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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man presents to Gastroenterology with haematemesis and is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to Gastroenterology with haematemesis and is found to have oesophageal varices on endoscopy. He denies any history of alcohol consumption. On examination, he has a small liver with splenomegaly. His blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg and heart rate is 88 beats per minute. Laboratory investigations reveal low albumin levels, elevated bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP levels, and high ferritin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Liver Diseases and Their Differentiating Factors

      Liver diseases can lead to cirrhosis and eventually portal hypertension and oesophageal varices. However, differentiating factors can help identify the specific condition.

      Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition that results in abnormal iron metabolism and deposition of iron in body tissues. Elevated ferritin levels and bronze skin coloration are common indicators.

      Primary biliary cholangitis can also lead to cirrhosis and portal hypertension, but the ALP would be raised, and the patient would more likely be a woman.

      Wilson’s disease is a genetically inherited condition that results in abnormal copper metabolism and deposition of copper in the tissues. Kayser–Fleischer rings in the eyes, psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive impairment are common indicators.

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is associated with metabolic syndrome and high-fat diets. Ferritin levels would not be expected to be raised.

      Chronic viral hepatitis caused by hepatitis B or C can result in cirrhosis and portal hypertension. A history of injection drug use is a common indicator, and ferritin levels would not be raised.

      In conclusion, identifying differentiating factors can help diagnose specific liver diseases and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after complaining of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after complaining of abdominal pain and black stools since last night. She reports no unintentional weight loss or fresh blood in her stool. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis treated with ibuprofen and well-controlled essential hypertension with candesartan. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals an actively bleeding gastric ulcer. What major vessel supplies blood to the affected area of her gastrointestinal tract?

      Your Answer: Coeliac trunk

      Explanation:

      Blood Supply to the Digestive System: Arteries and their Branches

      The digestive system receives its blood supply from several arteries and their branches. The coeliac trunk, which originates from the abdominal aorta, carries the major blood supply to the stomach through its three main divisions: the left gastric artery, the common hepatic artery, and the splenic artery. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the colon and small bowel, while the superior mesenteric artery mainly supplies the duodenum, small intestines, colon, and pancreas. The splenic artery supplies blood to the spleen and gives rise to the left gastroepiploic artery. The artery of Drummond connects the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries and is also known as the marginal artery of the colon. It is important to note that the absence of this artery is a variant and not pathological.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22.1
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of abdominal pain. Upon further inquiry, she reveals a 3-week history of right-sided abdominal pain and considerable weight loss. She reports consuming 3 units of alcohol per week and has smoked for 10 pack-years. She is not taking any medications except for the contraceptive pill and has no known allergies. During the physical examination, she displays oral ulcers and exhibits signs of fatigue and pallor.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Abdominal Conditions: Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Gallstones, and Diverticulitis

      Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between them. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can affect the entire bowel and typically presents between the ages of 20 and 50. It is chronic and relapsing, with skip lesions of normal bowel in between affected areas. Ulcerative colitis is another inflammatory bowel disease that starts at the rectum and moves upward. It can be classified by the extent of inflammation, with symptoms including bloody diarrhea and mucous. Peptic ulcer disease causes epigastric pain and may present with heartburn symptoms, but it is not consistent with the clinical picture described in the vignette. Gallstones typically cause right upper quadrant pain and are more common in females. Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa abdominal pain and is more common in elderly patients. Complications of untreated diverticulitis include abscess formation, bowel obstruction, or perforation. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      30.8
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  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) with concerns about not...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) with concerns about not having had a bowel movement in the past four days. The patient typically has a daily bowel movement. She denies experiencing nausea or vomiting and has been passing gas. The patient was prescribed various pain medications by a home healthcare provider for left knee pain, which she has been experiencing for the past three weeks. The patient has a history of severe degeneration in her left knee and is awaiting an elective left total knee replacement. She has a medical history of hypertension, which she manages through lifestyle changes. A rectal examination shows no signs of fecal impaction.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's constipation?

      Your Answer: Loperamide

      Correct Answer: Senna

      Explanation:

      Medication Management for Constipation: Understanding the Role of Different Laxatives

      When managing constipation in patients, it is important to consider the underlying cause and choose the appropriate laxative. For example, in patients taking opiates like codeine phosphate, a stimulant laxative such as Senna should be co-prescribed to counteract the constipating effects of the medication. On the other hand, bulk-forming laxatives like Ispaghula husk may be more suitable for patients with low-fibre diets. It is also important to avoid medications that can worsen constipation, such as loperamide, and to be cautious with enemas, which can cause complications in certain patients. By understanding the role of different laxatives, healthcare providers can effectively manage constipation and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen

      The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.

      Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
      Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladder

      The fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.

      Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleen

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      The origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
      Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed that he has distal disease only. He has a moderate exacerbation of his disease with an average of 4–5 episodes of bloody diarrhoea per day. There is no anaemia. His pulse rate is 80 bpm. He has no fever. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are normal.
      Which is the most appropriate medication to use in the first instance in this exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Mesalazine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Distal Ulcerative Colitis

      Distal ulcerative colitis can cause moderate exacerbation, which is characterized by 4-6 bowel movements per day, pulse rate <90 bpm, no anemia, and ESR 30 or below. The first-line therapy for this condition includes topical or oral aminosalicylate, with mesalazine or sulfasalazine being the most commonly used options. However, these medications can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypersensitivity. In rare cases, they may also lead to peripheral neuropathy and blood disorders. Codeine phosphate is not used in the management of ulcerative colitis, while ciclosporin is reserved for acute severe flare-ups that do not respond to corticosteroids. Infliximab, a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis α, is used for patients who are intolerant to steroids or have not responded to corticosteroid therapy. However, it can cause hepatitis and interstitial lung disease, and may reactivate tuberculosis and hepatitis B. Steroids such as prednisolone can be used as second-line treatment if the patient cannot tolerate or declines aminosalicylates or if aminosalicylates are contraindicated. Topical corticosteroids are usually preferred, but oral prednisolone can also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      27.4
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse complains of fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse complains of fatigue and general discomfort. Upon examination, his liver function tests are abnormal, and he is referred to a specialist who diagnoses him with alcohol-related cirrhosis. What is the main pathophysiological mechanism involved in alcoholic cirrhosis?

      Your Answer: Fibrosis resulting in disruption of normal liver architecture

      Explanation:

      Alcoholic Liver Disease: Understanding the Pathophysiology

      Alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of liver disease that can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Understanding the pathophysiology of this condition is crucial in managing and preventing its progression.

      The primary pathological process in alcoholic liver disease is fibrosis, which results in the disruption of normal liver architecture. This leads to distortion of hepatic vasculature, increased intrahepatic resistance, and portal hypertension. Cirrhosis of the liver is an irreversible process and can lead to liver failure if the patient continues to drink alcohol.

      Deposition of excess lipids in hepatocytes is another common feature of alcoholic liver disease. This causes steatohepatitis and is reversible. It is associated with metabolic syndrome.

      Portal hypertension is a complication of alcoholic cirrhosis due to increased vascular resistance within the liver. It can result in oesophageal varices, which, if ruptured, can cause a large upper gastrointestinal bleed.

      Contrary to popular belief, alcohol exposure does not cause cell death directly.

      Sclerosis of the intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts is a pathophysiological process in primary sclerosing cholangitis. It causes inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the bile ducts and has a strong association with ulcerative colitis.

      In summary, understanding the pathophysiology of alcoholic liver disease is crucial in managing and preventing its progression. Fibrosis, lipid deposition, portal hypertension, and bile duct sclerosis are all important features of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe epigastric pain and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. The pain radiates through to her back and began 2 hours ago while she was out with her friends in a restaurant. She has a past medical history of gallstones and asthma.
      Which test should be used to confirm this woman’s diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum lipase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption. Its symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While serum amylase is widely used for diagnosis, serum lipase is preferred where available. Serum lactate is a useful marker for organ perfusion and can indicate the severity of the inflammatory response. A raised white cell count, particularly neutrophilia, is associated with a poorer prognosis. Serum calcium levels may also be affected, but this is not a specific test for pancreatitis. Blood glucose levels may be abnormal, with hyperglycemia being common, but this is not diagnostic of acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 20-year old man presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit complaining of sudden...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old man presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. What physical examination finding is most indicative of a possible diagnosis of appendicitis?

