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  • Question 1 - You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred by her general practitioner. He has stated in his letter that the patient has vertebral tenderness at the level of the spine of her scapula, which you confirm by examination.
      What level is this vertebrae if the patient is in her 60s?

      Your Answer: T1

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Identifying Vertebral Levels: Landmarks and Importance in Clinical Scenarios

      Being able to identify the vertebral level is crucial in clinical scenarios, especially following trauma. It allows for effective communication with clinicians who may not be on site or at a distant tertiary center. To identify the level of the vertebral spine, certain landmarks can be used. The spine of the scapula is at T3, the most inferior aspect of the scapula is at T7, the most superior aspect of the iliac crest is at L4, and the posterior superior iliac spine is at S2. C7 is the level of the vertebra prominens, making it a useful landmark for orientation. The spine of the scapula is not found at T1, but it is found at T2. Knowing these landmarks and their corresponding vertebral levels is essential for effective communication and diagnosis in clinical scenarios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      76.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of palpitations, tremors, sweating, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of palpitations, tremors, sweating, and diarrhoea. She has a medical history of gestational hypertension and type 1 diabetes, which is managed with insulin. The patient gave birth to her first child 8 weeks ago without any complications.

      Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 109 bpm, respiratory rate of 19 breaths/minute, temperature of 37.7ºC, oxygen saturation of 98%, blood pressure of 129/88 mmHg, and blood glucose of 4 mmol/L.

      What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for the thyrotoxicosis phase of postpartum thyroiditis is typically propranolol alone. This is because the condition is usually temporary and self-resolving, with thyroid function returning to normal within a year after childbirth. Carbimazole is not necessary as it is typically reserved for more severe cases of hyperthyroidism. Dexamethasone is not appropriate as it is used to treat thyroid storm, a complication of thyrotoxicosis that is not present in this case. Levothyroxine is also not indicated as it is used to treat hypothyroidism, which is the opposite of the patient’s current condition.

      Understanding Postpartum Thyroiditis: Stages and Management

      Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition that affects some women after giving birth. It is characterized by three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, and normal thyroid function. During the thyrotoxicosis phase, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, leading to symptoms such as anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. In the hypothyroidism phase, the thyroid gland becomes underactive, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. However, in the final stage, the thyroid gland returns to normal function, although there is a high recurrence rate in future pregnancies.

      Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients with postpartum thyroiditis, which suggests an autoimmune component to the condition. Management of postpartum thyroiditis depends on the stage of the condition. During the thyrotoxic phase, symptom control is the main focus, and propranolol is typically used. Antithyroid drugs are not usually used as the thyroid gland is not overactive. In the hypothyroid phase, treatment with thyroxine is usually necessary to restore normal thyroid function.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to properly diagnose and manage postpartum thyroiditis to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      147.1
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  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old male comes to his doctor complaining of pain and swelling in...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old male comes to his doctor complaining of pain and swelling in his left testis for the past week. He is sexually active and has had multiple partners of both genders in the last year. During the examination, the doctor finds that the left testis is tender and swollen, but the patient has no fever. The doctor takes urethral swabs to determine the most probable causative organism.

      What is the likely pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of acute epididymo-orchitis in sexually active young adults. This patient’s symptoms and signs are consistent with epididymo-orchitis, and the timing suggests this diagnosis over testicular torsion. While mumps can also cause epididymo-orchitis, it is less common and not supported by the absence of other symptoms. In men over 35 years old, E. coli is the most common cause, but given this patient’s age and sexual history, chlamydia is the most likely culprit. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the second most common cause in this age group.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and an abnormally wide neck. Upon karyotyping, it is discovered that she has monosomy X and 45X. During physical examination, mild aortic stenosis is observed. What congenital condition is most likely linked to this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Defects and Associated Genetic Abnormalities

