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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient who presented to a colleague about eight weeks ago. He is a 65-year-old male with mild to moderate symptoms of nasal congestion and persistent feeling of a blocked nose. He reports ongoing problems of a similar nature. He informs you that as well as the above he gets intermittent clear nasal discharge which can alternate between nostrils and he has had periods of nasal and ocular 'itch'.
At his last appointment he was prescribed a daily non-sedating antihistamine which he has been using regularly. He was also given advice on nasal douching. Despite these measures he is still suffering from persistent nasal symptoms. He has heard that steroid medication can be used to treat his symptoms and asks for a prescription.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacological option to add in to his treatment in trying to manage his symptoms?Your Answer: Low dose' oral corticosteroid for four weeks (prednisolone 5 mg once daily)
Correct Answer: Intranasal corticosteroid spray (for example, fluticasone propionate 100 mcgs each nostril once daily)
Explanation:Treatment Guidelines for Allergic and Non-Allergic Rhinitis
Guidelines for the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis recommend the use of oral non-sedating antihistamines, topical nasal corticosteroids or antihistamines, and anti-inflammatory eye drops either in isolation or in combination. For mild symptoms, oral and/or topical antihistamines are recommended, with regular use being more effective than as-required use. Sedating antihistamines should be avoided due to their negative effects on academic and work performance.
In moderate to severe symptoms, intranasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice if antihistamine treatment has been ineffective. Different preparations have different degrees of systemic absorption, with mometasone and fluticasone having negligible systemic absorption. Intranasal corticosteroids have an onset of action of six to eight hours after the first dose, but regular use for at least two weeks may be needed to see the maximal effects.
If treatment with the above doesn’t improve things, it is important to review technique and compliance and increase the dosage where appropriate. Short courses of oral corticosteroids may be used to gain control in severe nasal blockage or if the patient has a very important upcoming event. They should be used in conjunction with intranasal corticosteroids, and a burst of prednisolone at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg/day for 5-10 days can be used.
In addition to the above, watery rhinorrhoea may respond to topical ipratropium, and catarrh in those with co-existent asthma may be helped by a leukotriene receptor antagonist. These guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis, with a range of options available depending on the severity of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman is HIV positive and takes antiretroviral therapy. What should she be offered annually in primary care?
Your Answer: All of the options listed
Explanation:Managing HIV in Primary Care: Guidelines and Considerations
Patients with HIV are at an increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and antiretroviral therapy can further increase the risk of diabetes and dyslipidaemia. Women with HIV are also more susceptible to human papillomavirus-related diseases and should undergo annual cervical screening. To ensure good sexual health and maintain protective sexual behavior, patients should have access to staff trained to carry out a sexual history and sexual health assessment, as well as counseling and support. Additionally, patients should be offered a full sexual health screen annually. Despite concerns about contraindications, the influenza vaccine is safe for patients with HIV as it is an inactivated virus. These guidelines aim to support primary care teams in managing the unique considerations and risks associated with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week history of fever, malaise, a generalised rash and a sore throat. During the examination, there is an erythematous rash affecting the entire body and generalised lymphadenopathy. She confesses to a history of intravenous drug use. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer: Human Immunodeficieny Virus (HIV)
Explanation:HIV, glandular fever, measles, rubella, and syphilis are all infectious diseases with distinct symptoms and modes of transmission. HIV is more common among at-risk groups such as intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, and sex workers. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus and is common in young adult populations. Measles and rubella are RNA viruses transmitted by respiratory droplet spread, with measles being uncommon in the UK due to vaccination rates. Syphilis is a treponemal infection with distinct stages, but is not associated with drug use and doesn’t present with prominent systemic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 4
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had a disagreement with their daughter, causing her to leave the house. Following this incident, she has been unable to speak. Physical examination of her chest and throat reveals no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?
Your Answer: Psychogenic aphonia
Explanation:Understanding Aphonia: The Inability to Speak
Aphonia is a medical condition that refers to the inability to speak. It can be caused by various factors, including recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which can occur after a thyroidectomy. In this case, the nerve that controls the vocal cords is damaged, leading to difficulty in speaking.
Another cause of aphonia is psychogenic, which means that it is related to psychological factors. This can include anxiety, depression, or other mental health conditions that affect the ability to communicate verbally.
It is important to note that aphonia is different from mutism, which is the inability to speak due to a physical or neurological condition. In contrast, aphonia is typically a temporary condition that can be treated with appropriate medical or psychological interventions.
Overall, understanding aphonia is crucial for identifying and addressing the underlying causes of this condition. Whether it is related to a physical or psychological issue, seeking medical attention can help individuals regain their ability to speak and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy has had a limp for several weeks. His parents do not recall any injury or recent ill health. His left ankle is swollen and cannot be moved, although it is not especially painful. His symptoms are particularly bad in the mornings, but his gait improves during the day. He has not had any other symptoms.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis: Classification and Differential Diagnosis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), also known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, is a chronic rheumatologic disease that affects children and is one of the most common chronic diseases of childhood. It is an autoimmune, non-infective, inflammatory joint disease that is defined as joint inflammation presenting in children under the age of 16 years and persisting for at least six weeks, with other causes excluded.