      Your Answer: Tenderness over McBurney’s point

      Explanation:

      Common Abdominal Exam Findings and Their Significance

      Abdominal exams are an important part of diagnosing various medical conditions. Here are some common findings and their significance:

      Tenderness over McBurney’s point: This is a sign of possible appendicitis. McBurney’s point is located a third of the way from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus.

      Grey–Turner’s sign: Flank bruising is a sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis.

      Murphy’s sign: This suggests cholecystitis. The examiner places their hand below the right costal margin and the tender gallbladder moves inferiorly on inhalation, causing the patient to catch their breath.

      Tinkling bowel sounds: High-pitched, ‘tinkling’ bowel sounds are typically associated with mechanical bowel obstruction.

      Absent bowel sounds: This is suggestive of paralytic ileus, which most commonly occurs after abdominal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man presents to his gastroenterologist with complaints of recurrent diarrhoea, sweating...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his gastroenterologist with complaints of recurrent diarrhoea, sweating episodes, and intermittent shortness of breath. During physical examination, a murmur is detected in the pulmonary valve. Urine testing reveals a high level of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid content. What substance is likely responsible for these findings?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Neuroendocrine Tumors and Hormones: Understanding Carcinoid Syndrome and Related Hormones

      Carcinoid syndrome is a condition caused by a neuroendocrine tumor, typically found in the gastrointestinal tract, that releases serotonin. Symptoms include flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm, and in some cases, carcinoid heart disease. Diagnosis is made by finding high levels of urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid. Somatostatin, an inhibitory hormone, is used to treat VIPomas and carcinoid tumors. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) can cause copious diarrhea but does not cause valvular heart disease. Nitric oxide does not play a role in carcinoid syndrome, while ghrelin regulates hunger and is associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. Understanding these hormones can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of neuroendocrine tumors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with abdominal distension and bilateral ankle oedema, worsening over the previous 2 weeks. Three months ago, he was admitted for bleeding oesophageal varices, which was treated endoscopically. There was shifting dullness without tenderness on abdominal examination, and splenomegaly was also noted. His serum albumin concentration was diminished. Prothrombin time was elevated.
      Which one of the following diuretics will best help this patient?

      Your Answer: Thiazide

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Diuretics for Ascites in Liver Cirrhosis: Mechanisms and Options

      Ascites is a common complication of liver cirrhosis, caused by both Na/water retention and portal hypertension. Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, is the first-line diuretic for ascites in liver cirrhosis. It promotes natriuresis and diuresis, while also preventing hypokalaemia and subsequent hepatic encephalopathy. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be used as an adjunct or second-line therapy. Bumetanide and amiloride are alternatives, but less preferred. Acetazolamide and thiazide diuretics are not recommended. Common side-effects of diuretics include electrolyte imbalances and renal impairment. Careful monitoring is necessary to ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21.5
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of early satiety, nausea and abdominal fullness....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of early satiety, nausea and abdominal fullness. He has lost 6 kg in weight over the past 3 months. There is no other past medical history of note. On examination, he looks very thin and there is a palpable epigastric mass.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 140 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 68 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals a smooth mass in the body of the stomach with normal-looking mucosa overlying it. Multiple biopsies: spindle cell tissue, cells undergoing multiple mitoses.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST)

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours (GISTs) vs Other Gastric Conditions

      Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GISTs) are the most common tumours of mesenchymal origin in the gastrointestinal tract, with approximately 50-70% occurring in the stomach. They are histologically characterized by spindle cells, epithelioid-like cells, or mixed spindle-epithelioid cells. GISTs tend to occur in individuals above the age of 40 and are equally common in men and women. Biopsy specimens are stained with DOG1 for identification, and surgical resection is the preferred treatment option. Systemic chemotherapy with imatinib is an alternative for patients who cannot undergo complete surgical resection. Disease survival rates at the 5-year stage range from 30-60%.

      Other gastric conditions, such as gastric carcinoma, Helicobacter pylori gastritis, gastric leiomyosarcoma, and gastric lipoma, may present with similar symptoms but have different endoscopic and histological findings. Gastric carcinomas are most often adenocarcinomas, while Helicobacter pylori gastritis is the most common cause of gastritis worldwide. Gastric leiomyosarcoma is a differential diagnosis for GISTs, but GISTs are more common. Gastric lipomas would not present with the same combination of findings seen in GISTs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 31-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An ultrasound scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of gallstones and an abnormal dilation of the common bile duct measuring 7 mm. The patient is currently taking morphine for pain relief. After four hours, the pain subsides, and she is discharged without any symptoms. Two weeks later, she returns for a follow-up visit and reports being symptom-free. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient had symptoms of biliary colic, including nausea, vomiting, and right upper quadrant pain, and an ultrasound scan revealed gallstones and a dilated common bile duct. While the patient’s pain has subsided, there is a risk of complications from gallstone disease. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography is a non-invasive diagnostic procedure that visualizes the biliary and pancreatic ducts, but it does not offer a management option. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography can diagnose and treat obstruction caused by gallstones, but it is only a symptomatic treatment and not a definitive management. Repeat ultrasound has no added value in management. The only definitive management for gallstones is cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder. Doing nothing puts the patient at risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman with known alcohol dependence is admitted to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with known alcohol dependence is admitted to the Emergency Department following a 32-hour history of worsening confusion. She complains of excessive sweating and feeling hot; she is also distressed as she says that ants are crawling on her body – although nothing is visible on her skin. She states that over the last few days she has completely stopped drinking alcohol in an attempt to become sober.
      On examination she is clearly agitated, with a coarse tremor. Her temperature is 38.2°C, blood pressure is 134/76 mmHg and pulse is 87 beats per minute. She has no focal neurological deficit. A full blood count and urinalysis is taken which reveals the following:
      Full blood count:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 144 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 105 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      There are no abnormalities detected on urine and electrolytes (U&Es) and liver function tests (LFTs).
      Urinalysis:
      Investigations Results
      Leukocytes Negative
      Nitrites Negative
      Protein Negative
      Blood Negative
      Glucose Negative
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms

      Delirium Tremens, Korsakoff’s Psychosis, Wernicke’s Encephalopathy, Hepatic Encephalopathy, and Focal Brain Infection: Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms

      A patient presents with agitation, hyperthermia, and visual hallucinations after acute cessation of alcohol. What could be the possible diagnoses?

      Delirium tremens is the most likely diagnosis, given the severity of symptoms and timing of onset. It requires intensive care management, and oral lorazepam is recommended as first-line therapy according to NICE guidelines.

      Korsakoff’s psychosis, caused by chronic vitamin B1 deficiency, is unlikely to have caused the patient’s symptoms, but the patient is susceptible to developing it due to alcohol dependence and associated malnutrition. Treatment with thiamine is necessary to prevent this syndrome from arising.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy, also caused by thiamine deficiency, presents with ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion. As the patient has a normal neurological examination, this diagnosis is unlikely to have caused the symptoms. However, regular thiamine treatment is still necessary to prevent it from developing.

      Hepatic encephalopathy, a delirium secondary to hepatic insufficiency, is unlikely as the patient has no jaundice, abnormal LFTs, or hemodynamic instability.

