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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old female presents with intense pruritus during pregnancy, particularly in her hands and feet, which worsens at night. She has no visible rash and has a history of a stillbirth at 36 weeks. What is the most efficient management for her condition?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from obstetric cholestasis, which can increase the risk of premature birth and stillbirth. The main symptom is severe itching, and elevated serum bile acids are typically present. Liver function tests, including bilirubin levels, may not be reliable. The most effective treatment is ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA), which is now mostly synthetic. While antihistamines and topical menthol creams can provide some relief, UDCA is more likely to improve outcomes.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported reduced fetal movements 3 days ago, but they are now back to normal. An ultrasound was performed to investigate any potential issues. The obstetrician informs her that a defect in the abdominal wall has been detected and the baby's intestines are outside the body but enclosed in a membrane. Despite this, the baby is healthy. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks
Explanation:If the unborn baby has exomphalos, it is recommended to opt for a caesarean section to minimize the chances of sac rupture. The presence of a membrane containing the abdominal content suggests that the baby is likely to have exomphalos. While vaginal delivery is possible, a caesarean section is the safest delivery option. There is no need for an emergency caesarean section as the baby is not experiencing any distress. Inducing labor for vaginal delivery is not advisable, and a caesarean section is a better option. Additionally, IM corticosteroids are not necessary as there is no risk of premature delivery at present. These steroids are typically used when women are at risk of or experience premature labor.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which patient has a creatinine level indicating CKD3?
Patient A:
Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 145 μmol/L
Albumin - 36 g/L
Patient B:
Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
Phosphate - 2.0 mmol/L
PTH - 4.2 pmol/L
Urea - 50 mmol/L
Creatinine - 280 μmol/L
Albumin - 38 g/L
Patient C:
Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
Albumin - 28 g/L
Patient D:
Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 367 μmol/L
Albumin - 40 g/L
Patient E:
Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
Albumin - 18 g/LYour Answer: Patient D
Correct Answer: Patient A
Explanation:Renal Impairment and Calcium Homeostasis
Although interpreting creatinine levels can be challenging without information about body habitus and muscle mass, Patient A likely has CKD3 based on their creatinine level of 145. It is important to have a general of the severity of renal impairment based on creatinine levels. Patients with an eGFR of 30-59 ml/min/1.73m2 are classified as having CKD3. This classification applies to men and women between the ages of 20 and 80 years old.
Patients B, C, and D have more advanced renal disease, and depending on the clinical context, patients B and D may have acute renal failure. Patient E, on the other hand, does not have any renal impairment.
Patients with kidney disease often experience multiple abnormalities in calcium homeostasis. At the CKD3 stage, most patients have normal plasma concentrations of calcium and phosphate. However, as CKD3 progresses towards CKD 4, more subtle abnormalities may arise, such as a slight increase in PTH due to reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase.
Although Patient A has suboptimal levels of vitamin D, this is not uncommon. Risk factors for vitamin D insufficiency include old age, immobility, institutionalization, and darker skin color.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 72-year-old retired boiler maker presents to his General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath and non-specific dull right-sided chest ache. He has a 35-pack-year history and has recently lost a little weight. On examination, there is evidence of a large right-sided pleural effusion.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
Platelets 170 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Chest X-ray: large right-sided pleural effusion.
Pleural tap: pleural effusion contains occasional red blood cells, white blood cells and abnormal-looking cells which look of a sarcomatous type.
Which of the following statements fits best with the underlying condition?Your Answer: The vast majority of cases are associated with a history of asbestos exposure
Explanation:Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that has three major histological subtypes: sarcomatous, epithelial, and mixed. The vast majority of cases are associated with a history of direct exposure to asbestos, particularly in industries such as ship building, boiler manufacture, paper mill working, and insulation work. Patients often present with shortness of breath and chest pain on the affected side.
While smoking increases the risk of malignancy, it does not directly play a role in the development of malignant pleural effusion. Treatment often includes a combination of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and surgery, but even with these approaches, the result is not curative. Median survival is short, with a life expectancy of around two years.
In early stages of cancer, radiation therapy combined with surgical treatment can be very effective, but in later stages, it is only effective in providing symptom relief. Radiation therapy alone will not be curative in 40% of cases. Understanding the causes, treatment options, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman comes to the ophthalmology clinic with anisocoria. She was referred by her primary care physician after visiting for a sinus infection 4 weeks ago.
