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  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old man is diagnosed with angina and prescribed medications for symptom control...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is diagnosed with angina and prescribed medications for symptom control and secondary prevention. The doctor advises him to make dietary changes to address excess fat in the blood that can lead to angina. During the explanation, the doctor asks which apolipoprotein macrophages recognize to uptake lipids under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: ApoF

      Correct Answer: ApoB100

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old woman with known allergies presents to the emergency department with difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman with known allergies presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing after eating at a restaurant.

      Upon arrival, she exhibits an audible wheeze, swelling of her lips and tongue, and a widespread urticarial rash. Intramuscular adrenaline is promptly administered, resulting in rapid improvement of her condition.

      After being observed for a period of time, she is discharged with two auto-injectors containing the same medication for future use and a plan for outpatient follow-up at an allergy clinic.

      What is the receptor targeted by this medication?

      Your Answer: G protein-coupled

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline exerts its effects through G protein-coupled receptors, which are transmembrane proteins that activate intracellular signaling pathways. This mechanism is responsible for the vasoconstriction induced by adrenaline, which is used to counteract the vasodilation and increased vascular permeability seen in anaphylaxis. However, adrenaline does not act on guanylate cyclase receptors, ligand-gated ion channel receptors, or serine/threonine kinase receptors, which are other types of transmembrane proteins that respond to different chemical messengers.

      Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).

      The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65 year old man is scheduled for a lymph node biopsy on...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man is scheduled for a lymph node biopsy on the posterolateral aspect of his right neck due to suspected lymphoma. Which nerve is most vulnerable in this procedure?

      Your Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      The accessory nerve is at risk of injury due to its superficial location and proximity to the platysma muscle. It may be divided during the initial stages of a procedure.

      The Accessory Nerve and Its Functions

      The accessory nerve is the eleventh cranial nerve that provides motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. It is important to examine the function of this nerve by checking for any loss of muscle bulk in the shoulders, asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance, and turning their head against resistance.

      Iatrogenic injury, which is caused by medical treatment or procedures, is a common cause of isolated accessory nerve lesions. This is especially true for surgeries in the posterior cervical triangle, such as lymph node biopsy. It is important to be aware of the potential for injury to the accessory nerve during these procedures to prevent any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old man visits your GP clinic with a complaint of a changed...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits your GP clinic with a complaint of a changed sensation in his left leg and back pain. He reveals that he had lung cancer treatment two years ago. During the examination, you observe that the patient struggles to identify the location when you test his crude touch sensation.

      Which spinal tract do you anticipate to be impacted in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Dorsal columns

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The anterior spinothalamic tract is responsible for carrying coarse (crude) touch sensation. This presentation may be caused by possible lung metastases in the spine.

      The anterior corticospinal tract controls motor function and crosses over in the spinal cord.

      The dorsal columns transmit fine touch, proprioception, and vibration.

      The lateral corticospinal tract, which crosses over in the medulla, is also involved in motor function.

      Pain and temperature sensation are carried by the lateral spinothalamic tract.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department with severe hypocalcaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department with severe hypocalcaemia that has not responded to calcium replacement therapy. What other serum electrolytes should be checked urgently?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      If a person has hypomagnesaemia, it can lead to hypocalcaemia and make it difficult to treat. Therefore, when dealing with hypocalcaemia, it is important to keep an eye on the levels of calcium, phosphate, and magnesium. The phosphate levels can provide insight into potential causes, as low calcium levels combined with high phosphate levels may indicate hypoparathyroidism.

      The Importance of Magnesium and Calcium in the Body

      Magnesium and calcium are essential minerals in the body. Magnesium plays a crucial role in the secretion and action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on target tissues. However, a deficiency in magnesium can cause hypocalcaemia and make patients unresponsive to calcium and vitamin D supplementation.

      The body contains 1000 mmol of magnesium, with half stored in bones and the rest in muscle, soft tissues, and extracellular fluid. Unlike calcium, there is no specific hormonal control of magnesium. Hormones such as PTH and aldosterone affect the renal handling of magnesium.

