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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for follow-up at the hypertension clinic. He is currently on a regimen of amlodipine and ramipril and has no significant medical history. He regularly checks his blood pressure at home and brings in a printed spreadsheet of his readings. What is the recommended target blood pressure for these home measurements?
Your Answer: <= 130/80 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The threshold for stage 1 hypertension, as measured by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM), is a reading of 135/85 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th birthday. He is keen to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks about being started on a 'statin'.
He has no significant past medical history and takes no medication. His father had a 'heart attack' aged seventy, but his father was obese and a heavy smoker. There is no other family history of note. There is no suggestion of a familial lipid condition.
What is the most appropriate management approach at this point?Your Answer: Optimise adherence to diet and lifestyle measures
Explanation:Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease
This patient has no history of cardiovascular disease (CVD), and therefore, the primary prevention approach is necessary. The first step is to use a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2 to evaluate the patient’s cardiovascular risk. If the patient has a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD, measuring their lipid profile and offering atorvastatin 20 mg daily would be appropriate. Additionally, providing advice to optimize diet and lifestyle measures is necessary. However, if the patient’s risk is less than 10%, then diet and lifestyle advice/optimization in isolation would be appropriate. At this point, there is no specific indication for lipid clinic input. The use of QRISK2 in this scenario is the best approach as it guides the management, including whether pharmacological treatment with a statin is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which beta blocker has been approved for treating heart failure?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Acebutolol
Explanation:Heart Failure Treatment Options
According to the 2010 update by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), there are several medications that are indicated for the treatment of heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, and nebivolol. These drugs are commonly used to manage heart failure symptoms and improve overall heart function. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of heart failure. With proper medication management, individuals with heart failure can experience improved quality of life and better outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle aches all over. What is not considered a risk factor for myopathy caused by statins?
Your Answer: Female gender
Correct Answer: Large fall in LDL-cholesterol
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.
What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?Your Answer: No further medication
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.
As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.
Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.
It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?Your Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker
Explanation:To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Correct
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Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation after experiencing some palpitations. She has no other medical history and only takes atorvastatin for high cholesterol. She has no symptoms currently and her observations are stable with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.
What would be the appropriate next step in managing Sophie's condition?Your Answer: Arrange for an echocardiogram
Explanation:When a patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score that suggests they do not need anticoagulation, it is recommended to perform a transthoracic echo to rule out valvular heart disease. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in AF patients, and anticoagulant treatment is generally indicated for those with a score of two or more. Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that can be used in AF, but it is not necessary in this scenario. Aspirin should not be used to prevent stroke in AF patients. If a patient requires rate control for fast AF, beta-blockers are the first line of treatment. Digoxin is only used for patients with a more sedentary lifestyle and doesn’t protect against stroke. It is important to perform a transthoracic echo in AF patients, especially if it may change their management or refine their risk of stroke and need for anticoagulation.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of pain and swelling in her left lower leg. She denies any recent injury.
Upon examination, you observe that her left calf is swollen and red, measuring 3 cm larger in diameter than the right side. She experiences localised tenderness along the deep venous system.
Based on your clinical assessment, you suspect a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and order blood tests, which reveal a D-Dimer level of 900 ng/mL (< 400).
You initiate treatment with therapeutic doses of apixaban and schedule a proximal leg ultrasound for the next day.
However, the ultrasound doesn't detect any evidence of a proximal leg DVT.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Continue apixaban and repeat ultrasound in 7 days
Correct Answer: Stop apixaban and repeat ultrasound in 7 days
Explanation:Most isolated calf DVTs do not require treatment and resolve on their own, but in some cases, the clot may extend into the proximal veins and require medical intervention.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man has recently started taking a new medication for his hypertension. He has noticed swelling in his ankles and wonders if it could be a side effect of the medication. Which drug is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Understanding Amlodipine: A Calcium-Channel Blocker and its Side-Effects
Amlodipine is a medication that belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers. It works by inhibiting the inward displacement of calcium ions through the slow channels of active cell membranes. The primary effect of amlodipine is to relax vascular smooth muscle and dilate peripheral and coronary arteries. However, this medication is also associated with some side-effects due to its vasodilatory properties.