During the examination, it is observed that the left pupil is larger than the right and does not constrict during the light reflex test. The accommodation reflex is slow but still present. Eye movement testing shows no apparent abnormalities, and there is no change in vision. The doctor administers 0.125% pilocarpine drops to both eyes, resulting in the left pupil constricting while the right pupil remains unchanged.
What is the most probable cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Third nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Holmes-Adie pupil
Explanation:The left pupil was affected by the pilocarpine drops, causing it to constrict, while the right pupil remained unaffected. Holmes-Adie pupil is a harmless condition that usually affects young women and may be caused by a viral or bacterial infection that affects the ciliary ganglion.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in several joints of her right hand and left wrist. The affected joints are also stiff, erythematosus, and warm to touch. She denies any recent injury to the joints and is otherwise healthy. Upon joint aspirate, the sample appears turbid and yellow with a WBC count of 25,000/mm³ and 70% neutrophils. Viscosity is reduced and polarised light microscopy is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:The joint aspirate in rheumatoid arthritis typically displays a high count of white blood cells, with a majority being neutrophils. The appearance is usually cloudy and yellow, and there are no crystals present.
In contrast, gout would reveal needle-shaped urate crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarised light microscopy. Osteoarthritis would show fewer white blood cells and a lower proportion of neutrophils, with a clear appearance. It is more commonly found in larger weight-bearing joints. Pseudogout would display rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent.
Therefore, the correct answer is rheumatoid arthritis, which is characterised by an elevated white cell count, predominantly neutrophils, and a cloudy appearance.
Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.
Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of erectile dysfunction. He reports no recent stressors or changes in his lifestyle or diet. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), and osteoarthritis. His current medications include gliclazide, indapamide, metformin, omeprazole, and paracetamol. The doctor suspects that one of his medications is responsible for his erectile dysfunction. Which medication is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:Indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, is known to cause sexual dysfunction and is the most likely medication responsible for this man’s erectile dysfunction. Gliclazide, metformin, and omeprazole, on the other hand, are not associated with sexual dysfunction. Gliclazide is used to manage diabetes mellitus and can cause gastrointestinal upset and hypoglycemia. Metformin is also used to manage diabetes mellitus and can cause nausea, vomiting, constipation, and rare adverse effects such as B12 deficiency and lactic acidosis. Omeprazole is a proton-pump inhibitor used to control excess stomach acid production and can cause gastrointestinal side-effects and electrolyte disturbances such as hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While loop diuretics are better for reducing overload, thiazide diuretics have a role in the treatment of mild heart failure. Bendroflumethiazide was commonly used for managing hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Like any medication, thiazide diuretics have potential adverse effects. Common side effects include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence are also possible. Rare adverse effects include thrombocytopaenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
To manage hypertension, current NICE guidelines recommend using thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide or chlorthalidone as first-line treatment. If blood pressure is not adequately controlled, a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor can be added. If blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic can be combined with a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor. In some cases, a beta-blocker or aldosterone antagonist may also be added. Regular monitoring and adjustment of medication is necessary to ensure optimal blood pressure control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally to a healthy baby girl after a normal pregnancy. What is a third-degree tear of the perineum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Injury to the perineum involving the anal sphincter complex
Explanation:Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitate labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A new drug, Rosinox, is being tested to improve pain control in patients with connective tissue diseases. The company conducting the study wants to determine the appropriate dosage for the drug.
They have found that if a patient takes 500 mg of the drug orally, only 250 mg reaches the systemic circulation.
What is the term used to describe the percentage of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bioavailability
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics and Bioavailability
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how the body processes drugs. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption is the process by which drugs enter the body and reach the circulation. Bioavailability is an important factor in absorption as it determines the proportion of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation. Bioavailability is calculated by dividing the dose reaching circulation by the total dose administered.
Distribution refers to the spread of the drug throughout the body. Metabolism involves the body’s processes of changing the drug molecule, usually by deactivating it during reactions in the liver. Excretion is the process of removing the drug from the body.
pharmacokinetics and bioavailability is crucial in determining the appropriate dose of a drug for efficacy. By knowing the bioavailability of a drug, healthcare professionals can calculate the dose needed to achieve the desired effect. Overall, pharmacokinetics and bioavailability play a significant role in the safe and effective use of drugs in healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling well today but has a history of chronic respiratory tract infections and lung issues. He is immunocompetent.
