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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing blue vision. He has started taking a high dose of Viagra to treat his erectile dysfunction, and you suspect that this medication may be the reason behind his visual changes. Which enzyme inhibition is primarily responsible for this side effect?
Your Answer: PDE-2
Correct Answer: PDE-6
Explanation:The Role of Phosphodiesterase-6 in Vision and the Side Effects of Viagra
Phosphodiesterase-6 plays a crucial role in the transmission of visual signals from rod cells in the retina to electrical signals in the brain. This enzyme is activated by changes in rhodopsin, which occur in response to exposure to light. However, high doses of Viagra, which is an inhibitor of PDE-5, can also inhibit PDE-6, leading to side effects such as blue vision. Patients may choose to reduce their dosage or tolerate these side effects in exchange for the improved sexual function that Viagra provides.
Overall, the role of PDE-6 in vision and the potential side effects of Viagra is important for both medical professionals and patients. By weighing the benefits and risks of this medication, individuals can make informed decisions about their sexual health and overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has recently had a parathyroidectomy for primary hyperparathyroidism. The surgery was challenging, with all four glands explored. The wound was left clean and dry, and a suction drain was inserted. However, on the ward, she becomes agitated and experiences stridor. Upon examination, her neck is soft, and the drain is empty. What is the initial treatment that should be attempted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous calcium gluconate
Explanation:Manipulation of the parathyroid glands can lead to a reduction in blood flow, causing a rapid decrease in serum PTH levels and potentially resulting in symptoms of hypocalcaemia such as neuromuscular irritability and laryngospasm. Immediate administration of intravenous calcium gluconate is crucial for saving the patient’s life. If there is no swelling in the neck and no blood in the drain, it is unlikely that there is a contained haematoma in the neck, which would require removal of skin closure.
Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body
Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.
PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.
Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.
Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening confusion and a two-week history of generalised headache. He has a significant medical history of HIV, diagnosed 12 years ago, and his sister reports that he has not been taking his medication for the past week. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38ºC, and nuchal rigidity is noted. A lumbar puncture reveals elevated opening pressure and encapsulated yeast forms in the cerebrospinal fluid. He is prescribed flucytosine along with another medication. What is the most likely side effect of the medication prescribed to him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from cryptococcus meningitis, which is common in individuals with HIV. The recommended treatment for this condition is a combination of amphotericin B and flucytosine. However, it is important to note that amphotericin B can cause hypokalaemia as a side effect. This occurs due to increased membrane permeability, which leads to potassium leakage from the cytoplasm into the tubular lumen in the kidneys. This can result in potassium wasting and exacerbate the patient’s condition. While vancomycin is known to cause Red Man syndrome, it is not associated with amphotericin B. Amphotericin B can also cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which can lead to polyuria and weight loss. However, it is not known to cause bullous pemphigoid.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide belong to? Is it a Class Ia, Ib, Ic, II, or IV agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class Ia agent
Explanation:The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics
The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.
Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.
Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.
Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.
Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.
Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.
It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a severely painful, reddened right-eye that has been going on for 6 hours. He also reports experiencing haloes around light and reduced visual acuity. The patient has a history of hypermetropia. Upon examination, the right-eye appears red with a fixed and dilated pupil and conjunctival injection.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma
Explanation:The correct diagnosis is acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is characterized by an increase in intra-ocular pressure due to impaired aqueous outflow. Symptoms include a painful red eye, reduced visual acuity, and haloes around light. Risk factors include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and age-related lens growth. Examination findings typically include a fixed dilated pupil with conjunctival injection. Treatment options include reducing aqueous secretions with acetazolamide and increasing pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine.
Anterior uveitis is an incorrect diagnosis, as it refers to inflammation of the anterior portion of the uvea and is associated with systemic inflammatory conditions. Ophthalmoscopy findings include an irregular pupil.
Central retinal vein occlusion is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it causes acute blindness due to thromboembolism or vasculitis in the central retinal vein. Ophthalmoscopy typically reveals severe retinal haemorrhages.
Infective conjunctivitis is another incorrect diagnosis, as it is characterized by sore, red eyes with discharge. Bacterial causes typically result in purulent discharge, while viral cases often have serous discharge.
Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, haloes around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What causes the 'eclipse phase' during the life-cycle of a virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initial viral entry into cells
Explanation:The Eclipse Phase of Viral Life-Cycle
The initial entry of viruses into cells is known as the eclipse phase of the viral life-cycle. When a person is infected with a virus, they receive an inoculating dose, some of which enters the bloodstream, causing viraemia. The inoculating viruses then enter cells to undergo replication, causing the viral load in venous blood to fall. This is because the virions are now intracellular.
After replication, the virions bud-off cells or cause host cell lysis, spilling into the blood and causing the viral count to rise again. In some viral infections, such as hepatitis B, there may be a phase of immune tolerance where the immune system does not respond to the virus. This allows for very high levels of viraemia without almost any host cell damage. However, the immune system will eventually recognize the presence of the virus and enter an immune responsive phase, leading to viral clearance and a decrease in viraemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John, a 25-year-old male, visits the clinic to have it removed. During the examination, it is observed that his left foot is in a plantar flexed position, indicating foot drop. Which nerve is typically impacted, resulting in foot drop?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Footdrop, which is impaired dorsiflexion of the ankle, can be caused by a lesion of the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves after wrapping around the neck of the fibula. The deep peroneal nerve is responsible for innervating muscles that control dorsiflexion of the foot, such as the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus. Damage to the common or deep peroneal nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles, leading to unopposed plantar flexion of the foot. The superficial peroneal nerve, on the other hand, innervates muscles that evert the foot. Other nerves that innervate muscles in the lower limb include the femoral nerve, which controls hip flexion and knee extension, the tibial nerve, which mainly controls plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, and the obturator nerve, which mainly controls thigh adduction.
The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least probable cause of an extended prothrombin time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acquired factor 12 deficiency
Explanation:Cholestatic jaundice and prolonged antibiotic therapy can lead to a deficiency in vitamin K.
Abnormal coagulation can be caused by various factors such as heparin, warfarin, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and liver disease. Heparin prevents the activation of factors 2, 9, 10, and 11, while warfarin affects the synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. DIC affects factors 1, 2, 5, 8, and 11, and liver disease affects factors 1, 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, and 11.
When interpreting blood clotting test results, different disorders can be identified based on the levels of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), prothrombin time (PT), and bleeding time. Haemophilia is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and normal bleeding time. On the other hand, von Willebrand’s disease is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and increased bleeding time. Lastly, vitamin K deficiency is characterized by increased APTT and PT levels, and normal bleeding time. Proper interpretation of these results is crucial in diagnosing and treating coagulation disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents to her doctor with a complaint of foot pain for the past week. The pain is located on the bottom of her heel and is most severe in the morning and after prolonged periods of sitting at her desk. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plantar fasciitis
Explanation:Understanding Plantar Fasciitis
Plantar fasciitis is a prevalent condition that causes heel pain in adults. The pain is typically more severe around the medial calcaneal tuberosity. To manage this condition, it is essential to rest the feet as much as possible. Wearing shoes with good arch support and cushioned heels can also help alleviate the pain. Additionally, insoles and heel pads may be useful in providing extra support and cushioning to the feet. By taking these steps, individuals with plantar fasciitis can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old first-time pregnant woman visits the antenatal clinic and has researched dietary limitations during pregnancy. What foods should she refrain from consuming?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Soft cheeses
Explanation:Pregnant women are advised to steer clear of soft cheeses as they have a higher risk of contracting Listeria infection. This infection is caused by Listeria monocytogenes, a gram-positive motile rod, which can be eliminated by cooking and pasteurisation. Therefore, consuming foods like raw/smoked meats and soft cheeses can lead to the transmission of this rare disease.
It is safe for pregnant women to consume packaged ice cream as it is usually pasteurised. However, ice cream made with unpasteurised milk or uncooked eggs may contain Salmonella.
Sea creatures like lobsters, swordfish, shrimp, and tuna are recommended for pregnant women as they are rich in iodine. Fetal hypothyroidism and impaired neurological development can occur due to iodine deficiency.
Understanding Listeria: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections in certain individuals. This Gram-positive bacillus has the unique ability to multiply at low temperatures, making it a common contaminant in unpasteurized dairy products. Those at highest risk for infection include the elderly, neonates, and individuals with weakened immune systems, particularly those taking glucocorticoids. Pregnant women are also at increased risk, as Listeria can lead to miscarriage and other complications.
