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Question 1
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A 27-year-old woman, who has had eczema and asthma since childhood, comes for her yearly asthma check-up. She has been using her salbutamol inhaler more frequently over the last 3 months and is concerned that it may be due to getting a new kitten. In allergic asthma, which cell is present in excessive amounts?
Your Answer: Eosinophils
Explanation:The patient’s medical background indicates that she may have atopic asthma. It is probable that her symptoms have worsened and she has had to use more salbutamol reliever due to an allergy to her new kitten’s animal dander.
Individuals with allergic asthma have been found to have increased levels of eosinophils in their airways. The severity of asthma is linked to the number of eosinophils present, as they contribute to long-term airway inflammation by causing damage, blockages, and hyperresponsiveness.
The immediate symptoms of asthma after exposure are caused by mast cell degranulation.
Asthma is a common respiratory disorder that affects both children and adults. It is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways, resulting in reversible bronchospasm and airway obstruction. While asthma can develop at any age, it typically presents in childhood and may improve or resolve with age. However, it can also persist into adulthood and cause significant morbidity, with around 1,000 deaths per year in the UK.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing asthma, including a personal or family history of atopy, antenatal factors such as maternal smoking or viral infections, low birth weight, not being breastfed, exposure to allergens and air pollution, and the hygiene hypothesis. Patients with asthma may also suffer from other atopic conditions such as eczema and hay fever, and some may be sensitive to aspirin. Occupational asthma is also a concern for those exposed to allergens in the workplace.
Symptoms of asthma include coughing, dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness, with coughing often worse at night. Signs may include expiratory wheezing on auscultation and reduced peak expiratory flow rate. Diagnosis is typically made through spirometry, which measures the volume and speed of air during exhalation and inhalation.
Management of asthma typically involves the use of inhalers to deliver drug therapy directly to the airways. Short-acting beta-agonists such as salbutamol are the first-line treatment for relieving symptoms, while inhaled corticosteroids like beclometasone dipropionate and fluticasone propionate are used for daily maintenance therapy. Long-acting beta-agonists like salmeterol and leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast may also be used in combination with other medications. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a newer approach that combines ICS and a fast-acting LABA in a single inhaler for both daily maintenance and symptom relief. Recent guidelines recommend offering a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA for patients on SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled, and considering MART for those with poorly controlled asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and unintentional weight loss over the past 3 months. The GP refers him to the respiratory clinic for suspected lung cancer, and further investigations reveal a stage 2 squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. What is the most frequently associated paraneoplastic phenomenon with this type of cancer?
Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)
Explanation:The correct answer is PTHrP, which is a paraneoplastic syndrome often associated with squamous cell lung cancer. PTHrP is a protein that functions similarly to parathyroid hormone and can cause hypercalcaemia when secreted by cancer cells.
Acanthosis nigricans is another paraneoplastic phenomenon that is commonly associated with gastric adenocarcinoma. This condition causes hyperpigmentation of skin folds, such as the armpits.
The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is often linked to small cell lung cancer. This condition involves the hypersecretion of ADH, which leads to dilutional hyponatraemia and its associated symptoms.
Carcinoid syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome that is typically associated with neuroendocrine tumours that have metastasised to the liver. This condition causes hypersecretion of serotonin and other substances, resulting in facial flushing, palpitations, and gastrointestinal upset.
Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic with recent onset of asthma and frequent nosebleeds. Laboratory results reveal elevated eosinophil counts and a positive pANCA test.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
Explanation:The presence of adult-onset asthma, eosinophilia, and a positive pANCA test strongly suggests a diagnosis of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) in this patient.
Although GPA can cause epistaxis, the absence of other characteristic symptoms such as saddle-shaped nose deformity, haemoptysis, renal failure, and positive cANCA make EGPA a more likely diagnosis.
Polyarteritis Nodosa, Temporal Arteritis, and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis have distinct clinical presentations that do not match the symptoms exhibited by this patient.
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss Syndrome)
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), previously known as Churg-Strauss syndrome, is a type of small-medium vessel vasculitis that is associated with ANCA. It is characterized by asthma, blood eosinophilia (more than 10%), paranasal sinusitis, mononeuritis multiplex, and pANCA positivity in 60% of cases.
Compared to granulomatosis with polyangiitis, EGPA is more likely to have blood eosinophilia and asthma as prominent features. Additionally, leukotriene receptor antagonists may trigger the onset of the disease.
Overall, EGPA is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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During a clinical trial examining oxygen consumption during exercise, participants aged 50 and above engage in high-intensity interval training exercises for 20 minutes while physiological measurements are recorded. What is the primary factor that is likely to restrict oxygen supply to tissues after the training session?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low pCO2
Explanation:When the pCO2 is low, the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left, which increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. This can limit the amount of oxygen available to tissues. On the other hand, high levels of pCO2 (hypercarbia) shift the curve to the right, decreasing the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen and increasing oxygen availability to tissues.
In acidosis, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG) increases, which binds to deoxyhaemoglobin and shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right. This results in increased oxygen release from the blood into tissues.
Hyperthermia also shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, while the performance-enhancing substance myo-inositol trispyrophosphate (ITPP) has a similar effect.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 15-year-old girl who has been brought to your GP clinic by her father. She has not yet started to develop breasts or have her first period. She does not seem worried, but her father is concerned. Sophie has a history of eczema and has been using topical steroids for several years. When her father leaves the room, she also admits to occasionally using tanning beds.