During the examination, his temperature and blood pressure are normal. His heart rate is regular and his breathing is effortless. The GP detects a diastolic murmur with a snap that is most audible at the right fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Chronic Respiratory Infections and a Heart Murmur
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia: A Congenital Syndrome of Ciliary Dysfunction
The patient described in the case likely has primary ciliary dyskinesia, also known as Kartagener’s syndrome, which is a congenital syndrome of ciliary dysfunction. This disorder affects the proper beating of Ciliary, leading to the accumulation of infectious material within the respiratory tree and abnormal cell migration during development, resulting in situs inversus. Additionally, abnormal Ciliary can lead to non-motile sperm and infertility.
Other Possible Diagnoses
Although the GP noticed a diastolic murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis, the patient does not have symptoms of congestive heart failure. Asthma could be associated with chronic lung and respiratory tract infections, but it would not explain the heart murmur. Squamous cell lung cancer is less likely in a man who is 40 years old with a normal respiratory examination and would not explain the heart murmur. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension usually causes progressive breathlessness, a dry cough, and fine inspiratory crepitations on examination, rather than the picture here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female presents to the surgical intake with abdominal pain and a five day history of vomiting.
Over the last three months she has also been aware of a 6 kg weight loss.
On examination, she is pale, has a temperature of 38.5°C, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and pulse rate of 130 in sinus rhythm. The chest is clear on auscultation but she has a diffusely tender abdomen without guarding. Her BM reading is 2.5.
Initial biochemistry is as follows:
Sodium 124 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 6.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 78 µmol/L (60-110)
Glucose 2.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation:Hypoadrenal Crisis and Addison’s Disease
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of hypoadrenal crisis, including abdominal pain, vomiting, shock, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. In the UK, this is typically caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands, known as Addison’s disease. Other less common causes include TB, HIV, adrenal hemorrhage, or anterior pituitary disease. Patients with Addison’s disease often experience weight loss, abdominal pain, lethargy, and nausea/vomiting. Additionally, they may develop oral pigmentation due to excess ACTH and other autoimmune diseases such as thyroid disease and vitiligo.
In cases like this, emergency fluid resuscitation, steroid administration, and a thorough search for underlying infections are necessary. It is important to measure cortisol levels before administering steroids. None of the other potential causes explain the patient’s biochemical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In the field of pharmacology, what is the term used to describe a ligand that binds to a receptor and results in a decrease or complete halt in receptor activity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antagonist
Explanation:Agonists and Antagonists in Drug-Receptor Interactions
An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and causes an increase in receptor activity, resulting in a biological response. The drug-receptor interaction is usually reversible, and the agonist can bind to the receptor using various mechanisms. The effects of an agonist are determined by its efficacy of agonism and the degree of receptor occupancy. A full agonist can provoke maximal receptor activity, while a partial agonist can provoke sub-maximal receptor activity. The degree of occupancy is determined by the affinity of the drug for the receptor and the concentration. Even relatively low degrees of receptor occupancy are adequate to achieve a biological response for agonists.
On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and reduces or inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response. The effects of an antagonist are determined by its degree of receptor occupancy, affinity to the receptor, and efficacy. A relatively high degree of receptor occupancy is needed for an antagonist to work, and technically, the efficacy of an antagonist to prompt a biological response is zero.
There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and will bind to the same site on the same receptor, reducing the binding sites available to the agonist for binding. A non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and may bind to the same receptor, but they will each have a different binding site on the receptor. When the antagonist binds to the receptor, it may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell. An agonist molecule is able to bind, but the normal consequences of agonist binding do not occur due to the presence of the antagonist, and biological actions are prevented.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast tenderness and reduced cognitive ability to perform functions at work, comes for a review with her diary of symptoms corresponding to a period of three cycles. She attends work regularly during these episodes and goes out with friends, but does not enjoy it as much and is less productive.
Going through the diary, symptoms occur during the luteal phase and resolve 2–3 days into menstruation.
Blood tests, including thyroid function tests, are normal. She has tried the progesterone implant, which made her symptoms worse; therefore, she is not currently using any contraception.
A diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is made.
Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
Explanation:Management of Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, characterized by cyclical psychological, behavioral, and physical symptoms during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. The exact causes are not yet identified, but studies suggest that the effects of hormones on serotonin and GABA signaling may have a significant role, in addition to psychological and environmental factors.
For moderate PMS, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of new-generation combined oral contraceptives, which prevent the natural cyclical change in hormones seen in the physiological menstrual cycle. Continuous use, rather than cyclical, showed better improvement. Response is unpredictable, and NICE suggests a trial of three months, and then to review.
Referral to a specialist clinic is reserved for women who have severe PMS, resistant to medication, that cannot be managed in the community. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has been used successfully in the treatment of women with severe PMS symptoms or in women with moderate PMS that fails to respond to other treatments.
Lifestyle modification advice is given to patients with mild PMS, including regular exercise, restriction in alcohol intake, smoking cessation, regular meals, regular sleep, and stress reduction. St John’s wort, an over-the-counter herbal remedy, has shown improvement of symptoms in some studies, but its safety profile is unknown, and it can interact with prescribed medication. Its use is at the discretion of the individual, but the patient needs to be warned of the potential risks.
Management Options for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Gastroenterology Clinic after being hospitalized for a Crohn's flare. The physician is considering starting her on azathioprine to maintain remission while she is on steroids. What tests can be done to determine if azathioprine is suitable for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyl transferase activity
Explanation:Azathioprine is a medication used to suppress the immune system in organ transplantation and autoimmune disease. It is also used to treat moderate to severe active Crohn’s disease by blocking DNA synthesis and inhibiting cell growth. Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to measure the activity of the enzyme TPMT, which is involved in inactivating the medication. Patients with lower TPMT activity may require a lower dose of azathioprine, while those with extremely low activity may not be able to take the medication at all.
Faecal calprotectin is a substance released into the intestine in the presence of inflammation and is used to diagnose inflammatory bowel disease. Alpha-1-antitrypsin is measured in patients with unknown causes of liver or respiratory disease, as deficiency of this enzyme can cause a syndrome associated with these conditions.
CYP2D6 is an enzyme involved in the metabolism of several medications, including tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs, and anti-psychotics. Inhibitors and inducers of this enzyme can affect medication efficacy. Lactate dehydrogenase is a non-specific test used in a variety of conditions but is not relevant in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An older woman is brought to the Emergency department with sudden chest pain and coughing up blood. She has been experiencing fatigue, weakness, and weight loss for the past six weeks. Prior to this, she had occasional nosebleeds and hearing loss. Upon admission, she is confused and has a fever of 37.7°C, high blood pressure of 165/102 mmHg, and acute kidney injury with elevated potassium, urea, and creatinine levels. Her albumin is low, CRP is high, and she is anemic with an elevated ESR. A urine dipstick test shows blood and protein, and an ultrasound reveals normal-sized kidneys without obstruction or hydronephrosis. A chest X-ray shows widespread rounded opacities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Diagnosing Pulmonary Renal Syndrome: Considerations and Differential Diagnoses
When a patient presents with a pulmonary renal syndrome, it is important to consider the possible diagnoses as the treatments differ. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a multisystem disorder that presents with a combination of pulmonary and renal symptoms, as well as nodular lesions on chest radiographs and ENT symptoms. Other immune-mediated causes of pulmonary renal syndrome include Anti-GBM disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia. Non-immune mediated causes include acute kidney injury with pulmonary edema, severe pneumonia leading to acute tubular necrosis, respiratory infections causing acute interstitial nephritis, and thrombotic events.
eGPA or Churg-Strauss disease is more likely to present with an asthma-like background and less likely to cause acute kidney injury. Anti-GBM disease tends to present with acute pulmonary hemorrhage rather than nodular lesions and has no ENT associations. Disseminated malignancy may be suspected from nodular lesions on x-ray and a history of hemoptysis and weight loss, but this is less likely given the rapid onset of renal failure in this case. The presence of blood and protein on dipstick suggests an active glomerulonephritis, and hypertension fits with an acute glomerulonephritis rather than sepsis.
In summary, when a patient presents with a pulmonary renal syndrome, the combination of symptoms and diagnostic tests can help narrow down the possible causes. It is important to consider both immune-mediated and non-immune mediated causes, as well as the patient’s medical history and presenting symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man has undergone the following investigations by his General Practitioner (GP).
