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  • Question 1 - Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation after experiencing some palpitations. She has no other medical history and only takes atorvastatin for high cholesterol. She has no symptoms currently and her observations are stable with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      What would be the appropriate next step in managing Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer: Arrange for an echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      When a patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score that suggests they do not need anticoagulation, it is recommended to perform a transthoracic echo to rule out valvular heart disease. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in AF patients, and anticoagulant treatment is generally indicated for those with a score of two or more. Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that can be used in AF, but it is not necessary in this scenario. Aspirin should not be used to prevent stroke in AF patients. If a patient requires rate control for fast AF, beta-blockers are the first line of treatment. Digoxin is only used for patients with a more sedentary lifestyle and doesn’t protect against stroke. It is important to perform a transthoracic echo in AF patients, especially if it may change their management or refine their risk of stroke and need for anticoagulation.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You have been asked to review the blood pressure of a 67-year-old woman....

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to review the blood pressure of a 67-year-old woman. She was recently seen by the practice nurse for her annual health review and her blood pressure measured at the time was 148/90 mmHg. There is no history of headache, visual changes or symptoms suggestive of heart failure. Her past medical history includes hypertension, osteoporosis and type 2 diabetes. The medications she is currently on include amlodipine, alendronate, metformin, and lisinopril.

      On examination, her blood pressure is 152/88 mmHg. Cardiovascular exam is unremarkable. Fundoscopy shows a normal fundi. The results of the blood test from two days ago are as follow:

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 98 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing her blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker

      Explanation:

      If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic, and their potassium level is above 4.5mmol/l, NICE recommends adding an alpha-blocker or seeking expert advice. In this case, as the patient is asthmatic, a beta-blocker is contraindicated, making an alpha-blocker the appropriate choice. However, if the patient’s potassium level was less than 4.5, a low-dose aldosterone antagonist could be considered as an off-license use. Referral for specialist assessment is only recommended if blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, which is not the case for this patient who is currently taking three antihypertensive agents.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      98.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.
      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      Your Answer: LDL, IDL and VLDL cholesterol

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Non-HDL Cholesterol in Statin Treatment

      NICE guidelines recommend that high-intensity statin treatment for both primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease should aim for a greater than 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. Non-HDL cholesterol includes LDL, IDL, and VLDL cholesterol. In the past, LDL reduction has been used as a marker of statin effect. However, non-HDL reduction is more useful as it takes into account the atherogenic properties of IDL and VLDL cholesterol, which may be raised even in the presence of normal LDL levels.

      Using non-HDL cholesterol also has other benefits. Hypertriglyceridaemia can interfere with lab-based LDL calculations, but it doesn’t impact non-HDL calculation, which is measured by a different method. Additionally, a fasting sample is not required to measure non-HDL cholesterol, making sampling and monitoring easier. Overall, non-HDL cholesterol is an important marker to consider in statin treatment for cardiovascular disease prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old man has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during his annual hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during his annual hypertension review after an irregular pulse was detected. He has no bleeding risk factors, no other co-morbidities, and a CHA2DS2VASc score of 3. He consents to starting medication for stroke prevention. What is the recommended first-line treatment for stroke prevention in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edoxaban

      Explanation:

      When it comes to reducing the risk of stroke in individuals with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2VASc score of 2 or higher, the first-line option should be anticoagulation with a direct-acting oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, or rivaroxaban. In a primary care setting, it is important to use the CHA2DS2VASc assessment tool to evaluate the person’s stroke risk, as well as assess the risk of bleeding and work to mitigate any current risk factors such as uncontrolled hypertension, concurrent medication, harmful alcohol consumption, and reversible causes of anemia.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. He visits the GP clinic after 5 days with unexplained bruising. His INR is measured and found to be 4.5. He has a medical history of epilepsy, depression, substance abuse, and homelessness. Which medication is the most probable cause of his bruising from the following options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate is known to inhibit enzymes, which can lead to an increase in warfarin levels if taken together. The patient’s medical history could include any of the listed drugs, but the question is specifically testing knowledge of enzyme inhibitors. Rifampicin and St John’s Wort are both enzyme inducers, while heroin (diamorphine) doesn’t have any effect on enzyme activity.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
    Select the...

