00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following causes of pneumonia is most commonly linked with the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes of pneumonia is most commonly linked with the onset of erythema multiforme major?

      Your Answer: Legionella

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme

      Erythema multiforme is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that is commonly triggered by infections. It can be classified into two forms, minor and major. Previously, Stevens-Johnson syndrome was thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but they are now considered separate entities.

      The features of erythema multiforme include target lesions that initially appear on the back of the hands or feet before spreading to the torso. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and pruritus, or mild itching, may occasionally be present.

      The causes of erythema multiforme can include viruses such as herpes simplex virus, bacteria like Mycoplasma and Streptococcus, drugs such as penicillin and NSAIDs, and connective tissue diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus. Malignancy and sarcoidosis can also be underlying causes.

      Erythema multiforme major is the more severe form of the condition and is associated with mucosal involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
    You want to...

    Incorrect

    • A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
      You want to know what proportion of patients with Alzheimer's disease would be accurately diagnosed by this new test.
      What value would indicate this?

      Your Answer: Positive predictive value

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Positive Predictive Value in Medical Testing

      Medical testing is an essential tool in diagnosing diseases and conditions. Two important measures in evaluating the effectiveness of a test are sensitivity and positive predictive value. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of patients with the disease who are correctly identified by the test. In other words, it measures the accuracy of the test in detecting true positives. On the other hand, positive predictive value refers to the percentage of people who test positive for the disease and actually have it. This measure takes into account the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested and helps to determine the likelihood of a positive test result being a true positive. Understanding these measures is crucial in interpreting medical test results and making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not experience any symptoms?

      Your Answer: Around 50% of women and 25% of men

      Correct Answer: Around 70% of women and 50% of men

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss for the past three months. She has been on a gluten-free diet for the last four weeks and feels better. She wants to confirm if she has coeliac disease. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: Check anti-endomysial antibodies

      Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing

      Explanation:

      Before undergoing testing, patients need to consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks. Failure to do so may result in negative results for serological tests and jejunal biopsy, especially if the patient is adhering to a gluten-free diet. To ensure accurate results, patients should consume gluten in multiple meals every day for at least 6 weeks before undergoing further testing.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in the practice. She is updating the practice team about how to perform and interpret spirometry correctly.

      What is the appropriate number and quality of spirometry readings needed for precise evaluation of patients with respiratory conditions?

      Your Answer: Three readings should be obtained where two of them are within 10% of each other

      Correct Answer: Patients should keep having attempts at blowing until two sets of readings within 10% of each other are recorded

      Explanation:

      Spirometry Procedure for Health Care Providers

      To perform spirometry, a clean, disposable, one-way mouthpiece should be attached to the spirometer. The patient should be instructed to take a deep breath until their lungs feel full and then hold their breath long enough to seal their lips tightly around the mouthpiece. The patient should then blast the air out as forcibly and fast as possible until there is no more air left to expel, while the operator verbally encourages them to keep blowing and maintain a good mouth seal.

      It is important to watch the patient to ensure a good mouth seal is achieved and to check that an adequate trace has been achieved. The procedure can be repeated at least twice until three acceptable and repeatable blows are obtained, with a maximum of 8 efforts. Finally, there should be three readings, of which the best two are within 150 mL or 5% of each other. By following these steps, health care providers can accurately measure a patient’s lung function using spirometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In a 20-year-old man with generalised tonic-clonic seizures, what is the most effective...

    Correct

    • In a 20-year-old man with generalised tonic-clonic seizures, what is the most effective initial oral treatment option?

      Your Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatments for Epilepsy: A Guide

      When it comes to treating epilepsy, it’s important to choose the right medication for the specific type of seizure. While topiramate is often used as a first-line treatment, there isn’t enough evidence to support its effectiveness. Phenobarbital is no longer recommended due to its side effects, and phenytoin can cause problems with long-term use. For primary generalized epilepsy, lamotrigine and valproate are the preferred options, although lamotrigine can worsen myoclonic seizures. Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine can also be used, but may exacerbate myoclonic or absence seizures. For partial seizures, carbamazepine or lamotrigine are the first-line treatments, with levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, or sodium valproate as alternatives if needed. By choosing the right medication, patients with epilepsy can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man with longstanding bipolar disorder has recently joined your practice after...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with longstanding bipolar disorder has recently joined your practice after moving to the area. He has been on a stable dosage of lithium for the past 4 years and has been adherent to treatment. He has no other medical history of note and is not taking any medication that interacts with lithium. His previous blood tests have all been within normal limits, with a serum lithium level consistently around 0.5 mmol/litre (within target range).

