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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. After thorough investigation, including mesenteric angiography, it was found that the left colic flexure was experiencing ischemia. Which artery provides direct supply to this region through its branches?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery (SMA)

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon, while the proximal two thirds are supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA. The left colic artery, a branch of the IMA, supplies the remaining distal portion. Although the left colic artery is the primary supplier, collateral flow from branches of the middle colic artery also contributes. The left colic flexure, located between the end of the SMA and the start of the IMA’s blood supply, is a watershed region that can be susceptible to ischemia due to atherosclerotic changes or hypotension.

      The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and also has branches that supply the stomach and pancreas. There is no such thing as the AMA or PMA.

      The Transverse Colon: Anatomy and Relations

      The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that begins at the hepatic flexure, where the right colon makes a sharp turn. At this point, it becomes intraperitoneal and is connected to the inferior border of the pancreas by the transverse mesocolon. The middle colic artery and vein are contained within the mesentery. The greater omentum is attached to the superior aspect of the transverse colon, which can be easily separated. The colon undergoes another sharp turn at the splenic flexure, where the greater omentum remains attached up to this point. The distal 1/3 of the transverse colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The transverse colon is related to various structures. Superiorly, it is in contact with the liver, gallbladder, the greater curvature of the stomach, and the lower end of the spleen. Inferiorly, it is related to the small intestine. Anteriorly, it is in contact with the greater omentum, while posteriorly, it is in contact with the descending portion of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, convolutions of the jejunum and ileum, and the spleen. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the transverse colon is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      12.1
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old male presents with yellow discoloration of his skin. He reports having...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presents with yellow discoloration of his skin. He reports having had the flu for the past week but is otherwise in good health. He vaguely remembers his uncle experiencing similar episodes of yellow skin. What is the probable diagnosis and what is the mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s Syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia during periods of stress, such as fasting or infection.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old woman presents to the out of hours GP service with abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman presents to the out of hours GP service with abdominal pain. She has suffered from 'heartburn' for many years but for the last 6 months she has started getting a different kind of pain, which she describes as 'stabbing'. When asked where she feels it, the patient points to below her right breast. The pain has been occurring more frequently and with greater severity over the last 3 weeks, and tonight it is unbearable. It tends to come on shortly after she has eaten, and lasts up to 3 hours. She denies constipation, diarrhoea and vomiting, although she feels nauseated. She reports 'a couple of pounds' weight loss over the last few weeks because she has been eating less to avoid the pain.

      On examination her abdomen is soft but very tender in the right upper quadrant, with a positive Murphy's sign. She is afebrile and normotensive.

      What is the most likely cause of the patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary colic can be characterized by pain that occurs after eating, especially after consuming high-fat meals. The patient’s symptoms are consistent with this type of pain. However, if the patient were experiencing ascending cholangitis, they would likely be more acutely ill and have a fever. Duodenal ulcers can also cause upper abdominal pain, but the pain tends to be constant, gnawing, and centralized, and may differ with eating. If the ulcer bleeds, the patient may experience haematemesis or melaena. Although the patient reports experiencing heartburn, their current presentation is more indicative of biliary colic than gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Understanding Biliary Colic and Gallstone-Related Disease

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. It is more common in women, especially those who are obese, fertile, or over the age of 40. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic is caused by an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain is due to the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include colicky right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike other gallstone-related conditions, there is no fever or abnormal liver function tests.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for biliary colic. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can lead to obstructive jaundice. Other complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer. It is important to understand the risk factors, pathophysiology, and management of biliary colic and gallstone-related disease to ensure prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of a high...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of a high fever and flank pain. He reports experiencing mild burning during urination for the past 5 days, but his urine output has decreased since the onset of fever yesterday. The patient has a history of poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, which structure is at the highest risk of co-infection?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Psoas muscle

      Explanation:

      The woman in the scenario is likely suffering from pyelonephritis, which is a result of a UTI. Her poorly controlled blood sugar levels due to diabetes make her more susceptible to recurrent UTIs. Since the kidneys are retroperitoneal organs, the infection can spread to other organs within that space. The psoas muscle, located at the back, can become co-infected with pyelonephritis, leading to the formation of an abscess. The symptoms of a psoas abscess may be minimal, and an MRI abdopelvis is the best imaging technique to detect it. Peritoneal structures are less likely to become infected, and peritonitis is usually caused by infected ascitic fluid, leading to Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP).