    Incorrect

    • A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
      Select the single correct statement regarding this process.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Screening all men at 65 is estimated to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50%

      Explanation:

      National Screening Programme for Aortic Aneurysm in Men at 65

      The National Screening Programme aims to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50% by screening all men in their 65th year. The prevalence of significant aneurysm in this age group is 4%. Screening will be done through ultrasound, and those without significant aneurysms will be discharged. For those with aneurysms greater than 5.5 cm in diameter, surgery will be offered to 0.5% of men. Those with small aneurysms will enter a follow-up programme. However, the mortality from elective surgery is 5-7%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

    He is rushed to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

      He is rushed to the Emergency department, and is found to be in ventricular tachycardia. He is defibrillated successfully and his 12 lead ECG following resuscitation demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy. Ventricular tachycardia recurs and despite prolonged resuscitation he dies.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy and its ECG Findings

      The sudden onset of arrhythmia in a young and previously healthy individual is often indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). It is important to screen relatives for this condition. The majority of patients with HCM have an abnormal resting ECG, which may show nonspecific changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, and T-wave inversion. Other possible ECG findings include right or left axis deviation, conduction abnormalities, sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, and atrial enlargement.

      Ambulatory ECG monitoring can reveal atrial and ventricular ectopics, sinus pauses, intermittent or variable atrioventricular block, and non-sustained arrhythmias. However, the ECG findings do not necessarily correlate with prognosis. Arrhythmias associated with HCM can include premature ventricular complexes, non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is also a common complication, occurring in approximately 20% of cases and increasing the risk of fatal cardiac failure.

      It is important to note that there is no history to suggest drug abuse, and aortic stenosis is rare in the absence of congenital or rheumatic heart disease. A myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism would have distinct ECG changes that are not typically seen in HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman has a blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg on ambulatory...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman has a blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg on ambulatory blood pressure testing.

      She has no heart murmurs and her chest is clear. Past medical history includes asthma and chronic lymphoedema of the legs.

      As per the latest NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136), what would be the most suitable approach to manage her blood pressure in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise lifestyle changes and repeat in one year

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Antihypertensive Treatment for People Over 55 and Black People of African or Caribbean Family Origin

      According to the latest NICE guidance, people aged over 55 years and black people of African or Caribbean family origin of any age should be offered step 1 antihypertensive treatment with a CCB. If a CCB is not suitable due to oedema or intolerance, or if there is evidence of heart failure or a high risk of heart failure, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered instead.

      This guidance aims to provide effective treatment options for hypertension in these specific populations, taking into account individual circumstances and potential side effects. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these recommendations to ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features. He has noticed increased dyspnea on exertion in the past few weeks. He denies any chest pain and has no known history of cardiac issues. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which reveals complete heart block.
      Which of the following physical findings is most indicative of the diagnosis?
      Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irregular cannon ‘A’ waves on jugular venous pressure

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Clinical Signs of Complete Heart Block

      Complete heart block is a condition where there is a complete failure of conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in bradycardia and potential symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, dyspnea, and chest pain. Here are some clinical signs to look out for when assessing a patient with complete heart block:

      Irregular Cannon ‘A’ Waves on Jugular Venous Pressure: Cannon waves are large A waves that occur irregularly when the right atrium contracts against a closed tricuspid valve. In complete heart block, these waves occur randomly due to atrioventricular dissociation.

      Low-Volume Pulse: Complete heart block doesn’t necessarily create a low-volume pulse. This is typically found in other conditions such as shock, left ventricular dysfunction, or mitral stenosis.

      Irregularly Irregular Pulse: The ‘escape rhythms’ in third-degree heart block usually produce a slow, regular pulse that doesn’t vary with exercise. Unless found in combination with another condition such as atrial fibrillation, the pulse should be regular.

      Collapsing Pulse: A collapsing pulse is typically associated with aortic regurgitation and would not be expected with complete heart block alone.

      Loud Second Heart Sound: In complete heart block, the intensity of the first and second heart sound varies due to the loss of atrioventricular synchrony. A consistently loud second heart sound may be found in conditions such as pulmonary hypertension.

      By understanding these clinical signs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage patients with complete heart block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension

      Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy

      NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs of end-organ damage. As a first step, he is recommended to make lifestyle changes instead of taking medication.