Symptoms of Listeria infection can vary widely, ranging from gastroenteritis and diarrhea to more serious conditions like bacteraemia, flu-like illness, and central nervous system infections. In severe cases, Listeria can cause meningoencephalitis, ataxia, and seizures. Diagnosis typically involves blood cultures and cerebrospinal fluid analysis, which may reveal pleocytosis, raised protein, and reduced glucose.
Fortunately, Listeria is sensitive to certain antibiotics, including amoxicillin and ampicillin. In cases of Listeria meningitis, treatment typically involves a combination of IV amoxicillin/ampicillin and gentamicin. Pregnant women who develop Listeria infections may require treatment with amoxicillin, as fetal/neonatal infection can occur both transplacentally and vertically during childbirth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents to the oncologist with suspected lymphoma. She reports experiencing fever and night sweats, and has a history of glandular fever. Upon examination, cervical lymph nodes are found to be enlarged. A lymph node biopsy is performed and staining for a specific cell surface marker is conducted. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is confirmed, leading to a diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the cell surface marker associated with Reed-Sternberg cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD15
Explanation:Reed-Sternberg cells, which are present in individuals with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, express CD15. CD3 is present on all T cells, while T helper cells express CD4. CD16 binds to the Fc region of IgG.
Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions
Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.
Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukaemia and is undergoing chemotherapy. Following the start of treatment, he experiences acute renal failure and a significant increase in uric acid levels. What other electrolyte abnormality is likely to be present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia
Explanation:The individual has been diagnosed with tumour lysis syndrome, which is a dangerous complication that can arise when commencing chemotherapy for cancer, particularly for lymphoma and leukaemia. Tumour lysis syndrome encompasses a range of metabolic imbalances, such as elevated levels of potassium, phosphates, and uric acid, as well as reduced levels of calcium. These imbalances can result in severe complications, including acute kidney failure, irregular heartbeats, and seizures.
Understanding Tumour Lysis Syndrome
Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a life-threatening condition that can occur during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It is caused by the breakdown of tumour cells and the release of chemicals into the bloodstream. While it can occur without chemotherapy, it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Patients at high risk of TLS should be given prophylactic medication such as IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis.
TLS leads to a high potassium and high phosphate level in the presence of a low calcium. It should be suspected in any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of a high phosphate and high uric acid level. From 2004, TLS has been graded using the Cairo-Bishop scoring system, which takes into account laboratory and clinical factors.
It is important to be aware of TLS and take preventative measures to avoid its potentially fatal consequences. By understanding the causes and symptoms of TLS, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral numbness in his hands and feet, along with a feeling of muscle weakness that has been progressively worsening for the past 15 months. The man admits to avoiding hospitals and his GP, and has not reported these symptoms to anyone else. Upon examination, reduced bicep reflexes are noted bilaterally. Nerve conduction studies reveal evidence of peripheral nerve demyelination. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
Explanation:Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is a condition where the inflammation and infiltration of the endoneurium with inflammatory T cells are thought to be caused by antibodies. This results in the demyelination of peripheral nerves in a segmental manner.
CIDP is characterized by generalized symptoms and chronicity, and nerve conduction tests can reveal demyelination of the nerves. Guillain Barré syndrome (GBS) is an incorrect answer as it is more acute and often triggered by prior infection, particularly Campylobacter gastrointestinal infection. Diabetic neuropathy is also an incorrect answer as it typically presents as a focal peripheral neuropathy with sensory impairment. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is another incorrect answer as it involves the central nervous system and can present with additional signs/symptoms such as visual impairment and muscle stiffness. MS is diagnosed using an MRI scan and checking for oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Understanding Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by antibody-mediated inflammation resulting in segmental demyelination of peripheral nerves. This condition is more common in males than females and shares similar features with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS), with motor symptoms being predominant. However, CIDP has a more insidious onset, occurring over weeks to months, and is often considered the chronic version of GBS.
One of the distinguishing features of CIDP is the high protein content found in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Treatment for CIDP may involve the use of steroids and immunosuppressants, which is different from GBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the most powerful muscle for extending the hip?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gluteus maximus
Explanation:Muscles Acting on the Hip Joint
The hip joint is a synovial ball and socket joint that allows for a wide range of movements. There are several muscles that act over the hip, each with their own primary movement and innervation. The hip extensors include the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings, which are responsible for extending the hip joint. The hip flexors include the psoas major, iliacus, rectus femoris, and pectineus, which are responsible for flexing the hip joint. The hip abductors include the gluteus medius and minimus, as well as the tensor fascia latae, which are responsible for abducting the hip joint. Finally, the hip adductors include the adductor magnus, brevis, and longus, as well as the gracilis, which are responsible for adducting the hip joint.
The gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor, earning it the nickname of the power extensor of the hip. The hamstrings, while partially responsible for hip extension, are primarily responsible for knee flexion. However, their long course leaves them vulnerable to sports injuries. the muscles that act on the hip joint is important for both athletes and healthcare professionals in order to prevent and treat injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is receiving end-of-life care after being diagnosed with terminal lung cancer. She has been experiencing increased pain over the last 2 weeks and has been prescribed a syringe driver with subcutaneous fentanyl to help manage her pain.
What is the benefit of using fentanyl instead of morphine in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fentanyl has a faster onset than morphine
Explanation:Fentanyl is a potent opioid that provides faster pain relief than morphine due to its higher lipophilicity, allowing it to quickly penetrate the central nervous system. However, it is important to note that both fentanyl and morphine can cause constipation and are highly addictive. Additionally, fentanyl is significantly more potent than morphine, with a potency of 80-100 times greater.
Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses
Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.
Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.
The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic worried about her risk of developing Huntington's disease. Her mother was recently diagnosed with the condition and she wants to know if she can be tested. She also wants to understand why, if she tests positive, she may develop symptoms earlier than her mother did.
What is the underlying factor that causes this pattern in Huntington's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anticipation
Explanation:Trinucleotide repeat disorders such as Huntington’s disease, myotonic dystrophy, and fragile X-syndrome exhibit anticipation, where the age of onset of the condition decreases with each successive generation. This is caused by the repeated trinucleotide expanding further in each generation. Epigenetics, which studies changes in gene function that are heritable but do not involve changes in DNA sequence, is not relevant in the progression of Huntington’s symptoms across generations. Expressivity refers to the extent to which a genotype is expressed in an individual’s phenotype, and while Marfan’s disease has varied expressivity, Huntington’s does not. Modes of inheritance, such as autosomal recessive/dominant and X-linked, can affect the severity of a disease but are not responsible for the progressive reduction in age of onset seen in anticipation.
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman comes to your clinic to discuss the findings of recent blood tests that were conducted to investigate her fatigue. She has no significant medical history except for a past diagnosis of mild anxiety, which she no longer takes medication for. The test results indicate that she has iron-deficiency anemia and meets the criteria for expedited referral for gastrointestinal cancer screening. You recommend that she urgently undergoes endoscopy. However, she expresses her reluctance to undergo any further testing and only wants treatment for her anemia with iron supplements.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat him in accordance with his wishes but ensure that he is aware that the investigations are needed to rule out cancer, even though this may cause him distress
Explanation:Respecting Patient Autonomy in Medical Decision Making
In medical decision making, it is crucial to respect the autonomy of the patient. This means that the patient’s right to make decisions about their own health must be upheld, as long as they have the mental capacity to do so. In cases where a patient refuses what doctors consider to be the optimal treatment, it is important to remember that the patient still has the right to treatments that can help control their symptoms.
To enable the patient to make an informed decision, it is important to provide them with truthful information about their condition and the possible causes of their symptoms. However, this information should be presented in a sensitive and careful manner to minimize any harm or distress it may cause. It is also important to check with the patient how much information they want to know about their condition before discussing it with them.
In summary, respecting patient autonomy is a fundamental principle in medical decision making. This involves providing patients with truthful information about their condition and allowing them to make decisions about their own health, as long as they have the mental capacity to do so.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Law
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Question 18
Incorrect
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As a new resident on the medical assessment unit, you are attending a consultant-led ward round. A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol-related liver failure becomes agitated and threatens to punch the consultant. He displays coarse tremors in both hands and appears highly anxious.
The patient is a chronic alcoholic.