Common side-effects of amlodipine include flushing and headache, which usually subside after a few days. Another common side-effect is ankle swelling, which only partially responds to diuretics. In some cases, ankle swelling may be severe enough to warrant discontinuation of the drug. On the other hand, oedema is uncommon with losartan and not reported for any of the other options.
If you experience oedema due to calcium-channel blockers, it is important to manage it properly. Please refer to the external links for more information on how to manage this side-effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old construction worker presents with symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision and difficulty walking after a long day at a construction site. During examination, there is a significant difference in blood pressure between his right and left arms.
Select from the list the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation.Your Answer: Posterior circulation transient ischaemic attack
Correct Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Subclavian Steal Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes
Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is a blockage or narrowing of the subclavian artery, which leads to a reversal of blood flow in the vertebral artery on the same side. While some patients may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from compromised blood flow to the vertebrobasilar and brachial regions, resulting in paroxysmal vertigo, syncope, and arm claudication during exercise. In addition, blood pressure in the affected arm may drop significantly. Based on the patient’s occupation and the marked decrease in arm blood pressure, subclavian steal syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Correct
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An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?
Your Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant
Explanation:According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 75-year-old man is found to be in atrial fibrillation during a routine check-up. He reports having noticed some irregularity in his pulse for a few weeks. What is the appropriate management for him?
Your Answer: ß-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment
Explanation:Rate Control vs Rhythm Control in Atrial Fibrillation: Recent Trials and Treatment Guidelines
Recent trials have confirmed that for most patients with atrial fibrillation, rate control is superior to rhythm control in terms of survival benefit. However, DC cardioversion may be considered for new onset and younger patients. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend first-line therapy with ß-blockers or rate-limiting calcium antagonists, or digoxin if these are not tolerated. Verapamil should not be used in combination with a ß-blocker. These guidelines provide a framework for the management of atrial fibrillation and can help clinicians make informed treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and ischemic heart disease.
The patient is currently taking the following medications:
- Ramipril 10 mg once daily
- Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
- Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily
- Atorvastatin 80 mg once daily
- Aspirin 75 mg once daily
The most recent change to his blood pressure medication was the addition of bendroflumethiazide 6 months ago, which has reduced his average home systolic readings by approximately 15 mmHg. The average of home blood pressure monitoring over the past two weeks is now 160/82 mmHg.
A blood test is conducted, and the results show:
- K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
After ruling out secondary causes of hypertension, what is the next course of action in managing his blood pressure?Your Answer: Add atenolol 25 mg orally once daily
Explanation:The patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. As their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, it is recommended to add an alpha- or beta-blocker to their medication regimen. According to the 2019 NICE guidelines, this stage is considered treatment resistance hypertension, and the GP should also assess for adherence to medication and postural drop. If blood pressure remains high, referral to a specialist or adding a fourth drug may be necessary. Bendroflumethiazide should not be stopped as it has been effective in lowering blood pressure. Atenolol is a suitable beta-blocker to start with, and a reasonable starting dose is 25 mg, which can be adjusted based on the patient’s response. Spironolactone should only be considered if potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks ago. She needs to have a dental filling.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer: She should receive antibiotic prophylaxis at least until she has had an operation for the coarctation
Correct Answer: Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antibiotic Prophylaxis for High-Risk Patients
NICE has released new guidance regarding the use of antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients. The guidance acknowledges that patients with pre-existing cardiac lesions are at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis (IE). However, NICE has concluded that clinical and cost-effectiveness evidence supports the recommendation that at-risk patients undergoing interventional procedures should no longer be given antibiotic prophylaxis against IE.