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect that is often associated with Turner syndrome. Specifically, preductal coarctation of the aorta (infantile type) is common in individuals with Turner syndrome, as there is aortic stenosis proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. Transposition of the great vessels, on the other hand, is not associated with any congenital disease. Tetralogy of Fallot is often seen in individuals with di George syndrome. Postductal coarctation, which refers to the adult type of coarctation of the aorta, is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Finally, patent ductus arteriosus is not associated with any congenital disease. Understanding the relationship between congenital heart defects and genetic abnormalities can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is about to give birth to her first...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is about to give birth to her first child at 9-months gestation. The obstetrician decides to perform a caesarean section.
      Which of the following abdominal surgical incisions will the obstetrician most likely use to perform the procedure?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic incision

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Incisions for Surgical Procedures

      There are various types of incisions used for different surgical procedures. Here are some common types of incisions and their uses:

      1. Suprapubic Incision: Also known as the Pfannenstiel incision, this is the most common incision used for Gynaecological and obstetric operations like Caesarean sections. It is made at the pubic hairline.

      2. Transverse Incision just below the Umbilicus: This incision is usually too superior for a Caesarean section because the scar would be visible and does not provide direct access to the uterus as the Pfannenstiel incision.

      3. Right Subcostal Incision: This incision is used to access the gallbladder and biliary tree.

      4. Median Longitudinal Incision: This incision is not commonly used because of cosmetic scarring, as well as the fact that the linea alba is relatively avascular and can undergo necrosis if the edges are not aligned and stitched properly.

      5. McBurney’s Point Incision: This incision is used to access the vermiform appendix and is made at the McBurney’s point, which is approximately one-third of the distance of a line, the spino-umbilical line, starting at the right anterior superior iliac spine and ending at the umbilicus.

      In conclusion, the type of incision used for a surgical procedure depends on the specific needs of the operation and the surgeon’s preference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.7
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of 'abnormal pupils'. Upon examination,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of 'abnormal pupils'. Upon examination, it is observed that she has anisocoria, which is more noticeable in bright light, with her left pupil appearing smaller than her right. What is the most probable anatomical site that has been affected?

      Your Answer: Right ciliary ganglion

      Explanation:

      When an individual’s anisocoria worsens in bright light, it suggests that there may be an issue with the dilated pupil. In this case, the most probable cause of the problem is the right ciliary ganglion. The patient’s symptoms indicate a reduction in parasympathetic innervation to the right eye. As the right pupil is more dilated than the left, it is likely to be the abnormal pupil. This is because the eye is unable to constrict in response to light, making the pupillary asymmetry more noticeable as the normal eye constricts. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for pupil dilation, while the parasympathetic system is responsible for pupil constriction. Therefore, damage to the parasympathetic nervous system can result in unopposed sympathetic innervation to the eye, leading to pupillary dilation. The ciliary ganglion is the parasympathetic ganglion of the eye, and damage to the right ciliary ganglion can cause a mydriatic right eye. The patient is likely suffering from Adie’s-tonic pupil affecting her right eye.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.7
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her sister. The...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her sister. The patient is unresponsive, but the sister reports that the patient had an argument with her partner 4 hours ago and has since ingested at least 7 full packets of aspirin, with the intention of ending her life. The patient has a history of suicidal ideation. Along with other tests, a venous blood gas is taken upon arrival and again after 12 hours. What acid-base abnormalities would be present in this patient at t=0 and t=12?

      Your Answer: t=0: respiratory alkalosis, t=12: metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing aspirin (salicylate) poisoning, which initially results in respiratory alkalosis. It is important for the clinician to consider the possibility of the patient having consumed more aspirin than reported, as well as other substances. A comprehensive toxicological workup, including a salicylate level, paracetamol level, and urine toxicology screen, should be conducted alongside standard care.

      Salicylate overdose causes a biphasic response, with the initial stimulation of the CNS respiratory center leading to tachypnea and a subsequent decrease in PaCO2, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. This is followed by an anion gap metabolic acidosis, caused by the accumulation of organic acids, including lactic acid and ketoacids, as well as weak acid metabolites of aspirin. The timeframe for this shift is not definitive, but typically occurs within 12 hours.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      248.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode of psychosis. After assessment, he is diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. The consultant psychiatrist plans to initiate pimozide 2 mg daily. What baseline investigation and regular monitoring are required for this medication?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiography

      Explanation:

      Pimozide: An Effective Antipsychotic with Cardiac Risks

      Pimozide is a potent antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and psychosis. It works by blocking multiple neurotransmitter receptors, including dopamine D2 receptors, serotonin receptors, and acetylcholine receptors. However, its significant dopamine antagonistic properties can cause severe extrapyramidal side effects such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. Pimozide is also associated with the development of cardiac arrhythmias, including prolongation of the QT interval and supraventricular tachycardias. This can lead to sudden deterioration into ventricular tachycardia, torsades de pointes, and even ventricular fibrillation, which can be fatal. Therefore, baseline recording of the ECG and monthly review are mandatory while taking the drug, and any change in the QT interval duration should prompt discontinuation or reduction of the drug. Patients with pre-existing prolongation, concurrent use of other drugs that prolong the QT interval, or congenitally extended QT durations should not be started on this drug.

      Pregnancy is not a contraindication for the use of antipsychotic drugs, but women taking dopamine antagonists in the third trimester may deliver babies displaying transient extrapyramidal side effects. Most antipsychotic drugs do not affect renal function significantly, but pre-existing renal failure necessitates dose reduction. Pimozide is not known to be toxic to the lungs, and baseline chest x-ray is not required. While pimozide is an effective antipsychotic medication, its cardiac risks must be carefully monitored to prevent potentially fatal arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with an arm fracture and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with an arm fracture and bruising around her neck and on her abdomen. She is 12 weeks pregnant. While assessing her, you suspect that she may be a victim of domestic abuse. You enquire about this, but she quickly denies any issues at home with her husband, with whom she lives in a rural area. She instead tells you that these injuries were a result of her falling over at work.
      Which of the following factors would make her more likely to be a victim of domestic violence?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Factors that Influence Domestic Violence: A Case Study

      Domestic violence is a serious issue that affects many women worldwide. In this case study, we will explore the various factors that can influence domestic violence.

      Pregnancy is a significant risk factor for domestic violence, especially when unplanned. It is crucial to screen for domestic violence during antenatal visits as it can increase the risk of miscarriage, infection, or injury to the unborn child.

      Women aged 20-24 years are more likely to be victims of domestic violence than those aged over 25, according to the Office for National Statistics. However, this patient’s age is less likely to be a factor.

      Unemployment is another factor that can increase the risk of domestic violence. Women who are unemployed are almost twice as likely to experience domestic violence than those who are employed. However, this patient has not specified that she is unemployed and is not the most likely option here.

      Contrary to popular belief, women living in urban areas are more likely to experience domestic violence than those who live in rural areas, according to the Office for National Statistics.

      Finally, women who are married are less likely to be victims of domestic violence than those who are divorced or separated.

      In conclusion, domestic violence is a complex issue that can be influenced by various factors. It is essential to identify and address these factors to prevent and reduce the incidence of domestic violence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which bone fracture is most effectively diagnosed using an oblique radiological view? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which bone fracture is most effectively diagnosed using an oblique radiological view?

      Your Answer: Navicular

      Correct Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      Scaphoid Injuries and Diagnosis

      The scaphoid is the carpal bone that is most commonly injured in the wrist, with only distal radius fractures being more frequent. These injuries are often misdiagnosed as sprained wrists, and they are most commonly seen in young men. To diagnose a scaphoid injury, routine radiographs are taken, including anteroposterior, lateral, and oblique views. The AP view is done with a mildly clenched fist and the wrist in ulnar deviation, while the lateral view is done with the wrist in a neutral position.

      When the scaphoid is injured, the lateral view will show a disruption of the alignment of the distal radius, lunate, and capitate bones, which should be collinear. If radiographs are negative despite clinical suspicion of a scaphoid fracture, the patient’s wrist is immobilized and radiographs are repeated in two weeks. If plain films continue to be negative but clinical suspicion remains, further imaging should be pursued.

      Bone scan and computed tomography have been used with about equal accuracy to detect occult fractures, while polytomography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can also be used, although they are more expensive. MRI can demonstrate much more anatomy and, because of increasing affordability, may soon become the standard for visualizing occult fractures and ligament disruptions. Overall, early and accurate diagnosis of scaphoid injuries is crucial for proper treatment and prevention of long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Radiology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in...