Plasma:
Investigations Results Normal Value
Total Ca2+ 1.85 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 42 g/l 35–55 g/l
PO43- 1.8 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 160 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 80 ng/l 10–65 ng/l
What is the most probable underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure
Explanation:Understanding Hyperparathyroidism and Related Conditions
Hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by high levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the blood, which can lead to imbalances in calcium and phosphate levels. There are several different types of hyperparathyroidism, as well as related conditions that can affect the parathyroid gland and its function.
Chronic renal failure is one such condition, in which impaired 1α-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol leads to reduced calcium and phosphate excretion due to renal impairment. This results in secondary hyperparathyroidism, with elevated PTH levels in response to low plasma ionized calcium. Alkaline phosphatase is also elevated due to renal osteodystrophy.
As chronic renal failure progresses, the parathyroid glands may become hyperplastic or adenomatous, leading to tertiary hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, PTH secretion is substantially increased, causing elevated calcium levels that are not limited by feedback control.
Malignant hyperparathyroidism is another condition that can mimic hyperparathyroidism, but is caused by the production of PTH-related protein (PTHrP) by cancer cells. In this case, PTH levels are low, but calcium levels are high and phosphate levels are low.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by high PTH levels, leading to high calcium and low phosphate levels. Primary hypoparathyroidism, on the other hand, is caused by gland failure and results in low PTH production, leading to low calcium and high phosphate levels. Secondary hypoparathyroidism occurs when PTH production is suppressed by hypercalcemia, but this is not the correct answer in a patient with low calcium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in her left eye. She reports no sensitivity to light and no vision problems. She denies any past eye injuries or diseases. She has been managing her diabetes through diet alone for the past two years. During the examination, the eye is found to be red and tender to the touch.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent and immediate referral to ophthalmic surgeon
Explanation:Management of a Patient with a Painful Red Eye and Diabetes
When managing a patient with a painful red eye and diabetes, it is important to consider the potential causes and appropriate interventions. Urgent referral to an ophthalmic surgeon is necessary if there is suspicion of acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is more common in diabetic patients. Referring the patient back to the diabetic clinic would not be appropriate in this case. Chloramphenicol drops are not indicated unless there is evidence of an infection. Oral flucloxacillin and eye swabs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of skin infection or bacterial conjunctivitis. Reassuring the patient and providing eye lubrication without addressing the underlying cause would be negligent. Prompt and appropriate management is crucial in preventing vision loss in diabetic patients with a painful red eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for hoarseness that has persisted for 6 weeks. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day and has been experiencing a chronic cough for the past 3 months. He denies any episodes of coughing up blood. During an initial examination, an otolaryngologist observes that the right vocal fold is immobile while speaking.
What is the most probable underlying cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Left-Sided Vocal Cord Paralysis
Left-sided vocal cord paralysis can be caused by various factors, including nerve damage and stroke. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is a common cause, resulting in hoarseness due to the vocal cord lying in a paramedian position. This type of nerve damage is often associated with an underlying lung malignancy with mediastinal lymph node involvement. On the other hand, left glossopharyngeal nerve palsy does not affect the larynx, while left superior laryngeal nerve palsy is closely related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve and is also more common on the left side. Cerebrovascular accidents involving the left middle or anterior cerebral artery can also cause vocal cord paralysis, but the history provided does not suggest a stroke. Accurately identifying the cause of left-sided vocal cord paralysis is crucial for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of symptoms due to irregular medication intake, leading to his admission under section 2 of the Mental Health Act following a formal mental state assessment. He had been taking Risperidone orally once daily for several years, which had effectively stabilized his mental state while living in the community. Considering his non-adherence, what treatment option would be most appropriate for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switching to a once monthly IM anti-psychotic depo injection
Explanation:Patients who struggle with taking their antipsychotic medication as prescribed may benefit from receiving a once monthly intramuscular depo injection. It is important to maintain a stable mental state and overall well-being for these patients, and switching medications can increase the risk of relapse and recurring symptoms. The goal is to provide the least restrictive treatment possible and minimize hospitalization time as outlined by the Mental Health Act. While daily visits from a home treatment team to administer medication may be a temporary solution, it is not a sustainable long-term option. Similarly, a once-daily intramuscular injection may not be practical or feasible for the patient.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman named Priya, who moved to the UK from India 8 years ago, visited her GP with her husband. She was 32 weeks pregnant with her first child. Priya had experienced mild hyperemesis until week 16 but had an otherwise uneventful pregnancy. She reported feeling slightly feverish and unwell, and had developed a rash the previous night.
