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  • Question 1 - Infusion with which of the following blood products is most likely to result...

    Correct

    • Infusion with which of the following blood products is most likely to result in an urticarial reaction?

      Rewritten: Infusion of which blood product is most likely to cause urticarial reactions?

      Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      Transfusion of packed red cells is frequently associated with pyrexia as an adverse event, while infusion of FFP often leads to urticaria as the most common adverse event.

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      114.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 24-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She is hesitant...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She is hesitant about using hormonal methods due to potential side effects and inquires about the 'temperature method'. This method involves monitoring her temperature regularly to track her menstrual cycle.

      What does an increase in temperature signify in this cycle?

      Your Answer: Menses

      Correct Answer: Ovulation

      Explanation:

      Following ovulation, the body temperature increases, which can be used as a method of behavioural contraception. By measuring and plotting the temperature each day, patients can identify their fertile window and use alternative contraception during this time. However, this method is less effective than hormonal contraception. The rise in temperature is due to the increase in progesterone levels, which is maintained after fertilisation. The initiation of the follicular phase and menses do not cause a rapid rise in temperature, as the progesterone levels are typically low during these phases. A peak in oestrogen does not affect the body temperature.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucus thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old, first-time pregnant woman is currently in the second stage of labor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old, first-time pregnant woman is currently in the second stage of labor, actively pushing to deliver her baby. The estimated weight of the baby is slightly above average, which has caused a prolonged second stage of labor. Eventually, the baby is delivered, but the patient experiences a second-degree perineal tear. The tear is immediately sutured to prevent bleeding. What is a risk factor for perineal tears?

      Your Answer: Spontaneous vaginal delivery

      Correct Answer: Primigravida

      Explanation:

      The only correct risk factor for perineal tears is being a primigravida. Other factors such as IUGR, spontaneous vaginal delivery, and caesarian section do not increase the risk of perineal tears. However, macrosomia and instrumental delivery are known risk factors for perineal tears.

      Understanding Perineal Tears: Classification and Risk Factors

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has provided guidelines for their classification. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with varying degrees of severity depending on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex, rectal mucosa, and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, delivering a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and support during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By understanding the classification and risk factors associated with perineal tears, healthcare providers can better prepare for and manage this common complication of childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      127.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset left-sided weakness...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset left-sided weakness in his arm and leg, along with difficulty forming coherent sentences. The symptoms resolve after 40 minutes, and a diagnosis of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is made. What investigation is most appropriate for identifying the source of the emboli responsible for the TIA?

      Your Answer: Carotid artery doppler ultrasound

      Explanation:

      A carotid artery doppler ultrasound is a recommended investigation for patients with a TIA to identify atherosclerosis in the carotid artery, which can be a source of emboli. This can be treated surgically with carotid endarterectomy. Brain MRI is useful for identifying areas of ischaemia in the brain, but cannot determine the source of emboli. CT Head is only recommended if an alternative diagnosis is suspected, and CT pulmonary angiogram is not useful for identifying arterial sources of emboli in ischaemic stroke.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      69
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old patient has been diagnosed with diabetic nephropathy and is being prepared...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient has been diagnosed with diabetic nephropathy and is being prepared for dialysis. During testing, it was discovered that the patient has an increased level of parathyroid hormone in their bloodstream. What is the function of parathyroid hormone?

      Your Answer: To promote loss of phosphate in the urine

      Explanation:

      The Role of Parathyroid Hormone in Calcium and Phosphate Regulation

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. It works on the bone to release calcium into the bloodstream and interstitial fluid through bone resorption. PTH also works on the kidney to increase the activity of the 1-alpha hydroxylase enzyme, which activates vitamin D, promoting increased calcium absorption from the gut. Additionally, PTH reduces the amount of calcium lost in the urine and increases the amount of phosphate lost in the urine by altering the renal tubular threshold for phosphate.

      However, in cases of hyperparathyroidism, excessive PTH is produced at an inappropriate time, leading to elevated calcium concentrations and low phosphate concentrations in the blood. This can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including bone pain, kidney stones, and osteoporosis. Therefore, it is important to maintain proper levels of PTH to ensure healthy calcium and phosphate regulation in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - At what level is the hilum of the right kidney located? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what level is the hilum of the right kidney located?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      Renal Anatomy: Understanding the Structure and Relations of the Kidneys

      The kidneys are two bean-shaped organs located in a deep gutter alongside the vertebral bodies. They measure about 11cm long, 5cm wide, and 3 cm thick, with the left kidney usually positioned slightly higher than the right. The upper pole of both kidneys approximates with the 11th rib, while the lower border is usually alongside L3. The kidneys are surrounded by an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which contains pyramidal structures that terminate at the renal pelvis into the ureter. The renal sinus lies within the kidney and contains branches of the renal artery, tributaries of the renal vein, major and minor calyces, and fat.