      Magnesium and calcium also interact at a cellular level. A decrease in magnesium levels can affect the permeability of cellular membranes to calcium, leading to hyperexcitability. Therefore, it is essential to maintain adequate levels of both magnesium and calcium in the body for optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with symptoms of dizziness, headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with symptoms of dizziness, headache, and mild confusion. Her family members also report experiencing similar symptoms that have been developing slowly over the past few weeks. Upon testing, her arterial blood gas reveals a COHb level of 13% (normal < 0.5%) and a measured SpO2 of 86%, despite the oxygen saturation probe indicating 100%.

      Assuming the diagnosis is correct, what effect would you anticipate on the oxygen dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Shift to the right

      Correct Answer: Shift to the left and downwards

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that carbon monoxide poisoning causes a shift to the left and downwards in the oxygen dissociation curve. This is because CO binds to haemoglobin with a much higher affinity than oxygen, leading to a reduced oxygen-binding capacity and increased affinity for subsequent molecules of oxygen. The downward shift reflects this reduced capacity, while the leftward shift reflects the increased affinity for oxygen. A shift to the right and downwards is not correct, as this would reflect a reduced affinity for oxygen, which is not the case with CO poisoning.

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old boy arrived at the Emergency Department with knife wounds on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy arrived at the Emergency Department with knife wounds on his right lower limb following a gang altercation. During the assessment, it was discovered that he had lost sensation in the right 1st webbed space, but sensation remained intact across the rest of the dorsum of his right foot. Additionally, he was unable to dorsiflex his foot. Which nerve is the most probable to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Superficial fibular/peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep fibular/peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep fibular/peroneal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the first web space of the foot and supplying the dorsiflexors of the foot. It is a branch of the common fibular/peroneal nerve, which bifurcates from the sciatic nerve at the popliteal fossa. The deep fibular/peroneal nerve travels alongside the anterior tibial artery in the anterior compartment of the leg, crosses the ankle joint, and terminates deep to the extensor retinaculum. Its medial branch provides cutaneous sensory innervation to the first web space between the great toe and second toe. The deep fibular/peroneal nerve also supplies motor function to the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and fibularis/peroneus tertius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in weakness in these muscles.

      The Deep Peroneal Nerve: Origin, Course, and Actions

      The deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve that originates at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to the peroneus longus muscle. It is composed of nerve root values L4, L5, S1, and S2. The nerve pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg and passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.

      The deep peroneal nerve innervates several muscles, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. It also provides cutaneous innervation to the web space of the first and second toes. The nerve’s actions include dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, extension of all toes (extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus), and inversion of the foot.

      After its bifurcation past the ankle joint, the lateral branch of the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum brevis and the extensor hallucis brevis, while the medial branch supplies the web space between the first and second digits. Understanding the origin, course, and actions of the deep peroneal nerve is essential for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve, such as foot drop and nerve entrapment syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are on the ward and notice that an elderly patient lying supine...

    Correct

    • You are on the ward and notice that an elderly patient lying supine in a monitored bed is hypotensive, with a blood pressure of 90/70 mmHg and tachycardic, with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute.

      You adjust the bed to raise the patient's legs by 45 degrees and after 1 minute you measure the blood pressure again. The blood pressure increases to 100/75 and you prescribe a 500mL bag of normal saline to be given IV over 15 minutes.

      What physiological association explains the increase in the elderly patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Fluid responsiveness is typically indicated by changes in cardiac output or stroke volume in response to fluid administration. However, the strength of cardiac muscle contraction is influenced by adrenaline and noradrenaline, which enhance cardiac contractility rather than Starling’s law.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He has no visible wounds or head trauma, but he is experiencing left lower limb pain and is unable to walk. Upon examination, he displays a high stepping gait and there is swelling and deformity below the knee. An X-ray confirms a fractured neck of the fibula.

      Which function is most likely impacted in this patient?