      What is the minimum ongoing blood monitoring required for this patient in relation to his lithium treatment?

      Your Answer: Serum lithium level, serum electrolytes, eGFR and full blood count every 3 months

      Correct Answer: Serum lithium level, serum electrolytes, eGFR, thyroid function and full blood count annually

      Explanation:

      Lithium Monitoring Requirements

      Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic ratio, which means it requires careful monitoring. The British National Formulary (BNF) outlines the monitoring requirements for patients taking lithium. After initiation and each dose change, serum-lithium monitoring should be carried out weekly until concentrations are stable. After that, it should be checked every 3 months for the first year and every 6 months thereafter as a minimum.

      Patients who are 65 years and above, taking drugs that may interact with lithium, at risk of impaired renal or thyroid function, have high calcium levels, poor symptom control or adherence to treatment, or whose last serum-lithium concentration was 0.8 mmol/litre or higher should be monitored every 3 months. Additionally, serum-lithium measurements should be checked if there is a significant intercurrent illness/disease or a significant change in sodium or fluid intake.

      Before treatment is initiated, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be assessed, and an ECG is recommended for those with cardiovascular disease or risk factors. Body-weight/BMI, serum electrolytes, and a full blood count should also be measured. During treatment, body-weight/BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function should be monitored every 6 months. If there is evidence of impaired renal or thyroid function or raised calcium levels, monitoring should be more frequent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      107.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A study investigates a new diagnostic test for dementia. You are interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigates a new diagnostic test for dementia. You are interested in determining the proportion of patients who are classified as not having dementia by the test but actually do not have dementia. What measurement would indicate this?

      Your Answer: Specificity

      Correct Answer: Negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity, Specificity, and Predictive Values

      When evaluating a diagnostic test, it is important to understand the concepts of sensitivity, specificity, and predictive values. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals with the condition who are correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the proportion of individuals without the condition who are correctly identified by the test.

      Predictive values, on the other hand, take into account both true and false positives and negatives. The positive predictive value refers to the proportion of individuals who test positive and actually have the condition, while the negative predictive value refers to the proportion of individuals who test negative and do not have the condition.

      It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are based on the disease state itself, while predictive values are based on the test result. This distinction can sometimes cause confusion among candidates, but understanding these concepts is crucial for interpreting diagnostic test results accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report?

      Your Answer: Should be examined within six hours

      Correct Answer: 15% abnormal forms is within normal limits

      Explanation:

      Understanding Semen Analysis Results

      Semen analysis is a crucial test that helps determine male fertility. According to the World Health Organisation guidelines, a sperm sample showing 15% or more sperm of normal morphology is considered normal. It is recommended to abstain from masturbation and/or intercourse for at least two days before the test.

      Low volume is a common issue, often caused by missing the container. Motility below 40% is a cause for concern, and the pH should be between 7 and 8.5. The specimen should be examined within an hour, and a count below 20 million would be of some concern, while below 10 million would be clinically significant.

      When conducting semen analysis, the results should be compared with the WHO reference values. The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, pH should be 7.2 or more, sperm concentration should be 15 million spermatozoa per ml or more, and the total sperm number should be 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more. The total motility should be 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility, vitality should be 58% or more, and live spermatozoa sperm morphology should be 4% or more.

      In conclusion, understanding semen analysis results is crucial in determining male fertility. It is important to follow the WHO guidelines and compare the results with the reference values to identify any potential issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling full for the past two months. She requests a prescription for Colpermin, as her sister found it helpful for her IBS. Additionally, she reports experiencing urinary frequency for several weeks and suspects a UTI. On examination, her abdomen appears non-specifically bloated, and a urine dip reveals trace protein but no blood, glucose, or leukocytes. She went through menopause at 54, is nulliparous, and has a family history of psoriasis. There are no known allergies. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Consideration of Ovarian Cancer in New Onset IBS after 50

      This patient presenting with new onset IBS after the age of 50 should prompt consideration of ovarian cancer. According to NICE guidelines, symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer. CA 125 is the test of choice if ovarian cancer is being considered.