There are seven subsets of JIA with differing clinical courses, classified by the International League of Associations for Rheumatology criteria. Oligoarticular JIA affects young girls and usually presents with asymmetrical joint involvement, while polyarticular JIA can be RF-negative or RF-positive and affects young or older girls with symmetrical stiffness, swelling, and pain in several joints. Systemic-onset JIA presents with arthritis in one or more joints, daily high spiking fevers, and a salmon-colored rash, while enthesitis-related JIA affects boys over the age of 6 years with asymmetrical arthritis, enthesitis, and sacro-iliac joint involvement. Psoriatic JIA presents with arthritis and a history of psoriasis, nail changes, and/or dactylitis, while undifferentiated JIA may present with features of more than one subtype.
Other conditions, such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia, septic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and rheumatic fever, should be included in the differential diagnosis of JIA. It is important to understand the classification and differential diagnosis of JIA to provide appropriate management and treatment for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly arguing with her partner. They have been living together for the past six months. She says that the arguments are making her feel miserable and that her only enjoyment in life is her work and occasional nights out clubbing with her friends.
She says that her boyfriend resents her lifestyle and is very possessive of her time. She feels depressed when she arrives home and he is there, unless he is working a late shift or it is a night out with her friends. On examination, she appears physically fit, tanned, and smartly dressed. She talked about her partner's deficiencies for most of the consultation. Her past medical history includes a tonsillectomy and Chickenpox as a child. She is a non-smoker and visits the gym three times a week. A colleague advised her to visit you to help her with her problems.
What would be the most appropriate way to manage this patient?Your Answer: Advise relationship counselling
Correct Answer: Advise her to take St John's wort
Explanation:Relationship Issues vs. Depression: Understanding the Difference
There is no clear indication of depression in this patient’s history. Despite experiencing disharmony in her relationship, she is still able to lead a normal life and enjoy most of it. Therefore, there is no need to prescribe antidepressants or refer her to a psychiatrist. Instead, offering support and guidance towards relationship counseling is the best course of action. It is important to understand the difference between relationship issues and depression, as they require different approaches to treatment. By addressing the root cause of the problem, the patient can work towards resolving her relationship issues and improving her overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old Muslim woman who works night shifts visits your clinic. What vitamin or mineral deficiencies should she be cautious of?
Your Answer: Vitamin C
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:Vitamin D Deficiency and Risk Factors
People who have limited exposure to sunlight, such as those who cover their skin for cultural reasons, are at risk of vitamin D deficiency. This is also true for individuals who work night shifts and sleep during the day, as well as those who are housebound or have darker skin. Pregnant women in these groups are especially vulnerable and should be offered supplements.
While a varied diet can help prevent deficiencies in other vitamins and minerals, it may not be enough to prevent vitamin D deficiency. This is because only a small percentage of vitamin D is obtained from diet, with the majority coming from sunlight exposure on the skin. Therefore, it is important for individuals in at-risk groups to consider taking supplements to ensure adequate vitamin D levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with an acute illness. She reports experiencing a fever, malaise, and a sore throat. She has a medical history of asthma, hyperthyroidism, and migraines. Her current medications include salbutamol inhaled as needed, sumatriptan 50 mg as needed, carbimazole 40 mg daily, and Cerazette 75 mcg daily. What blood tests should be ordered?
Your Answer: No blood tests required
Correct Answer: Liver function
Explanation:Carbimazole and Infection Risk
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis by blocking the iodination of thyroid hormone. However, patients taking carbimazole should be aware of the potential risk of infection, particularly sore throat, and report any symptoms or signs of infection to their healthcare provider. This is because carbimazole can cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to agranulocytosis, a rare but serious adverse effect.
If a patient on carbimazole presents with an acute illness consisting of fever, malaise, and sore throat, a full blood count should be performed to assess the white blood cell count and differential. If neutropenia is found, carbimazole should be stopped immediately. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients taking carbimazole for signs of infection and to take appropriate action if necessary to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 16-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a sizable bruise on his upper right thigh. He accidentally hit it against the table while having a meal. Upon inquiry, he reveals that he tends to bleed excessively even after minor cuts and bruises. He also mentions that his family members have experienced similar symptoms across generations.
Which is the most prevalent genetic clotting disorder that this patient is likely to have?Your Answer: Von Willebrand's disease (vWD)
Explanation:Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.
The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A study conducted by the local public health team in the commissioning group locality reveals that single men who claim disability benefit are 70% more likely to die due to alcohol misuse compared to single men of the same age who do not claim disability benefit. What is the correct interpretation of these findings?
Your Answer: Claiming disability benefit is a risk factor for alcohol abuse
Correct Answer: Confounding variables may have contributed to the higher risk of death due to alcohol abuse in the disability benefit group
Explanation:The Complex Relationship Between Disability Benefit and Alcohol Abuse
Patients who claim disability benefit are more likely to have social and medical comorbidity, making it difficult to compare them with age-matched controls without controlling for these variables. Factors such as poverty, poor housing, poor nutrition, smoking, and physical and mental illness are all likely to be more common in this group, which can increase the risk of death if the person also abuses alcohol.
While all-cause mortality is likely to be higher in the benefit group, it is not possible to draw this conclusion from the available data. It is possible that increasing benefit could improve nutrition and other factors, potentially reducing the harmful effects of alcohol. However, this cannot be concluded from the data.
The disability group does have a higher rate of alcohol-related deaths, but it is unclear whether this is due to a higher prevalence of alcohol abuse in this group. Therefore, it is not possible to claim an association between claiming benefit and alcohol abuse, let alone identify claiming benefit as a risk factor for alcohol abuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A parent brings her 2-year-old daughter for her routine vaccinations. What would be a contraindication for her to receive the vaccinations?
