations.
      What is the indication for administering DigiFab to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.

      The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:

      Acute digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Potassium level >5 mmol/l
      – Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
      – Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
      – Digoxin level >12 ng/ml

      Chronic digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      – Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder during the 2nd-trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy and is started on medication. As a result of this treatment, the newborn experiences a discontinuation syndrome and persistent pulmonary hypertension.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      During the third trimester of pregnancy, the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) has been associated with a discontinuation syndrome and persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. It is important to be aware of the adverse effects of various drugs during pregnancy. For example, ACE inhibitors like ramipril, if given in the second and third trimester, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin can lead to ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks. Late administration of benzodiazepines like diazepam during pregnancy can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the first trimester, may cause phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimester can lead to fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine has been associated with hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects. Chloramphenicol can cause grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, if administered in the first trimester, can result in masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development. Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability. The use of lithium in the first trimester increases the risk of fetal cardiac malformations, while its use in the second and third trimesters can result in hypotonia, lethargy, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, goiter, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 22-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has a decreased level...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has a decreased level of consciousness and is challenging to awaken. She has a history of anxiety and depression and was discovered at home next to an empty bottle of diazepam tablets.

      Which acid-base disorder would you anticipate being caused by a substantial benzodiazepine overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Common causes for different acid-base disorders.

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. It can also occur due to pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.

      Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can occur due to lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). It can also be a result of renal failure or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. He is agitated, confused, and experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 115 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. Obtaining a history from him is challenging as he is mumbling. Further questioning reveals that he has ingested an anticholinergic drug.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Patients who present with an anticholinergic toxidrome can be difficult to manage due to the agitation and disruptive behavior that is typically present. It is important to provide meticulous supportive care to address the behavioral effects of delirium and prevent complications such as dehydration, injury, and pulmonary aspiration. Often, one-to-one nursing is necessary.

      The management approach for these patients is as follows:

      1. Resuscitate using a standard ABC approach.
      2. Administer sedation for behavioral control. Benzodiazepines, such as IV diazepam in 5 mg-10 mg increments, are the first-line therapy. The goal is to achieve a patient who is sleepy but easily roused. It is important to avoid over-sedating the patient as this can increase the risk of aspiration.
      3. Prescribe intravenous fluids as patients are typically unable to eat and drink, and may be dehydrated upon presentation.
      4. Insert a urinary catheter as urinary retention is often present and needs to be managed.
      5. Consider physostigmine as the specific antidote for anticholinergic delirium in carefully selected cases. Physostigmine acts as a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, temporarily blocking the breakdown of acetylcholine. This enhances its effects at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, thereby reversing the effects of the anticholinergic agents.

      Physostigmine is indicated in the following situations:

      1. Severe anticholinergic delirium that does not respond to benzodiazepine sedation.
      2. Poisoning with a pure anticholinergic agent, such as atropine.

      The dosage and administration of physostigmine are as follows:

      1. Administer in a monitored setting with appropriate staff and resources to manage adverse effects.
      2. Perform a 12-lead ECG before administration to rule out bradycardia, AV block, or broadening of the QRS.
      3. Administer IV physostigmine 0.5-1 mg as a slow push over 5 minutes. Repeat every 10 minutes up to a maximum of 4 mg.
      4. The clinical end-point of therapy is the resolution of delirium.
      5. Delirium may reoccur in 1-4 hours as the effects of physostigmine wear off. In such cases, the dose may be cautiously repeated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You refer a patient with a history of recurrent supraventricular arrhythmias to the...

    Incorrect

    • You refer a patient with a history of recurrent supraventricular arrhythmias to the cardiology on-call team. While discussing the patient with the cardiology registrar on the phone, she explains that she is currently busy, but suggests that you start verapamil now and that she will review the patient as soon as she can. You review the patient's medication chart to determine if this is an appropriate course of action.

      Which of the following drugs should not be co-prescribed with verapamil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is a type of calcium-channel blocker that is commonly used to treat irregular heart rhythms and chest pain. It is important to note that verapamil should not be taken at the same time as beta-blockers like atenolol and bisoprolol. This is because when these medications are combined, they can have a negative impact on the heart’s ability to contract and the heart rate, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure, slow heart rate, impaired conduction between the upper and lower chambers of the heart, heart failure (due to decreased ability of the heart to pump effectively), and even a pause in the heart’s normal rhythm. For more information, you can refer to the section on verapamil interactions in the British National Formulary (BNF).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old patient with a history of schizophrenia comes in with side effects...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with a history of schizophrenia comes in with side effects from a medication that he recently began taking for this condition. Upon examination, you observe that he is experiencing severe muscular rigidity, a decreased level of consciousness, and a body temperature of 40ºC.
      Which of the following medications is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      First-generation antipsychotics, also known as conventional or typical antipsychotics, are potent blockers of dopamine D2 receptors. However, these drugs also have varying effects on other receptors such as serotonin type 2 (5-HT2), alpha1, histaminic, and muscarinic receptors.

      One of the major drawbacks of first-generation antipsychotics is their high incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. These include rigidity, bradykinesia, dystonias, tremor, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, there is a rare but life-threatening reaction called neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) that can occur with these medications. NMS is characterized by fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. It typically occurs shortly after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic medication.

      In contrast, second-generation antipsychotics, also known as novel or atypical antipsychotics, have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects and NMS compared to their first-generation counterparts. However, they are associated with higher rates of metabolic effects and weight gain.

      It is important to differentiate serotonin syndrome from NMS as they share similar features. Serotonin syndrome is most commonly caused by serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors.

      Here are some commonly encountered examples of first- and second-generation antipsychotics:

      First-generation:
      – Chlopromazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Fluphenazine
      – Trifluoperazine

      Second-generation:
      – Clozapine
      – Olanzapine
      – Quetiapine
      – Risperidone
      – Aripiprazole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the medication she takes for insomnia. She tells you that the medication she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She took the medication about 2 hours ago. She is now hypotensive, with her most recent blood pressure reading being 82/56 mmHg. She weighs 70 kg.
      The consultant in charge suggests that you administer a bolus dose of calcium to increase her blood pressure. Which of the following should you administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10% calcium chloride 20 mL IV

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.

      The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.

      2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.

      3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.

      4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.

      5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient with a known history of asthma presents with symptoms of theophylline...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a known history of asthma presents with symptoms of theophylline toxicity after starting a new medication.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely causing this interaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluconazole

      Explanation:

      Theophylline, a medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions, can be affected by certain drugs, either increasing or decreasing its plasma concentration and half-life. Drugs that can increase the plasma concentration of theophylline include calcium channel blockers like verapamil, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides such as erythromycin, methotrexate, and quinolones like ciprofloxacin. On the other hand, drugs like carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin (and fosphenytoin), rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. It is important to be aware of these interactions when prescribing or taking theophylline to ensure its effectiveness and avoid potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 52-year-old woman with a history of hypertension has ingested an excessive amount...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with a history of hypertension has ingested an excessive amount of atenolol tablets.

      Which of the following antidotes is appropriate for treating beta-blocker overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      There are various specific remedies available for different types of poisons and overdoses. The following list provides an outline of some of these antidotes:

      Poison: Benzodiazepines
      Antidote: Flumazenil

      Poison: Beta-blockers
      Antidotes: Atropine, Glucagon, Insulin

      Poison: Carbon monoxide
      Antidote: Oxygen

      Poison: Cyanide
      Antidotes: Hydroxocobalamin, Sodium nitrite, Sodium thiosulphate

      Poison: Ethylene glycol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Heparin
      Antidote: Protamine sulphate

      Poison: Iron salts
      Antidote: Desferrioxamine

      Poison: Isoniazid
      Antidote: Pyridoxine

      Poison: Methanol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Opioids
      Antidote: Naloxone

      Poison: Organophosphates
      Antidotes: Atropine, Pralidoxime

      Poison: Paracetamol
      Antidotes: Acetylcysteine, Methionine

      Poison: Sulphonylureas
      Antidotes: Glucose, Octreotide

      Poison: Thallium
      Antidote: Prussian blue

      Poison: Warfarin
      Antidote: Vitamin K, Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

      By utilizing these specific antidotes, medical professionals can effectively counteract the harmful effects of various poisons and overdoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old patient with a known history of asthma presents with a worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with a known history of asthma presents with a worsening of his asthma symptoms. He typically uses a salbutamol inhaler, beclomethasone inhaler, and theophylline. However, his theophylline levels are currently below the therapeutic range. It seems that a newly prescribed medication may be causing a decrease in his theophylline levels.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely causing this interaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Theophylline, a medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions, can be affected by certain drugs, either increasing or decreasing its plasma concentration and half-life. Drugs that can increase the plasma concentration of theophylline include calcium channel blockers like verapamil, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides such as erythromycin, methotrexate, and quinolones like ciprofloxacin. On the other hand, drugs like carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin (and fosphenytoin), rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. It is important to be aware of these interactions when prescribing or taking theophylline to ensure its effectiveness and avoid potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man is given a medication for a medical ailment during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is given a medication for a medical ailment during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experiences cataracts, optic atrophy, and microphthalmia.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      During the first trimester of pregnancy, the use of warfarin can lead to a condition known as fetal warfarin syndrome. This condition is characterized by nasal hypoplasia, bone stippling, bilateral optic atrophy, and intellectual disability in the baby. However, if warfarin is taken during the second or third trimester, it can cause optic atrophy, cataracts, microcephaly, microphthalmia, intellectual disability, and both fetal and maternal hemorrhage.

      There are several other drugs that can have adverse effects during pregnancy. For example, ACE inhibitors like ramipril can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if taken during the second and third trimesters. Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin can lead to ototoxicity and deafness in the baby. High doses of aspirin can result in first trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses of aspirin (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines like diazepam, when taken late in pregnancy, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if taken during the first trimester, can cause phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimesters can lead to fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine can result in hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects. Chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if taken during the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol, if taken during the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Finasteride should not be handled by pregnant women as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development. Haloperidol, if taken during the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.

      Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the baby. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly after taking the medication, she experiences an acute dystonic reaction.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this reaction? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced acute dystonic reactions are frequently seen in the Emergency Department. These reactions occur in approximately 0.5% to 1% of patients who have been administered metoclopramide or prochlorperazine. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has proven to be effective in treating drug-induced parkinsonism, akathisia, and acute dystonia. In emergency situations, a dose of 10 mg IV of procyclidine can be administered to promptly treat acute drug-induced dystonic reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD for severe psoriatic arthropathy. She has been experiencing increasing difficulty breathing during physical activity for the past few months. During the examination, you detect fine bibasal crepitations. You order a chest X-ray, which reveals signs of pulmonary fibrosis.
      What is the SINGLE medication she is most likely taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      There is a significant link between methotrexate and the development of pulmonary fibrosis. While there have been instances of pulmonary fibrosis occurring as a result of infliximab, this particular side effect is more commonly associated with methotrexate use.

      Methotrexate can also cause other side effects such as nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, dizziness, stomatitis, hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, and pneumonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her pregnancy. As a result, the newborn is born with a neural tube defect and hemorrhagic disease of the newborn.
      Which of the listed medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      There is an increased risk of neural tube defects in women with epilepsy who take carbamazepine during pregnancy, ranging from 2 to 10 times higher. Additionally, there is a risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn associated with this medication. It is crucial to have discussions about epilepsy treatments with women of childbearing age during the planning stages so that they can start early supplementation of folic acid.

      Below is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these medications can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can lead to ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these medications can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This medication is associated with haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can cause grey baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When administered in the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride tablets. Crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development in the fetus.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You assess a 42-year-old woman who has a background of schizophrenia. She was...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 42-year-old woman who has a background of schizophrenia. She was initiated on an atypical antipsychotic drug a few months ago and has since experienced significant weight gain.
      Which SPECIFIC atypical antipsychotic medication is most likely to be accountable for her weight gain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the atypical antipsychotic that is most likely to result in notable weight gain. Additionally, it is linked to the emergence of impaired glucose metabolism and metabolic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder during the 3rd-trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder during the 3rd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy and is prescribed medication. As a result of this treatment, the newborn is born with weak muscle tone, difficulties with feeding, hypothyroidism, and an enlarged thyroid gland.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood and is approved for the treatment and prevention of mania, bipolar disorder, recurrent depression, and aggressive or self-harming behavior. During pregnancy and the postnatal period, it is important to monitor lithium levels more frequently. If taken during the first trimester, lithium is associated with an increased risk of fetal cardiac malformations, such as Ebstein’s anomaly. If taken during the second and third trimesters, there is a risk of various complications in the newborn, including hypotonia, lethargy, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, goiter, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      Here is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      Drug: ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril)
      Adverse effects: If taken during the second and third trimesters, ACE inhibitors can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Drug: Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin)
      Adverse effects: Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Drug: Aspirin
      Adverse effects: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose a significant risk.

      Drug: Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam)
      Adverse effects: When taken late in pregnancy, benzodiazepines can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Drug: Calcium-channel blockers
      Adverse effects: If taken during the first trimester, calcium-channel blockers can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If taken during the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 62-year-old woman comes in with a gout flare-up after starting a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes in with a gout flare-up after starting a new blood pressure medication prescribed by her doctor.
      Which of the following blood pressure medications is most likely causing this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics, like bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide, have the potential to raise levels of uric acid in the blood, which can worsen gout symptoms in individuals who are susceptible to the condition.

      Other medications, such as diuretics, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and non-losartan ARBs, are also linked to an increased risk of gout.

      On the other hand, calcium-channel blockers like amlodipine and verapamil, as well as losartan, have been found to lower uric acid levels and are associated with a reduced risk of gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 32-year-old man is brought in to the department, having taken an overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought in to the department, having taken an overdose of his tricyclic antidepressants 4 hours earlier.

      Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen on the ECG of a patient that has taken a tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shortening of the PR interval

      Explanation:

      The cardiotoxic effects of TCAs occur when they block sodium channels, leading to broadening of the QRS complex, and potassium channels, resulting in prolongation of the QT interval. The severity of adverse events is directly related to the degree of QRS broadening. If the QRS complex is greater than 100 ms, it is likely that seizures may occur. If the QRS complex exceeds 160 ms, ventricular arrhythmias may be predicted. In cases of TCA overdose, certain changes can be observed on an ECG. These include sinus tachycardia, which is very common, prolongation of the PR interval, broadening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and in severe cases, ventricular arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old man is given a medication during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is given a medication during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the baby is born with a neural tube defect.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The use of trimethoprim during the first trimester of pregnancy is linked to a higher risk of neural tube defects due to its interference with folate. If it is not possible to use an alternative antibiotic, it is recommended that pregnant women taking trimethoprim also take high-dose folic acid. However, the use of trimethoprim during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is considered safe.

      Here is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimesters, they can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): They can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, they can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, they can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: It can cause haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: It can cause grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, they may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, it can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, it may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: It can cause maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: It can lead to maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - You are suturing a young patient with a significant laceration. While performing the...

    Incorrect

    • You are suturing a young patient with a significant laceration. While performing the procedure, the patient begins to express discomfort. You observe that the patient seems restless and their muscles are experiencing spasms. You suspect that the patient is displaying symptoms of local anesthetic toxicity. Apart from following standard ALS protocols, what intravenous medication can be administered in case of a cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intralipid

      Explanation:

      Intralipid is a lipid emulsion that is commonly used as a source of nutrition in parenteral nutrition. However, it has also been found to be effective in treating local anesthetic toxicity. When administered intravenously, Intralipid acts as a lipid sink, meaning it can bind to the local anesthetic agent and remove it from the affected tissues, thereby reversing the toxic effects.

      In cases of cardiac arrest related to local anesthetic toxicity, Intralipid can be administered as a bolus followed by an infusion. The recommended dose is typically 1.5 mL/kg bolus over 1 minute, followed by an infusion of 0.25 mL/kg/minute for 10 minutes. This can be repeated if necessary.

      It is important to note that while Intralipid has shown promising results in treating local anesthetic toxicity, it should not replace standard ALS protocols. Basic life support (BLS) measures, such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), should still be initiated immediately, and advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) protocols should be followed.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after intentionally ingesting 70...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after intentionally ingesting 70 amitriptyline tablets. You administer activated charcoal to the patient. Which other medication, listed as an antidote on the RCEM/NPIS, can be used to treat tricyclic overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      In the latest guideline published in 2021 by RCEM and NPIS regarding antidote availability for emergency departments, it is emphasized that immediate access to sodium bicarbonate is essential for treating TCA overdose. It is worth noting that previous versions of the guideline included glucagon as a recommended treatment for TCA overdose, but this reference has been omitted in the latest edition.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 45-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of a gastrointestinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of a gastrointestinal drug that he has been prescribed.
      Which of the following drugs is MOST likely to be causing this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.

      Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient has been feeling sick for the past day. The patient's daughter suspects she may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What antidote should be readily accessible in the emergency department for the treatment of digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin specific antibody fragments

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody fragments, known as Digibind or Digifab, are utilized for the treatment of digoxin toxicity. These antibody fragments should be readily available in all hospital pharmacies across the UK and accessible within a maximum of one hour.

      Further Reading:

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.

      ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after confessing to consuming a significant amount of amitriptyline following a breakup. The patient then experiences a seizure. Which medication is the most suitable for managing the seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing seizures in cases of TCA overdose, benzodiazepines are considered the most effective treatment. Diazepam or lorazepam are commonly administered for this purpose. However, it’s important to note that lamotrigine and carbamazepine are typically used for preventing seizures rather than for immediate seizure control.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has ingested a significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has ingested a significant amount of aspirin.
      What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate to be present during the initial phases of an aspirin overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      An overdose of aspirin often leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the stimulation of the respiratory center causes hyperventilation and results in respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acidic effects of aspirin cause an increase in the anion gap and metabolic acidosis.

      Here is a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders:

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation due to factors such as anxiety, pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, and the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis can occur in individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), life-threatening asthma, pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opioids or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular diseases, and obesity.

      Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can result from conditions such as lactic acidosis (caused by factors like hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or tissue infarction), ketoacidosis (associated with diabetes, starvation, or excessive alcohol consumption), renal failure, and poisoning (including the late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be seen in renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, and adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 25-year-old woman with a previous history of depression is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a previous history of depression is admitted to the emergency department following an overdose of amitriptyline tablets. The patient displays notable signs of toxicity, prompting the administration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate. What is the objective of this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum pH 7.45 to 7.55

      Explanation:

      Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat severe TCA toxicity by reducing the risk of seizures and arrhythmia. The goal is to increase the serum pH to a range of 7.45 to 7.55 through alkalinisation.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing his medications, you find out that he is taking ramipril as part of his treatment.
      Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiloride

      Explanation:

      Potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone and amiloride, can raise the chances of developing hyperkalemia when taken alongside ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, and angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, like losartan.

      For more information, you can refer to the BNF section on ramipril interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 45 year old female presents to the emergency department with a 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of persistent vomiting, severe diarrhea, and loss of appetite. The patient reports feeling extremely weak. A peripheral cannula is inserted and blood samples are collected. The initial laboratory results are as follows:

      Sodium (Na+): 134 mmol/L
      Potassium (K+): 2.4 mmol/L
      Urea (Ur): 8.2 mmol/L
      Creatinine (Cr): 115 umol/L

      Based on these findings, which of the following additional tests should be prioritized and requested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia frequently occurs alongside hypokalaemia. It is important to note that potassium levels may not improve with supplementation until the magnesium deficiency is addressed.

      Further Reading:

      Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.

      Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.

      Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.

      Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.

      In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on the medication she takes for her heart condition. She informs you that she consumed verapamil immediate-release 240 mg tablets approximately 30 minutes ago. However, her spouse promptly discovered her and brought her to the hospital. Currently, she shows no signs of symptoms. Typically, how much time passes before symptoms manifest in cases of this overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-2 hours

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that should always be taken seriously as it can be potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into the cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      Significant toxicity can occur with the ingestion of more than 10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules). In children, even 1-2 tablets of immediate or sustained-release verapamil or diltiazem can be harmful. Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of taking standard preparations, but with slow-release versions, the onset of severe toxicity may be delayed by 12-16 hours, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The main clinical manifestations of calcium-channel blocker overdose include nausea and vomiting, low blood pressure, slow heart rate and first-degree heart block, heart muscle ischemia and stroke, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, and high blood sugar levels.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, certain bedside investigations are crucial. These include checking blood glucose levels, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), and obtaining an arterial blood gas sample. Additional investigations that can provide helpful information include assessing urea and electrolyte levels, conducting a chest X-ray to check for pulmonary edema, and performing an echocardiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old individual goes to the emergency room feeling sick for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual goes to the emergency room feeling sick for the past 48 hours after moving into a new apartment. Earlier today, a boiler technician came to conduct the gas safety inspection for the landlord and advised the patient to go to the A&E department due to high carbon monoxide levels and a faulty boiler. You suspect the presence of carbon monoxide poisoning. What is the primary symptom typically associated with carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      The primary symptom typically associated with carbon monoxide poisoning is a headache.

      Carbon monoxide (CO) is a dangerous gas that is produced by the combustion of hydrocarbon fuels and can be found in certain chemicals. It is colorless and odorless, making it difficult to detect. In England and Wales, there are approximately 60 deaths each year due to accidental CO poisoning.

      When inhaled, carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin in the blood, forming carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb). It has a higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen, causing a left-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve and resulting in tissue hypoxia. This means that even though there may be a normal level of oxygen in the blood, it is less readily released to the tissues.

      The clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity can vary depending on the severity of the poisoning. Mild or chronic poisoning may present with symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and weakness. More severe poisoning can lead to intoxication, personality changes, breathlessness, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, seizures, blurred vision or blindness, deafness, extrapyramidal features, coma, or even death.

      To help diagnose domestic carbon monoxide poisoning, there are four key questions that can be asked using the COMA acronym. These questions include asking about co-habitees and co-occupants in the house, whether symptoms improve outside of the house, the maintenance of boilers and cooking appliances, and the presence of a functioning CO alarm.

      Typical carboxyhaemoglobin levels can vary depending on whether the individual is a smoker or non-smoker. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers may have levels below 10%. Symptomatic individuals usually have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%.

      When managing carbon monoxide poisoning, the first step is to administer 100% oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered for individuals with a COHb concentration of over 20% and additional risk factors such as loss of consciousness, neurological signs, myocardial ischemia or arrhythmia, or pregnancy. Other management strategies may include fluid resuscitation, sodium bicarbonate for metabolic acidosis, and mannitol for cerebral edema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 40-year-old man is prescribed a medication for a neurological condition in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is prescribed a medication for a neurological condition in the 2nd-trimester of his wife's pregnancy. The baby is born with restlessness, muscle contractions, shaking, and exhibits unsteady, abrupt movements.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Haloperidol, when administered during the third trimester of pregnancy, can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn. These symptoms may include agitation, poor feeding, excessive sleepiness, and difficulty breathing. The severity of these side effects can vary, with some infants requiring intensive care and extended hospital stays. It is important to closely monitor exposed neonates for signs of extrapyramidal syndrome or withdrawal. Haloperidol should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits clearly outweigh the risks to the fetus.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given during the second and third trimesters, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When administered late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given during the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given during the second and third trimesters, they can result in fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This drug can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Administration of chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If given during the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When administered during the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given during the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. If given during the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 40-year-old woman is prescribed haloperidol for a psychiatric condition in the 2nd-trimester...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is prescribed haloperidol for a psychiatric condition in the 2nd-trimester of her pregnancy. As a result of this treatment, the newborn develops a malformation.

      Which of the following malformations is the most likely to occur as a result of using this medication during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extrapyramidal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haloperidol, when administered during the third trimester of pregnancy, can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn. These symptoms may include agitation, poor feeding, excessive sleepiness, and difficulty breathing. The severity of these side effects can vary, with some infants requiring intensive care and extended hospital stays. It is important to closely monitor exposed neonates for signs of extrapyramidal syndrome or withdrawal. Haloperidol should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits clearly outweigh the risks to the fetus.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given during the second and third trimesters, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When administered late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given during the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given during the second and third trimesters, they can result in fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This drug can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Administration of chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If given during the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When administered during the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given during the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. If given during the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old man with a known history of asthma presents with a headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a known history of asthma presents with a headache, vomiting, and dizziness. His heart rate is elevated at 116 bpm. He currently takes a salbutamol inhaler and theophylline for his asthma. He had visited the Emergency Department a few days earlier and was prescribed an antibiotic.
      Which antibiotic was most likely prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.

      Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.

      Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.

      Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.

      There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.

      The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.

      Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 45-year-old man comes in feeling extremely sick with nausea and vomiting. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in feeling extremely sick with nausea and vomiting. He is suddenly disoriented and claims that everything appears to be yellow. A blood test shows that his potassium level is 6.8 mmol/l.
      Which of the following medications is most likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation and flutter, as well as congestive cardiac failure. It belongs to a class of drugs called cardiac glycosides. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the Na/K ATPase in cardiac myocytes, which leads to an increase in intracellular sodium concentration. This, in turn, indirectly increases the availability of intracellular calcium through Na/Ca exchange.

      The rise in intracellular calcium levels caused by digoxin results in a positive inotropic effect, meaning it strengthens the force of heart contractions, and a negative chronotropic effect, meaning it slows down the heart rate.

      Therapeutic plasma levels of digoxin typically range between 1.0-1.5 nmol/l. However, higher concentrations may be necessary, and the specific value can vary between different laboratories. It is important to note that the risk of toxicity significantly increases when digoxin levels exceed 2 nmol/l.

      Signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, confusion, tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias, xanthopsia (yellow-green vision), and hyperkalemia (an early sign of significant toxicity).

      Several factors can potentially contribute to digoxin toxicity. These include being elderly, having renal failure, experiencing myocardial ischemia, having hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia, hypernatremia, acidosis, or hypothyroidism.

      Additionally, there are several drugs that can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. These include spironolactone, amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, and drugs that cause hypokalemia, such as thiazide and loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 60-year-old man has accidentally consumed an excessive amount of amitriptyline tablets and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has accidentally consumed an excessive amount of amitriptyline tablets and is currently experiencing toxic side effects.

      Which of the following mechanisms is NOT involved in mediating these toxic effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opening of potassium channels

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a significant problem in cases of drug overdose and is one of the most common causes of fatal drug poisoning. Any overdose of amitriptyline that exceeds 10 mg/kg has the potential to be life-threatening. If the overdose surpasses 30 mg/kg, it will lead to severe toxicity, cardiotoxicity, and coma.

      The toxic effects of TCAs are caused by various pharmacological actions. These include anticholinergic effects, direct blocking of alpha-adrenergic receptors, inhibition of noradrenaline reuptake at the preganglionic synapse, blockade of sodium channels, and blockade of potassium channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 28 year old woman comes to the emergency department after being bitten...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman comes to the emergency department after being bitten on the foot by a snake when she accidentally stepped on it. She explains that the incident occurred while she was walking in a forest. The patient presents a photograph of the snake she took with her phone, and you recognize it as a common European adder (vipera berus). You contemplate administering Zagreb antivenom. What is the most frequently observed complication associated with administering antivenom for adder bites?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early anaphylactoid reactions

      Explanation:

      To ensure prompt response in case of an adverse reaction, it is important to have adrenaline, antihistamine, and steroid readily available when administering Zagreb antivenom.

      Further Reading:

      Snake bites in the UK are primarily caused by the adder, which is the only venomous snake species native to the country. While most adder bites result in minor symptoms such as pain, swelling, and inflammation, there have been cases of life-threatening illness and fatalities. Additionally, there are instances where venomous snakes that are kept legally or illegally also cause bites in the UK.

      Adder bites typically occur from early spring to late autumn, with the hand being the most common site of the bite. Symptoms can be local or systemic, with local symptoms including sharp pain, tingling or numbness, and swelling that spreads proximally. Systemic symptoms may include spreading pain, tenderness, inflammation, regional lymph node enlargement, and bruising. In severe cases, anaphylaxis can occur, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and shock.

      It is important for clinicians to be aware of the potential complications and complications associated with adder bites. These can include acute renal failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, acute gastric dilatation, paralytic ileus, acute pancreatitis, and coma and seizures. Anaphylaxis symptoms can appear within minutes or be delayed for hours, and hypotension is a critical sign to monitor.