    Incorrect

    • You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. She had a witnessed syncopal episode while walking to the toilet with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure of 85/56 mmHg. She is orientated to time, place and person but is complaining of feeling light-headed.
      How would you manage this patient’s ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone 300 mg loading dose intravenously (iv), followed by 900 mg over 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia: Synchronised Cardioversion and Amiodarone

      Ventricular tachycardia is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends synchronised electrical cardioversion as the first-line treatment for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is timed to coincide with the R or S wave of the QRS complex, reducing the risk of ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.

      Administering an unsynchronised shock could coincide with the T wave, triggering fibrillation of the ventricles and leading to a cardiac arrest. If three attempts of synchronised cardioversion fail to restore sinus rhythm, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg iv should be given over 10–20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion.

      Amiodarone is the first-line treatment for uncompromised patients with tachycardia. A loading dose of 300 mg is given iv, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. Digoxin and metoprolol are not recommended for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used for atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      40181.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What items must be removed before cremation? ...

    Correct

    • What items must be removed before cremation?

      Your Answer: Pacemaker

      Explanation:

      Implants that require removal before cremation

      When it comes to cremation, certain implants can pose a serious health and safety risk and must be removed beforehand. These include bone growth stimulators, radioactive iodine-125 seeds used in brachytherapy to the prostate, cardiac resynchronisation therapy devices, dental mercury amalgam, fixion nails, hydrocephalus programmable shunts, implantable cardioverter defibrillators, implantable drug pumps, implantable loop recorders, neurostimulators, pacemakers, and ventricular assist devices. However, cochlear implants do not need to be removed as they will not explode during cremation, although some crematoriums may still require their removal. It is important to note that if new implants with batteries contained in the internal device become available in the future, they will need to be removed before cremation. Medical practitioners can find more information on this topic in the Guidance for registered medical practitioners on the Notification of Deaths Regulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of fatigue, lethargy, and abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of fatigue, lethargy, and abdominal discomfort with constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined. On examination, she appears pale and thin with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg. Her laboratory results show low potassium levels, high bicarbonate levels, and a slightly elevated ESR. A chest X-ray is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and Electrolyte Imbalances

      Anorexia nervosa is a possible diagnosis for a patient with low sodium and potassium levels, especially if vomiting is present. Interestingly, despite the severe weight loss associated with anorexia nervosa, albumin levels tend to remain normal. However, if albumin levels are reduced, other causes such as sepsis should be considered. Addison’s disease and Conn’s syndrome are also conditions that can cause electrolyte imbalances, but their clinical presentations differ from that of anorexia nervosa. Cushing’s disease, on the other hand, is not a likely diagnosis in this case. It is important to consider the underlying cause of electrolyte imbalances in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      129
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  • Question 14 - A 14-year-old girl presents with proteinuria at 1500 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with proteinuria at 1500 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, her urine reveals the presence of significant amounts of large proteins, including albumin and transferrin. What could be the possible reason for her proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Pre-renal proteinuria

      Correct Answer: Glomerular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Glomerular Proteinuria

      Although a small amount of protein is typically found in urine, an elevated level of protein indicates a potential health issue. The diagram below illustrates the various sources of protein in urine, with glomerular proteinuria being the likely cause in this case due to the presence of larger proteins. This type of proteinuria can result in significant loss of protein through urine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of glomerular proteinuria and seek appropriate medical treatment to prevent further damage to the kidneys. Proper management can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old woman is preparing for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy with general anesthesia...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is preparing for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy with general anesthesia and inquires about when she should discontinue her combined oral contraceptive pill. What is the best recommendation?

      Your Answer: 2 days prior

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks prior

      Explanation:

      Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pill four weeks before the operation is recommended due to a higher likelihood of venous thromboembolism.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      255.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 76-year-old retired teacher with Alzheimer’s disease is seen in the Memory Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old retired teacher with Alzheimer’s disease is seen in the Memory Clinic with her son. The son believes that his mother’s Alzheimer’s dementia has worsened considerably in the last few months. He observes that his mother is becoming more forgetful and is struggling with dressing and eating regular meals. The specialist evaluates the patient and decides to initiate memantine treatment.
      What is a typical adverse effect of memantine?