Your Answer: Current febrile illness
Explanation:If a child is experiencing a minor illness without fever or systemic illness, it is not necessary to postpone their vaccination. However, if the child is acutely unwell, it is recommended to delay the vaccination until they have fully recovered.
Guidelines for Safe Immunisation
Immunisation is an important aspect of public health, and the Department of Health has published guidelines to ensure its safe administration. The guidelines, titled ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’, outline general contraindications to immunisation, situations where vaccines should be delayed, and specific contraindications to live vaccines.
General contraindications include confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or to another component in the relevant vaccine, such as egg protein. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection.
Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression. In the case of the DTP vaccine, vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition.
However, there are several situations where immunisation is not contraindicated. These include asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), being breastfed, a previous history of natural infection with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella, a history of neonatal jaundice, a family history of autism, neurological conditions such as Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids.
Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure the safe administration of vaccines and protect individuals from infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a left hemiparesis. What sign would indicate that he is more likely to have an ischaemic stroke rather than a haemorrhagic stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid bruit
Explanation:Distinguishing Ischaemic from Haemorrhagic Stroke: The Role of Symptoms and Neuroimaging
Symptoms alone are not enough to differentiate between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke. Neuroimaging is necessary for a definitive diagnosis. However, a meta-analysis has shown that the presence of certain incorrect options can increase the likelihood of haemorrhagic stroke. Coma is also more commonly associated with haemorrhagic stroke. Conversely, the probability of haemorrhage is decreased by the presence of cervical bruit and prior transient ischaemic attack. Therefore, a combination of symptoms and neuroimaging is crucial in accurately distinguishing between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother. He has had a fever with vomiting for the past 48 hours.
On examination he is pyrexial 38.5°C and is tender across his lower abdomen. A past history of one previous UTI is noted, and on that occasion he was less unwell.
Investigations reveal:
Clean catch urine: blood +, protein ++, coliforms isolated.
He is started on co-amoxiclav and is symptom free 48 hours later.
Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for urological imaging?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should receive an ultrasound within the next six weeks
Explanation:Recurrent Urinary Tract Infection: Recommended Investigations and Antibiotic Therapy
This young woman has experienced a recurrence of urinary tract infection (UTI). While the first two episodes were likely lower UTIs, her current symptoms suggest an upper UTI. According to NICE guidelines, an ultrasound should be conducted within six weeks, followed by a dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan within four to six months.
In terms of antibiotic therapy, trimethoprim is not recommended as the first-line agent due to its potential for resistance. Instead, NICE suggests using antibiotics with a low potential for resistance, such as co-amoxiclav or a cephalosporin. It is important to follow these guidelines to effectively treat the UTI and prevent future recurrences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia
Explanation:Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.
In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.
Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.
Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.
In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients with dermatologic problems and need to refer some of them to hospital. Unfortunately this is a long way away and many elderly patients find it difficult to travel.
You think about setting up an audiovisual telemedicine clinic. Which one of the following statements is correct about audiovisual telemedicine clinics?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There will need to be important organisational changes to the way in which you and your colleagues in secondary care work to make telemedicine work
Explanation:Considerations for Implementing Telemedicine in Secondary Care
There are several important organizational changes that need to be made in order for telemedicine to work effectively in secondary care. However, it is important to note that telemedicine clinics may not necessarily have economic benefits, as the costs of implementing the necessary technology can be expensive. Additionally, while patients may appreciate the convenience of not having to travel to see a specialist, they may still prefer face-to-face consultations. It is also unclear whether clinical outcomes will improve with the use of telemedicine. Finally, it is important to obtain explicit consent from patients before using any video consultations for teaching purposes. These considerations should be taken into account when considering the implementation of telemedicine in secondary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A woman who is in her 4th decade of life comes to discuss future contraception with you. This will be her 4th child and she has come to discuss sterilisation as she thinks this would be a good option for her after she has given birth. She is certain she doesn't want any further children and her family will be completed.
Which of the following is correct advice to give?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tubal occlusion is the only truly effective method of female sterilisation after childbirth
Explanation:Female Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraception Method
Female sterilisation is a safe and effective method of permanent contraception that can be performed immediately after childbirth or as a delayed interval procedure. The two common techniques for sterilisation are partial salpingectomy and tubal occlusion. However, before opting for female sterilisation, women should be informed about all methods of contraception, including vasectomy. The discussion should be open, transparent, and non-pressurised. It is important to note that some long-acting reversible contraceptive methods are as, or more, effective than female sterilisation and may provide non-contraceptive benefits such as improving menorrhagia with levonorgestrel intrauterine device use. Therefore, women should be fully informed about all their options before making a decision about permanent contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift. She has become very sick quite suddenly, with a high fever, sore throat, and difficulty breathing.
When you examine her, she is sitting upright with her mouth open, and you observe that saliva is drooling down her chin. She has a soft stridor audible at rest.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute tonsillitis
Explanation:Causes of Acute Stridor
A sudden onset of stridor without any warning signs such as cough and runny nose may indicate epiglottitis. Symptoms to look out for include respiratory distress, cyanosis, agitation, and drooling. However, there are other causes of acute stridor such as croup, bacterial tracheitis, subglottic stenosis, foreign body inhalation, and retropharyngeal abscess. Smoke inhalation, diphtheria, and angioneurotic edema can also lead to stridor. In all cases, it is important to administer oxygen to maintain adequate saturation. Severe cases may require ventilation. Enlarged adenoids and tonsils can also cause snoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past five days. Her mother reports her mouth looks more red and sore than usual. She also reports discomfort in her eyes.