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old man presents with a dry cough at night that has been...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents with a dry cough at night that has been bothering him for the past 2 years. He also reports several incidences of heartburn and regurgitation. He has tried multiple over-the-counter antitussives but there has been no improvement in his symptoms. He smokes one pack of cigarettes a day. Vitals are unremarkable and body mass index is 35 kg/m2. Upper endoscopy is performed which shows salmon-coloured mucosa at the lower third oesophagus. A biopsy is taken for histopathology which shows intestinal-type columnar epithelium.

      What oesophageal complication is the patient at high risk for due to his microscopic findings?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus poses the greatest risk for the development of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus. The patient’s symptoms of heartburn, regurgitation, and nocturnal dry cough suggest the presence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which is characterized by the reflux of gastric acid into the oesophagus. The normal oesophageal mucosa is not well-equipped to withstand the corrosive effects of gastric acid, and thus, it undergoes metaplasia to intestinal-type columnar epithelium, resulting in Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition is highly susceptible to dysplasia and progression to adenocarcinoma, and can be identified by its salmon-colored appearance during upper endoscopy.

      Achalasia, on the other hand, is a motility disorder of the oesophagus that is not associated with GORD or Barrett’s oesophagus. However, it may increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus, rather than adenocarcinoma.

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome (MWS) is characterized by a mucosal tear in the oesophagus, which is typically caused by severe vomiting. It is not associated with regurgitation due to GORD.

      Oesophageal perforation is usually associated with endoscopy or severe vomiting. Although the patient is at risk of oesophageal perforation due to the previous endoscopy, the question specifically pertains to the risk associated with microscopic findings.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - Which one of the following structures is located most posteriorly at the porta...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following structures is located most posteriorly at the porta hepatis?

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      At the porta hepatis, the most posterior structure is the portal vein, while the common bile duct is created by the merging of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct. The common hepatic duct extends and becomes the common bile duct.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man is having surgery to remove a tumor in the descending...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is having surgery to remove a tumor in the descending colon. What embryological structure does this part of the digestive system originate from?

      Your Answer: Hind gut

      Explanation:

      The hind gut is responsible for the development of the left colon, which is why it has its own distinct blood supply through the IMA.

      The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.

      The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.

      The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.6
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain, early satiety, lethargy,...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain, early satiety, lethargy, and weight loss. After conducting several tests, he is diagnosed with gastric adenocarcinoma following an endoscopic biopsy. What is the most probable histological characteristic that will be observed in the biopsy?

      Your Answer: Signet ring cells

      Explanation:

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.6
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  • Question 9 - A somatostatinoma patient with constantly elevated somatostatin levels experiences a significant decrease in...

    Correct

    • A somatostatinoma patient with constantly elevated somatostatin levels experiences a significant decrease in the secretion of many endocrine hormones. Which hormone responsible for stimulating the pancreas and hepatic duct cells to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid is affected when S cells are not stimulated?

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Secretin is the correct answer as it is produced by S cells in the upper small intestine and stimulates the pancreas and hepatic duct cells to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid. It also reduces gastric acid secretion and promotes the growth of pancreatic acinar cells. However, if there is a somatostatinoma present, there will be an excess of somatostatin which inhibits the production of secretin by S cells.

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) is an incorrect answer as it is released by I-cells in the upper small intestine in response to fats and proteins. CCK stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to contract and secrete bile enzymes into the duodenum.

      Gastrin is an incorrect answer as it is produced by G cells in the stomach and stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid into the stomach.

      Ghrelin is an incorrect answer as it is released to stimulate hunger, particularly before meals.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of indigestion that has persisted for...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of indigestion that has persisted for the last three months. He has a medical history of hypertension and is a heavy smoker with a 50-pack-year history. He also consumes three glasses of wine on weeknights. Upon referral to a gastroenterologist, a lower oesophageal and stomach biopsy is performed, revealing metaplastic columnar epithelium. What is the primary factor that has contributed to the development of this histological finding?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is diagnosed in this patient based on the presence of metaplastic columnar epithelium in the oesophageal epithelium. The most significant risk factor for the development of Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). While age is also a risk factor, it is not as strong as GORD. Alcohol consumption is not associated with Barrett’s oesophagus, but it is a risk factor for squamous cell oesophageal carcinoma. Infection with Helicobacter pylori is not linked to Barrett’s oesophagus, and it may even reduce the risk of GORD and Barrett’s oesophagus. Smoking is associated with both GORD and Barrett’s oesophagus, but the strength of this association is not as significant as that of GORD.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      20.6
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of abdominal pain, diarrhea,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and painful aphthous ulcers that have been bothering him for the last four weeks. He has also observed that his clothes have become loose lately.