      Your Answer: Parkinsonism

      Correct Answer: Headaches

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Memantine

      Memantine is a medication commonly used for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease. As an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) antagonist, it works by reducing levels of glutamate in the brain. While it can be effective in managing symptoms, it is important to be aware of potential side-effects.

      One common side-effect of memantine is headaches. Other possible adverse effects include constipation, abnormal gait, hypertension, and central nervous system issues such as psychosis and suicidal ideation. However, it is important to note that Parkinsonism and Mobitz type II block are not known side-effects of this medication.

      It is also worth noting that memantine can cause hypertension rather than hypotension, and may lead to constipation rather than diarrhoea. By understanding the potential side-effects of memantine, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage symptoms and ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      169607.7
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive high-risk HPV and low-grade dyskaryosis on cytology. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical cancer screening sample is positive for high-risk HPV and shows cytological abnormalities, the next step according to guidelines is to refer the patient for a colposcopy. During this procedure, the cervix is closely examined to identify any disease. If significant abnormalities are found, loop excision of the transformation zone may be necessary. It is not appropriate to return the patient to normal recall without further investigation. Repeating the sample in 3 months is not necessary for a patient with high-risk HPV and requires specialist assessment. However, repeating the sample in 3 months may be considered if the initial sample was inadequate. Similarly, repeating the sample in 12 months is not the next step and may only be recommended after colposcopy. At this stage, the patient needs further assessment. Repeating the sample in 12 months may be considered if the patient has high-risk HPV with normal cytological findings.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.9
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  • Question 18 - A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a check-up. The baby was born...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a check-up. The baby was born at 38 weeks gestation and weighed 4.5kg at birth. During the examination, the doctor observes adduction and internal rotation of the right arm. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erb's palsy

      Explanation:

      If a baby has a birth weight greater than 4kg, regardless of their gestational age, they are diagnosed with foetal macrosomia. This condition can cause dystocia, which may result in injuries to both the mother and baby. Dystocia may also require an operative vaginal delivery or Caesarean-section. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of damage to the upper brachial plexus, resulting in Erb’s palsy. This condition is characterized by the arm being adducted and internally rotated, with the forearm pronated, commonly referred to as the ‘waiter’s tip’. Damage to the lower brachial plexus can cause Klumpke’s palsy, which commonly affects the nerves that innervate the muscles of the hand.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      777.8
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  • Question 19 - A 57-year-old male with diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male with diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his left foot. He has noticed a dragging sensation when walking for the past two days. The patient has been diabetic for two years and has had no previous abnormalities during annual check-ups.

      During the examination, the patient is unable to dorsiflex his left foot and evert it. However, his right foot is unaffected, and plantar flexion and inversion are normal. What sensory abnormality would you anticipate finding in conjunction with this motor defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensory loss over the lateral part of the leg and dorsum of the foot

      Explanation:

      Common Peroneal Nerve Neuropathy in a Diabetic Patient

      A male patient with diabetes has developed a mononeuropathy that is consistent with a common peroneal nerve neuropathy. This condition results in a loss of sensation in the lateral part of the leg and dorsum of the foot, while the fifth toe remains unaffected. Although peripheral neuropathy may be expected in diabetic patients, the sudden onset of this condition and previously normal findings suggest otherwise.

      In summary, this patient’s symptoms are indicative of a common peroneal nerve neuropathy, which is a type of mononeuropathy that affects the peroneal nerve. This condition is commonly seen in diabetic patients and can result in a loss of sensation in specific areas of the leg and foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward, develops a warm, erythematosus, tender and oedematous left leg. A few days later, her breathing, which was improving with antibiotic treatment, suddenly deteriorated.
      Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      The Best Imaging Method for Dual Pathology: Resolving Pneumonia and Pulmonary Embolus

      Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the best imaging method for a patient with dual pathology of resolving pneumonia and a pulmonary embolus secondary to a deep vein thrombosis. This method uses intravenous contrast to image the pulmonary vessels and can detect a filling defect within the bright pulmonary arteries, indicating a pulmonary embolism.