What is the preferred medication for managing his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:To prevent increased sedation, lorazepam is the preferred medication for alcohol withdrawal syndrome in patients with hepatic failure, rather than chlordiazepoxide. Naloxone is used for opioid overdose and respiratory depression caused by opioids, while flumazenil is not used for alcohol withdrawal management as it counteracts the effects of benzodiazepines.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What substance is most effective in obtaining the most precise measurement of the glomerular filtration rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inulin
Explanation:The decrease in renal function and muscle mass as one ages leads to a decline in creatinine levels. The kidney reabsorbs glucose, protein (amino acids), and PAH.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has visited her general practitioner complaining of pain during urination. She has no other symptoms and no significant medical or drug history. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the results show positive for nitrites and leukocytes. The general practitioner suspects a potential urinary tract infection and wants to prescribe antibiotics. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is brought to the GP by his wife. She reports that his behaviour has become increasingly erratic and that he often appears to be listening to something that she cannot hear.
During the consultation, the GP notices that he keeps standing up and sitting down again. When questioned on these movements, the patient says, 'I can't help it, my neighbour is controlling my legs.'
What symptom is the patient experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Passivity
Explanation:Passivity is the belief that one’s movements or sensations are controlled by an external force. Grandiose delusion is a false belief in one’s own superiority. Avolition is a decrease in motivation for purposeful activities. Catatonia is a state of unresponsiveness with repetitive movements or abnormal postures.
Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What role does the nucleolus play in eukaryotic cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To transcribe ribosomal RNA and assemble ribosomes
Explanation:The Nucleolus: Structure and Function
The nucleolus is a non-membrane-bound structure that takes up about a quarter of the nuclear volume. It is composed mainly of proteins and nucleic acids and is responsible for transcribing ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and assembling ribosomes in the cell. Nucleoli are formed in nucleolar organizing regions (NORs), which are also the regions of the genes for three of the four eukaryotic rRNAs.
During ribosome assembly, ribosomal proteins enter the nucleolus from the cytoplasm and begin to assemble on an rRNA precursor. As the pre-rRNA is cleaved to produce 5.8S, 18S, and 28S rRNAs, additional ribosomal proteins and the 5S rRNA (which is synthesized elsewhere in the nucleus) assemble to form preribosomal subunits. These subunits then exit the nucleolus into the cytoplasm and combine to produce the final 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits.
Overall, the nucleolus plays a crucial role in protein synthesis by producing the components necessary for ribosome assembly. Its unique structure and function make it an essential component of the cell’s machinery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of dysuria and penile discharge. He is concerned about having a sexually transmitted infection due to engaging in unprotected sex with multiple partners in the past month. During the examination, the clinician takes an urethral swab, smears it on a slide, and performs a gram stain. Upon examining the slide under the microscope, the clinician informs the man that he has probably contracted gonorrhoeae.
What would be the appearance of this organism when viewed under the microscope?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram-negative diplococci
Explanation:Gram-negative diplococci can be used to identify Neisseria gonorrhoeae on gram staining.
Streptococcus pneumonia is a type of bacterium that appears as gram-positive diplococci.
Gram-positive cocci in clusters are characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus.
The Acinetobacter group and the Haemophilus group are examples of gram-negative coccobacilli.
Understanding gonorrhoeae: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoeae can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoeae involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A woman in her early 50s complains of headaches, anxiety and weight loss. Upon examination, she displays hypertension, tachycardia and pallor. The diagnosis is phaeochromocytoma. What is the most common location for these tumors to occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla
Explanation:Phaeochromocytoma is a condition characterized by uncommon tumours that secrete catecholamines in the adrenal medulla. Although they are seldom detected outside the adrenal medulla, if they do occur, they are more likely to be malignant.
Phaeochromocytoma: A Rare Tumor that Secretes Catecholamines
Phaeochromocytoma is a type of tumor that secretes catecholamines and is considered rare. It is familial in about 10% of cases and may be associated with certain syndromes such as MEN type II, neurofibromatosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. This tumor can be bilateral in 10% of cases and malignant in 10%. It can also occur outside of the adrenal gland, with the most common site being the organ of Zuckerkandl, which is adjacent to the bifurcation of the aorta.
The symptoms of phaeochromocytoma are typically episodic and include hypertension (which is present in around 90% of cases and may be sustained), headaches, palpitations, sweating, and anxiety. To diagnose this condition, a 24-hour urinary collection of metanephrines is preferred over a 24-hour urinary collection of catecholamines due to its higher sensitivity (97%).