      What are the most suitable lifestyle modifications to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A diet containing less than 6g of salt per day

      Explanation:

      For patients with hypertension, it is recommended to follow a low salt diet and aim for less than 6g/day, ideally 3g/day. Consuming a diet high in processed red meats may increase cardiovascular risk and blood pressure, although this is a topic of ongoing research and public opinion varies. While tea may contain a similar amount of caffeine as coffee, it is unlikely to reduce overall caffeine intake. The current exercise recommendation for hypertension is 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, 5 days a week. It is recommended to limit alcohol intake in hypertension, and consuming 2 glasses of red wine, 5 days a week would exceed the recommended limits.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

    He was recently...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

      He was recently diagnosed when he was admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. Echocardiography has revealed impaired left ventricular function. He also has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.

      His current medications are: aspirin 75 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, metformin 850 mg TDS, ramipril 10 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily.

      He tells you that the ramipril was initiated when the diagnosis of heart failure was made and has been titrated up to 10 mg daily over the recent weeks. His symptoms are currently stable.

      Clinical examination reveals no peripheral oedema, his chest sounds clear and clinically he is in sinus rhythm at 76 beats per minute. His BP is 126/80 mHg.

      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to add to his therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Heart Failure Patients

      Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The ACE inhibitors should be considered first, followed by beta blockers once the patient’s condition is stable, unless contraindicated. However, the updated NICE guidance suggests using clinical judgment to decide which drug to start first. Combination treatment with an ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for these patients. Beta blockers have been shown to improve survival in heart failure patients, and three drugs are licensed for this use in the UK. Patients who are newly diagnosed with impaired left ventricular systolic function and are already taking a beta blocker should be considered for a switch to one shown to be beneficial in heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - You are about to start a patient in their 70s on lisinopril for...

    Incorrect

    • You are about to start a patient in their 70s on lisinopril for hypertension. Which one of the following conditions is most likely to increase the risk of side-effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors pose a significant risk of profound hypotension in patients with aortic stenosis. However, the co-prescription of bendroflumethiazide, a weak diuretic, is commonly used and doesn’t increase the risk of hypotension as seen with high-dose loop diuretics such as furosemide 80 mg bd. Patients with chronic kidney disease stage 2, which is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate of > 60 mL/min/1.73 m², are unlikely to experience significant side effects.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man on your patient roster has been experiencing recurrent angina episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man on your patient roster has been experiencing recurrent angina episodes for the past few weeks despite being prescribed bisoprolol at the highest dose. You are contemplating adding another medication to address his angina. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg, and his heart rate is 84 beats/min, which is regular. There is no other significant medical history.

      What would be the most suitable supplementary treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If beta-blocker therapy is not effective in controlling angina, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine should be added. However, it is important to note that rate-limiting calcium-channel blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil should not be combined with beta-blockers as they can lead to severe bradycardia and heart failure. In cases where a calcium-channel blocker is contraindicated or not tolerated, potassium-channel activators like nicorandil or inward sodium current inhibitors like ranolazine may be considered. It is recommended to seek specialist advice before initiating ranolazine.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - You are assessing a 67-year-old woman who is on amlodipine 10 mg and...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 67-year-old woman who is on amlodipine 10 mg and ramipril 2.5 mg for her hypertension. Her current clinic BP reading is 139/87 mmHg.

      What recommendations would you make regarding her medication regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      To maintain good control of hypertension in patients under 80 years of age, the target clinic blood pressure should be below 140/90 mmHg. In this case, the patient’s blood pressure is within the target range, indicating that their current medication regimen is effective and should not be altered. However, if their blood pressure was above 140/90 mmHg, increasing the ramipril dosage to 5mg could be considered before adding a third medication, as the amlodipine is already at its maximum dose.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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  • Question 17 - A patient who is 65 years old calls you from overseas. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is 65 years old calls you from overseas. He was recently discharged from a hospital in Spain after experiencing a heart attack. The hospital did not report any complications and he did not undergo a percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the minimum amount of time he should wait before flying back home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After 7-10 days

      Explanation:

      After a period of 7-10 days, the individual’s fitness to fly will be assessed.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is currently on aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, and nifedipine, but is still experiencing frequent use of his GTN spray. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate MR and refer to cardiology for consideration of PCI or CABG