      A V/Q scan, which looks for a perfusion mismatch, may indicate a pulmonary embolism, but would not be appropriate in this case due to the underlying pneumonia making interpretation difficult.

      A D-dimer test should be performed, but it is non-specific and may be raised due to the pneumonia. It should be used together with the Wells criteria to consider imaging.

      A chest X-ray should be performed to ensure there is no worsening pneumonia or pneumothorax, but in this case, a pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis and therefore CTPA is required.

      An arterial blood gas measurement can identify hypoxia and hypocapnia associated with an increased respiratory rate, but this is not specific to a pulmonary embolism and many pulmonary diseases can cause this arterial blood gas picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman has presented for her 36-week antenatal care check. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman has presented for her 36-week antenatal care check. On the ultrasound scan (USS), there is a possibility of oesophageal atresia. The patient has been having an uneventful pregnancy so far and this is her first pregnancy. Her blood tests have all been normal, without signs of any infections or diabetes. Her blood pressure at the antenatal care check was 124/87 mmHg and she is not obese.
      What finding would you expect on fetal USS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      Fetal Abnormalities: Causes and Characteristics

      Polyhydramnios, oligohydramnios, macrosomia, fetal oedema, and microcephaly are all fetal abnormalities with distinct causes and characteristics. Polyhydramnios is an accumulation of amniotic fluid caused by impaired swallowing due to oesophageal atresia. Oligohydramnios, on the other hand, is a lack of amniotic fluid caused by various factors such as chromosomal abnormalities and renal agenesis. Macrosomia, or a large-for-gestational age baby, is commonly caused by gestational diabetes. Fetal oedema, also known as hydrops fetalis, is characterised by an excess of fluid in the fetus and can be caused by immunological or non-immunological factors. Finally, microcephaly is a congenital abnormality characterised by a small head circumference and can be caused by various factors such as chromosomal abnormalities and infections. Understanding the causes and characteristics of these fetal abnormalities is crucial for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - As a junior doctor at a pediatric clinic, your next patient is a...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor at a pediatric clinic, your next patient is a 4-year-old boy who appears agitated and tearful. His mother reports that he has been eating less than usual for the past few days. During your examination, you observe numerous blisters on his palms and around his lips. Additionally, he has a fever. What is the best course of action based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise symptomatic treatment only

      Explanation:

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral illness caused by the coxsackievirus A16. It is easily spread between children, especially at nurseries, and is self-limiting. The child may experience some general malaise, but the vesicles do not cause discomfort. It is important to differentiate from chicken pox, as the lesions are isolated to the palms, soles, and mouth and heal without crusting. A stat dose of benzylpenicillin is not necessary, as the lesions are vesicles rather than a rash. Blood cultures are not needed, as they will not affect the management of the disease. Steroids, whether in cream or oral form, are not a recognized treatment for hand, foot and mouth disease. Hydrocortisone cream may be considered for an eczematous rash, but it is not appropriate for this diagnosis.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with symptoms of fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with symptoms of fever and headache after returning from a trip to central America. He has no significant medical history or regular medications. Upon investigation, he is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax and completes a course of acute treatment without adverse effects. It is confirmed that he has no allergies. What is the appropriate treatment to initiate at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primaquine

      Explanation:

      Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment

      Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome, and Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.

      The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is observed in Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae has a cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage, which may cause relapse following treatment.

      In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. However, in areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. Pregnant women should avoid ACTs. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.

      Overall, non-falciparum malaria has distinct causes, features, and treatment options that should be considered for effective management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in his left eye. Upon further questioning, he reports that he has also had a temporal headache for around 2 weeks and has felt generally unwell. He denies any jaw pain when chewing but does have some scalp tenderness. Blood tests are taken which show an ESR of 65mm/hr.
      He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and he smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 25 - A previously fit and healthy 28-year-old woman attended the GP surgery complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A previously fit and healthy 28-year-old woman attended the GP surgery complaining of headache. It is a unilateral, throbbing headache that has lasted up to 24 h. She also describes some photophobia. There have been a few recurrent attacks over the last month. Neurological examination is unremarkable. She is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill.
      Which of the following is most suitable to reduce the frequency of the headache she described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Migraine Treatment Options: Recommendations and Considerations

      When it comes to prophylaxis of migraine, NICE recommends considering medication if patients are experiencing more than two attacks per month. The two drugs of choice are topiramate and propranolol, with the decision ultimately based on the patient’s preference and any co-existing medical conditions. However, propranolol is advised for women of Childbearing age due to the potential teratogenic effects of topiramate and its ability to reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives.