      Risk factors for ovarian cancer include nulliparity and late menopause. Symptoms that should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer include progressive bloating, early satiety, and urinary frequency. A vaginal examination should be performed if ovarian cancer is suspected since abdominal examination alone can miss an ovarian mass. The family history of psoriasis is not relevant in this case.

      Prescribing Colpermin is not necessarily incorrect, but IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion that should be given once serious and common alternatives have been ruled out. Prescribing an antibiotic is inappropriate because there is no evidence of infection here.

      An abdominopelvic scan would be an alternative to arranging CA 125, but an abdominal scan by itself is usually not sufficient to fully examine the ovaries. If a CA 125 was high, an ultrasound scan would be arranged to assess the ovaries in more detail, and the results of the two would be combined in an RMI score to assess the risk of malignancy.

      In summary, it is important to consider ovarian cancer in cases of new onset IBS after 50, especially if symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency are present. A thorough examination and appropriate tests should be performed to rule out this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      104.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old girl comes to see you asking for a prescription for the...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to see you asking for a prescription for the contraceptive pill. She attends alone and tells you that she has had a boyfriend for the last few months and they have recently started having sexual intercourse. He is the same age as she is and up until now they have used condoms but she is worried about becoming pregnant as a friend of hers recently became pregnant by accident and had a termination.

      You discuss things in detail and she says that she is going to continue to be sexually active but doesn't want to get pregnant. She tells you that her parents do not know that she has a boyfriend or that she is sexually active. She cannot be persuaded to tell her parents and doesn't consent to your discussing things with them. You discuss the implications of having sex and also methods of contraception and she understands and retains your advice.

      What is the most appropriate management in this situation?

      Your Answer: Prescribe contraception and arrange follow up

      Explanation:

      Fraser Guidelines for Young People’s Competence to Consent to Contraceptive Advice or Treatment

      The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for healthcare professionals to determine whether a young person is competent to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment.

      According to the guidelines, a young person is considered competent if they understand the doctor’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or allow the doctor to inform the parents, are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, their physical or mental health (or both) are likely to deteriorate if contraceptive advice/treatment is not given, and their best interests require the doctor to give advice/treatment without parental consent.

      It is important to follow these guidelines as failure to provide contraceptive advice or treatment can put young people at risk of physical and mental harm, including unwanted pregnancies. In the UK, statistics suggest that about 30-40% of young people have had sexual intercourse by the time they are 16. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to assess young people’s competence to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      71.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
      What is the correct term for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences

      There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman has a slowly enlarging, unilateral, smooth, painless lump below her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a slowly enlarging, unilateral, smooth, painless lump below her left ear.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive lymphadenopathy

      Correct Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      Salivary Gland Neoplasms: Common Benign Tumors and Signs of Malignancy

      Salivary gland neoplasms are mostly benign, with pleomorphic adenoma being the most common. Pain may occur, and a persistent and unexplained neck lump warrants urgent referral. Mumps is not a likely cause as it typically affects both parotid glands. Lymphoma usually causes enlargement of multiple lymph nodes, while parotid carcinoma is much less common than pleomorphic adenoma. Malignant tumors may present with rapid growth, hardness, fixation, tenderness, lymph node involvement, and metastatic disease. Infiltration may affect local sensory nerves and the facial nerve. Reactive lymphadenopathy usually involves multiple lymph nodes and is transient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

    When is the meningococcal...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

      When is the meningococcal C vaccine given?

      Your Answer: 3 months, 1 year, and 14 years

      Correct Answer: 2 months and 3 months

      Explanation:

      UK Immunisation Schedule and Meningococcal Serogroup C Vaccine

      We have provided a reference to the current UK immunisation schedule at the end of this text. It is a two-page A4 summary that we suggest you save and print for future reference. According to the schedule, the meningococcal serogroup C (MenC) vaccine is given to infants at one year old and as part of the MenACWY vaccine at age fourteen. However, the infant dose of MenC conjugate vaccine is no longer administered at three months of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns about his hallucinations. The wife reports that he frequently sees cats wandering around the house despite never having a pet cat. Apart from this, he is in good health with no other complaints and doesn't appear to be bothered by the visions. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and cataracts and consumes around 20 units of alcohol per week.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess

      Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Charles-Bonnet syndrome typically have full awareness of their condition despite experiencing ongoing and intricate visual or auditory hallucinations.