      What is the typical disease pattern associated with his condition?

      Your Answer: Inflammation anywhere from the mouth to anus

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammation that can occur anywhere from the mouth to the anus. This patient’s symptoms, including weight loss, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, suggest inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The presence of mouth ulcers indicates Crohn’s disease, as it is known for causing discontinuous inflammation throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis, on the other hand, does not cause mouth ulcers and typically involves continuous inflammation that extends from the rectum. While colorectal polyposis can be a complication of IBD, it alone does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous inflammation that is limited to the submucosa and originates in the rectum, which is not the case for this patient.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man who is a heavy smoker complains of dyspepsia. Upon testing,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man who is a heavy smoker complains of dyspepsia. Upon testing, he is diagnosed with helicobacter pylori infection. Later, he experiences an episode of haematemesis and faints. Which blood vessel is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      It is probable that he has a duodenal ulcer located at the back. Such ulcers can penetrate the gastroduodenal artery and result in significant bleeding. While gastric ulcers can also invade vessels, they are not typically associated with major bleeding of this type.

      The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path

      The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

      To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old male has been referred to the clinic due to a family...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male has been referred to the clinic due to a family history of colorectal cancer. Genetic testing revealed a mutation of the APC gene, and a colonoscopy is recommended. What is the probable outcome of the procedure?

      Your Answer: Multiple colonic adenomas

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis coli is characterized by the presence of multiple colonic adenomas, which are caused by mutations in the APC gene.

      Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.

      MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.

      Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.

      HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - As a physician on the surgical ward, you are evaluating a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • As a physician on the surgical ward, you are evaluating a patient who has been experiencing dysphagia of both solids and liquids for the past 6 years. A barium swallow revealed a 'bird's beak' appearance, and the patient was diagnosed with achalasia. Despite previous medical treatments using oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy (OGD), the patient's condition has not improved, and it has been determined that surgical intervention is necessary.

      What is the preferred surgical treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Nissen fundoplication

      Correct Answer: Heller's cardiomyotomy

      Explanation:

      Surgical intervention should be considered for patients with achalasia who experience recurrent or persistent symptoms. The recommended procedure is Heller’s cardiomyotomy, which is particularly suitable for young patients who would require lifelong dilations or botulinum toxin injections, those who have not responded to multiple nonsurgical treatments, those who choose surgery as their initial treatment, and those who are at high risk of perforation with pneumatic dilation due to previous surgery in the oesophagogastric junction. It is important to note that Billroth’s operation is a different surgical procedure that involves removing the pylorus and anastomosing the proximal stomach directly to the duodenum, while Whipple’s procedure is typically performed for pancreatic cancer.

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a medical condition characterized by the failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to the degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus. This results in a contracted LOS and a dilated oesophagus above it. It is a condition that typically presents in middle-aged individuals and is equally common in both men and women.

      The clinical features of achalasia include dysphagia of both liquids and solids, heartburn, regurgitation of food, and variation in the severity of symptoms. If left untreated, it may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia, and even malignant changes in a small number of patients. To diagnose achalasia, oesophageal manometry is considered the most important diagnostic test. It shows excessive LOS tone that doesn’t relax on swallowing. A barium swallow may also be used to show a grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level, and a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance. A chest x-ray may show a wide mediastinum and fluid level.

      The preferred first-line treatment for achalasia is pneumatic (balloon) dilation, which is less invasive and has a quicker recovery time than surgery. However, patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur. Surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms occur. In some cases, intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is used in patients who are a high surgical risk. Drug therapy, such as nitrates and calcium channel blockers, may also have a role in treatment but is limited by side-effects. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options for achalasia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old woman is currently under investigation by her GP for chronic diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is currently under investigation by her GP for chronic diarrhoea due to repeated occurrences of loose, bloody stools. As per the WHO guidelines, what is the definition of chronic diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea for >6 months

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea for >14 days

      Explanation:

      Chronic diarrhoea is defined by the WHO as lasting for more than 14 days. The leading causes of this condition are irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, hyperthyroidism, and infection. The remaining options provided are incorrect and do not align with the WHO’s definition.

      Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics

      Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.

      Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridium difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.

      Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A 44-year-old female presents to her GP with persistent gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old female presents to her GP with persistent gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and complains of a burning pain in her chest. She is referred to a gastroenterologist who performs an endoscopy with biopsy, leading to a diagnosis of Barrett's oesophagus. Explain the metaplasia that occurs in Barrett's oesophagus and its association with an increased risk of oesophageal cancer.

      Barrett's oesophagus is characterized by the metaplasia of the lower oesophageal epithelium from stratified squamous to simple columnar epithelium. This change from the normal stratified squamous epithelium increases the risk of oesophageal cancer by 30-fold and is often caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Your Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is characterized by the transformation of the lower oesophageal epithelial cells from stratified squamous to simple columnar epithelium. This change from the normal stratified squamous epithelium increases the risk of oesophageal cancer by 30 times and is often associated with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Metaplasia is a reversible process where differentiated cells transform into another cell type. This change may occur as an adaptive response to stress, where cells sensitive to adverse conditions are replaced by more resilient cell types. Metaplasia can be a normal physiological response, such as the transformation of cartilage into bone. The most common type of epithelial metaplasia involves the conversion of columnar cells to squamous cells, which can be caused by smoking or Schistosomiasis. In contrast, metaplasia from squamous to columnar cells occurs in Barrett’s esophagus. If the metaplastic stimulus is removed, the cells will revert to their original differentiation pattern. However, if the stimulus persists, dysplasia may develop. Although metaplasia is not directly carcinogenic, factors that predispose to metaplasia may induce malignant transformation. The pathogenesis of metaplasia involves the reprogramming of stem cells or undifferentiated mesenchymal cells present in connective tissue, which differentiate along a new pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old obese woman presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese woman presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. She has a family history of gallstone disease. Upon physical examination, a positive Murphy's sign is observed. An abdominal ultrasound reveals gallstones in the thickened gallbladder. The surgeon opts for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to remove the gallbladder. During the procedure, the surgeon identifies and dissects the hepatobiliary triangle to safely ligate and divide two structures.

      What are the two structures being referred to in the above scenario?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery and cystic vein

      Correct Answer: Cystic duct and cystic artery

      Explanation:

      During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the hepatobiliary triangle plays a crucial role in ensuring the safe ligation and division of the cystic duct and cystic artery. Surgeons must carefully dissect this area to identify these structures and avoid any potential biliary complications.

      The hepatobiliary triangle is bordered by the common hepatic duct, which is formed by the union of the common bile duct and cystic duct. The cystic artery branches off from the right hepatic artery, while Lund’s node serves as the sentinel lymph node of the gallbladder.

      The accessory duct is considered auxiliary to the biliary tree, and the left and right hepatic ducts merge into the common hepatic duct. The gastroduodenal artery arises from the common hepatic artery, and the cystic vein helps distinguish between the cystic and common hepatic ducts during surgery, but is not ligated.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Meckel's diverticulum. What embryological structure does it...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Meckel's diverticulum. What embryological structure does it originate from?

      Your Answer: Cloaca

      Correct Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct

      Explanation:

      The Meckel’s diverticulum is a condition where the vitello-intestinal duct persists, and it is characterized by being 2 inches (5cm) long, located 2 feet (60 cm) from the ileocaecal valve, 2 times more common in men, and involving 2 tissue types.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old man with dyspepsia is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with dyspepsia is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and a positive CLO test. Which statement about the probable causative organism is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It produces a powerful urease that forms the basis of the Clo test

      Correct Answer: In patients who are colonised there is commonly evidence of fundal gastritis on endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulceration cases can be caused by Helicobacter pylori infection, which can be diagnosed through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing. Detecting the infection through endoscopy may not show any typical features, so the recommended approach is to take an antral biopsy for CLO testing during the endoscopy procedure.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - During a radical gastrectomy, the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right...

    Correct

    • During a radical gastrectomy, the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right gastro-epiploic artery. What vessel does it originate from?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery originates from the upper portion of the duodenum and travels downwards behind it until it reaches the lower border. At this point, it splits into two branches: the right gastro-epiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery. The right gastro-epiploic artery moves towards the left and passes through the layers of the greater omentum to connect with the left gastro-epiploic artery.