      Your Answer: Dorsiflexion of foot

      Explanation:

      A fibular neck fracture can result in foot drop due to common peroneal nerve injury. The nerve is often injured because it winds around the neck of the fibula. The common peroneal nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, and an injury to this nerve can cause foot drop, which is characterized by a high stepping gait. In foot drop, the foot appears floppy, and the toes point downward, scraping the ground while walking. The patient tends to lift their foot very high to avoid dragging it on the ground. Eversion of the foot is not the correct answer, as it is controlled by the superficial peroneal nerve. Flexion of toes is also an incorrect answer, as it is controlled by the medial plantar nerve.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteal lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In a patient with an ectopic kidney, where would you expect to find...

    Correct

    • In a patient with an ectopic kidney, where would you expect to find the adrenal gland situated?

      Your Answer: In its usual position

      Explanation:

      If the kidney is present, the adrenal gland will typically develop in its normal location instead of being absent.

      The adrenal cortex, which secretes steroids, is derived from the mesoderm of the posterior abdominal wall and is first detected at 6 weeks’ gestation. The fetal cortex predominates throughout fetal life, with adult-type zona glomerulosa and fasciculata detected but making up only a small proportion of the gland. The adrenal medulla, which is responsible for producing adrenaline, is of ectodermal origin and arises from neural crest cells that migrate to the medial aspect of the developing cortex. The fetal adrenal gland is relatively large, but it rapidly regresses at birth, disappearing almost completely by age 1 year. By age 4-5 years, the permanent adult-type adrenal cortex has fully developed.

      Anatomic anomalies of the adrenal gland may occur, such as agenesis of an adrenal gland being usually associated with ipsilateral agenesis of the kidney. Fused adrenal glands, whereby the two glands join across the midline posterior to the aorta, are also associated with a fused kidney. Adrenal hypoplasia can occur in two forms: hypoplasia or absence of the fetal cortex with a poorly formed medulla, or disorganized fetal cortex and medulla with no permanent cortex present. Adrenal heterotopia describes a normal adrenal gland in an abnormal location, such as within the renal or hepatic capsules. Accessory adrenal tissue, also known as adrenal rests, is most commonly located in the broad ligament or spermatic cord but can be found anywhere within the abdomen, and even intracranial adrenal rests have been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - As a junior doctor in orthopaedic surgery, you are tasked with evaluating a...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in orthopaedic surgery, you are tasked with evaluating a 42-year-old woman who is scheduled for surgery tomorrow to repair an open radial fracture resulting from a bike accident. The patient has a medical history of severe psoriasis, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, polycystic ovary syndrome, and depression. Routine blood tests were ordered before the surgery, and the results are surprising:

      - Bilirubin: 17 ”mol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 89 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 354 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - ÎłGT: 61 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 34 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      Which medication is most likely responsible for this abnormality?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity is a potential side effect of using Methotrexate to treat severe psoriasis. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast cancer. Fluoxetine may cause serotonin syndrome, while morphine can lead to respiratory depression and overdose, both of which are serious risks.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - As the physician in charge of the health of a 70-year-old man who...

    Correct

    • As the physician in charge of the health of a 70-year-old man who came in for his yearly check-up, you discover that he smokes 15 cigarettes daily and has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. During the examination, you hear a left-sided carotid bruit while auscultating. A recent duplex ultrasound showed that the left internal carotid artery has a 50% stenosis. What is the final step in the pathogenesis of this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration into the tunica intima

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old, biology student, with a history of insomnia, has approached their college...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old, biology student, with a history of insomnia, has approached their college doctor with inquiries about a newly advertised medication for insomnia treatment. The medication boosts the synthesis of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) from glutamate, resulting in a calming effect.

      What is the enzyme that the drug is mimicking?

      Your Answer: Glutamate synthase

      Correct Answer: Glutamate decarboxylase

      Explanation:

      The conversion of glutamate to GABA is catalyzed by glutamate decarboxylase. Other enzymes involved in this process include glutamate synthase, which converts glutamine to glutamate, glutamine synthetase, which converts glutamate to glutamine and vice versa, and 4-aminobutyrate transaminase, which converts GABA to succinate semialdehyde.