It is important to note that antibiotic therapy is still necessary to treat active or potential infections. The current antibiotic prophylaxis regimens may even result in a net loss of life. Therefore, it is crucial to identify patient groups who may be most at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis so that prompt investigation and treatment can be undertaken. However, offering antibiotic prophylaxis for these patients during dental procedures is not considered effective. This new guidance marks a paradigm shift from current accepted practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year old man with hypertension visited his general practitioner after an ambulatory blood pressure monitor showed a daytime average blood pressure of 155/98 mmHg. Despite taking optimal doses of ramipril and amlodipine with good adherence, which medication should be introduced to his treatment plan?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:To improve the management of hypertension that is not well-controlled despite the use of an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, it is recommended to include a thiazide-like diuretic.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man has an irregular tachycardia with a ventricular rate of 130. He played in a football match the previous day and consumed 28 units of alcohol on the evening of the match. On examination his blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Extrasystoles
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Common Cardiac Arrhythmias and Their Characteristics
Acute atrial fibrillation is characterized by a sudden onset within the past 48 hours and may be triggered by excessive alcohol or caffeine intake. An ECG is necessary for diagnosis. Atrial flutter is less common than atrial fibrillation and typically presents with a rapid, irregular or regular pulse with a ventricular rate of approximately 150 beats per minute. Extrasystoles are extra heartbeats that disrupt the normal rhythm of the heart and can originate from either the atria or ventricles. Sinus arrhythmia is a common occurrence in children and young adults and involves cyclic changes in heart rate during breathing. Sinus tachycardia is a physiological response to various stimuli such as fever, anxiety, pain, exercise, and hyperthyroidism, and is characterized by a regular heart rate of over 100 beats per minute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Correct
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A 32-year-old man complains of palpitations.
Select from the list the single situation in which palpitations will most likely need urgent further investigation.Your Answer: Palpitations accompanied by syncope or near syncope
Explanation:Understanding Palpitations and When to Seek Medical Attention
Palpitations are a common occurrence that can be described as an abnormally perceived heartbeat. While they are usually benign, they can be frightening. A risk stratification system has been developed to determine when urgent referral is necessary. This includes palpitations during exercise, palpitations with syncope or near syncope, a family history of sudden cardiac death or inheritable cardiac conditions, high degree atrioventricular block, and high-risk structural heart disease. However, a history of hypertension is not an indication for urgent referral. Ventricular extrasystoles on an ECG are likely benign unless there is a family history or known structural heart disease. Recurrent episodes of the heart beating fast may indicate a tachyarrhythmia and require routine referral. A normal ECG also warrants routine referral, except for second- and third-degree atrioventricular block, which require urgent referral. It is important to understand when to seek medical attention for palpitations to ensure proper care and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his daughter with complaints of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and swollen ankles that have been present for a few weeks. On examination, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram reveals a reduced ejection fraction. He responds well to treatment with optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide. What is the most accurate statement regarding his future management?
Your Answer: Spironolactone should be started
Correct Answer: He should be started on a ß-blocker
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. One of the recommended treatment options is the prescription of a cardioselective β-blocker such as carvedilol. However, it should not be taken at the same time as an ACE inhibitor. While diuretics can help control oedema, the mainstay of treatment for chronic heart failure is ACE inhibitors and β-blockade. Although digoxin and spironolactone may have a place in treatment, they are not first or second line options. For severe cases of heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, a combination of these treatment options can help manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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As a GP, what tests should be performed for an 80-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation who has been started on amiodarone?
Your Answer: TFTS, LFTS, potassium every 6 months
Correct Answer: TFTs, LFTs every 6 months
Explanation:Amiodarone, a class III antiarrhythmic drug, has the potential to impact various bodily systems such as the thyroid, liver, and lungs.
To ensure patient safety, it is recommended to conduct liver and thyroid function tests every six months. Before initiating amiodarone treatment, a chest x-ray is necessary, but it is not required routinely after treatment unless respiratory symptoms arise.
Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents with intermittent bilateral calf pain that occurs when walking. He has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and a past myocardial infarction (MI). What additional feature, commonly seen in patients with intermittent claudication, would be present in this case?