      Focal brain infection is also unlikely as there is no evidence of meningitis or encephalitis, and the full blood count and urinalysis provide reassuring results. The high MCV is likely due to alcohol-induced macrocytosis. Although delirium secondary to infection is an important diagnosis to consider, delirium tremens is a more likely diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 43-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amount...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amount of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mallory–Weiss tear

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Causes and Management of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various conditions, including oesophageal varices, Mallory-Weiss tear, peptic ulcer, gastric ulcer, and oesophagitis. In cases of suspected oesophageal varices, examination findings of splenomegaly and spider naevi suggest chronic liver failure with portal hypertension. Immediate management includes resuscitation, PPI levels, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding. Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, but sudden-onset haematemesis of large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. OGD can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers. Oesophagitis may cause pain but is unlikely to lead to significant haematemesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A middle aged male patient presents with jaundice and epigastric abdominal pain, he...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged male patient presents with jaundice and epigastric abdominal pain, he describes an intermittent history of similar pain over the past 3 months, however, this time it is much worse. He has markedly raised bilirubin and mildly deranged LFTs, with a predominantly obstructive picture. Other pertinent history includes mild alcohol use.
      What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Obstructive Jaundice: A Case Analysis

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that the most probable cause of obstructive jaundice is gallstones lodged in the common bile duct. Recurrent episodes of biliary colic and/or cholecystitis may have caused the intermittent abdominal pain, which has now worsened and led to hepatic obstruction. Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder due to gallstones, would not cause obstructive jaundice unless the gallstones leave the gallbladder and become lodged in the common bile duct. Alcohol-induced pancreatitis is a common cause of acute pancreatitis in the UK, but it will not cause obstructive jaundice. Hepatitis C may cause cirrhosis and subsequently jaundice, but there is no evidence that the patient is an intravenous drug user. Pancreatic carcinoma, particularly if located in the head of the pancreas, can cause obstructive jaundice, but it is usually painless in origin. Courvoisier’s law states that a non-tender palpable gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after her friends told...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after her friends told her that her skin and eyes have become yellow. She says that she has noticed this too, but over the past month it has become worse. Her clothes have become loose lately. Her past medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, dyslipidaemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
      She has a 30-pack-year smoking history and consumes approximately 30 units of alcohol per week. In the past, the patient has had repeated admissions to the hospital for episodes of pancreatitis and she mentions that the surgeon explained to her that her pancreas has become scarred from these repeated episodes and is likely to cause her ongoing abdominal pain.
      Which of the following is a risk factor for this patient’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      Pancreatic cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by various risk factors. One of the most common risk factors is chronic pancreatitis, which is often caused by excessive alcohol intake. Other risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, and obesity.

      In the case of a patient with weight loss and painless jaundice, pancreatic cancer is the most likely diagnosis. This is supported by the patient’s history of repeated acute pancreatitis due to alcohol abuse, which can lead to chronic pancreatitis and increase the risk of developing pancreatic cancer.

      COPD, on the other hand, is caused by smoking but is not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Obesity is also a risk factor for pancreatic cancer, as it increases the risk of developing diabetes mellitus, which in turn increases the risk of pancreatic cancer. Hypertension, however, is not a recognised risk factor for pancreatic cancer.

      It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent the development of pancreatic cancer. Quitting smoking, reducing alcohol intake, maintaining a healthy weight, and managing diabetes mellitus and hypertension can all help to reduce the risk of developing this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted for...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted for enteral feeding. What is the primary method to verify the NG tube's secure placement before starting feeding?

      Your Answer: Aspirate 10 ml and check the pH

      Explanation:

      Methods for Confirming Correct Placement of Nasogastric Tubes

      Nasogastric (NG) tubes are commonly used in medical settings to administer medication, nutrition, or to remove stomach contents. However, incorrect placement of an NG tube can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is important to confirm correct placement before using the tube. Here are some methods for confirming correct placement:

      1. Aspirate and check pH: Aspirate 10 ml of fluid from the NG tube and test the pH. If the pH is less than 5.5, the tube is correctly placed in the stomach.

      2. Visual inspection: Do not rely on visual inspection of the aspirate to confirm correct placement, as bronchial secretions can be similar in appearance to stomach contents.

      3. Insert air and auscultate: Injecting 10-20 ml of air can help obtain a gastric aspirate, but auscultation to confirm placement is an outdated and unreliable technique.

      4. Chest X-ray: If no aspirate can be obtained or the pH level is higher than 5.5, a chest X-ray can be used to confirm correct placement. However, this should not be the first-line investigation.

      5. Abdominal X-ray: An abdominal X-ray is not helpful in determining correct placement of an NG tube, as it does not show the lungs.

      By using these methods, healthcare professionals can ensure that NG tubes are correctly placed and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old woman presents with abnormal liver function tests and symptoms of fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with abnormal liver function tests and symptoms of fatigue and itching for the past three months. She reports drinking 5 units of alcohol per week and denies any intravenous recreational drug use. She has no significant medical history and has a body mass index of 24 kg/m2. On examination, she has hepatomegaly but no jaundice. Ultrasound of the liver is normal. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum albumin of 38 g/L, serum alanine aminotransferase of 40 U/L, serum alkaline phosphatase of 286 U/L, and serum total bilirubin of 27 μmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Primary Biliary Cirrhosis: A Breakdown of Immune Tolerance

      Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is an autoimmune condition that affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the breakdown of immune tolerance to mitochondrial antigens, leading to T cell-mediated destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts. This process results in ductopenia, bile duct injury, and cholestasis, which eventually lead to liver injury and fibrosis, culminating in the development of cirrhosis.

      Most patients with PBC are asymptomatic at diagnosis, but eventually develop symptoms such as itching and fatigue. Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs) are found in 95% of patients with PBC, making it a useful diagnostic marker.

      While primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a possibility, it is more common in men and is usually accompanied by evidence of strictures or dilation on abdominal ultrasound scan. PSC also has a strong association with inflammatory bowel disease colitis. Alcoholic liver disease and autoimmune hepatitis are unlikely diagnoses in this case, as there is no history of excess alcohol consumption and the transaminitis (raised ALT and/or AST) commonly seen in autoimmune hepatitis is not present.

      On the other hand, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is more likely to be seen in overweight or obese individuals with other metabolic risk factors such as diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidaemia. It is often incidentally detected through abnormal liver function tests in asymptomatic individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few months, while having no trouble swallowing liquids. He does not smoke and denies any alcohol consumption. His medical history is unremarkable except for the fact that he has been using antacids and H2-receptor blockers for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease for the past 5 years, with little relief from symptoms. Upon examination, there are no notable findings.
      What is the probable reason for this man's dysphagia?

      Your Answer: Lower oesophageal web

      Correct Answer: Benign oesophageal stricture

      Explanation:

      Causes of dysphagia: differential diagnosis based on patient history

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can have various causes, including structural abnormalities, functional disorders, and neoplastic conditions. Based on the patient’s history, several possibilities can be considered. For example, a benign oesophageal stricture may develop in patients with acid gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and can be treated with endoscopic dilation and reflux management. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, on the other hand, may cause dysphagia for both solids and liquids and be accompanied by chest pain. A lower oesophageal web can produce episodic dysphagia when food gets stuck in the distal oesophagus. Oesophageal squamous carcinoma is less likely in a young non-smoking patient, but should not be ruled out entirely. Scleroderma, a connective tissue disorder, may also cause dysphagia along with Raynaud’s phenomenon and skin changes. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause of dysphagia and guide the treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a teetotaler and having no risk factors for liver disease. However, his grandfather passed away from liver cancer. Upon investigation, his serum albumin is 38 g/L (37-49), serum total bilirubin is 41 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 105 U/L (5-35), serum alkaline phosphatase is 115 U/L (45-105), serum ferritin is 1360 μg/L (15-300), and serum iron saturation is 84%. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hereditary Haemochromatosis from Other Liver Diseases

      Raised serum ferritin levels and increased transferrin saturation, with or without abnormal liver function tests, are indicative of hereditary haemochromatosis. On the other hand, abnormal serum ferritin and iron saturation are not observed in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Diagnosis of the latter involves measuring serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and pi-typing for mutant alleles.