      Initial investigations for adder bites include blood tests, ECG, and vital sign monitoring. Further investigations such as chest X-ray may be necessary based on clinical signs. Blood tests may reveal abnormalities such as leukocytosis, raised hematocrit, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and abnormal clotting profile. ECG changes may include tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ST segment changes.

      First aid measures at the scene include immobilizing the patient and the bitten limb, avoiding aspirin and ibuprofen, and cleaning the wound site in the hospital. Tetanus prophylaxis should be considered. In cases of anaphylaxis, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is necessary. In the hospital, rapid assessment and appropriate resuscitation with intravenous fluids are required.

      Antivenom may be indicated in cases of hypotension, systemic envenoming, ECG abnormalities, peripheral neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated serum creatine kinase or metabolic acidosis, and extensive or rapidly spreading local swelling. Zagreb antivenom is commonly used in the UK, with an initial dose of 8 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on her heart medication. She informs you that she took verapamil SR 160 mg tablets approximately 30 minutes ago before being discovered by her husband.

      What is the mechanism of action of verapamil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L-type calcium channel blockade

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious matter and should be regarded as potentially life-threatening. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers when taken in excess. They work by attaching to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which stops calcium from entering the cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the newborn has teeth that are permanently stained yellow and experiences numerous dental cavities throughout their childhood.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most probable culprit for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      The use of tetracyclines is not recommended during pregnancy as it can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. When taken during the second half of pregnancy, tetracyclines may lead to permanent yellow-grey discoloration of the teeth and enamel hypoplasia. Children affected by this may also be more prone to cavities. Additionally, tetracyclines have been associated with congenital defects, problems with bone growth, and liver toxicity in pregnant women.

      Here is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that can have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If taken in the second and third trimesters, ACE inhibitors can cause reduced blood flow, kidney failure, and a condition called oligohydramnios.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can result in first trimester abortions, delayed labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and a condition called fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When taken late in pregnancy, benzodiazepines can cause respiratory depression in the newborn and a withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If taken in the first trimester, calcium-channel blockers can cause abnormalities in the fingers and toes. If taken in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: Carbamazepine has been associated with a condition called hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and an increased risk of neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Chloramphenicol can cause a condition known as grey baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If taken in the first trimester, corticosteroids may increase the risk of orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When taken in the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride tablets as the drug can be absorbed through the skin and affect the development of male sex organs in the fetus.

      Haloperidol: If taken during the first trimester, this medication may increase the risk of limb malformations. If taken during the third trimester, it can lead to an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the department after ingesting an excessive amount...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the department after ingesting an excessive amount of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) four hours ago.
      Which of the following ECG findings is most frequently observed in cases of TCA overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia

      Explanation:

      The most commonly observed change in the electrocardiogram (ECG) during a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is sinus tachycardia. Additionally, other ECG changes that can be seen in TCA overdose include prolongation of the PR interval, broadening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and the occurrence of ventricular arrhythmias in cases of severe toxicity. The cardiotoxic effects of TCAs are caused by the blocking of sodium channels, which leads to broadening of the QRS complex, and the blocking of potassium channels, which results in prolongation of the QT interval. The severity of the QRS broadening is associated with adverse events: a QRS duration greater than 100 ms is predictive of seizures, while a QRS duration greater than 160 ms is predictive of ventricular arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 14 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after being bitten on the leg while playing in the woods near his neighborhood. The patient claims that the bite was from a snake that he saw quickly disappear into the bushes after biting him. You present the patient with pictures of native snake species in the area, and the patient identifies the common Eastern garter snake as the culprit. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the treatment of bites from this particular snake species?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The affected limb should immobilised in a sling

      Explanation:

      The key components of first aid for snake bites in the UK involve immobilizing the patient and the affected limb, as well as administering paracetamol for pain relief. When it comes to venomous snake bites, it is important to immobilize the limb using a splint or sling, but not to use a tourniquet or pressure bandage for adder bites. In certain areas, such as NSW, Australia, where venomous snakes can cause rapidly progressing and life-threatening paralysis, pressure bandage immobilization is recommended. However, this is not the case in the UK. Anti-venom is not always necessary for adder bites, and its administration should be based on a thorough assessment of the patient’s condition and the presence of appropriate indications. Paracetamol is the preferred choice for pain relief in UK snake bites, as aspirin and ibuprofen can worsen bleeding tendencies that may result from adder bites. Similarly, heparin should be avoided for the same reason.

      Further Reading:

      Snake bites in the UK are primarily caused by the adder, which is the only venomous snake species native to the country. While most adder bites result in minor symptoms such as pain, swelling, and inflammation, there have been cases of life-threatening illness and fatalities. Additionally, there are instances where venomous snakes that are kept legally or illegally also cause bites in the UK.

      Adder bites typically occur from early spring to late autumn, with the hand being the most common site of the bite. Symptoms can be local or systemic, with local symptoms including sharp pain, tingling or numbness, and swelling that spreads proximally. Systemic symptoms may include spreading pain, tenderness, inflammation, regional lymph node enlargement, and bruising. In severe cases, anaphylaxis can occur, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and shock.

      It is important for clinicians to be aware of the potential complications and complications associated with adder bites. These can include acute renal failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, acute gastric dilatation, paralytic ileus, acute pancreatitis, and coma and seizures. Anaphylaxis symptoms can appear within minutes or be delayed for hours, and hypotension is a critical sign to monitor.

      Initial investigations for adder bites include blood tests, ECG, and vital sign monitoring. Further investigations such as chest X-ray may be necessary based on clinical signs. Blood tests may reveal abnormalities such as leukocytosis, raised hematocrit, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and abnormal clotting profile. ECG changes may include tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ST segment changes.

      First aid measures at the scene include immobilizing the patient and the bitten limb, avoiding aspirin and ibuprofen, and cleaning the wound site in the hospital. Tetanus prophylaxis should be considered. In cases of anaphylaxis, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is necessary. In the hospital, rapid assessment and appropriate resuscitation with intravenous fluids are required.

      Antivenom may be indicated in cases of hypotension, systemic envenoming, ECG abnormalities, peripheral neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated serum creatine kinase or metabolic acidosis, and extensive or rapidly spreading local swelling. Zagreb antivenom is commonly used in the UK, with an initial dose of 8 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia comes in with a side...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia comes in with a side effect caused by the antipsychotic medication she is currently using.

      Which ONE statement about the side effects of antipsychotic drugs is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol is the most common antipsychotic drug to cause extrapyramidal side effects

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side effects are most commonly seen with the piperazine phenothiazines (fluphenazine, prochlorperazine, and trifluoperazine) and butyrophenones (benperidol and haloperidol). Among these, haloperidol is the most frequently implicated antipsychotic drug.

      Tardive dyskinesia, which involves rhythmic and involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw, typically develops after long-term treatment or high doses. It is the most severe manifestation of extrapyramidal symptoms, as it may become irreversible even after discontinuing the causative drug, and treatment options are generally ineffective.

      Dystonia, characterized by abnormal movements of the face and body, is more commonly observed in children and young adults and tends to occur after only a few doses. Acute dystonia can be managed with intravenous administration of procyclidine (5 mg) or benzatropine (2 mg) as a bolus.

      Akathisia refers to an unpleasant sensation of restlessness, while akinesia refers to an inability to initiate movement.

      Elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis who are treated with haloperidol have an increased risk of mortality. This is believed to be due to a higher likelihood of experiencing cardiovascular events and infections such as pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to the initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer another nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide.
      What is the most common side effect experienced with ipratropium bromide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide commonly leads to dry mouth as a side effect. Additionally, it may result in constipation, cough, sudden bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. In patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction, it can cause urinary retention. Furthermore, susceptible individuals may experience acute closed-angle glaucoma as a result of using this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 35-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical ailment during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical ailment during the 4th and 5th month of her pregnancy. As a result, the unborn baby has experienced reduced blood flow and a condition known as oligohydramnios sequence.
      Which of the listed medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      During the second and third trimesters of pregnancy, exposure to ACE inhibitors can lead to hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. This sequence refers to the abnormal physical appearance of a fetus or newborn due to low levels of amniotic fluid in the uterus. It is also associated with malformations of the patient ductus arteriosus and aortic arch. These defects are believed to be caused by the inhibitory effects of ACE inhibitors on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. To avoid these risks, it is recommended to discontinue ACE inhibitors before the second trimester.

      Here is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      Drug: ACE inhibitors
      Adverse effects: If given in the second and third trimesters, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Drug: Aminoglycosides
      Adverse effects: Ototoxicity (damage to the ear) and deafness.

      Drug: Aspirin
      Adverse effects: High doses can cause first trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. Low doses (e.g. 75 mg) have no significant associated risk.

      Drug: Benzodiazepines
      Adverse effects: When given late in pregnancy, respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome can occur.

      Drug: Calcium-channel blockers
      Adverse effects: If given in the first trimester, can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, can cause fetal growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - You review a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. She has developed an infection that needs to be treated with an antibiotic.
      Which antibiotic would be the most suitable and safe option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      The use of antibiotics can impact the effectiveness of warfarin and other coumarin anticoagulants. This can lead to changes in the International Normalized Ratio (INR) and, in severe cases, increase the risk of bleeding. Some antibiotics, such as chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin, co-trimoxazole, doxycycline, erythromycin, macrolides (e.g., clarithromycin), metronidazole, ofloxacin, and sulphonamide, are known to enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. However, cefalexin is considered relatively safe and is the most suitable option in this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 25-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department 'resus' area by ambulance...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department 'resus' area by ambulance after collapsing due to heroin use. She has pinpoint pupils, a respiratory rate of 5 per minute, and a GCS of 6/15.
      What drug treatment should she be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naloxone 400 mcg IV

      Explanation:

      Opioid poisoning is a common occurrence in the Emergency Department. It can occur as a result of recreational drug use, such as heroin, or from prescribed opioids like morphine sulfate tablets or dihydrocodeine.

      The symptoms of opioid overdose include a decreased level of consciousness or even coma, reduced respiratory rate, apnea, pinpoint pupils, low blood pressure, cyanosis, convulsions, and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema (in cases of intravenous heroin usage). The most common cause of death from opioid overdose is respiratory depression, which typically happens within an hour of the overdose. Vomiting is also common, and there is a risk of aspiration.

      Naloxone is the specific antidote for opioid overdose. It can reverse respiratory depression and coma if given in sufficient dosage. The initial intravenous dose is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 micrograms for up to two doses at one-minute intervals if there is no response to the preceding dose. If there is still no response, the dose may be increased to 2 mg for one dose (seriously poisoned patients may require a 4 mg dose). If the intravenous route is not feasible, naloxone can be given by intramuscular injection.

      Since naloxone has a shorter duration of action than most opioids, close monitoring and repeated injections are necessary. The dosage should be adjusted based on the respiratory rate and depth of coma. Generally, the dose is repeated every 2-3 minutes, up to a maximum of 10 mg. In cases where repeated doses are needed, naloxone can be administered through a continuous infusion, with the infusion rate initially set at 60% of the initial resuscitative intravenous dose per hour.

      In opioid addicts, the administration of naloxone may trigger a withdrawal syndrome, characterized by abdominal cramps, nausea, and diarrhea. However, these symptoms typically subside within 2 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy background of depression arrives at the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy background of depression arrives at the hospital after intentionally overdosing on the medication she takes for her heart condition. She informs you that the medication she takes for this condition is verapamil immediate-release 240 mg. She ingested the tablets approximately half an hour ago but was promptly discovered by her husband, who quickly brought her to the Emergency Department.

      What is one of the effects of verapamil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negative dromotropy

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious matter and should always be treated as potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      The toxic effects of calcium-channel blockers can be summarized as follows:

      Cardiac effects:
      – Excessive negative inotropy: causing myocardial depression
      – Negative chronotropy: leading to sinus bradycardia
      – Negative dromotropy: resulting in atrioventricular node blockade

      Vascular smooth muscle tone effects:
      – Decreased afterload: causing systemic hypotension
      – Coronary vasodilation: leading to widened blood vessels in the heart

      Metabolic effects:
      – Hypoinsulinaemia: insulin release depends on calcium influx through L-type calcium channels in islet beta-cells
      – Calcium channel blocker-induced insulin resistance: causing reduced responsiveness to insulin.

      It is important to be aware of these effects and take appropriate action in cases of calcium-channel blocker overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 30 minutes ago. She is currently showing no symptoms and her vital signs are stable. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal effective in decontaminating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high temperatures, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a zinc chloride solution. This creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This porous structure helps prevent the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The usual dosage of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to give the charcoal within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.

      However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. If the patient is unconscious or in a coma, there is a risk of aspiration, so the charcoal should not be given. Similarly, if seizures are likely to occur, there is a risk of aspiration and the charcoal should be avoided. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, there is a risk of obstruction, so activated charcoal should not be used in such cases.

      Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with various drugs and toxins, including aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in treating overdose with substances such as iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.

      There are some potential adverse effects associated with activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhaling the charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 15 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his parents and admits to taking 32 paracetamol tablets 6 hours ago. Blood tests are conducted, including paracetamol levels. What is the paracetamol level threshold above which the ingestion is deemed 'significant'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75 mg/kg/24 hours

      Explanation:

      If someone consumes at least 75 mg of paracetamol per kilogram of body weight within a 24-hour period, it is considered to be a significant ingestion. Ingesting more than 150 mg of paracetamol per kilogram of body weight within 24 hours poses a serious risk of harm.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few of his father's ibuprofen tablets 30 minutes ago. The child is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends giving a dose of activated charcoal.
      What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 g/kg

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of palpitations. During an ECG,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of palpitations. During an ECG, it is found that she has newly developed QT prolongation. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication and wonders if that could be the reason.
      Which of the following medications is LEAST likely to cause QT interval prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.

      Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.

      The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.

      If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.

      A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.

      Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:

      Antimicrobials:
      – Erythromycin
      – Clarithromycin
      – Moxifloxacin
      – Fluconazole
      – Ketoconazole

      Antiarrhythmics:
      – Dronedarone
      – Sotalol
      – Quinidine
      – Amiodarone
      – Flecainide

      Antipsychotics:
      – Risperidone
      – Fluphenazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Pimozide
      – Chlorpromazine
      – Quetiapine
      – Clozapine

      Antidepressants:
      – Citalopram/escitalopram
      – Amitriptyline
      – Clomipramine
      – Dosulepin
      – Doxepin
      – Imipramine
      – Lofepramine

      Antiemetics:
      – Domperidone
      – Droperidol
      – Ondansetron/Granisetron

      Others:
      – Methadone
      – Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG, it is found that she has newly developed QT prolongation. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication and wonders if that could be the reason.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to cause QT interval prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.

      Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.

      The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.

      If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.

      A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.

      Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:

      Antimicrobials:
      – Erythromycin
      – Clarithromycin
      – Moxifloxacin
      – Fluconazole
      – Ketoconazole

      Antiarrhythmics:
      – Dronedarone
      – Sotalol
      – Quinidine
      – Amiodarone
      – Flecainide

      Antipsychotics:
      – Risperidone
      – Fluphenazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Pimozide
      – Chlorpromazine
      – Quetiapine
      – Clozapine

      Antidepressants:
      – Citalopram/escitalopram
      – Amitriptyline
      – Clomipramine
      – Dosulepin
      – Doxepin
      – Imipramine
      – Lofepramine

      Antiemetics:
      – Domperidone
      – Droperidol
      – Ondansetron/Granisetron

      Others:
      – Methadone
      – Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being attacked by a snake while hiking in the mountains. The patient arrives in the emergency department appearing pale and sickly about 15 minutes after the attack and experiences vomiting during the initial assessment. You suspect the presence of systemic envenomation. What is the recommended minimum period of monitoring for individuals with suspected snake bite envenoming?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been bitten by a venomous snake, such as the adder in the UK, should be admitted to the hospital for a minimum of 24 hours. While most snake bites only cause localized symptoms, there is a small chance of life-threatening reactions to the venom. When patients arrive at the emergency department after a snake bite, they should undergo a quick assessment to determine the severity of the envenoming and receive resuscitation if necessary. If indicated, anti-venom should be administered. Following this, patients should be closely monitored for changes in blood pressure and the progression of envenoming for at least 24 hours.

      Further Reading:

      Snake bites in the UK are primarily caused by the adder, which is the only venomous snake species native to the country. While most adder bites result in minor symptoms such as pain, swelling, and inflammation, there have been cases of life-threatening illness and fatalities. Additionally, there are instances where venomous snakes that are kept legally or illegally also cause bites in the UK.

      Adder bites typically occur from early spring to late autumn, with the hand being the most common site of the bite. Symptoms can be local or systemic, with local symptoms including sharp pain, tingling or numbness, and swelling that spreads proximally. Systemic symptoms may include spreading pain, tenderness, inflammation, regional lymph node enlargement, and bruising. In severe cases, anaphylaxis can occur, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and shock.

      It is important for clinicians to be aware of the potential complications and complications associated with adder bites. These can include acute renal failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, acute gastric dilatation, paralytic ileus, acute pancreatitis, and coma and seizures. Anaphylaxis symptoms can appear within minutes or be delayed for hours, and hypotension is a critical sign to monitor.

      Initial investigations for adder bites include blood tests, ECG, and vital sign monitoring. Further investigations such as chest X-ray may be necessary based on clinical signs. Blood tests may reveal abnormalities such as leukocytosis, raised hematocrit, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and abnormal clotting profile. ECG changes may include tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ST segment changes.

      First aid measures at the scene include immobilizing the patient and the bitten limb, avoiding aspirin and ibuprofen, and cleaning the wound site in the hospital. Tetanus prophylaxis should be considered. In cases of anaphylaxis, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is necessary. In the hospital, rapid assessment and appropriate resuscitation with intravenous fluids are required.

      Antivenom may be indicated in cases of hypotension, systemic envenoming, ECG abnormalities, peripheral neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated serum creatine kinase or metabolic acidosis, and extensive or rapidly spreading local swelling. Zagreb antivenom is commonly used in the UK, with an initial dose of 8 mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of paracetamol. The patient claims that he wants to end it all and refuses to stay in the hospital for treatment. His wife insists that he must be treated because he is not thinking clearly.

      Which medication is the primary treatment for paracetamol overdose in an inpatient setting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol overdose is the most common overdose in the U.K. and is also the leading cause of acute liver failure. The liver damage occurs due to a metabolite of paracetamol called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s glutathione stores and directly harms liver cells. Severe liver damage and even death can result from an overdose of more than 12 g or > 150 mg/kg body weight.

      The clinical manifestations of paracetamol overdose can be divided into four stages:

      Stage 1 (0-24 hours): Patients may not show any symptoms, but common signs include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort.

      Stage 2 (24-48 hours): Right upper quadrant pain and tenderness develop, along with the possibility of hypoglycemia and reduced consciousness.

      Stage 3 (48-96 hours): Hepatic failure begins, characterized by jaundice, coagulopathy, and encephalopathy. Loin pain, haematuria, and proteinuria may indicate early renal failure.

      Stage 4 (> 96 hours): Hepatic failure worsens progressively, leading to cerebral edema, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and ultimately death.

      The earliest and most sensitive indicator of liver damage is a prolonged INR, which starts to rise approximately 24 hours after the overdose. Liver function tests (LFTs) typically remain normal until 18 hours after the overdose. However, AST and ALT levels then sharply increase and can exceed 10,000 units/L by 72-96 hours. Bilirubin levels rise more slowly and peak around 5 days.

      The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is a highly effective antidote, but its efficacy diminishes rapidly if administered more than 8 hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions exceeding 75 mg/kg are considered significant.

      Acetylcysteine should be given based on a 4-hour level or administered empirically if the presentation occurs more than 8 hours after a significant overdose. If the overdose is staggered or the timing is uncertain, empirical treatment is also recommended. The treatment regimen is as follows:

      – First dose: 150 mg/kg in 200 mL 5% glucose over 1 hour
      – Second dose 50 mg/kg in 500 mL 5% glucose over 4 hours
      – Third dose 100 mg/kg in 1000 mL 5% glucose over 16 hours

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 42 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unconscious in a park with two empty beer bottles and several empty boxes of painkillers at his side. An arterial blood gas is obtained and the results are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.19
      pO2 11.8 KPa
      pCO2 3.2 KPa
      HCO3- 14 mmol/L
      BE -7.8

      Which of the following most accurately characterizes the acid-base imbalance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acidosis, as indicated by the low pH. The low bicarb and base excess levels suggest that the metabolic system is contributing to or causing the acidosis. Additionally, the low pCO2 indicates that the respiratory system is attempting to compensate by driving alkalosis. However, the metabolic system is the primary factor in this case, leading to a diagnosis of metabolic acidosis with incomplete respiratory compensation.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 62-year-old woman comes in with a gout flare-up after starting a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes in with a gout flare-up after starting a new antihypertensive medication prescribed by her doctor. Which of the following antihypertensives is the LEAST likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics, like bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide, have the potential to raise levels of uric acid in the blood, which can worsen gout symptoms in individuals who are susceptible to the condition.

      Other medications, such as diuretics, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and non-losartan ARBs, are also linked to an increased risk of gout.

      On the other hand, calcium-channel blockers like amlodipine and verapamil, as well as losartan, have been found to lower uric acid levels and are associated with a reduced risk of gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 45-year-old with a history of bipolar disorder is brought into the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old with a history of bipolar disorder is brought into the emergency department after intentionally taking an excessive amount of lithium. What acid-base disturbances would you anticipate in a patient who has overdosed on lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low anion gap acidosis

      Explanation:

      Excessive intake of lithium is linked to the development of low anion gap acidosis. In cases of lithium overdose, a common outcome is the occurrence of low anion gap acidosis.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for co-lateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has been taking amiodarone for several years.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding the effects of amiodarone on the eye is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corneal microdeposits are almost universally present in patients taking amiodarone for longer than six months

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.

      Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend because...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend because he took an excessive amount of aspirin 45 minutes ago.
      Which of the following should NOT be included in the treatment plan for severe salicylate poisoning that presents within 1 hour of overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Forced alkaline diuresis

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning is a fairly common form of poisoning that can lead to organ damage and death if not treated promptly. The symptoms of salicylate poisoning include nausea, vomiting, ringing in the ears, hearing loss, excessive sweating, dehydration, rapid breathing, flushed skin, and high fever in children. In severe cases, convulsions, swelling of the brain, coma, kidney failure, fluid in the lungs, and unstable heart function can occur.

      The treatment for salicylate poisoning involves stabilizing the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation as needed, preventing further absorption of the poison, enhancing its elimination from the body, correcting any metabolic abnormalities, and providing supportive care. Unfortunately, there is no specific antidote available for salicylates. If a large amount of salicylate has been ingested within the past hour (more than 4.5 grams in adults or more than 2 grams in children), gastric lavage (stomach pumping) and administration of activated charcoal (50 grams) are recommended to reduce absorption and increase elimination.

      Medical investigations for salicylate poisoning should include measuring the level of salicylate in the blood, analyzing arterial blood gases, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), checking blood glucose levels, assessing kidney function and electrolyte levels, and evaluating blood clotting. ECG abnormalities that may be present include widening of the QRS complex, AV block, and ventricular arrhythmias.

      The severity of salicylate poisoning is determined by the level of salicylate in the blood. Mild poisoning is defined as a salicylate level below 450 mg/L, moderate poisoning is between 450-700 mg/L, and severe poisoning is above 700 mg/L. In severe cases, aggressive intravenous fluid therapy is necessary to correct dehydration, and administration of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate the salicylate from the body. It is important to maintain a urine pH of greater than 7.5, ideally between 8.0-8.5. However, forced alkaline diuresis is no longer recommended. Life-threatening cases may require admission to the intensive care unit, intubation and ventilation, and possibly hemodialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 65-year-old woman is about to begin taking warfarin for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is about to begin taking warfarin for the treatment of her atrial fibrillation. She is currently on multiple other medications.
      Which ONE medication will enhance the effects of warfarin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibitors have the ability to enhance the effects of warfarin, leading to an increase in the International Normalized Ratio (INR). To remember the commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibitors, the mnemonic O DEVICES can be utilized. Each letter in the mnemonic represents a specific inhibitor: O for Omeprazole, D for Disulfiram, E for Erythromycin (as well as other macrolide antibiotics), V for Valproate (specifically sodium valproate), I for Isoniazid, C for Ciprofloxacin, E for Ethanol (when consumed acutely), and S for Sulphonamides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the newborn is born with deafness in both ears.
      Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides have the ability to pass through the placenta and can lead to damage to the 8th cranial nerve in the fetus, resulting in permanent bilateral deafness.

      ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if given in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters.

      Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      High doses of aspirin can lead to 1st trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, including diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the 1st trimester, can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol is associated with grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids, if given in the 1st trimester, may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol, if given in the 1st trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride should not be handled by pregnant women as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the 1st trimester, may cause limb malformations. If given in the 3rd trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

      Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.

      Lithium, if given in the 1st trimester, poses a risk of fetal cardiac malformations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - You assess a patient with nausea, vomiting, restlessness, and palpitations. She is on...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient with nausea, vomiting, restlessness, and palpitations. She is on theophylline for the treatment of her COPD. You suspect toxicity and order blood tests for evaluation.
      What is the target range for theophylline levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-20 mg/L

      Explanation:

      The therapeutic range for theophylline is quite limited, ranging from 10 to 20 micrograms per milliliter (10-20 mg/L). It is important to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment as it can provide valuable information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 65-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of prolonged amiodarone...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of prolonged amiodarone usage.
      What proportion of individuals taking amiodarone for more than six months will experience corneal microdeposits?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater than 90%

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.

      Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 35-year-old woman is given chloramphenicol for an infection while she is pregnant....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is given chloramphenicol for an infection while she is pregnant. As a result of this treatment, the newborn develops a deformity.
      Which of the following deformities is most likely to occur as a result of using this medication during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grey baby syndrome

      Explanation:

      Grey baby syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur in neonates, especially premature babies, as a result of the build-up of the antibiotic chloramphenicol. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including ashen grey skin color, poor feeding, vomiting, cyanosis, hypotension, hypothermia, hypotonia, cardiovascular collapse, abdominal distension, and respiratory difficulties.

      During pregnancy, there are several drugs that can have adverse effects on the developing fetus. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, if given in the second and third trimesters, can lead to hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses of aspirin (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the first trimester, may lead to phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimesters can result in fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol, as mentioned earlier, can cause grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, if administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride, as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the baby is born prematurely with pale gray skin and cyanosis. The baby also has weak muscle tone, low blood pressure, and difficulty with feeding.

      Which of the following antibiotics is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Grey baby syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur in neonates, especially premature babies, as a result of the build-up of the antibiotic chloramphenicol. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including ashen grey skin color, poor feeding, vomiting, cyanosis, hypotension, hypothermia, hypotonia, cardiovascular collapse, abdominal distension, and respiratory difficulties.

      During pregnancy, there are several drugs that can have adverse effects on the developing fetus. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, if given in the second and third trimesters, can lead to hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses of aspirin (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the first trimester, may lead to phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimesters can result in fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol, as mentioned earlier, can cause grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, if administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride, as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 45 year old male is brought to the emergency department after developing...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male is brought to the emergency department after developing a rash shortly after receiving a flu vaccination at the local clinic. On arrival it is noted that the patient's lips and throat have started to swell. You diagnose anaphylaxis and decide to administer epinephrine. What is the most suitable dosage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000) adrenaline by intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      The most suitable dosage of epinephrine for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis after a flu vaccination is 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000) adrenaline by intramuscular injection.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 45-year-old patient presents with acute theophylline toxicity. In addition to theophylline, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with acute theophylline toxicity. In addition to theophylline, he uses salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers.
      What is the most likely factor that triggered this episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart failure

      Explanation:

      Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.

      Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.

      Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.

      Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.

      There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.

      The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.

      Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 68-year-old man complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He was recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He was recently prescribed bendroflumethiazide.
      What is the most frequently observed side effect of bendroflumethiazide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Common side effects of bendroflumethiazide include postural hypotension, electrolyte disturbance (such as hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypercalcaemia), impaired glucose tolerance, gout, impotence, and fatigue. Rare side effects of bendroflumethiazide include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitive rash, pancreatitis, and renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with a red, hot, swollen great toe. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with a red, hot, swollen great toe. The diagnosis is acute gout. You decide to start her on a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Her husband was recently diagnosed with a peptic ulcer after an endoscopy, and she is worried about the potential side effects of NSAIDs.
      Which of the following NSAIDs has the lowest occurrence of side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The differences in anti-inflammatory activity among NSAIDs are minimal, but there is significant variation in how individuals respond to and tolerate these drugs. Approximately 60% of patients will experience a positive response to any NSAID, and those who do not respond to one may find relief with another. Pain relief typically begins shortly after taking the first dose, and a full analgesic effect is usually achieved within a week. However, it may take up to 3 weeks to see an anti-inflammatory effect, which may not be easily assessed. If desired results are not achieved within these timeframes, it is recommended to try a different NSAID.

      NSAIDs work by reducing the production of prostaglandins through the inhibition of the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase. Different NSAIDs vary in their selectivity for inhibiting different types of cyclo-oxygenase. Selective inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase-2 is associated with a lower risk of gastrointestinal intolerance. Other factors also play a role in susceptibility to gastrointestinal effects, so the choice of NSAID should consider the incidence of gastrointestinal and other side effects.

      Ibuprofen, a propionic acid derivative, possesses anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties. It generally has fewer side effects compared to other non-selective NSAIDs, but its anti-inflammatory properties are weaker. For rheumatoid arthritis, doses of 1.6 to 2.4 g daily are required, and it may not be suitable for conditions where inflammation is prominent, such as acute gout.

      Naproxen is often a preferred choice due to its combination of good efficacy and low incidence of side effects. However, it does have a higher occurrence of side effects compared to ibuprofen.

      Ketoprofen and diclofenac have similar anti-inflammatory properties to ibuprofen but are associated with more side effects.

      Indometacin has an action that is equal to or superior to naproxen, but it also has a high incidence of side effects, including headache, dizziness, and gastrointestinal disturbances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with swollen lips and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with swollen lips and a rash all over her body. According to her friend, she had recently consumed a sandwich. Anaphylaxis is suspected. You inquire about her medication use, and she presents a packet of propranolol. In addition to the usual treatment, which drug should be taken into consideration for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon may be an option for individuals experiencing anaphylaxis while taking beta blockers. However, it should not be chosen over Adrenaline as the primary treatment. Glucagon stimulates the production of cyclic AMP, which helps to increase heart contractility and heart rate, both of which are necessary during anaphylaxis. It is important to note that rapid administration of glucagon may lead to adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 14 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents approximately 90 minutes after taking an overdose. The patient tells you she was at her friend's house and they got into an argument which ended with her friend telling her she was ending their friendship. The patient grabbed a bottle of pills from the bathroom and swallowed all of them before leaving. She didn't tell her friend she had taken the pills and wanted her to feel guilty but now regrets her actions. The patient tells you she didn't read the name on the bottle and threw the bottle away as she walked home. The patient also tells you she didn't see how many pills were in the bottle but thinks there were 20-30 of them. Several attempts to contact the patient's friend to try and clarify the identity of the pills are unsuccessful. The patient advises you she feels nauseated and has ringing in her ears. You also note the patient is hyperventilating. A blood gas sample is taken and is shown below:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.49
      pO2 14.3 KPa
      pCO2 3.4 KPa
      HCO3- 25 mmol/L
      BE -1

      What is the likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Tinnitus is often seen as an early indication of salicylate toxicity, which occurs when there is an excessive use of salicylate. Another common symptom is feeling nauseous and/or vomiting. In the initial stages of a salicylate overdose, individuals may experience respiratory alkalosis, which is caused by the direct stimulation of the respiratory centers in the medulla by salicylate. This leads to hyperventilation and the elimination of carbon dioxide, resulting in alkalosis. As the body metabolizes salicylate, a metabolic acidosis may develop.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 42-year-old man has recently taken an antibiotic for a skin infection. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has recently taken an antibiotic for a skin infection. He has been experiencing palpitations and had an ECG performed, which shows the presence of new QT prolongation.
      Which of the following antibiotics is he most likely to have taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.

      Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.

      The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.

      If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.

      A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.

      Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:

      Antimicrobials:
      – Erythromycin
      – Clarithromycin
      – Moxifloxacin
      – Fluconazole
      – Ketoconazole

      Antiarrhythmics:
      – Dronedarone
      – Sotalol
      – Quinidine
      – Amiodarone
      – Flecainide

      Antipsychotics:
      – Risperidone
      – Fluphenazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Pimozide
      – Chlorpromazine
      – Quetiapine
      – Clozapine

      Antidepressants:
      – Citalopram/escitalopram
      – Amitriptyline
      – Clomipramine
      – Dosulepin
      – Doxepin
      – Imipramine
      – Lofepramine

      Antiemetics:
      – Domperidone
      – Droperidol
      – Ondansetron/Granisetron

      Others:
      – Methadone
      – Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 68 year old male with dementia is brought into the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male with dementia is brought into the emergency department by his daughter due to a sudden decline in cognitive function over the past week. The daughter suspects that the patient's medication may have been altered recently. She presents you with the tablets she discovered in the patient's room. Which medication is most likely responsible for the decline in the patient's cognitive abilities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs have been found to worsen cognitive impairment in individuals with dementia. Certain commonly prescribed medications are associated with a higher anticholinergic burden, which can lead to increased cognitive decline. Examples of drugs with high anticholinergic potency include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline hydrochloride, paroxetine, first-generation antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine maleate and promethazine hydrochloride, certain antipsychotics like olanzapine, clozapine, and quetiapine, urinary antispasmodics like solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine, and antimuscarinics like ipratropium, tiotropium, atropine, and cyclopentolate. However, it’s important to note that rivastigmine and memantine are recommended as first-line treatments for Alzheimer’s and DLB, while haloperidol, despite being an antipsychotic, has low anticholinergic potency.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 45-year-old woman is about to begin taking warfarin for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is about to begin taking warfarin for the treatment of her atrial fibrillation. She is currently on multiple other medications.
      Which ONE medication will counteract the effects of warfarin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers have the ability to hinder the effects of warfarin, leading to a decrease in INR levels. To remember the commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, the mnemonic PC BRASS can be utilized. Each letter in the mnemonic represents a specific inducer: P for Phenytoin, C for Carbamazepine, B for Barbiturates, R for Rifampicin, A for Alcohol (chronic ingestion), S for Sulphonylureas, and S for Smoking. These inducers can have an impact on the effectiveness of warfarin and should be taken into consideration when prescribing or using this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed a new diuretic medication. Upon reviewing her blood test results, you observe the presence of hyperkalemia.
      Which of the following diuretics is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a medication used to treat conditions such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, hepatic cirrhosis with ascites and edema, and Conn’s syndrome. It functions as a competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist, primarily working in the distal convoluted tubule. In this area, it hinders the reabsorption of sodium ions and enhances the reabsorption of potassium ions. Spironolactone is commonly known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.

      The main side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, particularly when renal impairment is present. In severe cases, hyperkalemia can be life-threatening. Additionally, there is a notable occurrence of gastrointestinal disturbances, with nausea and vomiting being the most common. Women may experience menstrual disturbances, while men may develop gynecomastia, both of which are attributed to the antiandrogenic effects of spironolactone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 35-year-old woman has recently started taking a new medication. She is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has recently started taking a new medication. She is experiencing severe muscle pains.
      Which ONE of the following drugs is most likely to cause myopathy as a side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Statins, although generally safe and well-tolerated, can cause myopathy and myotoxicity. This range of muscle-related side effects can vary from mild muscle pain to the most severe case of rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to kidney failure, blood clotting issues, and even death.

      The different levels of myotoxicity associated with statins are as follows:
      – Myalgia: muscle symptoms without an increase in creatine kinase (CK) levels.
      – Asymptomatic myopathy: elevated CK levels without muscle symptoms.
      – Myositis: muscle symptoms with CK levels elevated less than 10 times the upper limit of normal.
      – Rhabdomyolysis: muscle symptoms with CK levels elevated more than 10 times the upper limit of normal, potentially leading to myoglobinuria (presence of myoglobin in urine) and renal failure.

      Most statins are broken down by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system. When taken with drugs that strongly inhibit this system, the concentration of statins in the blood can significantly increase. This, in turn, raises the risk of myopathy. A well-known example of this is the combination of statins with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin and clarithromycin. Co-prescribing these drugs with statins has been linked to a higher risk of myopathy, hospitalization due to rhabdomyolysis, acute kidney injury, and increased mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after ingesting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after ingesting 150 paracetamol tablets in a impulsive suicide attempt. The patient is now worried about the potential liver failure and other possible injuries associated with paracetamol overdose. What other organs or systems are at risk of injury in cases of paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal tubule

      Explanation:

      When someone takes too much paracetamol, it can harm their liver cells and the tubules in their kidneys. This is because paracetamol produces a harmful substance called NAPQI, which is normally combined with glutathione. However, when there is too much NAPQI, it can cause damage and death to liver and kidney cells.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old man has had discoloured teeth since taking a medication in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has had discoloured teeth since taking a medication in his youth. Upon examination, visible greyish-brown horizontal stripes can be observed across all of his teeth.
      Which SINGLE medication is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline antibiotics, such as tetracycline and doxycycline, have the potential to cause staining on permanent teeth while they are still forming beneath the gum line. This staining occurs when the drug becomes calcified within the tooth during its development. It is important to note that children are vulnerable to tetracycline-related tooth staining until approximately the age of 8. Additionally, pregnant women should avoid taking tetracycline as it can affect the development of teeth in the unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 70-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting, feels extremely tired, and reports that her vision seems to have a yellow tint.

      What is the indication for administering DigiFab in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coexistent renal failure

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.

      The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:

      Acute digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Potassium level >5 mmol/l
      – Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
      – Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
      – Digoxin level >12 ng/ml

      Chronic digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      – Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - You assess a 70-year-old woman who is admitted to the clinical decision unit...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 70-year-old woman who is admitted to the clinical decision unit (CDU) after a fall last night. She has a significant cardiac history, having experienced a heart attack 3 years ago and is currently being evaluated for cardiac arrhythmias. She occasionally experiences episodes of angina. Upon reviewing her medication list, you identify one specific medication that should be discontinued immediately.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is a type of calcium-channel blocker that is commonly used to treat irregular heart rhythms and chest pain. It is important to note that verapamil should not be taken at the same time as beta-blockers like atenolol. This is because when these medications are combined, they can have a negative impact on the heart’s ability to contract and its heart rate. This can lead to low blood pressure, slow heart rate, problems with the electrical signals in the heart, heart failure, and even a pause in the heart’s normal rhythm. However, the other medications mentioned in this question can be safely used together with beta-blockers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 30-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of paracetamol. He consumed the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of paracetamol. He consumed the overdose 12 hours ago and is unsure of the number of tablets he has taken.
      Which of the following substances can be utilized as an antidote for paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methionine

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is an extremely effective antidote, but its effectiveness decreases quickly if administered more than a few hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions that exceed 75 mg/kg are considered to be significant.

      For patients who decline treatment, methionine is a helpful alternative. It is taken orally in a dosage of 2.5 g every 4 hours, with a total dose of 10 g.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given anti-tuberculous...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given anti-tuberculous medication. The mother experiences liver damage, and the newborn experiences seizures and neuropathy.
      Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The standard drug regimen for tuberculosis is generally safe to use during pregnancy, with the exception of streptomycin which should be avoided. However, the use of isoniazid during pregnancy has been associated with potential risks such as liver damage in the mother and the possibility of neuropathy and seizures in the newborn.

      Here is a list outlining some commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If taken during the second and third trimesters, these medications can lead to reduced blood flow, kidney failure, and a condition called oligohydramnios.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity, resulting in hearing loss in the baby.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can increase the risk of first trimester abortions, delayed labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and a condition called fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When taken late in pregnancy, these medications can cause respiratory depression in the baby and lead to a withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If taken during the first trimester, these drugs can cause abnormalities in the fingers and toes. If taken during the second and third trimesters, they may result in fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This medication can increase the risk of hemorrhagic disease in the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug in newborns can lead to a condition known as grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If taken during the first trimester, corticosteroids may increase the risk of orofacial clefts in the baby.

      Danazol: When taken during the first trimester, this medication can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect the development of male sex organs in the baby.

      Haloperidol: If taken during the first trimester, this medication may increase the risk of limb malformations. If taken during the third trimester, it can lead to an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after overdosing on one of his prescribed medications. He is restless, disoriented, and experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 110 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. It is challenging to gather information from him as he is speaking incoherently. Upon further inquiry, you learn that he has ingested an anticholinergic medication.
      What is the antidote for this type of poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physostigmine

      Explanation:

      Patients who present with an anticholinergic toxidrome can be difficult to manage due to the agitation and disruptive behavior that is typically present. It is important to provide meticulous supportive care to address the behavioral effects of delirium and prevent complications such as dehydration, injury, and pulmonary aspiration. Often, one-to-one nursing is necessary.

      The management approach for these patients is as follows:

      1. Resuscitate using a standard ABC approach.
      2. Administer sedation for behavioral control. Benzodiazepines, such as IV diazepam in 5 mg-10 mg increments, are the first-line therapy. The goal is to achieve a patient who is sleepy but easily roused. It is important to avoid over-sedating the patient as this can increase the risk of aspiration.
      3. Prescribe intravenous fluids as patients are typically unable to eat and drink, and may be dehydrated upon presentation.
      4. Insert a urinary catheter as urinary retention is often present and needs to be managed.
      5. Consider physostigmine as the specific antidote for anticholinergic delirium in carefully selected cases. Physostigmine acts as a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, temporarily blocking the breakdown of acetylcholine. This enhances its effects at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, thereby reversing the effects of the anticholinergic agents.

      Physostigmine is indicated in the following situations:

      1. Severe anticholinergic delirium that does not respond to benzodiazepine sedation.
      2. Poisoning with a pure anticholinergic agent, such as atropine.