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a patient needs a third anti-anginal medication, they should be referred for evaluation of a more permanent solution such as PCI or CABG. Although ACE inhibitors may be beneficial for certain patients with stable angina, they would not alleviate his angina symptoms.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left lower limb pain lasting for three hours. The pain started while she was at rest and there was no history of injury or any previous leg or calf pain.
      Upon examination, her pulse rate is irregular and measures 92 bpm. The left lower limb is cold and immobile with decreased sensation. No pulses can be felt from the level of the femoral pulse downwards in the left leg, but all pulses are palpable on the right. There are no abdominal masses or bruits, and chest auscultation is normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Acute Limb Ischaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Acute limb ischaemia is a condition characterized by a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb that feels perishingly cold with paraesthesia. This condition is usually caused by either an embolus or thrombotic occlusion, which can occur on the background of intermittent claudication (chronic limb ischaemia). In most cases, the likely cause of acute limb ischaemia is an embolism secondary to atrial fibrillation. Other sources of emboli include defective heart valves, cardiac mural thrombi, and thrombus from within an aortic aneurysm.

      If a patient presents with a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb, an echocardiogram, abdominal ultrasound, and duplex of proximal limb vessels are indicated. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to note that acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Delayed treatment can lead to irreversible tissue damage and even limb loss.

      In summary, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention immediately to prevent irreversible tissue damage and limb loss.

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  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his GP with severe leg pain. On examination there are several, small punched-out ulcers situated on the lower third of both legs. Both dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses appear absent.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple arterial ulcers

      Explanation:

      Arterial Ulceration in Smokers: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Arterial ulceration is a common problem among smokers, which is characterized by intense leg pain and sleep interference. The absence of foot pulses bilaterally indicates peripheral vascular disease, and it is important to assess for ischaemic heart disease and carotid disease as well. Angioplasty or bypass surgery may be appropriate for improving the peripheral blood supply in a limited number of cases only, while peripheral vasodilators are rarely effective. However, other options such as varicose veins, vasculitis, injury, or bites should be ruled out before making a diagnosis. In this article, we will discuss the symptoms and treatment options for arterial ulceration in smokers.

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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of his medication as advised by cardiology. He suffered an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) four weeks ago. His history reveals that he is a smoker (20 per day for 30 years) and works in a sedentary office job, where he often works long days and eats ready meals to save time with food preparation.
      On examination, his heart rate is 62 bpm and his blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, body mass index (BMI) is 31. His bisoprolol is increased to 5 mg and ramipril to 7.5 mg.
      Which of the following is the single non-pharmacological intervention that will be most helpful in reducing his risk of a future ischaemic event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Reducing Cardiovascular Risk: Lifestyle Changes to Consider

      Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a leading cause of death worldwide, but many of the risk factors are modifiable through lifestyle changes. The three most important modifiable and causal risk factors are smoking, hypertension, and abnormal lipids. While hypertension and abnormal lipids may require medication to make significant changes, smoking cessation is the single most important non-pharmacological, modifiable risk factor in reducing cardiovascular risk.

      In addition to quitting smoking, there are other lifestyle changes that can help reduce cardiovascular risk. A cardioprotective diet should limit total fat intake to 30% or less of total energy intake, with saturated fat intake below 7%. Low-carbohydrate dietary intake is also thought to be important in cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Regular exercise is also important, with 150 minutes or more per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity and muscle-strengthening activities on at least two days a week recommended. While exercise is beneficial, stopping smoking remains the most effective lifestyle change for reducing cardiovascular risk.

      Salt restriction can also help reduce risk, with a recommended intake of less than 6 g per day. Patients should be advised to avoid adding salt to their meals and minimize processed foods.

      Finally, weight reduction should be advised to decrease future cardiovascular risk, with a goal of achieving a normal BMI. Obese patients should also be assessed for sleep apnea. By making these lifestyle changes, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

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  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old man is admitted with ST elevation myocardial infarction and treated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted with ST elevation myocardial infarction and treated with thrombolysis but no angioplasty. What guidance should he receive regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance following a heart attack – refrain from driving for a period of 4 weeks.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 76-year-old female, recently diagnosed with hypertension, presents to the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old female, recently diagnosed with hypertension, presents to the emergency department after collapsing. She reports feeling dizzy just before the incident and had recently begun a new medication prescribed by her GP. Her medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, glaucoma, and diverticular disease.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      First-dose hypotension is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors like ramipril, which is commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients. If a patient experiences dizziness or lightheadedness, it may be a warning sign of impending syncope.