On examination, you note a widespread non-vesicular rash and cervical lymphadenopathy.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Kawasaki Disease Treatment and Follow-Up
Patients diagnosed with Kawasaki disease typically require hospitalization for treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and to monitor for potential myocardial events. Due to the risk of cardiac complications, follow-up echocardiograms are necessary to detect any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to note that Kawasaki disease is not a notifiable disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient is most likely to have sufficient immunity after receiving the injection and not require any further injections?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man with no risk factors
Explanation:Pneumococcal Infection and Vaccination: Who is at Risk and How to Protect Them
Streptococcus pneumoniae, commonly known as pneumococcus, can cause a range of illnesses including otitis media, meningitis, septicaemia, and pneumonia. Those at higher risk of serious infection include children, the elderly, patients who have had their spleen removed, and those who are immunocompromised.
To prevent pneumococcal infection, vaccines are available. In the UK, a polyvalent vaccine containing purified capsular polysaccharide from each of the 23 types of pneumococcus is commonly used for individuals over the age of 5. Children under 2 years old receive a conjugate vaccine containing 13 types of pneumococcus. Both vaccines are inactivated and do not contain live organisms.
Patients with no spleen or splenic dysfunction, patients with renal disease, and children at special risk of infection should receive further vaccinations at 5-yearly intervals. All people over 65 years should receive a single dose of vaccine. Other patients at risk include those with diabetes, chronic respiratory disease, heart or liver disease, individuals having cochlear implants, patients with CSF leaks, and welders.
In summary, pneumococcal infection can be serious, but vaccines are available to protect those at risk. It is important to follow vaccination guidelines to ensure maximum protection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
He was recently hospitalized for pneumonia and received IV antibiotics. While in the hospital, he developed watery diarrhoea, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. After a stool sample, he was prescribed a 10-day course of oral vancomycin and discharged home. However, his diarrhoea has not improved.
Upon examination, he appears alert, his vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is non-tender.
What would be the next course of treatment to consider?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fidaxomicin
Explanation:If initial treatment with vancomycin is ineffective against Clostridium difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening.
Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, it is likely that he has contracted Clostridium difficile infection due to his recent antibiotic use and possible use of proton-pump inhibitors. Therefore, oral fidaxomicin would be the appropriate second-line treatment option.
Continuing with vancomycin would not be the best course of action, as fidaxomicin is recommended as the next step if vancomycin is ineffective.
Using loperamide for symptom relief is not recommended in cases of suspected Clostridium difficile infection, as it may slow down the clearance of toxins produced by the bacteria.
Piperacillin-tazobactam is not a suitable treatment option for Clostridium difficile infection, as it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can increase the risk of developing the infection.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination, the GP suspects a testicular tumour rather than epididymo-orchitis. What finding is most likely to have led to this suspicion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A painless testicular swelling
Explanation:Testicular Tumours and Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Testicular tumours can present as painless or painful lumps or enlarged testicles, often accompanied by a dragging sensation and pain in the lower abdomen. Inflamed testicles are very tender, while malignant ones may lack normal sensation. Ultrasound is usually used to confirm the diagnosis.
Acute epididymo-orchitis, on the other hand, is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, often caused by infections spreading from the urethra or bladder. Symptoms may include urethral discharge, hydrocele, erythema, oedema of the scrotum, and pyrexia. Orchitis, limited to the testis, is less common.
The differential diagnosis of a testicular mass includes not only tumours and epididymo-orchitis but also testicular torsion, hydrocele, hernia, hematoma, spermatocele, and varicocele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following individuals doesn't need the pneumococcal vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40-year-old asthmatic using salbutamol and beclomethasone
Explanation:According to the Green Book guidelines, only asthmatic patients who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system require the pneumococcal vaccine. However, since the angina patient is on beta-blockers, they should be given the vaccination. For more information, please refer to the provided link.
The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.
The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.
Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right hand for the last month. During your neurological assessment, you try to elicit the triceps reflex by positioning her arm across her chest and tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. What nerve (and its corresponding nerve root) are you evaluating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve C7
Explanation:The triceps reflex arc is formed by the components of the radial nerve, which primarily derives from the C7 nerve root and innervates the triceps muscle. The triceps muscle, with its three heads of origin (long, lateral, and medial), is the chief extensor of the forearm and attaches to the olecranon of the ulna.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that day. He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medication.
His family brought him, unannounced, to the surgery reception and when you see him he appears pale and he feels noticeably short of breath at rest. He is complaining of sharp pains in the right side of his chest when he breathes in.
Clinical examination reveals a patient who is short of breath at rest. His blood pressure is 98/68, pulse rate is 108 bpm and his respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturations are 93 % in room air. His temperature is 36.2 °C. Auscultation of the heart and lungs is normal. He has no calf swelling.
There is no history of gastric ulceration or drug allergies.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate next step in the assessment and management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an immediate 'blue-light ambulance' for rapid transfer to hospital without any delay
Explanation:Management of Suspected Pulmonary Embolism
When a patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic pain, hypotension, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturations, pulmonary embolism (PE) should be suspected. It is important to note any risk factors that may increase the likelihood of an embolism. The absence of signs of deep vein thrombosis doesn’t exclude the possibility of a PE.