      The dosage and administration of physostigmine are as follows:

      1. Administer in a monitored setting with appropriate staff and resources to manage adverse effects.
      2. Perform a 12-lead ECG before administration to rule out bradycardia, AV block, or broadening of the QRS.
      3. Administer IV physostigmine 0.5-1 mg as a slow push over 5 minutes. Repeat every 10 minutes up to a maximum of 4 mg.
      4. The clinical end-point of therapy is the resolution of delirium.
      5. Delirium may reoccur in 1-4 hours as the effects of physostigmine wear off. In such cases, the dose may be cautiously repeated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 60-year-old patient with type II diabetes mellitus has ingested an excessive amount...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient with type II diabetes mellitus has ingested an excessive amount of gliclazide.
      What are the possible antidotes that can be administered in cases of sulphonylurea poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      There are various specific remedies available for different types of poisons and overdoses. The following list provides an outline of some of these antidotes:

      Poison: Benzodiazepines
      Antidote: Flumazenil

      Poison: Beta-blockers
      Antidotes: Atropine, Glucagon, Insulin

      Poison: Carbon monoxide
      Antidote: Oxygen

      Poison: Cyanide
      Antidotes: Hydroxocobalamin, Sodium nitrite, Sodium thiosulphate

      Poison: Ethylene glycol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Heparin
      Antidote: Protamine sulphate

      Poison: Iron salts
      Antidote: Desferrioxamine

      Poison: Isoniazid
      Antidote: Pyridoxine

      Poison: Methanol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Opioids
      Antidote: Naloxone

      Poison: Organophosphates
      Antidotes: Atropine, Pralidoxime

      Poison: Paracetamol
      Antidotes: Acetylcysteine, Methionine

      Poison: Sulphonylureas
      Antidotes: Glucose, Octreotide

      Poison: Thallium
      Antidote: Prussian blue

      Poison: Warfarin
      Antidote: Vitamin K, Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

      By utilizing these specific antidotes, medical professionals can effectively counteract the harmful effects of various poisons and overdoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a health condition during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a health condition during the 2nd trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the newborn developed kernicterus and early closure of the ductus arteriosus.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The use of low-dose aspirin during pregnancy is considered safe and can be used to manage recurrent miscarriage, clotting disorders, and pre-eclampsia. On the other hand, high-dose aspirin carries several risks, especially if used in the third trimester. These risks include delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus (a condition that affects the brain due to high levels of bilirubin). Additionally, there is a slight increase in the risk of first-trimester abortion if high-dose aspirin is used early in pregnancy.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      Drug: ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril)
      Adverse effects: If given in the second and third trimester, ACE inhibitors can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Drug: Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin)
      Adverse effects: Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity (damage to the ear) and deafness.

      Drug: Aspirin
      Adverse effects: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) have no significant associated risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 60-year-old man presents with frequent urination and excessive thirst. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with frequent urination and excessive thirst. He has a history of bipolar affective disorder, which has been effectively managed with lithium for many years.

      You schedule blood tests for him, and the results are as follows:

      Na: 150 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
      K: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
      Urea: 9.5 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
      Creatinine: 127 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is a condition where the body is unable to produce concentrated urine. It is characterized by excessive thirst, increased urination, and constant need to drink fluids. There are two main types of diabetes insipidus: cranial (central) and nephrogenic.

      Cranial diabetes insipidus occurs when there is a deficiency of vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone. This hormone helps regulate the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. In patients with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output can be as high as 10-15 liters per day. However, with adequate fluid intake, most patients are able to maintain normal sodium levels. The causes of cranial diabetes insipidus can vary, with 30% of cases being idiopathic (unknown cause) and another 30% being secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumors, meningitis, granulomatous disease (such as sarcoidosis), and certain medications like naloxone and phenytoin. There is also a very rare inherited form of cranial diabetes insipidus that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness, and bladder atonia.

      On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus occurs when there is resistance to the action of vasopressin in the kidneys. Similar to cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is significantly increased in patients with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Serum sodium levels can be maintained through excessive fluid intake or may be elevated. The causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders like hypercalcemia and hypokalemia, and certain medications like long-term use of lithium and demeclocycline.

      Based on the history of long-term lithium use in this particular case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the medication she takes for a thyroid condition. She informs you that the medication she takes for this condition is levothyroxine 100 mcg. She consumed the medication approximately 30 minutes ago but was promptly discovered by her husband, who quickly brought her to the Emergency Department.

      Which of the following tests will be most beneficial initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that should always be taken seriously as it can be potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into the cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      Significant toxicity can occur with the ingestion of more than 10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules). In children, even 1-2 tablets of immediate or sustained-release verapamil or diltiazem can be harmful. Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of taking standard preparations, but with slow-release versions, the onset of severe toxicity may be delayed by 12-16 hours, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The main clinical manifestations of calcium-channel blocker overdose include nausea and vomiting, low blood pressure, slow heart rate and first-degree heart block, heart muscle ischemia and stroke, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, and high blood sugar levels.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, certain bedside investigations are crucial. These include checking blood glucose levels, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), and obtaining an arterial blood gas sample. Additional investigations that can provide helpful information include assessing urea and electrolyte levels, conducting a chest X-ray to check for pulmonary edema, and performing an echocardiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A 28 year old male is brought into the emergency department in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old male is brought into the emergency department in a comatose state with suspected poisoning. An arterial blood gas sample is taken. The results are shown below:

      pH 7.22
      pO2 12.5 kpa
      pCO2 5.9 kpa
      Bicarbonate 14 mmol/l
      Chloride 98 mmol/l
      Potassium 6.1 mmol/l
      Sodium 136 mmol/l

      Overdose or poisoning with which of the following typically leads to this type of acid base disturbance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning often leads to a metabolic acidosis characterized by a high anion gap. The patient in question is experiencing this type of acid-base disturbance. This particular acid-base imbalance is typically seen in cases of poisoning with substances such as glycols (ethylene and propylene), salicylates (aspirin), paracetamol, methanol, isoniazid, and paraldehyde.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A 21 year old female arrives at the emergency department and admits to...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old female arrives at the emergency department and admits to ingesting 56 aspirin tablets around 90 minutes ago. She consumed the tablets impulsively following a breakup with her partner but now regrets her decision. She denies experiencing any symptoms. At what point would you initially measure salicylate levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 hours post ingestion

      Explanation:

      For asymptomatic patients, it is recommended to measure salicylate levels 4 hours after ingestion. However, if the patient is experiencing symptoms, the initial levels should be taken 2 hours after ingestion. In this case, the levels should be monitored every 2-3 hours until a decrease is observed.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. She has been experiencing heart palpitations and decided to self-medicate with one of her sister's heart medications. Shortly after taking the medication, her asthma symptoms worsened.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Non-selective beta-blockers, like propranolol, can cause severe bronchospasm in individuals with asthma, particularly when taken in high doses. The current guidelines from the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommend avoiding the use of beta-blockers in asthma patients. However, there is some evidence suggesting that the long-term use of cardioselective beta-blockers does not appear to trigger asthma attacks in individuals with mild or moderate asthma.

      Beta-blockers play a crucial role in the treatment of patients who have a history of previous myocardial infarction or systolic dysfunction. In individuals with asthma and one of these diagnoses, it is unlikely that the potential benefits of beta-blockers outweigh the risks of worsening asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - You evaluate a 35-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy. She...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy. She has been initiated on an anti-epileptic drug but has subsequently developed a tremor when assuming a certain posture.
      Which INDIVIDUAL anti-epileptic medication is most likely to be accountable for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Postural tremor is frequently seen as a neurological side effect in individuals taking sodium valproate. Additionally, a resting tremor may also manifest. It has been observed that around 25% of patients who begin sodium valproate therapy develop a tremor within the first year. Other potential side effects of sodium valproate include gastric irritation, nausea and vomiting, involuntary movements, temporary hair loss, weight gain in females, and impaired liver function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 62-year-old woman with hypercholesterolemia is prescribed simvastatin. After taking a course of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with hypercholesterolemia is prescribed simvastatin. After taking a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection, she experiences severe muscle pains. She is admitted to the hospital and diagnosed with acute renal failure, with a CK level of 1260 units/liter.
      Which of the following antibiotics is she most likely to have been prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Statins, although generally safe and well-tolerated, can cause myopathy and myotoxicity. This range of muscle-related side effects can vary from mild muscle pain to the most severe case of rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to kidney failure, blood clotting issues, and even death.

      The different levels of myotoxicity associated with statins are as follows:
      – Myalgia: muscle symptoms without an increase in creatine kinase (CK) levels.
      – Asymptomatic myopathy: elevated CK levels without muscle symptoms.
      – Myositis: muscle symptoms with CK levels elevated less than 10 times the upper limit of normal.
      – Rhabdomyolysis: muscle symptoms with CK levels elevated more than 10 times the upper limit of normal, potentially leading to myoglobinuria (presence of myoglobin in urine) and renal failure.

      Most statins are broken down by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system. When taken with drugs that strongly inhibit this system, the concentration of statins in the blood can significantly increase. This, in turn, raises the risk of myopathy. A well-known example of this is the combination of statins with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin and clarithromycin. Co-prescribing these drugs with statins has been linked to a higher risk of myopathy, hospitalization due to rhabdomyolysis, acute kidney injury, and increased mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 17 year old girl is admitted to the emergency department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 year old girl is admitted to the emergency department following a suicide attempt. The patient consumed a container of expired insecticide and reports feeling unwell shortly after ingestion, resulting in two episodes of vomiting. After consulting toxbase, it is determined that the product is an organophosphate.

      Which of the following is an established antidote for organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Atropine and pralidoxime are both considered antidotes for treating organophosphate poisoning. Organophosphates work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase at nerve synapses. In addition to providing supportive care and administering antidotes, it is important to decontaminate patients as part of their treatment plan for organophosphate poisoning.

      While both atropine and pralidoxime are recognized as antidotes, pralidoxime is not commonly used. Atropine works by competing with acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors. On the other hand, pralidoxime helps reactivate acetylcholinesterase-organophosphate complexes that have not lost an alkyl side chain, known as non-aged complexes. However, pralidoxime is not effective against organophosphates that have already formed or rapidly form aged acetylcholinesterase complexes. The evidence regarding the effectiveness of pralidoxime is conflicting.

      Further Reading:

      Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.

      When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.

      To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.

      Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.

      Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.

      After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 25-year-old man presents having ingested an overdose of an unknown substance. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents having ingested an overdose of an unknown substance. He is drowsy and slurring his speech. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 116 beats per minute, blood pressure 91/57 mmHg, oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Glasgow Coma Scale score is 11 out of 15. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air are as follows:
      pH: 7.24
      pO2: 9.4 kPa
      PCO2: 3.3 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
      Na+: 143 mmol/l
      Cl–: 99 mmol/l
      Lactate: 5 IU/l
      Which SINGLE statement regarding this patient is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her anion gap is elevated

      Explanation:

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is essential for evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. The normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analyzers, but generally, they fall within the following ranges:

      pH: 7.35 – 7.45
      pO2: 10 – 14 kPa
      PCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 – 26 mmol/l
      Base excess: -2 – 2 mmol/l

      In this particular case, the patient’s history indicates an overdose. However, there is no immediate need for intubation as her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 11/15, and she can speak, albeit with slurred speech, indicating that she can maintain her own airway.

      The relevant ABG findings are as follows:

      – Mild hypoxia
      – Decreased pH (acidaemia)
      – Low PCO2
      – Normal bicarbonate
      – Elevated lactate

      The anion gap is a measure of the concentration of unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is calculated by subtracting the primary measured cations from the primary measured anions in the serum. The reference range for anion gap varies depending on the methodology used, but it is typically between 8 to 16 mmol/L.

      In this case, the patient’s anion gap can be calculated using the formula:

      Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]

      Using the given values:

      Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]
      Anion gap = 22

      Therefore, it is evident that she has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. It is likely a type A lactic acidosis resulting from tissue hypoxia and hypoperfusion. Some potential causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:

      Type A lactic acidosis:
      – Shock (including septic shock)
      – Left ventricular failure
      – Severe anemia
      – Asphyxia
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Carbon monoxide poisoning
      – Respiratory failure
      – Severe asthma and COPD
      – Regional hypoperfusion

      Type B lactic acidosis:
      – Renal failure
      – Liver failure
      – Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
      – Thiamine deficiency
      – Al

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills following a heated dispute with their partner. The patient reports consuming approximately 30 tablets of various types, which were obtained from their partner's grandparents. However, the patient is unaware of the specific names of the tablets. You contemplate administering activated charcoal. What accurately describes the mechanism of action of activated charcoal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absorbs poisons onto its surface by weak electrostatic forces

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal prevents the absorption of poisons by absorbing them onto its surface through weak electrostatic forces.

      Further Reading:

      Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.

      In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.

      Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.

      Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.

      There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A child develops pain, swelling, induration, and a rash following a tetanus vaccination....

    Incorrect

    • A child develops pain, swelling, induration, and a rash following a tetanus vaccination. The child is subsequently discovered to have suffered the Arthus reaction.
      Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has occurred in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      The Arthus reaction is a response that occurs when antigen/antibody complexes are formed in the skin after an antigen is injected. Although rare, these reactions can happen after receiving vaccines that contain tetanus toxoid or diphtheria toxoid. They are classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

      Arthus reactions are characterized by pain, swelling, induration, hemorrhage, and sometimes necrosis. Typically, these symptoms appear 4-12 hours after vaccination.

      Type III hypersensitivity reactions occur when insoluble antigen-antibody complexes accumulate in different tissues and are not effectively cleared by the body’s innate immune cells. This leads to an inflammatory response in the affected tissues.