      In primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), liver function abnormalities follow a cholestatic pattern, and it typically affects middle-aged females. However, serum ferritin and iron studies are normal in PBC. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is characterized by a disproportionate elevation (4-10 times normal) in serum alkaline phosphatase, and patients with PSC usually have a history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Finally, Wilson’s disease is a condition that primarily affects young people, usually in their second or third decade of life. It is rare for Wilson’s disease to manifest after the age of 40. By the unique characteristics of each liver disease, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 44-year-old woman is scheduled for splenectomy due to an enlarged spleen. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is scheduled for splenectomy due to an enlarged spleen. The consultant advises the registrar to locate the tail of the pancreas during the procedure to prevent postoperative pancreatic fistula. Where should the tail of the pancreas be identified during the splenectomy?

      Your Answer: Gastrocolic ligament

      Correct Answer: Splenorenal ligament

      Explanation:

      Peritoneal Structures Connecting Abdominal Organs

      The human body has several peritoneal structures that connect abdominal organs to each other or to the posterior abdominal wall. These structures play an important role in maintaining the position and stability of the organs. Here are some examples:

      1. Splenorenal Ligament: This ligament connects the spleen to the posterior abdominal wall over the left kidney. It also contains the tail of the pancreas.

      2. Gastrosplenic Ligament: This ligament connects the greater curvature of the stomach with the hilum of the spleen.

      3. Transverse Mesocolon: This structure connects the transverse colon to the posterior abdominal wall.

      4. Gastrocolic Ligament: This ligament connects the greater curvature of the stomach with the transverse colon.

      5. Phrenicocolic Ligament: This ligament connects the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm.

      These peritoneal structures are important for the proper functioning of the digestive system and for maintaining the position of the organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after vomiting bright red blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after vomiting bright red blood multiple times over the past four hours. He has a history of alcohol abuse and has been diagnosed with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in the past. He currently consumes 4-5 pints of beer daily and has a poor compliance with his medication regimen, resulting in missed appointments and discharge from outpatient follow-up. On examination, he has dry mucous membranes, palmar erythema, and hepatomegaly. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6°C, blood pressure 113/67 mmHg, respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 100 beats per minute, and SpO2 99% on room air. The patient is resuscitated with aggressive intravenous fluids, and the gastroenterology team is consulted. They suspect bleeding oesophageal varices and perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, which confirms the diagnosis. The varices are banded, and bleeding is significantly reduced.

      Which medication is most likely to prevent further episodes of oesophageal varices in this 55-year-old patient?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Secondary Prevention of Variceal Hemorrhage

      Variceal hemorrhage is a serious complication of portal hypertension, which can be prevented by using certain medications. Non-selective beta-blockers like nadolol or propranolol are commonly used for secondary prevention of variceal hemorrhage. They work by blocking dilatory tone of the mesenteric arterioles, resulting in unopposed vasoconstriction and therefore a decrease in portal inflow. Selective beta-blockers are not effective in reducing portal hypertension. The dose of the non-selective beta-blocker should be titrated to achieve a resting heart rate of between 55 and 60 beats per minute. Ciprofloxacin is another medication used in prophylaxis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in high-risk patients. However, it is not effective in preventing variceal bleeding. Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole are used in the treatment of gastric reflux and peptic ulcer disease, but they have little impact on portal hypertension and are not indicated in the prophylaxis of variceal bleeding. Similarly, ranitidine, a histamine-2 receptor antagonist, is not likely to help prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 24-year-old waitress who works at a restaurant in Spain has returned home...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old waitress who works at a restaurant in Spain has returned home to see her doctor because she is feeling unwell. She has been experiencing increasing nausea and fatigue and noticed that her urine had darkened a few days ago, and now her stools are pale. Additionally, she has been suffering from severe itching. During the examination, she was found to be jaundiced with scratch marks on her skin and a temperature of 38.1°C.

      The following investigations were conducted:

      - Haemoglobin: 120 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 11.1 × 109/l (normal range: 4–11 × 109/l)
      - Platelets: 170 × 109/l (normal range: 150–400 × 109/l)
      - Prothrombin Test (PT): 17.1 s (normal range: 10.6–14.9 s)
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 48 mm/hr (normal range: 0–10mm in the 1st hour)
      - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 795 IU/l (normal range: 5–30 IU/l)
      - Bilirubin: 100 μmol/l (normal range: 2–17 µmol/l)
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 90 IU/l (normal range: 30–130 IU/l)
      - Anti hepatitis A IgM markedly elevated

      What is the most accurate prognosis for this 24-year-old waitress?

      Your Answer: She has a chance of progression to cirrhosis of approximately 70%

      Correct Answer: She has a chance of progression to cirrhosis of approximately 0%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis A Infection

      Hepatitis A infection is a common viral infection that spreads through the faeco-oral route, particularly in areas like North Africa. It is usually acquired through exposure to contaminated food or water. The infection typically presents with a prodrome of flu-like symptoms, followed by acute hepatitis with right upper quadrant tenderness, jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine.

      Fortunately, hepatitis A is a self-limiting condition, and most people recover within 2-6 months without any significant complications. Death from hepatitis A is rare, occurring in only 0.2% of cases. However, relapsing hepatitis A can occur in up to 20% of cases, with each relapse being milder than the previous one.

      Treatment for hepatitis A is mainly supportive, and there is no significant risk of progression to cirrhosis. Unlike hepatitis B and C, which are transmitted through blood products and sexual intercourse, hepatitis A and E are transmitted through the faeco-oral route. Therefore, practicing good hygiene and sanitation is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man, with a history of moderate alcohol intake (20 units/week), presents...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man, with a history of moderate alcohol intake (20 units/week), presents with complaints of arthralgia and worsening erectile dysfunction over the past 6–9 months. On examination, he has a deep tan and evidence of chronic liver disease. The following investigations were conducted:

      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count 8.3 x 109/l 4–11 x 109/l
      Platelets 164 x 109/l 150–400 x 109/l
      Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Sodium 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) 65 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 82 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline Phosphatase 135 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 23 mmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 326 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      Serum iron 45 μmol/l 0.74–30.43 μmol/l
      Total iron-binding capacity 6.2 μmol/l 10.74–30.43 μmol/l
      Ferritin 623 μg/ 20–250 µg/l
      Glucose 8.8 mmol/l <7.0 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Iron Overload

      A middle-aged man presents with skin discoloration, chronic liver disease, arthralgia, and erectile dysfunction. His serum ferritin level is significantly elevated at 623, indicating iron overload. However, liver disease can also cause an increase in serum ferritin.

      Acute viral hepatitis is unlikely as his symptoms have been worsening over the past 6-9 months, and his transaminase levels are only moderately elevated. Alcoholic cirrhosis is also unlikely as his alcohol intake is modest.

      Excess iron ingestion is a possibility, but it would require significant ingestion over a long period of time. Wilson’s disease, a recessively inherited disorder of copper metabolism, is also unlikely as it does not explain the symptoms of iron overload.

      Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes haemochromatosis, a genetic disorder that causes iron overload. Further testing and evaluation are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old man presents with progressively worsening dysphagia, which is worse for food...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with progressively worsening dysphagia, which is worse for food than liquid. He has lost several stones in weight and, on examination, he is cachexia. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) confirms oesophageal cancer.
      Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for oesophageal adenocarcinoma?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Correct Answer: Barrett's oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is a type of cancer that is becoming increasingly common. It often presents with symptoms such as dysphagia, weight loss, and retrosternal chest pain. Adenocarcinomas, which are the most common type of oesophageal cancer, typically develop in the lower third of the oesophagus due to inflammation related to gastric reflux.

      One of the risk factors for oesophageal cancer is Barrett’s oesophagus, which is the metaplasia of the squamous epithelium of the lower oesophagus when exposed to an acidic environment. This adaptive change significantly increases the risk of malignant change. Treatment options for Barrett’s oesophagus include ablative or excisional therapy and acid-lowering medications. Follow-up with repeat endoscopy every 2–5 years is required.