Immediate admission to the hospital should be arranged for patients with suspected PE who have signs of haemodynamic instability or are pregnant or have given birth within the past 6 weeks. Management should not be delayed for results of a chest X-ray or ECG. Therefore, the correct option is to arrange immediate transfer to the hospital by blue light. Prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug fails to appreciate the possibility of pulmonary embolism and should not be selected.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of suspected PE is crucial to prevent morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to see you with a symptomless crop of lesions in the left axillary area, which have been present for two months.
Examination revealed skin coloured to pearly white, hemispherical to umbilicated papular lesions. Each one is approximately 4 mm in diameter and there are approximately 20 of these lesions present.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cutaneous cryptococcosis
Explanation:Skin Lesions and Their Differential Diagnosis
Molluscum contagiosum is easily diagnosed by the appearance of pearly white hemispherical lesions, often with an umbilicated center, on the limbs, trunk, or face. However, in HIV-positive patients, cutaneous cryptococcosis should also be considered when encountering similar lesions, especially if accompanied by pulmonary or neurological symptoms. Folliculitis presents with painful papulopustular follicular lesions, while herpes simplex infection manifests as recurrent grouped vesicular eruptions at mucocutaneous junctions. Warts, on the other hand, appear as verrucous plaques and papules, usually on the extremities. Knowing the differential diagnosis of these skin lesions can aid in proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A study is conducted to evaluate the efficacy of a new auto-antibody test as a screening tool for prostate cancer. The study involves 1000 patients, out of which 70 test positive for the auto-antibody. Among the positive cases, 50 are confirmed to have prostate cancer through biopsy. On the other hand, 10 patients who tested negative for the auto-antibody were later diagnosed with prostate cancer.
What is the percentage of positive predictive value of this test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60%
Explanation:The sensitivity of the test is the proportion of patients with the condition who receive a positive test result. It can be calculated by dividing the number of true positives (patients with the condition who test positive) by the sum of true positives and false negatives (patients with the condition who test negative). In this case, the sensitivity is 85.7% (30/35).
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old patient is admitted to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, polyuria and polydipsia which have particularly worsened over 72 hours. His parents called an ambulance when he became confused and unwell. After an initial workup, he is given a new diagnosis of type I diabetes and is found to be in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His father tells the admitting doctor that the patient’s maternal grandparents both have diabetes.
Which of the following most reliably suggests that a patient presenting with diabetes has the type 1 variety?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of recent weight loss
Explanation:Understanding the Factors that Differentiate Type I and Type II Diabetes
Type I diabetes is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, which produce insulin. This results in absolute insulin deficiency, leading to the use of fat and muscle for energy and rapid weight loss. On the other hand, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance, but some insulin is still being produced and is at least partially effective. Factors that differentiate the two types include the presence of diabetic retinopathy, family history of diabetes, hypertriglyceridaemia, and onset age. Recent weight loss is a better predictor of type I diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A woman presents to surgery. Her 50-year-old mother has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is concerned about her own risk and wonders if she needs 'genetic tests'. There is no other history of breast cancer in the family. When should she be referred to secondary care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jewish ancestry
Explanation:Familial breast cancer is linked to ovarian cancer, not endometrial cancer.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old gentleman with stable schizophrenia reports reduced libido and diminished ejaculate volume. He is on regular haloperidol. Blood tests showed a prolactin level of 3500 mU/L. There is no previous prolactin level recorded.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat prolactin blood test
Explanation:Hyperprolactinaemia and Antipsychotic Medication
Hyperprolactinaemia, or elevated levels of prolactin in the blood, is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication. While mild increases can be caused by various factors such as stress or sexual activity, significant elevations in prolactin levels (>3000 mU/L) in a symptomatic patient may indicate an underlying endocrine cause, such as a prolactinoma. In such cases, psychiatry should be informed to consider a dose reduction or substitution of the current antipsychotic, while endocrinology should investigate further.
If the patient had normal prolactin levels before starting antipsychotic medication, a referral to endocrinology may be postponed as it is likely that the medication is the cause of the elevated levels. However, if the patient is symptomatic and the prolactin level is significantly raised, referral prior to repeating the blood test is advised.
Treatment with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine or cabergoline may be considered, but should only be initiated after consultation with a specialist. Overall, monitoring of prolactin levels is important in patients taking antipsychotic medication to ensure early detection and management of hyperprolactinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 71-year-old man presents with progressive gait disturbance and fluctuating confusion. His symptoms began about six months ago when he noticed a heaviness in his legs on walking to work. Since then, his handwriting has become more untidy. His wife reports that he has become increasingly forgetful at home, although he denies this. Over the last two months, he has become restless at night and has reported seeing unidentified objects moving on the walls and in the room. On examination, his Mini-Mental State Examination score is 24/30. He is symmetrically rigid and slow, with a mild, jerky tremor in the upper limbs. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. His gait is shuffling, with mildly impaired postural reflexes.
The accumulation of which protein causes the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-synuclein
Explanation:Neurodegenerative Disorders and Associated Proteins
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and sleep disturbances. It is caused by the accumulation of alpha-synuclein into Lewy bodies in vulnerable neurons.
Beta-amyloid plaques are insoluble and associated with Alzheimer’s disease. They can be detected in the brain before diagnosis and have subtle effects on cognition.
Prions are abnormal proteins that induce abnormal folding of other proteins. They are difficult to inactivate and can cause Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a rapidly progressive neurodegenerative disorder.
Tau proteins are microtubule-binding proteins associated with local neurodegeneration and cognitive impairment. They are seen in Alzheimer’s disease as flame-shaped neurofibrillary tangles.