      Understanding GABA as the Principal Inhibitory Neurotransmitter of the Cortex

      GABA, or gamma-aminobutyric acid, is a crucial neurotransmitter that plays a significant role in regulating brain activity. It is considered the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the cortex, which means that it helps to reduce the activity of neurons in this region of the brain. This is important because excessive neuronal activity can lead to seizures, anxiety, and other neurological disorders.

      GABA is produced in a region of the brain called the substantia nigra pars reticulata. This area is responsible for regulating movement and is also involved in the production of dopamine, another important neurotransmitter. GABA is released by neurons in the cortex and binds to specific receptors on other neurons, which helps to reduce their activity.

      The importance of GABA in the brain cannot be overstated. It is involved in a wide range of functions, including sleep, anxiety, and mood regulation. It is also a target for many drugs used to treat neurological disorders, such as epilepsy and anxiety. Understanding the role of GABA in the brain is crucial for developing new treatments for these conditions and improving our overall understanding of brain function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the deep branch of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve?

      Your Answer: All the interosseous muscles

      Correct Answer: Opponens pollicis

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a low impact fracture of his...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a low impact fracture of his right femur. Upon examination, an x-ray reveals a growth located at the metaphysis that elevates the periosteum and appears to extend into the surrounding soft tissues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Bone Tumours

      Osteosarcomas are the most frequent primary bone malignancy, often occurring in the metaphysis around the knee. They are more common in boys and affect those aged between 14 and 20 years old. Symptoms include pain, low impact fracture, or a mass. On an x-ray, they appear as an area of new bone beneath the periosteum, lifting it up, known as Codman’s triangle. Another feature is sunray spiculation, where opaque lines of osteosarcoma grow into adjacent soft tissues.

      Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that usually develops from benign chondromas, often in hereditary multiple exostoses. Ewing sarcoma is a tumour of unknown origin that develops in limb girdles or the diaphysis of long bones. It has a characteristic onion appearance on x-ray, with concentric rings of new bone formation. Bone metastases are rare in children, and there are no features to suggest a primary tumour, although it should be considered.

      Osteoid osteoma is a benign cystic tumour that occurs in the long bones of young men and teenagers. It causes severe pain and shows as local cortical sclerosis but does not invade into soft tissues. the different types of bone tumours and their characteristics is crucial for early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old woman visits the maternity assessment unit two weeks after giving birth...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman visits the maternity assessment unit two weeks after giving birth with complaints of perineal pain and discharge. She had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery at 40+5 weeks and suffered a type 3a perineal tear. Her primary concern is that the wound may be infected as it appears red and inflamed when she tries to examine it with a mirror.

      During the examination, the perineal wound shows signs of purulent discharge, erythematous surrounding skin, and a buried suture. Given the complexity of the repair, the consultant orders a CT scan to rule out a pelvic abscess. The CT report reveals a small fluid collection in the perineal wound and lymphadenopathy.

      Based on this information, where is the likely site of lymphatic drainage?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The patient’s CT scan showed lymphadenopathy in the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, which is expected as the infection is located in the perineum. The deep inguinal lymph nodes, which drain the glans penis and clitoris, are not the primary site for perineal drainage. The medial group of external iliac lymph nodes drain the urinary bladder, membranous aspect of the urethra, cervix, and upper part of the vagina, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, the lower part of the rectum, the cervix, and the inferior uterus. If there were retained products of conception in the uterus causing an infection or a type 4 perineal tear involving a substantial portion of the rectum, lymphadenopathy of the internal iliac lymph nodes may be seen on the CT scan. The para-aortic lymph nodes drain the ovaries, but this is not relevant to the patient’s case as there is no indication of an ovarian pathology.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Mary, an 82-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a minor...

    Incorrect

    • Mary, an 82-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a minor fall. She reports discomfort in her left leg.