      The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path

      The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

      To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old female patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal discomfort, bloating,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal discomfort, bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea that have persisted for 8 months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming meals, particularly those high in carbohydrates. During the examination, the gastroenterologist observes no significant abdominal findings but notices rashes on her elbows and knees. As part of her diagnostic workup, the gastroenterologist is contemplating endoscopy and small bowel biopsy. What is the probable biopsy result?

      Your Answer: Villous atrophy

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease can be diagnosed through a biopsy that shows villous atrophy, raised intra-epithelial lymphocytes, and crypt hyperplasia. This condition is likely the cause of the patient’s chronic symptoms, which are triggered by meals containing gluten. Fortunately, adhering to a strict gluten-free diet can reverse the villous atrophy. In some cases, coeliac disease may also present with a vesicular rash called dermatitis herpetiformis. Other pathological findings, such as mucosal defects, irregular gland-like structures, or transmural inflammation with granulomas and lymphoid aggregates, suggest different diseases.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised by the nursing staff regarding her altered bowel habits. The patient has been experiencing bowel movements approximately 12 times a day for the past two days and is experiencing crampy abdominal pain.

      The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 124 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelet count of 175 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count of 16.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)

      Upon reviewing her medication chart, it is noted that she recently finished a course of ceftriaxone for meningitis.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the most probable finding on stool microscopy?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive bacilli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is a Clostridium difficile infection, which is a gram-positive bacillus bacteria. This infection is triggered by recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use, as seen in this patient who was prescribed ceftriaxone for meningitis. The patient’s symptoms of crampy abdominal pain and sudden onset diffuse diarrhoea, along with a marked rise in white blood cells, are consistent with this diagnosis. Gram-negative bacilli, gram-negative cocci, and gram-negative spirillum bacteria are unlikely causes of this patient’s symptoms.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 23 - Which one of the following is not true of gastric cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not true of gastric cancer?

      Your Answer: Individuals with histological evidence of signet ring cells have a lower incidence of lymph node metastasis

      Explanation:

      Poorly differentiated gastric cancer is characterized by the presence of signet ring cells, which is linked to a higher likelihood of metastasis.

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 24 - Sophie is a 55-year-old woman who was brought to the hospital by her...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 55-year-old woman who was brought to the hospital by her daughter, who noticed that Sophie looked a bit yellow. On examination, you confirm that she is indeed jaundiced. However, she is not in any pain. When pressed, she mentions that her stools have become pale and are hard to flush down, while her urine has become quite dark. She has also unintentionally lost 4kg of her weight in the past 1 month, but is not worried by this as she was initially overweight. There is a palpable mass on her right upper quadrant, below the right costal margin. Your colleague says that this her condition is most likely due to gallstone obstruction. However, you remember a certain law that you learnt in medical school which negates your colleague's opinion.

      What is the law that you have remembered?

      Your Answer: Courvoisier's law

      Explanation:

      The Modified Glasgow criteria is utilized for evaluating the gravity of acute pancreatitis.

      Additionally, it should be noted that there are no medical laws named after Murphy, Gallbladder, or Charcot, although there is a Murphy’s sign and a Charcot’s triad. However, the Courvoisier’s law is applicable in cases of painless obstructive jaundice, indicating that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be caused by gallstones.

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 25 - A woman in her 50s presents to the emergency department with an upper...

    Correct

    • A woman in her 50s presents to the emergency department with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The coeliac trunk supplies the arterial blood to the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, which gastrointestinal structure receives its primary blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery instead of the coeliac trunk?

      Your Answer: Proximal jejunum

      Explanation:

      The coeliac trunk provides blood supply to the foregut, which includes all structures from the gastro-oesophageal junction to the duodenal-jejunal flexure. However, the superior mesenteric artery’s jejunal branches supply blood to the entire jejunum.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 26 - A 63-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents with recurrent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents with recurrent epigastric pain. An OGD reveals the presence of varices in the lower esophagus. To prevent variceal bleeding, which medication would be the most suitable prophylactic option?

      Your Answer: Vasopressin

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      A non-cardioselective β blocker (NSBB) is the appropriate medication for prophylaxis against oesophageal bleeding in patients with varices. NSBBs work by causing splanchnic vasoconstriction, which reduces portal blood flow. Omeprazole, warfarin, and unfractionated heparin are not suitable options for this purpose.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man returns from a trip to Asia where he indulged in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man returns from a trip to Asia where he indulged in the local seafood. He now presents with severe 'rice water' diarrhoea, reduced appetite, and low oral intake. Despite this, there is no change in the amount of diarrhoea. He also experiences low-grade fevers, vomiting, and watery diarrhoea for two weeks. He is admitted to the infectious diseases department of his local hospital for further evaluation. The stool osmolar gap is normal, and there are no detectable fat, white blood cells (WBCs), or red blood cells (RBCs) in the faeces. What type of diarrhoea is most likely affecting this patient?