Overall, DLB is a good differential diagnosis for vascular dementia, but the clinical picture is more suggestive of DLB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old with longstanding COPD remains breathless despite treatment. She is taking regular short acting bronchodilators as required but you decide to move to the next step in treatment.
According to the NICE recommended stepwise treatment of COPD what is the recommended dosing regime of her muscarinic antagonist in the next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three times daily
Explanation:Treatment for Patients with Persistent Symptoms
Patients who continue to experience symptoms or exacerbations despite treatment with short acting beta agonists or short acting muscarinic antagonists should progress to the next step in their treatment plan. This involves introducing long acting derivatives. It is recommended to offer once daily long acting muscarinic antagonists over four times daily short acting preparations. This can help improve patient compliance and provide more consistent symptom relief. By following this treatment plan, patients can better manage their respiratory symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is planning to travel to South America with her husband, who works for the diplomatic service. She is concerned about the risk of contracting a serious infection and wants to know which vaccine is safest to receive during pregnancy.
Which of the following vaccinations is considered the safest for administration during pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Live vs Antigen vs Toxoid Vaccines in Pregnancy
Live vaccines, such as BCG, oral polio, oral typhoid, and yellow fever vaccinations, are not recommended during pregnancy due to their potential risks. However, if travel to an endemic area is unavoidable and there is an increased risk of exposure, yellow fever vaccination may be administered to a pregnant woman. On the other hand, hepatitis A and B vaccinations are antigen-based and can be given safely during pregnancy if there is a high risk of exposure. Tetanus and diphtheria vaccinations are toxoid-based and can also be given with low risk of complications during pregnancy. It is important to understand the differences between these types of vaccines to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being evaluated by a surgeon. What are the two most effective questions to ask in order to screen for depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 'feeling down, depressed or hopeless' + 'having little interest or pleasure in doing things'
Explanation:Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male presents with worries about delayed pubertal development, despite being 1.75m tall. He has minimal pubic hair and decreased testicular size. The following laboratory results are obtained:
Testosterone 7.2 nmol/l (9 - 30)
LH 3.5 mu/l (3 - 10)
FSH 5.9 mu/l (3 - 10)
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old Caucasian smoker presents to you with a two month history of a cough. The cough is non-productive, but he has coughed up spots of blood on occasion. He has also lost 10 pounds in weight, which he attributes to a reduced appetite since his wife started a healthy eating regime at home.
Upon examination, he has lost weight, but he is afebrile and appears to be in good health. His 4-year-old grandson whom he sees twice a week has recently been diagnosed with whooping cough, and he wonders if he could have whooping cough as well.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignancy
Explanation:Managing a Patient Who is a Contact of an Infectious Disease
When managing a patient who is a contact of an infectious disease, it is crucial to consider the full differential diagnosis and take an overview of the clinical picture. In this case, the patient presented with haemoptysis, which could be a symptom of various conditions.
Bronchopneumonia is a possible cause, but it typically presents with fever and general malaise. Chronic bronchitis is unlikely to result in haemoptysis, and tuberculosis is not probable in a Caucasian man with no history of travel or contact with the disease. Pertussis is also not a likely cause of haemoptysis.
The most probable diagnosis, which needs to be ruled out, is malignancy. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate testing should be conducted to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.
She has been noticing patches of hair loss over the past three months without any associated itching. Her medical history includes hypothyroidism, for which she takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily, and she takes the combined oral contraceptive for regular withdrawal bleeds.
During examination, she appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Upon examining her scalp, two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region.
What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions
This young woman is experiencing hair loss and has been diagnosed with an autoimmune condition and hypothyroidism. Her symptoms are consistent with alopecia areata, a condition where hair loss occurs in discrete patches. While only 1% of cases of alopecia are associated with thyroid disease, it is a possibility in this case. However, scarring alopecia is more typical of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which is not present in this patient. Androgenic alopecia, which causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas, is also not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Over-treatment with thyroxine or the use of oral contraceptives can cause generalised hair loss, but this is not the case for this patient. It is important to properly diagnose the underlying condition causing hair loss in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old patient comes to you complaining of intense pain in their right shoulder. After an X-ray examination, it is discovered that they have a pathological fracture in their proximal humerus. Which primary solid tumor cancer groups are most prone to metastasizing to bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast, lung, thyroid, colorectal, cervix
Explanation:Causes of Pathological Fractures in the Elderly
Pathological fractures are fractures that occur due to weakened bones caused by underlying medical conditions. While any type of bone tumour can cause pathological fractures, the majority of cases in the elderly are due to metastatic carcinomas. This is because as people age, their risk of developing cancer increases. Multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow, is also common in the elderly and has a high incidence of pathological fractures. Lymphoma, although uncommon, can also cause pathological fractures.
It is important to keep this information in mind when evaluating elderly patients who present with musculoskeletal problems such as shoulder or back pain. A thorough medical history and physical examination can help identify the underlying cause of the fracture and guide appropriate treatment. By understanding the common causes of pathological fractures in the elderly, healthcare providers can provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man who is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation has an INR of 6.2. Which medication is he suspected to have taken recently?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The P450 enzyme system can be inhibited by ciprofloxacin, which may result in an elevation of INR levels.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a suddenly swollen and painful right knee, along with red, gritty eyes and difficulty urinating. He has recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia, where he experienced several days of vomiting and diarrhea. During joint aspiration, giant macrophages are found, but no organisms are visible on gram staining. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Arthritis, Conjunctivitis, and nonspecific Urethritis
The patient presents with a classic triad of reactive arthritis, including arthritis, conjunctivitis, and nonspecific urethritis. This condition is often associated with human leukocyte antigen B27 and typically occurs after bacterial dysentery caused by Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, or Yersinia spp. or sexually acquired infection with Chlamydia spp. Joint aspiration may reveal the presence of giant macrophages.