Upon examination, Priya appeared healthy, with a temperature of 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation of 99% in air, heart rate of 92 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. She had a macular rash with some early papular and vesicular lesions.
Further questioning revealed that Priya had attended a family gathering two weeks ago, where she spent time with her young cousins. One of her cousins was later diagnosed with chickenpox. Priya's husband confirmed that she had never had chickenpox before.
What is the appropriate next step in managing chickenpox in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral acyclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and contract chickenpox are typically treated with oral acyclovir if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of developing the rash. Women who were not born and raised in the UK are at a higher risk of contracting chickenpox when they move to the country. The RCOG recommends prescribing oral acyclovir to pregnant women with chickenpox who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and have developed the rash within 24 hours. acyclovir may also be considered for women who are less than 20 weeks pregnant. If a woman contracts chickenpox before 28 weeks of pregnancy, she should be referred to a fetal medicine specialist five weeks after the infection. The chickenpox vaccine cannot be administered during pregnancy, and VZIG is not effective once the rash has developed. In cases where there is clear clinical evidence of chickenpox infection, antibody testing is unnecessary. Pregnant women with chickenpox should be monitored daily, and if they exhibit signs of severe or complicated chickenpox, they should be referred to a specialist immediately. Adults with chickenpox are at a higher risk of complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis, and in rare cases, death, so proper assessment and management are crucial.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low back pain over the past four years. The pain is worse at night when he lies down and improves as he moves around during the day, but it does not go away with rest. Upon further questioning, he reports having experienced three episodes of acute eye pain with sensitivity to light and blurry vision in the past two years. He sought treatment from an ophthalmologist, and the symptoms resolved with steroids and eye drops. X-rays reveal some inflammatory and arthritic changes in the sacroiliac joints. Despite treatment, the disease has continued to progress, and ten years later, x-rays show calcification of the anterior spinal ligament. What is the most likely positive finding in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding HLA and Autoimmune Diseases
HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the spine. This disease is more common in males and typically presents in the 20s and 30s. Other autoimmune manifestations, such as anterior uveitis, can also occur in individuals with HLA-B27. Additionally, young men with this genetic marker may be prone to reactive arthritis after chlamydia or gonorrhoeal urethritis.
Rheumatoid factor, on the other hand, is not associated with HLA-B27 or ankylosing spondylitis. While stiffness that improves with exercise may be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, this disease typically affects peripheral joints and does not lead to calcification of the anterior spinal ligament.
Other HLA markers are associated with different autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR3 is linked to type 1 diabetes mellitus, HLA-DR5 is associated with pernicious anaemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and HLA-B8 is linked to Graves’ disease. Understanding these genetic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable course of action for a 33-year-old man who has an extracapsular fractured neck of femur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dynamic hip screw
Explanation:Fractured Neck of Femur in Elderly Patients
Fractured neck of femur is a common injury that causes morbidity and mortality in elderly patients. This type of fracture occurs between the head and trochanteric region of the femur and can also occur in younger patients due to trauma or associated conditions. The fracture can be displaced or nondisplaced, and intracapsular or extracapsular.
For displaced fractures, there are two treatment strategies: reduction and fixation or replacement of the head and neck of the femur with a prosthesis. Physiologically younger and active patients with displaced extracapsular fractures should be treated with reduction and fixation, often with a dynamic hip screw. However, there is a risk of further surgery if the hip develops painful avascular necrosis, which may not be avoided despite the best surgical treatment. Displaced intracapsular fractures in younger patients are not straightforward to manage, and a total hip replacement may be considered.