      Some other examples of type III hypersensitivity reactions include immune complex glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, serum sickness, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A 45 year old woman is brought into the emergency department after intentionally...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old woman is brought into the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on a significant amount of amitriptyline following the end of a relationship. You order an ECG. What ECG changes are commonly seen in cases of amitriptyline overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolongation of QRS

      Explanation:

      TCA toxicity can be identified through specific changes seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Sinus tachycardia, which is a faster than normal heart rate, and widening of the QRS complex are key features of TCA toxicity. These ECG changes occur due to the blocking of sodium channels and muscarinic receptors (M1) by the medication. In the case of an amitriptyline overdose, additional ECG changes may include prolongation of the QT interval, an R/S ratio greater than 0.7 in lead aVR, and the presence of ventricular arrhythmias such as torsades de pointes. The severity of the QRS prolongation on the ECG is associated with the likelihood of adverse events. A QRS duration greater than 100 ms is predictive of seizures, while a QRS duration greater than 160 ms is predictive of ventricular arrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia or torsades de pointes.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization. Amiodarone should

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - A 22 year old student presents to the emergency department with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old student presents to the emergency department with a complaint of headache and nausea persisting for the last 24 hours. He reports feeling unwell shortly after he finished moving his belongings into his newly shared student accommodation. Carbon monoxide poisoning is suspected. What test will confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb) blood levels are utilized for the identification of carbon monoxide poisoning. COHb is the substance produced when carbon monoxide attaches to haemoglobin. It is important to note that carbaminohemoglobin (also known as carbaminohaemoglobin, carboxyhemoglobin, and carbohemoglobin) is the compound formed when carbon dioxide binds to hemoglobin, and should not be mistaken for COHb.

      Further Reading:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) is a dangerous gas that is produced by the combustion of hydrocarbon fuels and can be found in certain chemicals. It is colorless and odorless, making it difficult to detect. In England and Wales, there are approximately 60 deaths each year due to accidental CO poisoning.

      When inhaled, carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin in the blood, forming carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb). It has a higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen, causing a left-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve and resulting in tissue hypoxia. This means that even though there may be a normal level of oxygen in the blood, it is less readily released to the tissues.

      The clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity can vary depending on the severity of the poisoning. Mild or chronic poisoning may present with symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and weakness. More severe poisoning can lead to intoxication, personality changes, breathlessness, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, seizures, blurred vision or blindness, deafness, extrapyramidal features, coma, or even death.

      To help diagnose domestic carbon monoxide poisoning, there are four key questions that can be asked using the COMA acronym. These questions include asking about co-habitees and co-occupants in the house, whether symptoms improve outside of the house, the maintenance of boilers and cooking appliances, and the presence of a functioning CO alarm.

      Typical carboxyhaemoglobin levels can vary depending on whether the individual is a smoker or non-smoker. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers may have levels below 10%. Symptomatic individuals usually have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%.

      When managing carbon monoxide poisoning, the first step is to administer 100% oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered for individuals with a COHb concentration of over 20% and additional risk factors such as loss of consciousness, neurological signs, myocardial ischemia or arrhythmia, or pregnancy. Other management strategies may include fluid resuscitation, sodium bicarbonate for metabolic acidosis, and mannitol for cerebral edema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A 65-year-old patient arrives at the hospital after an acute digoxin overdose. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient arrives at the hospital after an acute digoxin overdose. She is experiencing nausea and complaining of irregular heartbeats.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason to administer DigiFab to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged seizures

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.

      The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:

      Acute digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Potassium level >5 mmol/l
      – Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
      – Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
      – Digoxin level >12 ng/ml

      Chronic digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      – Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - You are informed that a 45-year-old individual is en route to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • You are informed that a 45-year-old individual is en route to the emergency department after inhaling an unidentified gas that was intentionally released on a commuter train. Authorities suspect a potential terrorist attack and recommend checking the patient for signs of organophosphate poisoning. What clinical feature would be anticipated in a case of organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drooling saliva

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate poisoning is characterized by a set of symptoms known as SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastric cramps, Emesis). Additionally, individuals affected may experience pinpoint pupils, profuse sweating, tremors, and confusion. Organophosphates serve as the foundation for various weaponized nerve agents like Sarin and VX, which were infamously employed by the terrorist group Aum Shinrikyo during multiple attacks in Tokyo in the mid-1990s. While SLUDGE is a commonly used acronym to recall the clinical features, it is important to note that other symptoms such as pinpoint pupils, profuse sweating, tremors, and confusion are not included in the acronym.

      Further Reading:

      Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.

      When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.

      To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.

      Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.

      Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.

      After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend following...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. He is agitated, confused and is experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 110 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. It is difficult to obtain a history from him as he is mumbling. You also note that he appears flushed and his skin is warm to the touch.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      This patient exhibits clinical features that are consistent with the ingestion of a drug that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the central and peripheral nervous system. There are several anticholinergic drugs commonly used in clinical practice. Some examples include antihistamines like promethazine and diphenhydramine, typical and atypical antipsychotics such as haloperidol and quetiapine, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine, antidepressants like tricyclic antidepressants, and antispasmodics like hyoscine butylbromide. Other sources of anticholinergic effects can come from plants like datura species and certain mushrooms.

      When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in both the central and peripheral nervous system. The central inhibition leads to an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma and seizures. The peripheral inhibition can cause dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

      In summary, the ingestion of an anticholinergic drug can result in a toxidrome characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of these drugs and to recognize the clinical features associated with their ingestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a medical condition during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a medical condition during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experienced delayed onset labor and premature closure of the ductus arteriosus.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac sodium

      Explanation:

      The use of NSAIDs in the third trimester of pregnancy is linked to several risks. These risks include delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus, which is a condition where bilirubin causes brain dysfunction. Additionally, there is a slight increase in the risk of first-trimester abortion if NSAIDs are used early in pregnancy.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose a significant risk.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimester, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This drug can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can result in grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, this drug can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride. Crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, this drug may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: This drug can cause maternal liver damage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 45-year-old man has developed drug-induced lupus after starting a new medication.
    What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has developed drug-induced lupus after starting a new medication.
      What is the PRIMARY cause of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydralazine

      Explanation:

      The drugs that have the highest association with the development of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. While some of the other medications mentioned in this question have also been reported to cause drug-induced lupus, the strength of their association is much weaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of paracetamol. The patient states that he “wants to end it all” and refuses to stay in hospital and receive treatment. His wife insists that he must be treated because “he is not thinking clearly”.

      Which blood test is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of liver damage in paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: INR

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol overdose is the most common overdose in the U.K. and is also the leading cause of acute liver failure. The liver damage occurs due to a metabolite of paracetamol called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s glutathione stores and directly harms liver cells. Severe liver damage and even death can result from an overdose of more than 12 g or > 150 mg/kg body weight.

      The clinical manifestations of paracetamol overdose can be divided into four stages:

      Stage 1 (0-24 hours): Patients may not show any symptoms, but common signs include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort.

      Stage 2 (24-48 hours): Right upper quadrant pain and tenderness develop, along with the possibility of hypoglycemia and reduced consciousness.

      Stage 3 (48-96 hours): Hepatic failure begins, characterized by jaundice, coagulopathy, and encephalopathy. Loin pain, haematuria, and proteinuria may indicate early renal failure.

      Stage 4 (> 96 hours): Hepatic failure worsens progressively, leading to cerebral edema, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and ultimately death.

      The earliest and most sensitive indicator of liver damage is a prolonged INR, which starts to rise approximately 24 hours after the overdose. Liver function tests (LFTs) typically remain normal until 18 hours after the overdose. However, AST and ALT levels then sharply increase and can exceed 10,000 units/L by 72-96 hours. Bilirubin levels rise more slowly and peak around 5 days.

      The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is a highly effective antidote, but its efficacy diminishes rapidly if administered more than 8 hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions exceeding 75 mg/kg are considered significant.

      Acetylcysteine should be given based on a 4-hour level or administered empirically if the presentation occurs more than 8 hours after a significant overdose. If the overdose is staggered or the timing is uncertain, empirical treatment is also recommended. The treatment regimen is as follows:

      – First dose: 150 mg/kg in 200 mL 5% glucose over 1 hour
      – Second dose 50 mg/kg in 500 mL 5% glucose over 4 hours
      – Third dose 100 mg/kg in 1000 mL 5% glucose over 16 hours

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being discovered confused and drowsy by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level. Upon reviewing the salicylate result, you initiate a urinary alkalinisation protocol. Which metabolic imbalance is linked to urinary alkalinisation and necessitates careful monitoring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Urinary alkalinisation, which involves the intravenous administration of sodium bicarbonate, carries the risk of hypokalaemia. It is important to note that both alkalosis and acidosis can cause shifts in potassium levels. In the case of alkalinisation, potassium is shifted from the plasma into the cells. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor the patient for hypokalaemia by checking their potassium levels every 1-2 hours.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A 62-year-old woman with a history of hypertension comes to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with a history of hypertension comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing her medications, you find out that she is taking losartan as part of her treatment.
      Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eplerenone

      Explanation:

      Potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone and eplerenone, can raise the chances of developing hyperkalemia when taken alongside ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, and angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, like losartan. Additionally, eplerenone can also heighten the risk of hypotension when co-administered with losartan.

      For more information, please refer to the BNF section on losartan interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested an excessive amount of his lithium medication. You measure his lithium level.
      At what level are toxic effects typically observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The therapeutic range for lithium typically falls between 0.4-0.8 mmol/l, although this range may differ depending on the laboratory. In general, the lower end of the range is the desired level for maintenance therapy and treatment in older individuals. Toxic effects are typically observed when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few of his mother's ibuprofen tablets 30 minutes ago. The child is currently showing no symptoms and is stable. The attending physician recommends giving a dose of activated charcoal. The child weighs 15 kg.
      What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 g orally

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A 28-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance after intentionally swallowing 17 tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance after intentionally swallowing 17 tablets of 300 mg aspirin. The overdose occurred three hours ago.
      What is true regarding her treatment in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No specific antidote is available in this case

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning is a fairly common form of poisoning that can lead to organ damage and death if not treated promptly. The symptoms of salicylate poisoning include nausea, vomiting, ringing in the ears, hearing loss, excessive sweating, dehydration, rapid breathing, flushed skin, and high fever in children. In severe cases, convulsions, swelling of the brain, coma, kidney failure, fluid in the lungs, and unstable heart function can occur.

      The treatment for salicylate poisoning involves stabilizing the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation as needed, preventing further absorption of the poison, enhancing its elimination from the body, correcting any metabolic abnormalities, and providing supportive care. Unfortunately, there is no specific antidote available for salicylates. If a large amount of salicylate has been ingested within the past hour (more than 4.5 grams in adults or more than 2 grams in children), gastric lavage (stomach pumping) and administration of activated charcoal (50 grams) are recommended to reduce absorption and increase elimination.

      Medical investigations for salicylate poisoning should include measuring the level of salicylate in the blood, analyzing arterial blood gases, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), checking blood glucose levels, assessing kidney function and electrolyte levels, and evaluating blood clotting. ECG abnormalities that may be present include widening of the QRS complex, AV block, and ventricular arrhythmias.

      The severity of salicylate poisoning is determined by the level of salicylate in the blood. Mild poisoning is defined as a salicylate level below 450 mg/L, moderate poisoning is between 450-700 mg/L, and severe poisoning is above 700 mg/L. In severe cases, aggressive intravenous fluid therapy is necessary to correct dehydration, and administration of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate the salicylate from the body. It is important to maintain a urine pH of greater than 7.5, ideally between 8.0-8.5. However, forced alkaline diuresis is no longer recommended. Life-threatening cases may require admission to the intensive care unit, intubation and ventilation, and possibly hemodialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 30 minutes ago. She is currently showing no symptoms and her vital signs are stable. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal NOT effective in decontaminating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high temperatures, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a zinc chloride solution. This creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This porous structure helps prevent the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The usual dosage of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to give the charcoal within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.

      However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. If the patient is unconscious or in a coma, there is a risk of aspiration, so the charcoal should not be given. Similarly, if seizures are likely to occur, there is a risk of aspiration and the charcoal should be avoided. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, there is a risk of obstruction, so activated charcoal should not be used in such cases.

      Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with various drugs and toxins, including aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in treating overdose with substances such as iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.

      There are some potential adverse effects associated with activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhaling the charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - You observe that a patient's temperature has risen to 41.5ºC after rapid sequence...

    Incorrect

    • You observe that a patient's temperature has risen to 41.5ºC after rapid sequence induction. You are worried that the patient might be experiencing malignant hyperthermia. What is typically the earliest and most frequent clinical manifestation of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increasing end tidal CO2

      Explanation:

      The earliest and most common clinical indication of malignant hyperthermia is typically an increase in end tidal CO2 levels.

      Further Reading:

      Malignant hyperthermia is a rare and life-threatening syndrome that can be triggered by certain medications in individuals who are genetically susceptible. The most common triggers are suxamethonium and inhalational anaesthetic agents. The syndrome is caused by the release of stored calcium ions from skeletal muscle cells, leading to uncontrolled muscle contraction and excessive heat production. This results in symptoms such as high fever, sweating, flushed skin, rapid heartbeat, and muscle rigidity. It can also lead to complications such as acute kidney injury, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis. Treatment involves discontinuing the trigger medication, administering dantrolene to inhibit calcium release and promote muscle relaxation, and managing any associated complications such as hyperkalemia and acidosis. Referral to a malignant hyperthermia center for further investigation is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A 22-year-old man is brought in by ambulance having taken an overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man is brought in by ambulance having taken an overdose of his father's diazepam tablets.

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate initial drug treatment in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil IV 200 μg

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for benzodiazepines that can be beneficial in certain situations. It acts quickly, taking less than 1 minute to take effect, but its effects are short-lived and only last for less than 1 hour. The recommended dosage is 200 μg every 1-2 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3mg per hour.

      It is important to avoid using Flumazenil if the patient is dependent on benzodiazepines or is taking tricyclic antidepressants. This is because it can trigger a withdrawal syndrome in these individuals, potentially leading to seizures or cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - A 35-year-old woman is given a medication during the advanced stages of pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is given a medication during the advanced stages of pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experiences respiratory depression and develops a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      During the later stages of pregnancy, the use of diazepam has been linked to respiratory depression in newborns and a withdrawal syndrome. There are several drugs that can have adverse effects during pregnancy, and the list below outlines the most commonly encountered ones.

      ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if given in the second and third trimesters. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can lead to ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, including diazepam, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome when administered late in pregnancy. Calcium-channel blockers can cause phalangeal abnormalities if given in the first trimester and fetal growth retardation if given in the second and third trimesters. Carbamazepine can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol is associated with grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, when administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.