      Blood group A is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer, but it is associated with a 20% higher risk of stomach cancer compared to those with blood group O. A diet low in calcium is also not a risk factor for oesophageal carcinoma, but consumption of red meat is classified as a possible cause of oesophageal cancer. Those with the highest red meat intake have a 57% higher risk of oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma compared to those with the lowest intake.

      Ulcerative colitis is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer, but it is a risk factor for bowel cancer. On the other hand, alcohol is typically a risk factor for squamous cell carcinomas. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing oesophageal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man, with a 25-pack-year history of smoking, presents to his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man, with a 25-pack-year history of smoking, presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of epigastric pain. He has been unable to mow his lawn since the pain began and is often woken up at night. He finds that the pain is relieved by taking antacids. He has also had to cut back on his spicy food intake.
      What is the most probable reason for this man's epigastric pain?

      Your Answer: Gastric ulcer

      Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Gastrointestinal conditions can cause a range of symptoms, from mild discomfort to severe pain. Here are some of the most common conditions and their symptoms:

      Duodenal Ulcer: These are breaks in the lining of the duodenum, which is part of the small intestine. They are more common than gastric ulcers and are often caused by an overproduction of gastric acid. Symptoms include epigastric pain that is relieved by eating or drinking milk.

      Gastric Ulcer: These are less common than duodenal ulcers and tend to occur in patients with normal or low levels of gastric acid. Risk factors are similar to those of duodenal ulcers. Symptoms include epigastric pain.

      Oesophagitis: This condition occurs when stomach acid flows back into the oesophagus, causing inflammation. Treatment is aimed at reducing reflux symptoms. Patients may need to be assessed for Barrett’s oesophagus.

      Pancreatitis: This condition is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas and typically presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back.

      Gallstones: These are hard deposits that form in the gallbladder and can cause right upper quadrant pain. Symptoms may be aggravated by eating fatty foods. While historically more common in females in their forties, the condition is becoming increasingly common in younger age groups.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications

      Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.

      On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department with massive haematemesis. An emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department with massive haematemesis. An emergency endoscopy revealed a bleeding gastric ulcer located on the lesser curvature of the stomach. Which vessel is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: The right gastroepiploic artery

      Correct Answer: The left gastric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries that supply the stomach: A brief overview

      The stomach is a vital organ that requires a constant supply of blood to function properly. There are several arteries that supply blood to different parts of the stomach. Here is a brief overview of these arteries:

      1. Left gastric artery: This artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach along with the right gastric artery. Bleeding at the lesser curvature of the stomach is most likely to be caused by these two arteries. The left gastric artery is one of the three branches that arise from the coeliac trunk.

      2. Right gastroepiploic artery: This artery, along with the left gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach.

      3. Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery, along with the right gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach.

      4. Gastroduodenal artery: This artery is a branch off the common hepatic artery that supplies the duodenum, head of the pancreas, and greater curvature of the stomach.

      5. Short gastric arteries: These are four or five small arteries from the splenic artery that supply the fundus of the stomach.

      Understanding the different arteries that supply the stomach is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions related to the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 52-year-old woman presents with persistent generalized itching and yellowing of the skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with persistent generalized itching and yellowing of the skin for the past 4 weeks. The symptoms have been gradually worsening. She has no significant medical history and is postmenopausal. She lives with her husband and has a monogamous sexual relationship. Vital signs are normal, but her skin and sclera are yellowish. There is mild enlargement of the liver and spleen. Her serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is 250 iu/l, aspartate transaminase (AST) level 320 iu/l, alkaline phosphatase level 2500 iu/l, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase level 125 iu/l, total bilirubin level 51.3 μmol/l and direct bilirubin level 35.9 μmol/l. Hepatitis B and C serologic tests are negative, but her serum titre of anti-mitochondrial antibody is elevated. What medication would be most effective for long-term treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: Lamivudine

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Ursodeoxycholic acid is a medication that can slow down the progression of liver failure in patients with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). PBC is characterized by symptoms such as general itching, elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and direct hyperbilirubinemia, and high levels of anti-mitochondrial antibodies. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a synthetic secondary bile acid that reduces the synthesis of cholesterol and bile acids in the liver, which helps to reduce the total bile acid pool and prevent hepatotoxicity caused by the accumulation of bile acids.

      Corticosteroids are commonly used to treat autoimmune hepatitis.

      Etanercept is a medication that inhibits tumour necrosis factor and is used to treat conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis.

      Lamivudine is a nucleoside analogue that can inhibit viral reverse transcriptase and is used to treat infections caused by HIV or HBV.

      Cholestyramine is a medication that binds to bile acids in the intestinal lumen, preventing their reabsorption. It is used to treat conditions such as hypercholesterolemia, pruritus, and diarrhea.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her chest after eating meals for the past 2 months. She explains that this pain usually occurs after consuming heavy meals and can keep her up at night. Despite trying over-the-counter antacids, she has found little relief. The pain is retrosternal, without radiation, and is not aggravated by physical activity. She denies any difficulty or pain while swallowing and has not experienced any weight loss. She is worried that she may be having a heart attack every time this happens as both her parents died from coronary artery disease. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Retrosternal Pain: GORD, PUD, MI, Pancreatitis, and Pericarditis

      When a patient presents with retrosternal pain, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s pain is burning in nature and occurs in the postprandial period, making gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) a likely diagnosis. Other common manifestations of GORD include hypersalivation, globus sensation, and laryngitis. However, if the patient had any ‘alarm’ symptoms, such as weight loss or difficulty swallowing, further investigation would be necessary.

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is another potential cause of deep epigastric pain, especially in patients with risk factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use, and alcoholism.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is less likely in this case, as the patient’s pain does not worsen with exertion and is not accompanied by other cardiac symptoms. Additionally, the patient’s ECG is normal.

      Pancreatitis typically presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back, particularly in patients with gallstones or a history of alcoholism. The patient’s non-radiating, retrosternal burning pain is not consistent with pancreatitis.

      Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and lying flat, but relieved by sitting forward. Widespread ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram is also common. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are typically used as first-line treatment.

      In summary, a thorough consideration of the patient’s symptoms and risk factors can help narrow down the potential causes of retrosternal pain and guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 32 - A 33-year-old former intravenous (iv) drug abuser presents to outpatient clinic with abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old former intravenous (iv) drug abuser presents to outpatient clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) at the recommendation of his general practitioner. Although he is not experiencing any symptoms, a physical examination reveals hepatomegaly measuring 4 cm. Further blood tests confirm that he is positive for hepatitis C, with a significantly elevated viral load of hepatitis C RNA. What would be the most crucial investigation to determine the appropriate management of his hepatitis C?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scan abdomen

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C genotype

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C Management and Testing

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can be acquired through blood or sexual contact, including shared needles during intravenous drug use and contaminated blood products. While some patients may be asymptomatic, the virus can cause progressive damage to the liver and may lead to liver failure requiring transplantation if left untreated.

      Before starting treatment for chronic hepatitis C, it is important to determine the patient’s hepatitis C genotype, as this guides the length and type of treatment and predicts the likelihood of response. Dual therapy with interferon α and ribavirin is traditionally the most effective treatment, but newer oral medications like sofosbuvir, boceprevir, and telaprevir are now used in combination with PEG-interferon and ribavirin for genotype 1 hepatitis C.

      Screening for HIV is also important, as HIV infection often coexists with hepatitis C, but the result does not influence hepatitis C management. An ultrasound of the abdomen can determine the structure of the liver and the presence of cirrhosis, but it does not alter hepatitis C management. A chest X-ray is not necessary in this patient, and ongoing intravenous drug use does not affect hepatitis C management.

      Overall, proper testing and management of hepatitis C can prevent further liver damage and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 33 - Which statement about kernicterus is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about kernicterus is not true?