Surgery is the definitive management for phaeochromocytoma. However, before surgery, the patient must first be stabilized with medical management, which includes an alpha-blocker (such as phenoxybenzamine) given before a beta-blocker (such as propranolol).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23 years old male presents to the hospital with a complaint of reduced ability to flex his left elbow. The doctor observes a significant weakness in the flexion of his left elbow and supination of his forearm. Additionally, the patient reports experiencing a tingling sensation on his left lateral forearm.
Which nerve is most likely to be damaged in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The musculocutaneous nerve originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus and provides innervation to the bicep brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles in the upper arm. It then continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm. Damage to this nerve can result in the aforementioned symptoms.
The median nerve is responsible for innervating the anterior compartment of the forearm, but does not provide innervation to any muscles in the arm.
The ulnar nerve provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the forearm, as well as the intrinsic muscles of the hand (excluding the thenar muscles and two lateral lumbricals). It is commonly injured due to a fracture of the medial epicondyle.
The radial nerve innervates the tricep brachii and extensor muscles in the forearm, and provides sensory innervation to the majority of the posterior forearm and dorsal surface of the lateral three and a half digits. It is typically injured due to a midshaft humeral fracture.
The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway
The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is true about dependent variables?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are affected by changes of independent variables
Explanation:Understanding Variables in Research
Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.
The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.
Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.
Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the classification of Streptococcus agalactiae?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-haemolytic Group B
Explanation:Gram Positive Bacteria Classification
Gram positive bacteria can be categorized into two main groups: rods (bacilli) and spheres (cocci). The Gram positive rods include Clostridium, Bacillus, Listeria, and Corynebacterium. On the other hand, the Gram positive cocci can be either staphylococcal or Streptococcal. Staphylococcal bacteria are catalase-positive and grow in clusters, while Streptococcal bacteria are catalase-negative and grow in chains.
Streptococci are further divided into three groups based on their ability to haemolyse blood agar. Alpha-haemolytic bacteria have partial haemolysis and a green color on blood agar. Examples of alpha-haemolytic bacteria include Strep. pneumoniae and the Viridans streptococci, which includes S. mutans. Beta-haemolytic bacteria have complete haemolysis and are subdivided by Lancefield antigen. Group A includes Strep. pyogenes, which is an upper respiratory tract pathogen, while Group B includes S. agalactiae, which causes neonatal sepsis and meningitis, and maternal chorioamnionitis. Non-haemolytic bacteria, also known as gamma-haemolytic, include enterococci such as E. faecalis and peptostreptococcus, which are anaerobes.
In summary, Gram positive bacteria can be classified into rods and spheres, with further subdivisions based on their haemolytic abilities and antigenic properties. these classifications is important in identifying and treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are creating a medication schedule for a patient with chronic renal failure who is elderly. Which medication may require a dosage modification due to the reduced renal clearance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine sulphate
Explanation:Opioid Use in Patients with Abnormal Renal Function
Patients with abnormal renal function should have their opioid doses reduced due to the prolonged duration of action. However, it is important to note that the initial loading dose may need to be greater in these patients to achieve the desired drug effect. This is because patients with chronic renal failure have an increased volume of distribution, which can affect drug concentration in the plasma. Despite the need for a higher initial dose, subsequent doses should be reduced to account for poor drug clearance. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust doses as needed to avoid adverse effects. None of the other agents typically require caution in patients with abnormal renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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In a patient with a carcinoma of the proximal sigmoid colon, what is the most probable origin of its vascular supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:When performing a high anterior resection for these types of tumors, it is necessary to ligate the inferior mesenteric artery. However, it is important to note that the internal iliac artery’s branches, particularly the middle rectal branch, play a crucial role in preserving blood flow to the rectal stump and ensuring the anastomoses’ integrity.
Anatomy of the Rectum
The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.
In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.
The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male has recently begun working in the textile industry and reports handling various materials and chemicals on a daily basis. He has come to you complaining of a burning and itchy rash that appeared on his hands two days ago. Upon examination, his hands appear red and inflamed, and are warm and tender to the touch.
Which type of immune cell is primarily responsible for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T lymphocytes
Explanation:The patient has contact dermatitis, a delayed hypersensitivity reaction caused by contact with allergens in the workplace. Contact allergens penetrate the skin and are engulfed by Langerhans cells, leading to activation of the innate immune system and T lymphocyte proliferation. This type of hypersensitivity is not antibody mediated and involves different cells than other types of hypersensitivity reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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