      Prochlorperazine is not indicated for any of the patient’s medical conditions and is unlikely to cause syncope. Fludrocortisone, on the other hand, can increase blood pressure and is therefore not a likely cause of syncope.

      Metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia frequently, so it is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s collapse. While beta-blockers can cause syncope, it is unlikely to occur after the application of eye drops.

      ACE inhibitors are a type of medication that can have side-effects. One common side-effect is a cough, which can occur in around 15% of patients and may happen up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased levels of bradykinin. Another potential side-effect is angioedema, which may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are also possible side-effects, especially in patients taking diuretics.

      There are certain cautions and contraindications to be aware of when taking ACE inhibitors. Pregnant or breastfeeding women should avoid these medications. Patients with renovascular disease may experience significant renal impairment if they have undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis. Aortic stenosis may result in hypotension, and patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at increased risk of hypotension. Individuals with hereditary or idiopathic angioedema should also avoid ACE inhibitors.

      Monitoring is important when taking ACE inhibitors. Urea and electrolytes should be checked before treatment is initiated and after increasing the dose. A rise in creatinine and potassium levels may be expected after starting treatment, but acceptable changes are an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. It is important to note that different guidelines may have slightly different acceptable ranges for these changes.

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  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old man has been taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation for the past...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation for the past 3 months but is having difficulty controlling his INR levels. He wonders if his diet could be a contributing factor.
      What is the one food that is most likely to affect his INR levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinach

      Explanation:

      Foods and Factors that Affect Warfarin and Vitamin K Levels

      Warfarin is a medication used to prevent blood clots, but its effectiveness can be reduced by consuming foods high in vitamin K. These foods include liver, broccoli, cabbage, Brussels sprouts, green leafy vegetables (such as spinach, kale, and lettuce), peas, celery, and asparagus. It is important for patients to maintain a consistent intake of these foods to avoid fluctuations in vitamin K levels.

      Contrary to popular belief, tomatoes have relatively low levels of vitamin K, although concentrated tomato paste contains higher levels. Alcohol consumption can also affect vitamin K levels, so patients should avoid heavy or binge drinking while taking warfarin.

      Antibiotics can also impact warfarin effectiveness by killing off gut bacteria responsible for synthesizing vitamin K. Additionally, cranberry juice may inhibit warfarin metabolism, leading to an increase in INR levels.

      Overall, patients taking warfarin should be mindful of their diet and avoid excessive consumption of vitamin K-rich foods, alcohol, and cranberry juice.

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  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old man presents with intermittent bilateral calf pain that occurs when walking....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with intermittent bilateral calf pain that occurs when walking. He has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and a past myocardial infarction (MI). What additional feature, commonly seen in patients with intermittent claudication, would be present in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pain disappears within ten minutes of stopping exercise

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intermittent Claudication: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Intermittent claudication is a condition that affects the lower limbs and is caused by arterial disease. Here are some key characteristics and symptoms to help you understand this condition:

      – Pain disappears within ten minutes of stopping exercise: The muscle pain in the lower limbs that develops as a result of exercise due to lower-extremity arterial disease is quickly relieved at rest, usually within ten minutes.

      – Pain eases walking uphill: Typically, pain develops more rapidly when walking uphill than on the flat.

      – Occurs similarly in both legs: Claudication can occur in both legs but is often worse in one leg.

      – Pain in the buttock: In intermittent claudication, the pain is typically felt in the calf. A diagnosis of atypical claudication could be made if a patient indicates pain in the thigh or buttock, in the absence of any calf pain.

      – Pain starts when standing still: Intermittent claudication is classically described as pain that starts during exertion and which is relieved on rest.

      Understanding these symptoms and characteristics can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for intermittent claudication.