      The anatomical relations of the kidneys vary depending on the side. The right kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, and transversus abdominis, while the left kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, transversus abdominis, stomach, pancreas, spleen, and distal part of the small intestine. Each kidney and suprarenal gland is enclosed within a common layer of investing fascia, derived from the transversalis fascia, which is divided into anterior and posterior layers (Gerotas fascia).

      At the renal hilum, the renal vein lies most anteriorly, followed by the renal artery (an end artery), and the ureter lies most posteriorly. Understanding the structure and relations of the kidneys is crucial in diagnosing and treating renal diseases and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are developing a research plan to investigate the impact of prolonged fasting...

    Incorrect

    • You are developing a research plan to investigate the impact of prolonged fasting on lipid stores in elderly individuals. Your aim is to examine the influence of diet on the breakdown of fats. To achieve this, you opt to track the levels of the rate limiting enzyme involved in this process following a high glucose load.

      Which specific enzyme will you be monitoring?

      Your Answer: Phosphofructokinase-1

      Correct Answer: Carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I

      Explanation:

      Carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of lipolysis, while glycogen phosphorylase is the rate limiting enzyme for glycogenolysis. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the citric acid cycle, while phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of glycolysis. Finally, glycogen synthase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenesis.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A three-week-old infant is brought to the paediatrician with jaundice that started in...

    Correct

    • A three-week-old infant is brought to the paediatrician with jaundice that started in the first week of life. The mother reports that the baby has undergone a week of phototherapy, but there has been no improvement in the yellowing. Additionally, the mother has observed that the baby's urine is dark and stools are pale.

      The baby was born via normal vaginal delivery at 39 weeks' gestation without any complications or injuries noted during birth.

      On examination, the baby appears well and alert, with normal limb movements. Scleral icterus is present, but there is no associated conjunctival pallor. The head examination is unremarkable, and the anterior fontanelle is normotensive.

      An abdominal ultrasound reveals an atretic gallbladder with irregular contours and an indistinct wall, associated with the lack of smooth echogenic mucosal lining.

      What additional findings are likely to be discovered in this infant upon further investigation?

      Your Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Explanation:

      The elevated level of conjugated bilirubin in the baby suggests biliary atresia, which is characterized by prolonged neonatal jaundice and obstructive jaundice. The ultrasound scan also shows the gallbladder ghost triad, which is highly specific for biliary atresia. This condition causes post-hepatic obstruction of the biliary tree, resulting in conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

      Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia may be caused by prehepatic factors such as haemolysis. However, ABO or Rhesus incompatibility between mother and child typically presents within the first few days of life and resolves with phototherapy. The absence of injury and infection in the child makes these causes unlikely.

      A positive direct Coombs test indicates haemolysis, but this is unlikely as the child did not present with conjunctival pallor and other symptoms of haemolytic disease of the newborn. Raised lactate dehydrogenase is also not found in this baby, which further supports the absence of haemolysis.

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects neonatal children, causing an obstruction in the flow of bile due to either obliteration or discontinuity within the extrahepatic biliary system. The cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed that infectious agents, congenital malformations, and retained toxins within the bile may contribute to its development. Biliary atresia occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births and is more common in females than males.

      There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common, affecting over 90% of cases. Symptoms of biliary atresia typically present in the first few weeks of life and include jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and appetite and growth disturbance. Diagnosis is made through various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver.

      Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, with medical intervention including antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery. Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. Prognosis is good if surgery is successful, but in cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      182.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant pain and nausea that has persisted for 12 hours. She has oedema in her hands and feet, and a urine dip reveals protein 2+. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, and her most recent blood tests are as follows:

      - Hb: 95 g/l
      - Platelets: 60 * 109/l
      - WBC: 5.5 * 109/l
      - Bilirubin: 88 µmol/l
      - ALP: 526 u/l
      - ALT: 110 u/l

      What is the definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Platelet transfusion

      Correct Answer: Delivery of the fetus

      Explanation:

      The woman has HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia. Management includes magnesium sulfate, dexamethasone, blood pressure control, and blood product replacement. Delivery of the fetus is the only cure.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      307.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff injury. The GP intends to assess the subscapularis muscle. What is the most suitable special test to examine the subscapularis muscle?

      Your Answer: Empty can test

      Correct Answer: Lift-off test

      Explanation:

      If a lift-off test shows abnormal results, it suggests that the subscapularis muscle may be involved.

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems and can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction. The signs of a rotator cuff injury include tenderness over the anterior acromion and a painful arc of abduction. The painful arc of abduction is typically between 60 and 120 degrees for subacromial impingement, while for rotator cuff tears, the pain may be in the first 60 degrees. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further damage and improve shoulder function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      14.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Reproductive System (0/3) 0%
Neurological System (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
General Principles (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/1) 0%
Passmed