      Your Answer: May cause a chronic syndrome of athetosis, gaze disturbance and hearing loss

      Correct Answer: Diagnosis requires the histological confirmation of yellow staining of brain tissue on autopsy caused by fat soluble unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperbilirubinemia and its Effects on Infants

      Hyperbilirubinemia, a condition characterized by high levels of bilirubin in the blood, can have severe consequences for infants. In some cases, intracellular crystals may be observed in the intestinal mucosa of affected infants, which may be related to gastrointestinal bleeding. However, the most significant long-term effects of hyperbilirubinemia are neurological in nature. Infants who experience marked hyperbilirubinemia may develop a chronic syndrome of neurological sequelae, including athetosis, gaze disturbance, and hearing loss.

      Even if the affected infant survives the neonatal period, the effects of hyperbilirubinemia may persist. If the infant subsequently dies, the yellow staining of neural tissue may no longer be present, but microscopic evidence of cell injury, neuronal loss, and glial replacement may be observed in the basal ganglia. These findings highlight the importance of early detection and treatment of hyperbilirubinemia in infants to prevent long-term neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 34 - A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant and epigastric pain and associated vomiting. This is his third attack in the past 9 months. He has a past history of obesity, hypertension and hypertriglyceridaemia. Medications include ramipril, amlodipine, fenofibrate, aspirin and indapamide. On examination, he is obese with a body mass index (BMI) of 31; his blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg, and he has jaundiced sclerae. There is right upper quadrant tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 140 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 10.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 239 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Alanine aminotransferase 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 99 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 285 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Ultrasound of abdomen: gallstones clearly visualised within a thick-walled gallbladder, dilated duct consistent with further stones.
      Which of his medications is most likely to be responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Drugs and their association with gallstone formation

      Explanation:

      Gallstones are a common medical condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. Certain drugs have been found to increase the risk of gallstone formation, while others do not have any association.

      Fenofibrate, a drug used to increase cholesterol excretion by the liver, is known to increase the risk of cholesterol gallstone formation. Oestrogens are also known to increase the risk of gallstones. Somatostatin analogues, which decrease gallbladder emptying, can contribute to stone formation. Pigment gallstones are associated with high haem turnover, such as in sickle-cell anaemia.

      On the other hand, drugs like indapamide, ramipril, amlodipine, and aspirin are not associated with increased gallstone formation. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 35 - A 50-year-old man presents with painless bleeding per rectum for two days. The...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with painless bleeding per rectum for two days. The blood was mixed with stool every time. There was no pain or tenesmus. There has been no loss of weight.

      He has never experienced these symptoms before, although he has suffered from constipation over the past three years. At the clinic, he complained of mild fever, although on examination, his temperature was normal.

      He has recently returned from a trip to India where he took part in a mountain expedition to Kedarnath. He takes no drugs, with the exception of thyroxine which he has taken for the past two years.

      What is the immediate management?

      Your Answer: Stool microscopy & culture

      Explanation:

      Rectal Bleeding in a Patient with a Recent Mountain Expedition

      This patient has recently returned from a mountain expedition in a tropical country, where his diet and water intake may have been irregular. As a result, he is at risk of food and water-borne infections such as amoebiasis, which can cause bloody stools. To determine the cause of the bleeding, stool tests and microscopy should be conducted before treatment is initiated.

      It is important to note that laxatives should not be used until the cause of the bloody stool is identified. In cases of colonic cancer, laxatives can cause intestinal obstruction, while in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease, they can irritate the bowel walls and worsen the condition. The patient’s history of constipation is likely due to hypothyroidism, which is being treated.

      While chronic liver disease can cause rectal bleeding, there is no indication of such a condition in this patient. When bleeding is caused by piles, blood is typically found on the toilet paper and not mixed with stools. Lower GI endoscopy may be necessary if the bleeding persists, but invasive tests should only be conducted when fully justified.

      Observation is not an appropriate course of action in this case. In older patients, rectal bleeding should always be taken seriously and thoroughly investigated to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 36 - A dishevelled-looking 70-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home following a fall....

    Incorrect

    • A dishevelled-looking 70-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home following a fall. Her son indicates that she has become increasingly forgetful over the last 2 months. She has had diarrhoea for the last 3 weeks, thought to be related to an outbreak of norovirus at her nursing home, and has been vomiting occasionally. On examination you notice a scaly red rash on her neck and hands.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Correct Answer: Pellagra

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Different Medical Conditions

      Pellagra: A Serious Condition Caused by Niacin Deficiency

      Pellagra is a severe medical condition that can lead to death if left untreated. It is characterized by three classical features, including diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. The condition is caused by a deficiency of niacin, which is required for all cellular processes in the body. Pellagra can also develop due to a deficiency of tryptophan, which can be converted to niacin. Treatment for pellagra involves vitamin replacement with nicotinamide.

      Scurvy: Bleeding Gums and Muscle Pains

      Scurvy is a medical condition that can cause red dots on the skin, but it typically presents with bleeding gums and muscle pains. The condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, which is required for the synthesis of collagen in the body. Treatment for scurvy involves vitamin C replacement.

      Post-Infective Lactose Intolerance: Bloating and Abdominal Discomfort

      Post-infective lactose intolerance is a medical condition that typically presents after gastrointestinal infections. It can cause bloating, belching, and abdominal discomfort, as well as loose stool. However, the history of skin changes and forgetfulness would point more towards pellagra.

      Depression: Not Related to Skin Changes or Diarrhoea/Vomiting

      Depression is a medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms, including low mood, loss of interest, and fatigue. However, it is not related to skin changes or diarrhoea/vomiting.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE): Painful Swollen Joints and Red ‘Butterfly’ Rash

      SLE is a medical condition that typically presents with painful swollen joints and a red ‘butterfly’ rash over the face. Other common symptoms include fever, mouth ulcers, and fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department with confusion. She has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department with confusion. She has a history of manic illness. There is no evidence of alcohol or drug abuse. Upon examination, she displays mild jaundice and signs of chronic liver disease, such as spider naevi and palmar erythema. Additionally, there is a brownish ring discoloration at the limbus of the cornea.
      Blood tests reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 130 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 85 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Ferritin 100 μg/l 10–120 µg/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with liver disease and neurological symptoms

      Wilson’s disease, haemochromatosis, alcohol-related cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis are among the possible causes of liver disease. In the case of a patient with Kayser-Fleischer rings, the likelihood of Wilson’s disease increases, as this is a characteristic sign of copper overload due to defective incorporation of copper and caeruloplasmin. Neurological symptoms such as disinhibition, emotional lability, and chorea may also suggest Wilson’s disease, although they are not specific to it. Haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron overload, can be ruled out if the ferritin level is normal. Alcohol-related cirrhosis is less likely if the patient denies alcohol or drug abuse, but this information may not always be reliable. Viral hepatitis is a common cause of liver disease, but in this case, there are no obvious risk factors in the history. Primary sclerosing cholangitis, which is a chronic inflammatory disease of the bile ducts, does not present with Kayser-Fleischer rings. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s clinical features, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 38 - A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis attends the Gastroenterology Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis attends the Gastroenterology Clinic for review. Over the past few months, his bowel symptoms have been generally quiescent, but he has suffered from tiredness and itching.
      On examination, you notice that he has jaundiced sclerae and there are some scratch marks on his abdomen consistent with the itching.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.6 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Autoantibody screen ANCA +, anti-cardiolipin +, ANA +
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 290 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 85 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis from Other Liver Conditions

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects around 4% of patients with a history of inflammatory bowel disease. It is characterized by an obstructive liver function test (LFT) picture and autoantibody results consistent with PSC. While endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has been considered the gold standard for diagnosis, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is now equally useful. Imaging typically shows a beaded appearance of biliary ducts, and liver biopsy may be useful in determining prognosis. Median survival from diagnosis to death or liver transplantation is around 10-15 years, with a disease recurrence rate of at least 30% in transplanted patients.