      A radiograph is ordered and reveals a left intracapsular neck of femur fracture. As a result, Mary is scheduled for a hemiarthroplasty to avoid avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

      In this particular fracture, which blood vessel is the primary source of blood supply to the femoral head and is most susceptible to damage?

      Your Answer: Lateral femoral circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is a significant supplier of blood to the femoral head, while the perforating branches of the profunda femoris artery supply the medial and posterior thigh. The lateral femoral circumflex artery provides blood to some muscles of the lateral thigh and a portion of the femoral head. Additionally, the anterior branch of the obturator artery supplies blood to the obturator externus, pectineus, adductor muscles, and gracilis muscles.

      Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply

      The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.

      The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the incorrect pairing in the following options? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incorrect pairing in the following options?

      Your Answer: Aortic bifurcation and L4

      Correct Answer: Termination of dural sac and L4

      Explanation:

      Sorry, your input is not clear. Please provide more information or context for me to understand what you want me to do.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - During a consultant-led ward round in the early morning, a patient recovering from...

    Correct

    • During a consultant-led ward round in the early morning, a patient recovering from endovascular thrombectomy for acute mesenteric ischemia is examined. The reports indicate an embolus in the superior mesenteric artery.

      What is the correct description of the plane at which the superior mesenteric artery branches off the abdominal aorta and its corresponding vertebral body?

      Your Answer: Transpyloric plane - L1

      Explanation:

      The superior mesenteric artery originates from the abdominal aorta at the transpyloric plane, which is an imaginary axial plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body and midway between the jugular notch and superior border of the pubic symphysis. Another transverse plane commonly used in anatomy is the subcostal plane, which passes through the 10th costal margin and the vertebral body L3. Additionally, the trans-tubercular plane, which is a horizontal plane passing through the iliac tubercles and in line with the 5th lumbar vertebrae, is often used to delineate abdominal regions in surface anatomy.

      The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.

      Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.

      In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He denies any chest pain or coughing and has never smoked. During cardiac auscultation, an ejection systolic murmur is detected. Although a valvular defect is suspected as the cause of his symptoms, echocardiography reveals an atrial septal defect (ASD) instead. An ASD allows blood to flow between the left and right atria. During fetal development, what structure connects the left and right atria?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The foramen ovale is an opening in the wall between the two upper chambers of the heart that allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the left atrium. Normally, this opening closes shortly after birth. However, if it remains open, it can result in a condition called patent foramen ovale, which is an abnormal connection between the two atria. This can lead to an atrial septal defect, where blood flows from the left atrium to the right atrium. This condition may be detected early if there are symptoms or a heart murmur is heard, but it can also go unnoticed until later in life.

      During fetal development, the ductus venosus is a blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, allowing oxygenated blood to bypass the liver. After birth, this vessel usually closes and becomes the ligamentum venosum.

      The ductus arteriosus is another fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, allowing blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs. This vessel typically closes after birth and becomes the ligamentum arteriosum. If it remains open, it can result in a patent ductus arteriosus.

      The coronary sinus is a vein that receives blood from the heart’s coronary veins and drains into the right atrium.

      The mitral valve is a valve that separates the left atrium and the left ventricle of the heart.

      The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus during development. After birth, it typically closes and becomes the round ligament of the liver.

      Understanding Patent Foramen Ovale

      Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a condition that affects approximately 20% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of a small hole in the heart that may allow an embolus, such as one from deep vein thrombosis, to pass from the right side of the heart to the left side. This can lead to a stroke, which is known as a paradoxical embolus.

      Aside from its association with stroke, PFO has also been linked to migraine. Studies have shown that some patients experience an improvement in their migraine symptoms after undergoing PFO closure.

      The management of PFO in patients who have had a stroke is still a topic of debate. Treatment options include antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulant therapy, or PFO closure. It is important for patients with PFO to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A medical research lab is investigating new tests for diabetes in a group...

    Incorrect

    • A medical research lab is investigating new tests for diabetes in a group of 250 elderly patients. The results have been quite inconsistent, and you have been assigned the task of determining the likelihood ratio of a negative test result based on the following information.