      Paracetamol, on the other hand, has no benefits in the prophylaxis of migraine.

      In the acute treatment of migraine, zolmitriptan is offered as a combination therapy with a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or paracetamol.

      It’s important to note that topiramate should be avoided in Childbearing age women and those taking contraceptives. Additionally, pizotifen is no longer recommended by NICE due to its side-effects profile, which includes weight gain and drowsiness.

      Overall, the treatment options for migraine require careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old primigravida presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old primigravida presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent vomiting. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing this symptom for the past four days. Upon examination, you note that she has a fast heart rate, low blood pressure upon standing, and her urine test shows the presence of ketones. What is the most significant risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, is associated with multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, young maternal age, first pregnancy, and obesity. The condition may be caused by high beta hCG and oestrogen levels, nutritional deficiencies, and gastric dysfunction due to high progesterone levels. Prolonged and frequent vomiting can be problematic.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with her partner, concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with her partner, concerned about her recent behavior. She has been having trouble sleeping for the past week and has been very active at night, working tirelessly on her new art project, which she believes will be a groundbreaking masterpiece. When questioned further, she admits to feeling very energetic and has been spending a lot of money on new materials for her project. Her partner is worried that this may be a recurrence of her known psychiatric condition. She is currently taking olanzapine and was recently started on fluoxetine for low mood six weeks ago. She has no significant family history. The couple has been actively trying to conceive for the past six months.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Managing Mania in Bipolar Disorder: Treatment Options

      When a patient with bipolar disorder develops mania while on an antidepressant and antipsychotic, it is important to adjust their medication regimen. According to NICE guideline CG185, the first step is to stop the antidepressant. In this case, the patient was on olanzapine and fluoxetine, so the fluoxetine should be discontinued.

      While lithium is a first-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, it is contraindicated in this patient as she is trying to conceive. Instead, the patient could be switched from olanzapine to quetiapine, another antipsychotic that is similar in effectiveness.

      It is important not to stop both the antipsychotic and antidepressant, as this could worsen the patient’s condition. By adjusting the medication regimen, the patient can be effectively managed during a manic episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders

      Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.

      One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.

      Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.

      In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old man has suffered a stab wound to his left upper abdomen,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has suffered a stab wound to his left upper abdomen, directly below the costal margin in the mid-axillary line. Which organ is the most probable to have been harmed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colon

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Abdominal Organs and Stab Wound Location

      The location of a stab wound in the mid-axillary line, immediately inferior to the costal margin, is likely to affect the colon, specifically the splenic flexure of the colon. The spleen can also be affected if the wound is deep enough. Other structures may also be affected depending on the depth and direction of the wound. However, the small intestine, left kidney, spleen, and stomach are unlikely to be affected in this scenario due to their respective locations in the abdomen. It is important to understand the anatomy of abdominal organs to determine potential injuries in cases of trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old man is in hospice care and his family is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is in hospice care and his family is concerned about his lack of food and water intake. They fear that this may cause him discomfort and pain.
      What is the most crucial side-effect of dehydration due to poor oral intake that needs to be addressed in an actively dying patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Xerostomia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects of Dehydration in End-of-Life Care

      Dehydration is a common occurrence in end-of-life care, but it is important to understand its effects on the patient. Xerostomia, or dry mouth, can be treated to improve the patient’s comfort and reduce family anxiety. However, dehydration does not cause pain or hunger in the dying patient. Low urine output may eventually occur, but it is not important to treat as it does not cause distress. Drowsiness may result from dehydration and uraemia, or the build-up of toxins from impaired kidney function. Understanding these effects can help caregivers provide appropriate care for the dying patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Radiology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Miscellaneous (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
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