      Lithium, if given in the first trimester, poses a risk of fetal cardiac malformations. In the second and third trimesters, it can result in hypotonia, lethargy, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, goiter, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing his medications, you find out that he is taking warfarin as part of his treatment.
      Which ONE of the following beverages should he avoid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranberry juice

      Explanation:

      Warfarin has been found to heighten the likelihood of bleeding events when consumed alongside specific juices, such as cranberry juice and grapefruit juice. As a result, individuals who are taking warfarin should be cautioned against consuming these beverages. For more information on this topic, please refer to the BNF section on warfarin interactions and the interaction between warfarin and cranberry juice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance in the management...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance in the management of a 48-year-old woman who was saved from a residential fire. The initial evaluation reveals signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of cyanide poisoning. Which of the following antidotes would be suitable for administering to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) recognizes four antidotes that can be used to treat cyanide poisoning: Hydroxycobalamin, Sodium thiosulphate, Sodium nitrite, and Dicobalt edetate. When managing cyanide toxicity, it is important to provide supportive treatment using the ABCDE approach. This includes administering supplemental high flow oxygen, providing hemodynamic support (including the use of inotropes if necessary), and administering the appropriate antidotes. In the UK, these four antidotes should be readily available in Emergency Departments according to the RCEM/NPIS guideline on antidote availability. Hydroxocobalamin followed by sodium thiosulphate is generally the preferred treatment if both options are available. Healthcare workers should be aware that patients with cyanide poisoning may expel HCN through vomit and skin, so it is crucial to use appropriate personal protective equipment when caring for these patients.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - You observe that a patient's temperature has risen to 41.5ºC after undergoing rapid...

    Incorrect

    • You observe that a patient's temperature has risen to 41.5ºC after undergoing rapid sequence induction. You are worried that the patient might have developed malignant hyperthermia. What is the primary drug used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for malignant hyperthermia is dantrolene. Dantrolene works by blocking the release of calcium through calcium channels, resulting in the relaxation of skeletal muscles.

      Further Reading:

      Malignant hyperthermia is a rare and life-threatening syndrome that can be triggered by certain medications in individuals who are genetically susceptible. The most common triggers are suxamethonium and inhalational anaesthetic agents. The syndrome is caused by the release of stored calcium ions from skeletal muscle cells, leading to uncontrolled muscle contraction and excessive heat production. This results in symptoms such as high fever, sweating, flushed skin, rapid heartbeat, and muscle rigidity. It can also lead to complications such as acute kidney injury, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis. Treatment involves discontinuing the trigger medication, administering dantrolene to inhibit calcium release and promote muscle relaxation, and managing any associated complications such as hyperkalemia and acidosis. Referral to a malignant hyperthermia center for further investigation is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - You conduct a medication review on a 68-year-old man with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • You conduct a medication review on a 68-year-old man with a history of angina. He is currently prescribed 10 mg bisoprolol once daily and GTN spray as needed. However, he continues to experience symptoms.
      Which ONE medication should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers, like bisoprolol, and verapamil have a strong negative effect on the force of ventricular contraction. When these medications are taken together, they can significantly reduce ventricular contraction and lead to a slow heart rate, known as bradycardia. Additionally, the risk of developing AV block is increased. In certain situations, this combination can result in severe low blood pressure or even a complete absence of heart rhythm, known as asystole. Therefore, it is important to avoid using these medications together to prevent these potentially dangerous effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the pills she takes for insomnia. She informs you that the pill she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She consumed the pills approximately 2 hours ago. She is currently experiencing tachycardia, with her most recent heart rate reading being 120 beats per minute. She weighs 65 kg. You administer a dose of propranolol, but there is no improvement in her condition.
      Which of the following treatments could now be given to support her cardiovascular system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High dose insulin – euglycaemic therapy

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.

      The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.

      2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.

      3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.

      4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.

      5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - A 65-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She complains of nausea, extreme fatigue, and overall feeling unwell.
      What is the indication for using DigiFab in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significant gastrointestinal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.

      The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:

      Acute digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Potassium level >5 mmol/l
      – Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
      – Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
      – Digoxin level >12 ng/ml

      Chronic digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      – Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - You are overseeing the care of a patient who has received intravenous lipid...

    Incorrect

    • You are overseeing the care of a patient who has received intravenous lipid emulsion. As the patient recovers over the next hour, it is important to continue monitoring for which side effect of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Lipid emulsion is known to cause pancreatitis as a common side effect. According to the AAGBI guidelines, patients who are given lipid emulsion should be closely monitored with regular clinical evaluations. This includes conducting amylase or lipase tests daily for two days after receiving the emulsion.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - You evaluate a 60-year-old woman with impaired glucose tolerance that was initially identified...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 60-year-old woman with impaired glucose tolerance that was initially identified after starting a different medication.
      Which ONE medication is NOT linked to impaired glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Certain medications can lead to impaired glucose tolerance, which can affect the body’s ability to regulate blood sugar levels. These drugs include thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide, loop diuretics such as furosemide, steroids like prednisolone, beta-blockers like atenolol, and nicotinic acid. Additionally, medications like tacrolimus and cyclosporine have also been associated with impaired glucose tolerance. However, it is important to note that calcium-channel blockers like amlodipine do not have this effect on glucose tolerance. It is crucial for individuals taking these medications to monitor their blood sugar levels and consult with their healthcare provider if any concerns arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 35-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experiences multiple significant birth defects, such as neural tube, craniofacial, and limb abnormalities.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit for these anomalies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate is considered the most high-risk anti-epileptic drug during pregnancy. A recent review found that up to 40% of children born to women who took sodium valproate while pregnant experienced some form of adverse effect. These effects include a 1.5% risk of neural tube defects and an increased risk of cardiac, craniofacial, and limb defects. Additionally, there is a significant risk of neurodevelopmental problems in childhood.

      Here is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose a significant risk.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimester, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This drug can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can result in gray baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, this drug can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, this drug may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: Maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia are potential adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of the potential diagnoses is methaemoglobinaemia. If the diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is confirmed, which of the following treatments would be the most appropriate to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      If IV methylene blue is obtained, it is typically used to treat a specific cause. However, if there is no response to methylene blue, alternative treatments such as hyperbaric oxygen or exchange transfusion may be considered. In cases where the cause is NADH-methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency, ascorbic acid can be used as a potential treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.

      Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.

      Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.

      Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.

      Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 32 year old male with a previous diagnosis of depression is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male with a previous diagnosis of depression is admitted to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of amitriptyline tablets. When would it be appropriate to start administering sodium bicarbonate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: QRS > 100ms on ECG

      Explanation:

      Prolonged QRS duration is associated with an increased risk of seizures and arrhythmia. Therefore, when QRS prolongation is observed, it is recommended to consider initiating treatment with sodium bicarbonate.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - A 72-year-old woman has been referred to the Emergency Department by her primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman has been referred to the Emergency Department by her primary care physician after a review of her digoxin prescription. Her physician reports that her current digoxin levels are elevated.
      At what digoxin level is toxicity typically observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 nmol/L

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to manage heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It works by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase in the myocardium, which slows down the ventricular response and has a positive effect on the heart’s contraction. Although less commonly used nowadays, digoxin still plays a role in certain cases.

      One advantage of digoxin is its long half-life, allowing for once-daily maintenance doses. However, it is important to monitor the dosage to ensure it is correct and to watch out for factors that may lead to toxicity, such as renal dysfunction and hypokalemia. Once a steady state has been achieved, regular monitoring of plasma digoxin concentrations is not necessary unless there are concerns.

      In atrial fibrillation, the effectiveness of digoxin treatment is best assessed by monitoring the ventricular rate. The target range for plasma digoxin concentration is 1.0-1.5 nmol/L, although higher levels of up to 2 nmol/L may be needed in some cases. It is important to note that the plasma concentration alone cannot reliably indicate toxicity, but levels above 2 nmol/L significantly increase the risk. To manage hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity, a potassium-sparing diuretic or potassium supplementation may be prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - A 70-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition. Upon reviewing her medications, you discover that she is taking furosemide as part of her management.

      Which ONE of the following drugs should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      When furosemide and SSRI drugs are prescribed together, there is a higher chance of developing hyponatraemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. Additionally, there is an increased risk of hypokalaemia, which can potentially lead to a dangerous heart rhythm disorder called torsades de pointes. It is important to note that co-prescribing furosemide with citalopram should be avoided due to these risks. For more information, you can refer to the section on furosemide interactions in the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose of paracetamol tablets 45 minutes ago. He is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of his blood circulation. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an excessive amount of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further inquiry, you uncover that he has overdosed on quetiapine. You consult with your supervisor about the case, and she clarifies that the symptoms of this type of poisoning are caused by the blocking of central and peripheral acetylcholine receptors.
      What is one of the clinical effects that arises from the blockade of central acetylcholine receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.

      The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 42 year old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after confessing to taking a significant overdose of amitriptyline following a recent breakup. The patient later experiences a seizure. Which of the following anticonvulsant medications should not be used in TCA overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should not be given phenytoin.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 32-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of medication. He experiences nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of medication. He experiences nausea, perspiration, and ringing in the ears. His arterial blood gas reveals a respiratory alkalosis, and his ECG displays an elongation of the QRS complex.
      Which drug is he most likely to have overdosed on?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning is a fairly common form of poisoning that can lead to organ damage and death if not treated promptly. Some common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, ringing in the ears, hearing loss, excessive sweating, and dehydration. Additionally, individuals may experience rapid breathing, flushed skin, and high fever, particularly in children. In severe cases, convulsions, swelling of the brain, coma, kidney failure, fluid accumulation in the lungs unrelated to heart problems, and unstable cardiovascular function may occur.

      Early on in the overdose, arterial blood gas analysis typically reveals a respiratory alkalosis due to overstimulation of the respiratory center. As the overdose progresses, especially in moderate to severe cases, a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap may develop as a result of elevated levels of protons in the blood.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities that may be observed include widening of the QRS complex, atrioventricular (AV) block, and ventricular arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - You assess a 20-year-old woman who has ingested a combination of drugs 30...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 20-year-old woman who has ingested a combination of drugs 30 minutes prior to her arrival at the emergency department. You contemplate the use of activated charcoal to minimize the absorption of the ingested substances. Which of the following is not susceptible to the effects of activated charcoal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a useful treatment for many drug poisonings, but it is not effective against certain types of poisonings. To remember these exceptions, you can use the mnemonic PHAILS. This stands for Pesticides (specifically organophosphates), Hydrocarbons, Acids (strong), alkalis (strong), alcohols (such as ethanol, methanol, and ethylene glycol), Iron, Lithium, and Solvents.

      Further Reading:

      Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.

      In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.

      Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.

      Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.

      There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A 45 year old comes to the emergency department with swelling of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old comes to the emergency department with swelling of the lips and tongue that developed slowly over the past 3 hours. There is no accompanying rash. The patient denies consuming anything unusual and has no known allergies. The patient recently began taking multiple new medications after experiencing a heart attack one month ago. You suspect that the patient is experiencing non-allergic drug induced angioedema. What is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of non-allergic drug induced angioedema is ACE inhibitors. Symptoms usually appear several days to weeks after beginning the medication. It is important to note that penicillin and NSAIDs are the primary drug culprits for angioedema, but they trigger it through an IgE mediated allergic mechanism, resulting in both angioedema and urticaria. The onset of symptoms in these cases typically occurs within minutes to hours after exposure.

      Further Reading:

      Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.

      Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.

      HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.

      The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.

      The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.

      In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 67 year old individual experiences muscle rigidity and fever after being intubated....

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old individual experiences muscle rigidity and fever after being intubated. Your supervisor instructs you to administer dantrolene. What is the mechanism of action of dantrolene?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits calcium efflux from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      Dantrolene works by blocking the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle cells. This reduces the amount of calcium available to bind to troponin on actin filaments, which in turn decreases the muscle’s ability to contract and reduces energy usage.

      Further Reading:

      Malignant hyperthermia is a rare and life-threatening syndrome that can be triggered by certain medications in individuals who are genetically susceptible. The most common triggers are suxamethonium and inhalational anaesthetic agents. The syndrome is caused by the release of stored calcium ions from skeletal muscle cells, leading to uncontrolled muscle contraction and excessive heat production. This results in symptoms such as high fever, sweating, flushed skin, rapid heartbeat, and muscle rigidity. It can also lead to complications such as acute kidney injury, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis. Treatment involves discontinuing the trigger medication, administering dantrolene to inhibit calcium release and promote muscle relaxation, and managing any associated complications such as hyperkalemia and acidosis. Referral to a malignant hyperthermia center for further investigation is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - A 32-year-old woman is given trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection while in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is given trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection while in her second trimester of pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the baby develops a birth defect.
      What is the most probable abnormality that will occur as a result of using this drug during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neural tube defect

      Explanation:

      During the first trimester of pregnancy, the use of trimethoprim is linked to an increased risk of neural tube defects because it antagonizes folate. If it is not possible to use an alternative antibiotic, it is recommended that pregnant women taking trimethoprim also take high-dose folic acid. However, the use of trimethoprim in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is considered safe.

      Below is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimesters, they can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): They can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, they can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, they can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: It can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: It can cause grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, they may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, it can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, it may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: It can cause maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: It can lead to maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 42-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with suspected methanol poisoning....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with suspected methanol poisoning. You collect a blood gas sample. What acid-base disturbance is commonly associated with methanol poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised anion gap acidosis

      Explanation:

      Methanol poisoning is linked to an increase in anion gap acidosis.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - A 60-year-old woman has developed a thick cord of tissue on the sole...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has developed a thick cord of tissue on the sole of her left foot. She has developed a flexion deformity with her toes curled downwards. She is unable to straighten them. She has a history of epilepsy, which is well managed with her current anticonvulsant medication. A picture of her foot deformity is displayed below:
      What is the MOST LIKELY anticonvulsant that is responsible for this deformity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      This individual has developed Dupuytren’s contracture, which is a hand deformity characterized by a fixed flexion caused by palmar fibromatosis. The only anticonvulsant treatment believed to be connected to the development of Dupuytren’s contracture is phenytoin. Additionally, other conditions associated with its occurrence include liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, alcoholism, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology & Poisoning (3/7) 43%
Passmed