      Sensitivity = 60%
      Specificity = 85%

      What is the correct value?

      Your Answer: 0.61

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      The correct formula for calculating the likelihood ratio for a negative test result is (1 – sensitivity) divided by specificity. This ratio helps determine how much the odds of having the disease decrease when the test is negative. For example, if the sensitivity is 0.55 and the specificity is 0.9, the likelihood ratio for a negative test result would be 0.5. It is important to remember to subtract the sensitivity from 1, not add it, when using this formula.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which segment of the ECG waveform corresponds to the shutting of the mitral...

    Incorrect

    • Which segment of the ECG waveform corresponds to the shutting of the mitral valve?

      Your Answer: ST segment

      Correct Answer: QRS complex

      Explanation:

      A diagram depicting the various stages of the cardiac cycle can be accessed through the external link provided.

      Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During your placement in general practice, a 35-year-old female patient expresses worry about...

    Correct

    • During your placement in general practice, a 35-year-old female patient expresses worry about a recent lump she discovered in her breast. Can you identify the primary region in the breast where most breast cancers develop?

      Your Answer: Upper lateral

      Explanation:

      The breast is divided into 5 regions, which help in describing the location of pathology and disease spread. The upper lateral area has the most mammary tissue and is where the auxiliary tail of Spence extends from, passing through an opening in the deep fascia foramen of Langer to reach the axilla. The upper lateral region is where the majority of breast tumors occur.

      Breast Cancer Treatment Options and Prognosis

      Breast cancer is more common in older individuals and the most common type is invasive ductal carcinoma. Pathological assessment involves evaluating the tumor and lymph nodes, with sentinel lymph node biopsy being a common method to minimize morbidity. Treatment options include wide local excision or mastectomy, with the final cosmetic outcome being a consideration. Reconstruction is also an option following any resectional procedure. The Nottingham Prognostic Index can be used to give an indication of survival, with factors such as tumor size, lymph node involvement, and grade being taken into account. Other factors such as vascular invasion and receptor status also impact survival. The aim of any surgical option should be to have a local recurrence rate of 5% or less at 5 years.

      Breast cancer treatment options and prognosis are important considerations for individuals diagnosed with this disease. The most common type of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, and treatment options include wide local excision or mastectomy. The final cosmetic outcome is a consideration, and reconstruction is an option following any resectional procedure. The Nottingham Prognostic Index can be used to give an indication of survival, with factors such as tumor size, lymph node involvement, and grade being taken into account. Other factors such as vascular invasion and receptor status also impact survival. The aim of any surgical option should be to have a local recurrence rate of 5% or less at 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old medical student visits his doctor with a complaint of experiencing dry...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old medical student visits his doctor with a complaint of experiencing dry mouth, particularly at night, which has been affecting his sleep. He has a medical history of allergic rhinitis and is currently taking chlorphenamine for it.

      What is the correct explanation for the mechanism of action of chlorphenamine?

      Your Answer: H1 receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Chlorphenamine is a medication.

      Antihistamines for Allergic Rhinitis and Urticaria

      Antihistamines, specifically H1 inhibitors, are effective in treating allergic rhinitis and urticaria. Sedating antihistamines like chlorpheniramine have antimuscarinic properties that can cause dry mouth and urinary retention. On the other hand, non-sedating antihistamines like loratadine and cetirizine are less likely to cause drowsiness. However, there is some evidence that cetirizine may still cause some level of drowsiness compared to other non-sedating antihistamines. Overall, antihistamines are a valuable treatment option for those suffering from allergic rhinitis and urticaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of the cuboid?

      Your Answer: Calcaneum

      Correct Answer: 5th metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The cuboid bone is situated on the outer side of the foot, positioned between the heel bone at the back and the fourth and fifth toe bones towards the front.