Your Answer: Pain disappears within ten minutes of stopping exercise
Explanation:Understanding Intermittent Claudication: Symptoms and Characteristics
Intermittent claudication is a condition that affects the lower limbs and is caused by arterial disease. Here are some key characteristics and symptoms to help you understand this condition:
– Pain disappears within ten minutes of stopping exercise: The muscle pain in the lower limbs that develops as a result of exercise due to lower-extremity arterial disease is quickly relieved at rest, usually within ten minutes.
– Pain eases walking uphill: Typically, pain develops more rapidly when walking uphill than on the flat.
– Occurs similarly in both legs: Claudication can occur in both legs but is often worse in one leg.
– Pain in the buttock: In intermittent claudication, the pain is typically felt in the calf. A diagnosis of atypical claudication could be made if a patient indicates pain in the thigh or buttock, in the absence of any calf pain.
– Pain starts when standing still: Intermittent claudication is classically described as pain that starts during exertion and which is relieved on rest.
Understanding these symptoms and characteristics can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for intermittent claudication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.
Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?Your Answer: Ezetimibe
Explanation:Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy
NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed amiodarone medication?
Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia
Explanation:Gynaecomastia can be caused by drugs such as spironolactone, which is the most frequent cause, as well as cimetidine and digoxin.
Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three months previously.
He has made a full recovery but wants to ask about his diet.
Which one of the following foods should he avoid?Your Answer: Margarine containing sitostanol esters
Correct Answer: Pork
Explanation:Tips for a Heart-Healthy Diet after a Heart Attack
Following a heart attack, it is important to adopt a healthier overall diet to reduce the risk of future heart problems. Unhealthy diets have been attributed to up to 30% of all deaths from coronary heart disease (CHD). While reducing fat intake is important, exercise also plays a crucial role in maintaining heart health.
Including canned and frozen fruits and vegetables in your diet is just as beneficial as fresh produce. A Mediterranean diet, which includes many protective elements for CHD, is recommended. Replacing butter with olive oil and mono-unsaturated margarine, such as those made from rape-seed or olive oil, is a healthier option. Organic butter is not any better for heart health than non-organic butter.
To reduce cholesterol intake, it is recommended to eat less red meat and replace it with poultry. Margarine containing sitostanol ester may also help reduce cholesterol intake. Adding plant sterol to margarine has been shown to reduce serum low-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Eating more fish, including oily fish, at least once a week is also recommended.
Switching to whole-grain bread instead of white bread and eating more root vegetables and green vegetables is also beneficial. Lastly, it is important to eat fruit every day. By following these tips, you can maintain a heart-healthy diet and reduce the risk of future heart problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old patient has a cholesterol level of 5.1 mmol/L and a QRISK score of 11%. They lead an active lifestyle and have no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing these findings?
Your Answer: Dietary measures
Correct Answer: Commence atorvastatin
Explanation:Based on the QRISK score, it appears that dietary changes alone may not be enough to lower the risk of cardiovascular disease to a satisfactory level.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, moderate aortic stenosis, and stage 3b chronic kidney disease presents for hypertension management. His blood pressure in the clinic is 150/90 mmHg, and he has been recording an average of 155/84 mmHg for the past month. He has previously refused antihypertensive medication due to concerns about dizziness and falls. What is the appropriate initial antihypertensive to consider in this case?
Your Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Explanation:Due to the patient’s moderate-severe aortic stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated and a calcium channel blocker should be prescribed as the first-line treatment for hypertension. Alpha-blockers may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if necessary, typically at step 4 of the guidelines when potassium levels are high. While ACE inhibitors are typically recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes to protect the kidneys, they should not be used in this patient due to their aortic stenosis. Beta-blockers are not the first-line treatment for hypertension and are better suited for heart failure and post-myocardial infarction. They may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if needed, typically at step 4 when potassium levels are high.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in the past three weeks and is feeling increasingly tired. On examination, his pulse is 40 bpm and his BP 100/60 mmHg. An ECG reveals he is in complete heart block.