      Your Answer: Invasive diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Secretory diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Secretory diarrhoea is characterized by a change in the gut from an absorptive state to a secretory state, often caused by toxins or secretagogues. Chronic diarrhoea is usually caused by an underlying condition and can be classified into three subtypes: secretory, osmotic, and inflammatory. Secretory diarrhoea is characterized by large daily stool volumes and can occur even during fasting or sleep due to disrupted ion channels in the gastrointestinal tract. Osmotic diarrhoea is caused by something in the gut forcing water back into the lumen, often seen in malabsorption. Inflammatory diarrhoea is caused by inflammation of the bowel wall, either from medical disease or invasive organisms. Acute infectious diarrhoea can be invasive or enterotoxic/non-invasive, with the former presenting with bloody stool, leukocytosis, and fever, and the latter presenting with a watery stool and lacking systemic symptoms. In either case, WBCs can be detected in the stool.

      Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics

      Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.

      Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridium difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.

      Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old woman has a sigmoid colon resection in the Hartmans style, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has a sigmoid colon resection in the Hartmans style, with ligation of vessels near the colon. Which vessel will be responsible for directly supplying the rectal stump?

      Your Answer: External iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Superior rectal artery

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the rectum is provided by the superior rectal artery, which may be affected if the IMA is ligated too high. However, in the case of the Hartmans procedure, the vessels were ligated near the bowel, indicating that the superior rectal artery was not compromised.

      Anatomy of the Rectum

      The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.

      In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.

      The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman is suspected to have hepatitis B. She presents with jaundice...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is suspected to have hepatitis B. She presents with jaundice and upper abdominal pain. A liver function test was conducted to assess her liver's synthetic capacity.

      Which characteristic will provide the most precise indication of her condition?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin time

      Explanation:

      Liver enzymes are not reliable indicators of liver function, especially in end-stage cirrhosis. Instead, coagulation and albumin levels are better measures to assess liver function.

      Prothrombin time is a useful indicator because it reflects the liver’s ability to produce the necessary coagulation factors for blood clotting. A high PT suggests that the liver is not functioning properly.

      C-reactive protein (CRP) is not a specific indicator of liver function as it can be elevated in response to any infection in the body.

      Hemoglobin levels are not a reliable indicator of liver function as they can be affected by other factors such as anemia or polycythemia.

      Liver function tests are not accurate in assessing synthetic liver function as they only reflect damage to the liver and its surrounding areas. Additionally, some LFTs can be elevated due to other conditions, not just liver disease. For example, elevated GGT levels in an LFT can indicate damage to the bile ducts, which can be caused by a gallstone blocking the duct.

      Understanding Acute Liver Failure

      Acute liver failure is a condition characterized by the sudden onset of liver dysfunction, which can lead to various complications in the body. The causes of acute liver failure include paracetamol overdose, alcohol, viral hepatitis (usually A or B), and acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The symptoms of acute liver failure include jaundice, raised prothrombin time, hypoalbuminaemia, hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatorenal syndrome. It is important to note that liver function tests may not always accurately reflect the synthetic function of the liver, and it is best to assess the prothrombin time and albumin level to determine the severity of the condition. Understanding acute liver failure is crucial in managing and treating this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and no medical history except for a penicillin allergy. Following an MRI, she is diagnosed with osteomyelitis and prescribed a 6-week course of two antibiotics. However, a few days into treatment, she reports abdominal pain and diarrhea. Stool samples reveal the presence of Clostridium difficile toxins, leading to a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis. Which antibiotic is the most likely culprit for causing the C. difficile colitis?

      Your Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      The use of clindamycin as a treatment is linked to a significant risk of developing C. difficile infection. This antibiotic is commonly associated with Clostridium difficile colitis. Doxycycline has the potential to cause sensitivity to sunlight and birth defects, while trimethoprim can lead to high levels of potassium in the blood and is also harmful to developing fetuses. Vancomycin, on the other hand, can cause red man syndrome and is among the medications used to treat Clostridium difficile colitis.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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