What could be a possible cause of delayed puberty in Sophie?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Delayed puberty can be caused by various factors, with constitutional delay being the most common cause. However, other causes must be ruled out before diagnosing constitutional delay. Some of these causes include chronic illnesses like kidney disease and Crohn’s disease, malnutrition from conditions such as anorexia nervosa, cystic fibrosis, and coeliac disease, excessive physical exercise, psychosocial deprivation, steroid therapy, hypothyroidism, tumours near the hypothalamo-pituitary axis, congenital anomalies like septo-optic dysplasia and congenital panhypopituitarism, irradiation treatment, and trauma such as surgery or head injury.
Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.
Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP with complaints of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain that worsens upon leaning forward. Sinusitis is suspected. Which sinus is typically affected in this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maxillary
Explanation:The maxillary sinus is susceptible to infections due to its drainage from the top. This sinus is the most frequently affected in cases of sinusitis. While frontal sinusitis can lead to intracranial complications, it is still less common than maxillary sinusitis.
The petrosal sinus is not a bone cavity, but rather a venous structure situated beneath the brain.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old infant comes to your clinic with her mother who is concerned about her irritability, lack of appetite, and unusual behavior. The baby has been crying excessively and having trouble sleeping. The mother also noticed her pulling at her right ear. Upon examination, the baby appears tired but not sick and has no fever. During otoscopy, you observe erythema in the external auditory canal, but the tympanic membrane looks normal. Can you identify the correct order of the ossicles from lateral to medial as sound is transmitted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malleus, incus, stapes.
Explanation:The correct order of the three middle ear bones is malleus, incus, and stapes, with the malleus being the most lateral and attaching to the tympanic membrane. The incus lies between the other two bones and articulates with both the malleus and stapes, while the stapes is the most medial and has a stirrup-like shape, connecting to the oval window of the cochlea. When a young child presents with ear pain, it may not be obvious, so it is important to use an otoscope to examine the ears. In this case, the otoscopy showed redness in the external auditory canal, indicating otitis externa.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the embryonic origin of the pulmonary artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch
Explanation:The right pulmonary artery originates from the proximal portion of the sixth pharyngeal arch on the right side, while the distal portion of the same arch gives rise to the left pulmonary artery and the ductus arteriosus.
The Development and Contributions of Pharyngeal Arches
During the fourth week of embryonic growth, a series of mesodermal outpouchings develop from the pharynx, forming the pharyngeal arches. These arches fuse in the ventral midline, while pharyngeal pouches form on the endodermal side between the arches. There are six pharyngeal arches, with the fifth arch not contributing any useful structures and often fusing with the sixth arch.
Each pharyngeal arch has its own set of muscular and skeletal contributions, as well as an associated endocrine gland, artery, and nerve. The first arch contributes muscles of mastication, the maxilla, Meckel’s cartilage, and the incus and malleus bones. The second arch contributes muscles of facial expression, the stapes bone, and the styloid process and hyoid bone. The third arch contributes the stylopharyngeus muscle, the greater horn and lower part of the hyoid bone, and the thymus gland. The fourth arch contributes the cricothyroid muscle, all intrinsic muscles of the soft palate, the thyroid and epiglottic cartilages, and the superior parathyroids. The sixth arch contributes all intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except the cricothyroid muscle), the cricoid, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages, and is associated with the pulmonary artery and recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Overall, the development and contributions of pharyngeal arches play a crucial role in the formation of various structures in the head and neck region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with jaundice and a distended abdomen. He has a history of alcoholism and has been hospitalized before for acute alcohol withdrawal. During the examination, you observe spider naevi on his upper chest wall and detect a shifting dullness on abdominal percussion, indicating ascites. Further imaging and investigation reveal portal vein hypertension and cirrhosis.
Where does this vessel start?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:Portal hypertension is commonly caused by liver cirrhosis, often due to alcohol abuse. The causes of this condition can be categorized as pre-hepatic, hepatic, or post-hepatic, depending on the location of the underlying pathology. The primary factors contributing to portal hypertension are increased vascular resistance in the portal venous system and elevated blood flow in the portal veins. The portal vein originates at the transpyloric plane, which is situated at the level of the body of L1. Other significant structures found at this location include the neck of the pancreas, the spleen, the duodenojejunal flexure, and the superior mesenteric artery.
The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.
Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.
In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.
Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the medical assessment unit with sudden onset shortness of breath. She reports no cough or fever and has no other associated symptoms. She recently returned from a hiking trip in France and takes the oral contraceptive pill but no other regular medications. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day but drinks no alcohol. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and tachycardic with an elevated JVP. Her calves are soft and non-tender with no pitting oedema. Initial blood tests show a positive D-dimer and elevated CRP. What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin
Explanation:Treatment for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism
When a patient presents with risk factors for pulmonary embolism (PE) such as recent travel and oral contraceptive pill use, along with symptoms like tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia, it is important to consider the possibility of a significant PE. In such cases, treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be given promptly to prevent further complications. A low-grade fever is also common in venothromboembolic disease. Elevated JVP signifies significant right heart strain due to a significant PE, but maintained blood pressure is a positive sign.
The most common ECG finding in PE is an isolated sinus tachycardia, while the CXR may be clear, but prominent pulmonary arteries reflect pulmonary hypertension due to clot load in the pulmonary tree. A D-dimer test is recommended if the Wells score for PE is less than 4.
According to NICE guidelines on venous thromboembolic diseases, low molecular weight heparin is the appropriate initial treatment for suspected PE. It is important not to delay treatment to await CTPA unless it can be performed immediately. There is no evidence of pneumonia to warrant IV antibiotics. Unfractionated heparin may be considered for patients with an eGFR of less than 30, high risk of bleeding, or those undergoing thrombolysis, but this is not the case with this patient. Thrombolysis is not indicated unless there is haemodynamic instability, even in suspected large PEs.
In summary, prompt treatment with low molecular weight heparin is crucial in suspected cases of PE, and other treatment options should be considered based on individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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