What other finding are you most likely to find?Your Answer: Reversed splitting of S2
Correct Answer: Variable S1
Explanation:Characteristics of Complete Heart Block
Complete heart block is a condition where there is no coordination between the atrial and ventricular contractions. This results in a variable intensity of the first heart sound, which is the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves. The blood flow from the atria to the ventricles varies from beat to beat, leading to inconsistent intensity of the first heart sound. Additionally, cannon A waves may be observed in the neck, indicating atrial contraction against closed AV valves.
Narrow pulse pressure is not a characteristic of complete heart block. It is more commonly associated with aortic valve disease. Similarly, aortic stenosis is not typically linked with complete heart block, although it can cause reversed splitting of S2. Giant V waves are not observed in complete heart block, but they suggest tricuspid regurgitation. Reversed splitting of S2 is also not a defining feature of complete heart block, but it can be found in aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block. It is important to note that murmurs may also be present in complete heart block due to concomitant valve disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Correct
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A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin, ramipril and bisoprolol upon discharge. After a month, he experiences some muscle aches and undergoes routine blood tests at the clinic. His serum creatine kinase (CK) activity is found to be 650 u/l (normal range 30–300 u/l). What is the probable reason for the elevated CK levels in this individual?
Your Answer: Effect of statin therapy
Explanation:Interpreting Elevated CK Levels in a Post-MI Patient on Statin Therapy
When a patient complains of symptoms while on statin therapy, it is reasonable to check their CK levels. An elevated level suggests statin-induced myopathy, and the statin should be discontinued. However, if the patient doesn’t complain of further chest pain suggestive of another MI, CK is no longer routinely measured as a cardiac marker. Heavy exercise should also be avoided, and CK levels usually return to baseline within 72 hours post-MI. While undiagnosed hypothyroidism can cause a rise in CK, it is less likely than statin-induced myopathy, and other clinical features of hypothyroidism are not mentioned in the scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.
Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.
What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Correct
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An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of his chest wall. He is generally healthy but mentions that his father passed away 10 years ago due to heart problems. Upon examination, he is 195 cm tall (>99th centile) and slender, with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. The doctor suspects that he may have Marfan syndrome. What is the most prevalent cardiovascular abnormality observed in adults with Marfan syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Aortic root dilatation
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities in Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder that affects various systems in the body. The most common cardiac complication is aortic root dilatation, which occurs in 70% of patients. Mitral valve prolapse is the second most common abnormality, affecting around 60% of patients. Beta-blockers can help reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture. Aortic dissection, although not the most common abnormality, is a major diagnostic criterion of Marfan syndrome and can result from weakening of the aortic media due to root dilatation. Aortic regurgitation is less common than mitral regurgitation but can occur due to progressive aortic root dilatation and connective tissue abnormalities. Mitral annular calcification is more frequent in Marfan syndrome than in the general population but is not included in the diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient presents at the local walk-in centre with central crushing chest pain. The nurse immediately calls 999 and performs an ECG which reveals ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient's blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation is 96%. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg + sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain
Patients presenting with acute chest pain should receive immediate management for suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS), including glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg. Oxygen should only be given if sats are less than 94%. A normal ECG doesn’t exclude ACS, so referral should be made based on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. Patients with current chest pain or chest pain in the last 12 hours with an abnormal ECG should be emergency admitted. Those with chest pain 12-72 hours ago should be referred to the hospital the same day for assessment. Chest pain more than 72 hours ago should undergo a full assessment with ECG and troponin measurement before deciding upon further action.
For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Patients with all three features have typical angina, those with two have atypical angina, and those with one or none have non-anginal chest pain. If stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone, NICE recommends CT coronary angiography as the first line of investigation, followed by non-invasive functional imaging and invasive coronary angiography as second and third lines, respectively. Non-invasive functional imaging options include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography, stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance perfusion, and MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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