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal tympanic membrane

      Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue. She is a bright student and has secured a place at college. She weighs 37 kg (5 stone 11 pounds) and is 1.75 m (5ft 9 inches) tall. She appears malnourished, her skin is dry, and she has excessive growth of fine soft body hair. She has not had her period for six months. Her cortisol level is elevated, and her free thyroxine (T4) is normal. She is not anemic but has a decreased white cell and platelet count.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Findings in Anorexia Nervosa Compared to Other Conditions

      Anorexia nervosa is a condition characterized by severe weight loss due to self-imposed starvation. Endocrine findings in anorexia nervosa include decreased levels of follicular-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and oestrogens, as well as urinary 17-hydroxy-corticosteroids. However, T4 and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are usually normal, while growth hormone and cortisol levels may be elevated. Other possible findings include reduced white cell and platelet count, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, and hypomagnesaemia.

      On the other hand, Addison’s disease, which also causes weight loss, is characterized by reduced cortisol levels. HIV infection may lead to endocrine disorders such as hypogonadism, hypothyroidism, and adrenal excess or insufficiency, but there is no information to support this diagnosis in the given case. Hypothyroidism, which may cause weight gain, is characterized by reduced T4 levels, but this is not the case in anorexia nervosa. Finally, occult carcinoma, which may cause weight loss, is not likely in this case, as the weight loss is chronic and typical of anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 14-year-old female comes to the clinic with her mother. She reports left...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old female comes to the clinic with her mother. She reports left knee pain for the past 4 weeks without any history of injury. She feels more tired than usual but is not otherwise unwell. Upon examination, her BMI is normal, and her vital signs are unremarkable. The left knee appears normal, and there is a full range of motion. All other joints are also normal. What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Direct access X ray (within 48 hours)

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?

      Your Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity

      Explanation:

      postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery

      Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:

      1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.

      2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.

      3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.

      4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.

      5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.

      6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.

      In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which option from the list aligns BEST with Wilson and Junger's screening criteria...

    Incorrect

    • Which option from the list aligns BEST with Wilson and Junger's screening criteria for the PSA test in detecting prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: The test has a high sensitivity

      Correct Answer: The test has a high specificity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Prostate Cancer Screening

      Prostate cancer screening is a controversial topic, with the benefits and risks of introducing a national screening programme still unclear. One of the challenges in screening for prostate cancer is the inability to distinguish between potentially harmful and clinically insignificant cancers. This can lead to over-diagnosis and over-treatment of the disease.

      To evaluate the effectiveness of a screening test, we use measures of sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with the disease who are correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without the disease who are correctly identified as negative by the test.

      In the case of prostate cancer screening, the test has a high specificity, meaning that it gives few false positives. However, the sensitivity of the test varies depending on the cut-off value used, with reported sensitivities ranging from 33% to 59%.

      To introduce a successful screening programme, Wilson and Jungner’s Criteria for mass screening must be met. These criteria include the importance of the condition, understanding the natural history of the disease, having a simple and validated screening test, and having facilities for diagnosis and treatment available.

      In conclusion, sensitivity and specificity are important measures in evaluating the effectiveness of prostate cancer screening. While the test has a high specificity, the sensitivity varies and the natural history of the disease is not fully understood, making the introduction of a national screening programme a complex issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2 diabetes mellitus last year. After shedding some weight and taking metformin, his HbA1c has dropped from 74 mmol/mol (8.9%) to 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What would be the most appropriate course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Make no changes to management

      Correct Answer: Add pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      The most suitable choice for him would be Pioglitazone as it doesn’t pose a risk of hypoglycemia, which could be hazardous considering his profession. Additionally, the utilization of a DPP-4 inhibitor (such as sitagliptin or vildagliptin) would be supported by the NICE guidelines in this scenario.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 67-year-old woman has a T-score of -2.5 from her dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman has a T-score of -2.5 from her dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan at the hip. It was performed because she was worried about osteoporosis, as her mother had died following a fractured neck of femur.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplements alone