In older patients, displaced fractures are best treated with replacement of the head and neck of the femur to avoid potential further surgery. It is important for patients to understand the risks and benefits of each treatment option and to work with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A twenty-five-year-old male with Crohn's disease is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. Despite infliximab therapy, the patient's symptoms persist, and he complains of abdominal pain and high output through his stoma. On examination, he appears pale and cachectic, with a heart rate of 74/minute, regular respiratory rate of 14/minute, oxygen saturations of 99%, temperature of 38.2 ºC, and blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg. The stoma bag is situated in the left iliac fossa, and the stoma site is pink and spouted without evidence of infarction or parastomal hernias. What type of stoma does this patient have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ileostomy
Explanation:An ileostomy is a type of stoma that is created to prevent the skin from being exposed to the enzymes in the small intestine. This is commonly seen in patients with Crohn’s disease, which affects the entire gastrointestinal tract. While the location of the stoma may vary, it is the structure of the stoma itself that determines whether it is an ileostomy or a colostomy. In contrast, a tracheostomy is an opening in the trachea, while a nephrostomy is an opening in the kidneys that is used to drain urine into a bag. A urostomy is another type of stoma that is used to divert urine from the urinary system into a bag, but it differs from an ileostomy in that it involves the use of an ileal conduit.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be sprouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed seizure, where her hands and feet shook and she bit her tongue. This is the second such event in the past 6 months and she was due to see a neurologist in a month’s time. Computed tomography (CT) brain was normal. Electroencephalogram (EEG) was normal, albeit not performed during the ‘seizure’ activity. Her doctor believes she has epilepsy and is keen to commence anticonvulsive therapy. She is sexually active and uses only condoms for protection.
Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable for this particular patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Antiepileptic Medications and Pregnancy: Considerations for Women of Childbearing Age
When it comes to treating epilepsy in women of childbearing age, there are important considerations to keep in mind. Lamotrigine is a good choice for monotherapy, but it can worsen myoclonic seizures. Levetiracetam is preferred for myoclonic seizures, while carbamazepine has an increased risk of birth defects. Sodium valproate is the first-line agent for adults with generalized epilepsy, but it has been linked to neural tube defects in babies. Phenytoin is no longer used as a first-line treatment, but may be used in emergency situations. Clinicians should be aware of these risks and consult resources like the UK Epilepsy and Pregnancy Registry to make informed decisions about treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with his partner following a fall. A collateral history is obtained, revealing that he tripped over a loose rug and fell, hitting his head on the ground and losing consciousness for 2 minutes. Upon examination, there is bruising on his upper limbs, but no neurological deficits are observed, and his Glasgow coma score (GCS) is 15. The patient himself can recall events leading up to and after the fall, and has not experienced vomiting or seizures since the incident. Additionally, there are no indications of a skull fracture. The patient has a medical history of hypertension that is managed with amlodipine. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perform CT head within 8 hours
Explanation:For patients over 65 years old who have experienced some form of loss of consciousness or amnesia after a head injury, a CT scan should be performed within 8 hours. This is important to assess the risk of complications from the injury. While this patient does not have any immediate indications for a CT scan, as they did not have a GCS score below 13 on initial assessment, suspected skull fractures, seizures, focal neurological deficits, or vomiting, they did lose consciousness during the fall. NICE guidelines recommend that any patient over 65 years old who experiences a loss of consciousness or amnesia following a fall should be offered a CT head 8 hours post-injury to identify potential complications such as intracranial bleeds. A CT scan within 1 hour is not necessary in this case.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day history of fever and a new onset rash on the arms, legs, and abdomen that started today. Despite the fever, the baby has been behaving normally and does not seem bothered by the rash. Upon closer examination, the rash appears red with small bumps that are merging together. None of the lesions have scabbed over. The rash is mostly on the limbs and there are no signs of scratching. The baby's temperature is now normal at 36.9ºC. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6
Explanation:Human herpes virus 6 is the cause of Roseola infantum, a viral illness that is characterized by a fever lasting for 3 days followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash on the 4th day. The fever can develop quickly and may lead to febrile convulsions. The rash typically starts on the trunk and limbs, unlike chickenpox which usually presents with a central rash. HHV6 is known to attack the nervous system, which can result in rare complications such as encephalitis and febrile fits after the fever has subsided. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein Barr virus, while genital herpes is caused by Human herpes virus 2. Bacterial meningitis, which is characterized by symptoms of meningism such as photophobia, stiff neck, and headache, along with a non-blanching rash seen in meningococcal septicaemia, is commonly caused by Neisseria meningitidis.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure presents to you with a complaint of dry, itchy skin that is particularly bothersome on her legs. Upon examination, you observe erythematosus, dry skin on her legs with an unusual pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asteatotic eczema
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Asteatotic Eczema, Contact Dermatitis, Lichen Planus, Scabies, and Venous Ulceration
Asteatotic eczema is a skin condition that commonly affects elderly individuals due to over-washing and dry winter climate. It can also be associated with diuretic use and hypothyroidism. The condition causes dry, itchy skin with a unique crazy paving pattern on the limbs. Treatment involves using emollients and mild topical steroids.