Other potential diagnoses include Behçet’s disease, which typically presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers and uveitis, but is less likely in this case as there is no ulceration described. Sjögren syndrome, which produces dry eyes, dry mouth, and parotid enlargement, is also less likely as these symptoms are not present. Gonococcal arthritis, which can occur in sexually active patients, may present with a swollen knee, but the ocular and urinary tract symptoms are more consistent with reactive arthritis. Septic arthritis, which presents as a red, hot, swollen joint, is also a possibility, but joint aspiration would likely reveal the presence of Staphylococcus aureus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a four-hour long erection that has become increasingly painful. The penis is fully rigid and there is no significant medical history.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration and irrigation with normal saline
Explanation:Acute Ischaemic Priapism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Acute ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent damage to the corpora cavernosa. If left untreated, it can lead to impotence. The condition is characterized by a prolonged and painful erection that lasts for more than four hours.
Historically, several first-line treatments have been suggested, including exercise, ejaculation, ice packs, cold baths, and cold-water enemas. However, there is a lack of evidence on the efficacy of these measures.
The first intervention for an episode of priapism lasting more than four hours is corporal aspiration, which involves draining stagnant blood from the corporal bodies. This procedure, with or without saline irrigation, has up to a 30% chance of promoting detumescence.
If a sympathomimetic drug or an α-adrenergic agonist is also injected, resolution rates of up to 80% are reported. Oral terbutaline, a β2-agonist with minor β1 effects and some α-agonistic activity, has been suggested as a treatment option for ischaemic priapism lasting more than 2.5 hours after intracavernosal injection of vasoactive agents.
Surgical interventions are second-line treatments for use when conservative options fail. It is crucial to seek medical attention immediately if you experience symptoms of acute ischaemic priapism to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents to you today. She is currently in a relationship and has started having sexual intercourse while using condoms as contraception. She expresses her desire to switch to hormonal contraception and has chosen the combined contraceptive pill, Rigevidon, as she has no contraindications. During the consultation, you discover that she is on day 4 of her menstrual cycle. What guidance do you provide her regarding commencing the pill at this stage of her cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start pill - there is no need for additional contraception
Explanation:To avoid the need for additional barrier contraception, the woman should begin taking the pill immediately as she is currently menstruating and therefore not at risk of pregnancy. The combined contraceptive pill, except for Qlaira and Zoely, can be started within the first five days of a menstrual cycle without requiring further contraception. If started on day six or later, seven days of barrier contraception or abstinence is recommended. Waiting until day eight or the next menstrual period is unnecessary as the starting rules remain the same.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with chronic shortness of breath and symptoms of heart failure. After primary care investigation, she was urgently referred to the cardiologists due to an abnormal ECG and elevated brain natriuretic peptide level. The echocardiogram performed by the cardiologists confirmed a diagnosis of heart failure with left ventricular dysfunction.
Her current medications include: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, furosemide 20 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg daily.
During examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate is 75 beats per minute and regular, her lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral edema.
What is the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure Patients
Beta-blockers are recommended for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of age or comorbidities such as peripheral vascular disease, interstitial pulmonary disease, erectile dysfunction, diabetes, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease without reversibility. However, asthma is a contraindication to beta-blocker use.
Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol are the beta-blockers of choice for treating chronic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. These three beta-blockers have been proven effective in clinical trials and have prognostic benefits. Bisoprolol and carvedilol reduce mortality in all grades of stable heart failure, while nebivolol is licensed for stable mild to moderate heart failure in patients over the age of 70.
Even if a patient with heart failure is currently well and showing no signs of fluid overload, beta-blockers are still recommended due to their prognostic benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 43
Incorrect
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One of your GP colleagues in their 50s asks you what impact revalidation will have on their practice. What areas will be evaluated during the revalidation process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fitness to hold a medical licence + fitness to be on the GP Register
Explanation:Understanding Revalidation for UK Doctors
Revalidation is a process introduced in 2012 that changed the way UK doctors are licensed and certified. Previously, doctors automatically received their license to practice if they paid their annual fee and had no limitations on their registration. However, with revalidation, doctors are required to prove their fitness to practice every five years to continue working as a doctor. This process combines licensing and certification, and annual appraisals will continue as before, with a focus on progress towards the revalidation portfolio.
The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) is creating an ePortfolio for the process, which will contain various elements such as a description of work, special circumstances, previous appraisals, personal development plans, continuing professional development, significant event audits, formal complaints, probity/health statements, multi-source/colleague feedback, patient questionnaire surveys, and clinical audit/quality improvement projects.
To meet the requirements for revalidation, doctors must earn at least 50 learning credits per year, with one credit for each hour of education. However, if the education leads to improvements in patient care, it will count as two credits. The ePortfolio will be submitted electronically for review by a Responsible Officer, who will be based in one of the 27 Area Teams. The Responsible Officer will be advised by a GP assessor and a trained lay person.