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  • Question 26 - You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for heart failure. What is the most probable side effect that can be attributed to his new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep disturbances

      Explanation:

      Insomnia may be caused by beta-blockers.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive exercise intolerance. Four weeks ago, she experienced an episode suggestive of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. Examination reveals a jugular venous pressure (JVP) raised up to her earlobes, soft, tender hepatomegaly and bilateral pitting oedema up to her ankles. Chest examination reveals bibasal crepitations and an audible S3 on auscultation of the heart. The chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly with interstitial infiltrates. Echocardiography shows global left ventricular hypokinesia with an ejection fraction of 20–25%. She has no other significant medical history.
      Which of the following is the most likely underlying causal factor in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant genetic trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dilated Cardiomyopathy and its Causes

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is a progressive disease of the heart muscle that causes stretching and dilatation of the left ventricle, resulting in contractile dysfunction. This condition can also affect the right ventricle, leading to congestive cardiac failure. While it is a heterogeneous condition with multiple causal factors, about 35% of cases are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. Other causes include autoimmune reactions, hypertension, connective tissue disorders, metabolic causes, malignancy, neuromuscular causes, and chronic alcohol abuse. Rarely, amyloidosis and Marfan syndrome can also cause dilated cardiomyopathy. Ischaemic heart disease is not the most common cause in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old patient. While HIV infection can cause dilated cardiomyopathy, it is not a common cause, and it would be rare for this complication to be the first presentation of HIV. Understanding the various causes of dilated cardiomyopathy can help in its diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder and arm for the past few weeks when he exercises at the gym. He stops exercising and it goes away within five minutes. He has taken glyceryl trinitrate and finds it relieves the pain. His blood pressure is 158/94 mmHg and examination of the cardiovascular system and upper limbs is normal. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Stable Angina: CT Coronary Angiography, Non-Invasive Functional Imaging, ECG, Endoscopy, and Exercise ECG

      Stable angina is suspected when a patient experiences constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms during physical exertion, which is relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate within five minutes. A typical angina diagnosis can be confirmed through a computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography, which should be offered if the patient exhibits typical or atypical angina or if the ECG shows ST-T changes or Q waves. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended if the CT coronary angiography is not diagnostic or if the coronary artery disease is of uncertain functional significance. While ECG changes may suggest coronary artery disease, a normal ECG doesn’t confirm or exclude a diagnosis of stable angina. Endoscopy is used to investigate gastro-oesophageal causes of chest pain, but exercise-induced chest pain is more likely to be cardiac in nature. Exercise electrocardiograms are no longer recommended to diagnose or exclude stable angina in patients without known coronary artery disease.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three months previously.

      He has made a full recovery but wants to ask about his diet.

      Which one of the following foods should he avoid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pork

      Explanation:

      Tips for a Heart-Healthy Diet after a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important to adopt a healthier overall diet to reduce the risk of future heart problems. Unhealthy diets have been attributed to up to 30% of all deaths from coronary heart disease (CHD). While reducing fat intake is important, exercise also plays a crucial role in maintaining heart health.

      Including canned and frozen fruits and vegetables in your diet is just as beneficial as fresh produce. A Mediterranean diet, which includes many protective elements for CHD, is recommended. Replacing butter with olive oil and mono-unsaturated margarine, such as those made from rape-seed or olive oil, is a healthier option. Organic butter is not any better for heart health than non-organic butter.

      To reduce cholesterol intake, it is recommended to eat less red meat and replace it with poultry. Margarine containing sitostanol ester may also help reduce cholesterol intake. Adding plant sterol to margarine has been shown to reduce serum low-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Eating more fish, including oily fish, at least once a week is also recommended.

      Switching to whole-grain bread instead of white bread and eating more root vegetables and green vegetables is also beneficial. Lastly, it is important to eat fruit every day. By following these tips, you can maintain a heart-healthy diet and reduce the risk of future heart problems.

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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He recalled rushing for the train before feeling dizzy. His father recently died suddenly because of a heart problem. On examination, he has a ‘jerky’ pulse, a thrusting apex beat with double impulse and a late ejection systolic murmur which diminishes on squatting.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic heart condition that is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young people. It is characterized by an enlarged left ventricle, which can cause obstruction of blood flow. A jerky pulse and an intensifying systolic murmur during activities that decrease blood volume in the left ventricle are common examination findings. Aortic stenosis, Brugada syndrome, mitral regurgitation, and mitral valve prolapse are other heart conditions that have different symptoms and examination findings.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (2/3) 67%
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