      Cholelithiasis, on the other hand, typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and does not usually cause jaundice unless there is obstruction of the biliary system. Hepatocellular carcinoma risk is increased in patients with inflammatory bowel disease, but the clinical picture above is more in keeping with PSC. Primary biliary cholangitis would show positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies and mainly affect intrahepatic ducts, while ascending cholangitis would usually present with features of Charcot’s triad (jaundice, abdominal pain, and fever).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 39 - A 50-year-old man presents to the upper gastrointestinal surgeon with a 9-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the upper gastrointestinal surgeon with a 9-month history of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid foods. He also complains of regurgitating food. He has been eating smaller and smaller meals given the above symptoms. He has a past medical history of depression for which he takes citalopram. He has never smoked or drank alcohol. He has trialled over-the-counter proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) medication without any symptom relief.
      Physical examination is normal. A recent chest radiograph also appears to be normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is also normal.
      His observations are shown below:
      Temperature 36.8 °C
      Blood pressure 127/79 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      A diagnosis of achalasia is likely.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate

      Correct Answer: Pneumatic dilation

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation. Pneumatic dilation is a treatment option that involves using a balloon to stretch the sphincter and reduce pressure in the esophagus. However, this procedure carries a risk of perforation and is only recommended for patients who are good surgical candidates. Botulinum toxin A injections can also be used to inhibit the neurons that increase sphincter tone, but may require repeat treatments. Gastrostomy, or creating an artificial opening into the stomach, is reserved for severe cases where other treatments have failed and the patient is not a surgical candidate. Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate and nifedipine are pharmacological options that can temporarily relax the sphincter and may be used as a bridge while waiting for definitive treatment or for patients who cannot tolerate invasive procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 40 - A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain that has been going on for 5 weeks. She also reports unintentional weight loss during this time. A colonoscopy is performed, revealing abnormal, inflamed mucosa in the rectum, sigmoid, and descending colon. The doctor suspects ulcerative colitis and takes multiple biopsies. What finding is most indicative of ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer: Transmural involvement

      Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses

      Explanation:

      When it comes to distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, one key factor is the presence of crypt abscesses. These are typically seen in ulcerative colitis, which is the more common of the two inflammatory bowel diseases. In ulcerative colitis, inflammation starts in the rectum and spreads continuously up the colon, whereas Crohn’s disease often presents with skip lesions. Patients with ulcerative colitis may experience left-sided abdominal pain, cramping, bloody diarrhea with mucous, and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy typically reveals diffuse and contiguous ulceration and inflammatory infiltrates affecting the mucosa and submucosa only, with the presence of crypt abscesses being a hallmark feature. In contrast, Crohn’s disease is characterized by a transmural inflammatory phenotype, with non-caseating granulomas and stricturing of the bowel wall being common complications. Patients with Crohn’s disease may present with right-sided abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and weight loss, and may have a more systemic inflammatory response than those with ulcerative colitis. Barium enema and colonoscopy can help to differentiate between the two conditions, with the presence of multiple linear ulcers in the bowel wall (rose-thorn appearance) and bowel wall thickening being suggestive of Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 41 - A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting, which started earlier today.
      On examination, the patient is not jaundiced and there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastrium. The blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70 μmmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Bilirubin 25 mmol/l 2–17 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 120 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 40 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Amylase 200 U/l < 200 U/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Analgesia, iv fluids, iv antibiotics, oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD)

      Correct Answer: Analgesia, intravenous (iv) fluids, iv antibiotics, ultrasound (US) abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have acute cholecystitis, and a confirmation of the diagnosis will rely on an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. To manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent sepsis, it is essential to administer intravenous antibiotics and fluids. Antiemetics may also be necessary to prevent dehydration from vomiting. It is recommended to keep the patient ‘nil by mouth’ until the scan is performed and consider prescribing analgesia for pain relief. An NG tube is not necessary at this stage, and an OGD or ERCP may be appropriate depending on the scan results. The NICE guidelines recommend cholecystectomy within a week of diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 42 - A 42-year-old man, who had recently undergone treatment for an inflamed appendix, presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man, who had recently undergone treatment for an inflamed appendix, presented with fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. He is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile infection and started on oral vancomycin. However, after 3 days, his diarrhoea continues and his total white cell count (WCC) is 22.7 (4–11 × 109/l). He remembers having a similar illness 2 years ago, after gallbladder surgery which seemed to come back subsequently.
      Which of the following treatment options may be tried in his case?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Faecal transplant

      Explanation:

      Faecal Transplant: A New Treatment Option for Severe and Recurrent C. difficile Infection

      Severe and treatment-resistant C. difficile infection can be a challenging condition to manage. In cases where intravenous metronidazole is not an option, faecal microbiota transplantation (FMT) has emerged as a promising treatment option. FMT involves transferring bacterial flora from a healthy donor to the patient’s gut, which can effectively cure the current infection and prevent recurrence.

      A randomized study published in the New England Journal of Medicine reported a 94% cure rate of pseudomembranous colitis caused by C. difficile with FMT, compared to just 31% with vancomycin. While FMT is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) in recurrent cases that are resistant to antibiotic therapy, it is still a relatively new treatment option that requires further validation.

      Other treatment options, such as IV clindamycin and intravenous ciprofloxacin, are not suitable for this condition. Oral metronidazole is a second-line treatment for mild or moderate cases, but it is unlikely to be effective in severe cases that are resistant to oral vancomycin. Total colectomy may be necessary in cases of colonic perforation or toxic megacolon with systemic symptoms, but it is not a good choice for this patient.

      In conclusion, FMT is a promising new treatment option for severe and recurrent C. difficile infection that is resistant to antibiotic therapy. Further research is needed to fully understand its effectiveness and potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 43 - A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, presents to the Emergency Department with pain in the right and left upper quadrants. He has had bouts of abdominal pain in the past year. For the past month, he has had more frequent and worsening abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals right upper and left upper quadrant pain with guarding. An abdominal plain film radiograph reveals no free air, but there is an extensive peritoneal fluid collection, along with dilated loops of the small bowel. An abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a 6- to 7-cm cystic mass in the tail of the pancreas.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Pancreatic Conditions: Pseudocysts, Adenocarcinoma, Islet Cell Adenoma, Acute Pancreatitis, and Metastatic Carcinoma

      Pancreatic pseudocysts are collections of necrotic-haemorrhagic material that lack an epithelial lining and account for 75% of cysts in the pancreas. They often occur after an episode of acute pancreatitis or traumatic injury to the abdomen.

      Pancreatic adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is a solid mass that is not related to alcoholism. It usually develops in the head of the gland and is characterised by hard, stellate, poorly defined masses.

      Islet cell adenomas, which are often non-functional, are not cystic and can be difficult to image due to their small size. However, some may secrete hormones such as insulin or gastrin.

      Acute pancreatitis is a reversible inflammation of the pancreas that ranges in severity from oedema and fat necrosis to severe haemorrhage and parenchymal necrosis. It is a medical emergency characterised by sudden severe pain in the abdomen.

      Finally, metastatic carcinoma is characterised by multiple solid masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 44 - A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients with gastrointestinal symptoms who were referred for endoscopy without a clear clinical indication.
      Which of the following intestinal diseases necessitates blood tests and small intestinal biopsy for precise diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Whipple’s disease

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Biopsy Findings for Various Intestinal Conditions

      When conducting a biopsy of the small intestine, various changes may be observed that can indicate the presence of certain conditions. However, it is important to note that these changes are not always specific to a particular disease and may be found in other conditions as well. Therefore, additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to confirm a diagnosis.

      Coeliac disease is one condition that can be suggested by biopsy findings, which may include infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells, villous atrophy, and crypt hyperplasia. However, positive serology for anti-endomysial or anti-gliadin antibodies is also needed to confirm gluten sensitivity.