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a recent episode of coughing up blood in the morning. He has also experienced significant weight loss of over 12 lbs and loss of appetite. Upon physical examination, conjunctival pallor is noted. The patient has a 30 pack year history of smoking. A chest x-ray reveals a mediastinal mass and ipsilateral elevation of the right diaphragm. What structure is being compressed by the mediastinal mass to explain these findings?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Lung cancer can cause the hemidiaphragm on the same side to rise due to pressure on the phrenic nerve. Haemoptysis is a common symptom of lung cancer, along with significant weight loss and a history of smoking. A chest x-ray can confirm the presence of a mediastinal mass, which is likely to be lung cancer.

      A rapidly expanding lung mass can cause compression of surrounding structures, leading to complications. For example, an apical tumor can compress the brachial plexus, causing sensory symptoms in the arms or Erb’s or Klumpke’s palsies. Compression of the cervical sympathetic chain can cause Horner’s syndrome, which includes meiosis, anhidrosis, ptosis, and enophthalmos.

      A mediastinal mass can also compress the recurrent laryngeal nerve as it winds around the aortic arch, resulting in hoarseness of voice or aphonia. Superior vena caval syndrome is a medical emergency that can cause swelling of the face, neck, upper chest, and arms, as well as the development of collaterals on the chest wall. Malignancy is the most common cause, but non-malignant causes can include an aortic aneurysm, fibrosing mediastinitis, or iatrogenic factors.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which muscle does not attach to the medial side of the greater trochanter?...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle does not attach to the medial side of the greater trochanter?

      Your Answer: Gemelli

      Correct Answer: Quadratus femoris

      Explanation:

      The mnemonic for muscle attachment on the greater trochanter is POGO, which stands for Piriformis, Obturator internus, and Gemelli.

      The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.

      The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 39-year-old male presents to an endocrine clinic with acromegaly caused by a...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old male presents to an endocrine clinic with acromegaly caused by a growth hormone-secreting tumor. The patient is prescribed Octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, to suppress growth hormone release.

      What additional hormonal effects can be attributed to somatostatin?

      Your Answer: Decreases secretion of glucagon

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on the secretion of glucagon, but it does not affect the secretion of estrogen. It also decreases the secretion of insulin, and overproduction of somatostatin can lead to diabetes mellitus. Additionally, somatostatin reduces the secretion of gastrin, which in turn decreases the production of gastric acid by parietal cells. It also decreases the secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), resulting in a decrease in the production of thyroxine in the thyroid.

      Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone

      Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.

      The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.

      In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A teenage girl with cystic fibrosis has been neglecting her pancreatic enzyme supplements,...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl with cystic fibrosis has been neglecting her pancreatic enzyme supplements, leading to steatorrhea.

      As a consequence, which of the following is she most likely to be deficient in?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B6

      Correct Answer: Vitamin K

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 59-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the ED with...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the ED with sudden palpitations that started six hours ago. He denies chest pain, dizziness, or shortness of breath.

      His vital signs are heart rate 163/min, blood pressure 155/92 mmHg, respiratory rate 17/min, oxygen saturations 98% on air, and temperature 36.2ÂșC. On examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular, and there is no evidence of pulmonary edema. His Glasgow Coma Scale is 15.

      An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. Despite treatment with IV fluids, IV metoprolol, and IV digoxin, his heart rate remains elevated at 162 beats per minute.

      As the onset of symptoms was less than 48 hours ago, the decision is made to attempt chemical cardioversion with amiodarone. Why is a loading dose necessary for amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Long half-life

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone requires a prolonged loading regime to achieve stable therapeutic levels due to its highly lipophilic nature and wide absorption by tissue, which reduces its bioavailability in serum. While it is predominantly a class III anti-arrhythmic, it also has numerous effects similar to class Ia, II, and IV. Amiodarone is primarily eliminated through hepatic excretion and has a long half-life, meaning it is eliminated slowly and only requires a low maintenance dose to maintain appropriate therapeutic concentrations. The inhibition of cytochrome P450 by amiodarone is not the reason for administering a loading dose.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (4/6) 67%
General Principles (1/5) 20%
Neurological System (1/6) 17%
Endocrine System (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/5) 40%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory System (2/2) 100%
Reproductive System (1/1) 100%
Passmed