Contact dermatitis, on the other hand, is caused by friction and environmental factors such as cold or exposure to chemicals like detergents and solvents. It typically affects the hands and does not display the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Lichen planus is characterized by a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape. It presents with a lace-like pattern, unlike the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Scabies is an itchy rash caused by mites that burrow under the skin’s surface. It often affects the very young and elderly, particularly those who live in crowded areas or institutional care. It presents with burrows, particularly on the web spaces between fingers, followed by a hypersensitivity rash. Treatment involves using topical insecticides like 5% permethrin.
Finally, venous ulceration is present on the lower limbs and can be itchy if associated with venous eczema. However, the legs often display a brown pigmentation of haemosiderin, and a venous ulcer would not present as described in this question.
In summary, understanding the characteristics of these common skin conditions can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You assess a 6-year-old girl with cerebral palsy who is experiencing persistent spasticity in her legs resulting in contractures and pain. After discussing with her mother, you discover that she is receiving regular physiotherapy, utilizing appropriate orthoses, and has previously attempted oral diazepam. What treatment option could be presented to potentially enhance her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Baclofen
Explanation:Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A client is given local anaesthetic after a procedure. The physician injects 25 ml of 1.5% lidocaine.
What is the total amount of lidocaine in milligrams?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 400mg
Explanation:The strength of the solution is such that 2g are dissolved in every 100ml. This means that for every 100 ml of solution, 2g of lidocaine are dissolved. If 20 ml of the solution is infiltrated (which is one-fifth of 100ml), then the amount of lidocaine present in the infiltrated solution can be calculated by dividing 2g (which is equal to 2000mg) by 5.
Local anaesthetic agents include lidocaine, cocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine. Lidocaine is an amide that is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and renally excreted. Toxicity can occur with IV or excess administration, and increased risk is present with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Cocaine is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice and is cardiotoxic. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lignocaine and is cardiotoxic, while levobupivacaine is less cardiotoxic. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic and is the agent of choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old retired teacher presents with acute-onset confusion. The patient lives alone and is usually in good health. She has had no issues with her memory before, but over the past three days, her neighbor has noticed that the patient has become increasingly confused; this morning she did not recognize her own home. When taking the history from the neighbor, she mentions that the patient had been experiencing urinary symptoms over the past week. A dipstick of the patient’s urine is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites. A tentative diagnosis of delirium secondary to a urinary tract infection (UTI) is made, and empirical treatment for UTI is initiated.
Which of the following tests is typically abnormal during delirium, regardless of the cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Delirium: Understanding Their Role in Evaluation
Delirium is a state of acute brain impairment that can be caused by various factors. The diagnosis of delirium is based on clinical features, such as acute onset, fluctuating course, disorientation, perceptual disturbances, and decreased attention. However, diagnostic tests may be necessary to identify the underlying cause of delirium and guide appropriate treatment. Here are some common diagnostic tests used in the evaluation of delirium:
Electroencephalogram (EEG): EEG can show diffuse slowing in delirious individuals, regardless of the cause of delirium. A specific pattern called K complexes may occur in delirium due to hepatic encephalopathy.
Lumbar puncture: This test may be used to diagnose meningitis, which can present with delirium. However, it may not be abnormal in many cases of delirium.
Serum glucose: Hyper- or hypoglycemia can cause delirium, but serum glucose may not be universally abnormal in all cases of delirium.
Computed tomography (CT) of the head: CT may be used to evaluate delirium, but it may be normal in certain cases, such as profound sepsis causing delirium.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): ECG is unlikely to be abnormal in delirium, regardless of the cause.
While diagnostic tests can be helpful in the evaluation of delirium, the cornerstone of treatment is addressing the underlying cause. Patients with delirium need close monitoring to prevent harm to themselves. Manipulating the environment, using medications to reduce agitation and sedate patients, and providing reassurance and familiar contact can also be helpful in managing delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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