      Abetalipoproteinemia, Mycobacterium avium infection, Whipple’s disease, and intestinal lymphangiectasia are other conditions that can be diagnosed based on biopsy findings alone. Abetalipoproteinemia is characterized by clear enterocytes due to lipid accumulation, while Mycobacterium avium infection is identified by the presence of foamy macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli. In Whipple’s disease, macrophages are swollen and contain PAS-positive granules due to the glycogen content of bacterial cell walls. Finally, primary intestinal lymphangiectasia is diagnosed by the dilation of lymphatics in the intestinal mucosa without any evidence of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 45 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who claim that she has vomited up blood. Apparently she had consumed far too much alcohol over the course of the night, had vomited on multiple occasions, and then began to dry-retch. After a period of retching, she vomited a minimal amount of bright red blood. On examination, she is intoxicated and has marked epigastric tenderness; her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, with a heart rate of 70 bpm, regular.
      Investigations:
      Investigation
      Result
      Normal value
      Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 301 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Arrange urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy tonight

      Correct Answer: Discharge in the morning if stable

      Explanation:

      Management of Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Case Study

      A Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-oesophageal junction or cardia caused by repeated retching. In a stable patient with a Hb of 145 g/l, significant blood loss is unlikely. Observation overnight is recommended, and if stable, the patient can be discharged the following morning. Further endoscopic investigation is not necessary in this case. Intravenous pantoprazole is not indicated for a Mallory-Weiss tear, and antacid treatment is unnecessary as the tear will heal spontaneously. Urgent endoscopic investigation is not required if the patient remains clinically stable and improves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 46 - A 14-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis complains of abdominal pain. She denies any...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis complains of abdominal pain. She denies any accompanying nausea or vomiting. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome

      Explanation:

      Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome in Cystic Fibrosis Patients

      Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome is a common complication in 10-20% of cystic fibrosis patients, with a higher incidence in adults. The condition is caused by the loss of CFTR function in the intestine, leading to the accumulation of mucous and fecal material in the terminal ileum, caecum, and ascending colon. Diagnosis is made through a plain abdominal radiograph, which shows faecal loading in the right iliac fossa, dilation of the ileum, and an empty distal colon. Ultrasound and CT scans can also be used to identify an obstruction mass and show dilated small bowel and proximal colon.

      Treatment for mild and moderate episodes involves hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives. N-acetylcysteine can be used to loosen and soften the plugs, while severe episodes may require gastrografin or Klean-Prep. If there are signs of peritoneal irritation or complete bowel obstruction, surgical review should be obtained. Surgeons will often treat initially with intravenous fluids and a NG tube while keeping the patient nil by mouth. N-acetylcysteine can be put down the NG tube.

      Overall, distal intestinal obstruction syndrome is a serious complication in cystic fibrosis patients that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. With proper management, patients can avoid severe complications and maintain their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 47 - A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. He is treated with appropriate eradication therapy and advised to follow up with his general practitioner for testing of eradication.
      What would be the most suitable method for testing eradication in this patient?

      Your Answer: The 13C urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Methods for Detecting and Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection

      There are several methods available for detecting and confirming eradication of H. pylori infection. Serologic testing for antibodies to H. pylori in the blood or saliva is a cheap and simple initial detection method with high sensitivity and specificity. However, it is not useful for follow-up as patients may continue to have antibodies for several months after eradication therapy. Stool sample analysis may also be used for initial detection, but the 13C urea breath test is currently the only recommended method for confirming eradication following treatment. Histological examination of tissue biopsy samples is an invasive procedure and not recommended for eradication testing. The CLO test, which is carried out on biopsied tissue at endoscopy, can provide immediate results but is also an invasive procedure and not appropriate for confirming eradication. Overall, the 13C urea breath test is the most reliable method for confirming eradication of H. pylori infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old woman is admitted after a paracetamol overdose. She took 25 500-mg...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is admitted after a paracetamol overdose. She took 25 500-mg tablets 6 hours ago. This is her first overdose. She has a history of anorexia nervosa and is severely malnourished, weighing only 42 kg. She has a past medical history of asthma, for which she uses a long-acting corticosteroid inhaler. She also takes citalopram 20 mg once daily for depression. What factor increases her risk of hepatotoxicity after a paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer: Her history of anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Factors affecting liver injury following paracetamol overdose

      Paracetamol overdose can lead to liver injury due to the formation of a reactive metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s natural antioxidant glutathione and damages liver cells. Certain risk factors increase the likelihood of liver injury following paracetamol overdose. These include malnourishment, eating disorders (such as anorexia or bulimia), failure to thrive or cystic fibrosis in children, acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), cachexia, alcoholism, enzyme-inducing drugs, and regular alcohol consumption. The use of inhaled corticosteroids for asthma or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity. However, the antidote for paracetamol poisoning, acetylcysteine, acts as a precursor for glutathione and replenishes the body’s stores to prevent further liver damage. Overall, age does not significantly affect the risk of liver injury following paracetamol overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 49 - A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history of increasing difficulty with swallowing solid foods. He does not have any problems with swallowing liquids. He has always been overweight but has lost 5 kg in the past few months. He attributes this eating a little less due to his swallowing difficulties. He has a past history of long-term heartburn and indigestion, which he has been self-treating with over-the-counter antacids. The GP is concerned that the patient may have oesophageal cancer.
      Which one of the following statements with regard to oesophageal cancer is correct?

      Your Answer: Barrett’s oesophagus is a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Achalasia predisposes to squamous carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oesophageal Carcinoma: Risk Factors, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the oesophagus, the muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach. In this article, we will discuss the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis of oesophageal carcinoma.

      Risk Factors

      Achalasia, a condition that affects the ability of the oesophagus to move food down to the stomach, and alcohol consumption are associated with squamous carcinoma, which most commonly affects the upper and middle oesophagus. Barrett’s oesophagus, a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) predispose to adenocarcinoma, which occurs in the lower oesophagus.

      Diagnosis

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a recognised pre-malignant condition that requires acid-lowering therapy and frequent follow-up. Ablative and excisional therapies are available. Most cases are amenable to curative surgery at diagnosis. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is an early manifestation of the disease and is typically experienced with solid foods.

      Prognosis

      Prognosis depends on the stage and grade at diagnosis, but unfortunately, the disease frequently presents once the cancer has spread. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes.

      Conclusion

      Oesophageal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12
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  • Question 50 - A 21-year-old anatomy student presents with diarrhoea and weight loss. The patient complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old anatomy student presents with diarrhoea and weight loss. The patient complains of increased frequency of loose motions associated with cramping abdominal pain for six weeks, with an accompanying 5 kg weight loss. He opens his bowels anywhere from three to six times daily, the stool frequently has mucous in it, but no blood. The patient has no recent history of foreign travel and has had no ill contacts. He is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. The patient is referred to Gastroenterology for further investigation. A colonoscopy and biopsy of an affected area of bowel reveals ulcerative colitis.
      Which of the following is an extra-intestinal clinical feature associated with inflammatory bowel disease?

      Your Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Correct Answer: Sacroiliitis

      Explanation:

      Extraintestinal Clinical Features Associated with IBD

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is often accompanied by joint pain and inflammation, with migratory polyarthritis and sacroiliitis being common arthritic conditions. Other extraintestinal clinical features associated with IBD include aphthous ulcers, anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, episcleritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme, finger clubbing, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and fissures. However, aortic aneurysm is not known to be associated with IBD, as it is commonly linked to Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and collagen-vascular diseases. While peripheral arthropathy of the hands is associated with IBD, it is typically asymmetrical and non-deforming. Deforming arthropathy of the hands is more commonly associated with psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes, bony distal and proximal interphalangeal joint nodes, are found in osteoarthritis and are not associated with IBD. Prostatitis, a bacterial infection of the prostate gland, is not associated with IBD and is typically caused by Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae in young, sexually active men, and Escherichia coli in older men.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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Gastroenterology (19/50) 38%
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