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis can be diagnosed through a DEXA scan, and if the bone mineral density is 2.5 standard deviations or more below the young adult reference mean, a bisphosphonate such as alendronate or risedronate is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may also be given alongside bisphosphonates. Repeat DEXA scans are not necessary unless the T-score is greater than -2.5. Raloxifene is not typically recommended for primary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures due to the risk of venous thromboembolism. If bisphosphonates are not tolerated or contraindicated, specialist referral may be necessary for alternative treatments such as zoledronic acid, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and sometimes raloxifene.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Osteoporosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily,...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily, left-sided frontotemporal/orbital headache that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. The headache seems to occur at the same time every day and lasts for about an hour. The pain makes him feel nauseous, although he has not vomited. Interestingly, he also reports that his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation.

      What is the best immediate treatment to administer?

      Your Answer: Intranasal sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Oxygen (100%) + subcutaneous sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how...

    Incorrect

    • As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how frequently should lithium levels be monitored once a stable dose has been attained?

      Your Answer: Every 6 months

      Correct Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Once a stable dose has been achieved, lithium levels need to be monitored every 3 months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A study examines the effectiveness of bisphosphonates in managing pain caused by bone...

    Incorrect

    • A study examines the effectiveness of bisphosphonates in managing pain caused by bone metastases in a group of 120 patients. Among them, 40 patients were treated with conventional therapy involving NSAIDs and radiotherapy, while the remaining 80 patients received bisphosphonates. Out of these 80 patients, 40 experienced considerable pain relief. What are the odds of a patient with bone metastases receiving significant pain relief from bisphosphonates?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Out of the 80 patients who were given bisphosphonates, 40 experienced significant pain relief. This means that the remaining 40 patients did not experience significant pain relief. The odds of experiencing significant pain relief after taking bisphosphonates in this group of patients is 1:1.

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are working a morning session in a GP practice in the north...

    Incorrect

    • You are working a morning session in a GP practice in the north of England.

      Out of the six prescriptions you sign that morning, which one would be exempt from NHS prescription charges for a patient who is 65 years old?

      Your Answer: A prescription of amoxicillin, for chest infection

      Correct Answer: A prescription of desogestrel ('Cerazette') as a contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Prescription charges do not apply to prescribed contraceptives in England, as they are exempt from such charges. Other exempt drugs include STI treatments and medications that a GP can administer. It is important to note that this exemption only applies to England and not to Wales, Scotland, or Northern Ireland. However, if Dianette is prescribed for acne rather than as a contraceptive, it would be subject to prescription charges. Additionally, there are extensive lists of medical conditions that qualify patients for free prescriptions.

      Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?

      In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.

      Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.

      Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.

      For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 47-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is being evaluated in the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is being evaluated in the clinic as she has not responded well to methotrexate. The possibility of starting sulfasalazine is being considered. However, if she has an allergy to which of the following drugs, it may not be advisable to prescribe sulfasalazine?

      Your Answer: Sulpiride

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 76-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a gradual onset of visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a gradual onset of visual disturbance. She reports difficulty in recognizing facial details and increasing difficulty in reading. She also experiences bending of road edges while driving and sees a floating grey patch in her vision. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cataract

      Correct Answer: Age related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this description is age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). In the initial stages, patients may experience difficulty in reading or identifying details. A common symptom of ARMD is the perception of straight lines appearing bent or distorted, as mentioned in the description. This can be assessed in a clinical setting using an Amsler grid.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
      What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.

      To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment. During the consultation, she is advised to visit her GP for vaccination but cannot recall which vaccines were recommended. She has received all her childhood and school immunizations but has not had any vaccinations since becoming pregnant.

      What vaccines should be offered to this patient?

      Your Answer: Pertussis and influenza vaccine

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should receive both influenza and pertussis vaccines. The pertussis vaccine is typically part of the diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccination and is important for preventing severe illness and death in newborns. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      23.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/3) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Mental Health (1/4) 25%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Allergy And Immunology (1/2) 50%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Passmed