Before recommending a doctor for revalidation, the Responsible Officer must be confident that the doctor has participated in an annual appraisal process, submitted appropriate supporting information to their appraisals, and has no unresolved issues regarding their fitness to practice. Overall, revalidation ensures that UK doctors continue to provide safe and effective care to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 44
Incorrect
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You have been asked to review the blood pressure of a 67-year-old woman. She was recently seen by the practice nurse for her annual health review and her blood pressure measured at the time was 148/90 mmHg. There is no history of headache, visual changes or symptoms suggestive of heart failure. Her past medical history includes hypertension, osteoporosis and type 2 diabetes. The medications she is currently on include amlodipine, alendronate, metformin, and lisinopril.
On examination, her blood pressure is 152/88 mmHg. Cardiovascular exam is unremarkable. Fundoscopy shows a normal fundi. The results of the blood test from two days ago are as follow:
Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 98 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing her blood pressure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker
Explanation:If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic, and their potassium level is above 4.5mmol/l, NICE recommends adding an alpha-blocker or seeking expert advice. In this case, as the patient is asthmatic, a beta-blocker is contraindicated, making an alpha-blocker the appropriate choice. However, if the patient’s potassium level was less than 4.5, a low-dose aldosterone antagonist could be considered as an off-license use. Referral for specialist assessment is only recommended if blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, which is not the case for this patient who is currently taking three antihypertensive agents.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You design a clinical trial to test a new shingles vaccine. You begin by collecting data on the age shingles was contracted by members of your local population. You notice this data set is positively skewed.
What does that mean?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean > median > mode
Explanation:When data is positively skewed, the mean is greater than the median, which is also greater than the mode. Skewness refers to how much a dataset deviates from a symmetrical bell curve, which is seen in normally distributed data. In positively skewed data, the tail is longer on the positive side of the peak. This is in contrast to normally distributed data, where the median, mode, and mean are all equal. To remember the order of these values, write them in alphabetical order and use ‘>’ to indicate greater than for positively skewed data. For negatively skewed data, use ‘<' to indicate less than. The mean is the average of all the numbers, the mode is the most frequently occurring number, and the median is the middle number in a sequential list of the data. Skewed Data: Understanding the Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode Skewness is a measure of the degree of asymmetry of a distribution. In a negatively skewed data set, the bulk of data is concentrated to the right of the figure, and the left tail is longer. Conversely, in a positively skewed data set, the bulk of data is concentrated to the left of the figure, and the right tail is longer. In such cases, the median is always positioned between the mode and the mean, as it represents the halfway point. The mode corresponds to the peak of the distribution, representing the most common value. However, the mean moves away from the median in the direction of the tail, as it is affected by extreme values or outliers. In contrast, in a normally distributed data set, a bell-shaped curve is seen that is symmetrical. In such cases, the median, mode, and mean are all equal. Understanding the relationship between mean, median, and mode is crucial in analyzing skewed data sets. For positively skewed data, the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. Conversely, for negatively skewed data, the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on delaying her menstrual cycle for a week during her upcoming travels. She doesn't smoke, has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, and has no history of heart disease or breast cancer. She is currently using only barrier contraception.
What would be the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer norethisterone to be taken 3 days before the onset of periods until her return, advising the patient it will not act as contraception
Explanation:To delay their periods, women who are not on the combined hormonal contraceptive pill can take norethisterone 5 mg three times a day, starting three days before their expected period. It is important to note that this method doesn’t provide contraception, and additional contraception should be used. It is not necessary to take norethisterone seven days before the expected period. The progestogen-only pill, tranexamic acid, and copper intra-uterine device are not recommended for period delay. Tranexamic acid may be used for heavy periods.
Phases of the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.
During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain in her hands and feet for the past 6 weeks. The pain is more severe in the morning and slightly relieved by ibuprofen. She used to smoke and has a smoking history of 30 pack-years. During the physical examination, the doctor noticed ulnar deviation and swan neck deformity in her hands.
What is the most suitable medication to treat this acute flare, considering her probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroids IM
Explanation:Methylprednisolone, an intramuscular steroid, is commonly used to manage acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis. However, NICE guidelines recommend first-line treatment with conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (cDMARDs) such as oral methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine for adults with newly diagnosed active RA. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may be considered when starting a new cDMARD. Anakinra, codeine, and paracetamol are not recommended for the treatment of RA, while infliximab IV is not recommended as first-line treatment. NSAIDs may be used for symptom control in acute flares or early disease. Overall, the goal of treatment is to rapidly decrease inflammation and manage symptoms.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.
In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).
Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.
TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.
Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who experiences Stokes-Adams attacks has received a pacemaker that is functioning properly. What guidance should he be provided regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 1 week
Explanation:If you have had a pacemaker inserted or the box has been changed, it is important to inform the DVLA. It is also necessary to refrain from driving for a minimum of one week.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of urinary frequency and nocturia three times per night. These symptoms have gradually worsened over a period of several months. He denies fever or abdominal pain. He is normally fit and well and takes no regular medication.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digital rectal examination (DRE)
Explanation:Investigations for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. To diagnose BPH and rule out other potential causes, several investigations may be necessary.
Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is the most appropriate initial investigation for BPH. It can identify an enlarged prostate and any irregular or hard areas that could indicate malignancy.
Abdominal Ultrasound (US) may be indicated after a DRE if there is evidence of raised creatinine or urinary retention, to identify evidence of reflux nephropathy.
Creatinine (Cr) is useful to investigate for acute or chronic renal impairment, which is a complication of BPH due to chronic urinary retention causing reflux nephropathy. However, it is not the most appropriate initial investigation.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is useful, in combination with DRE, to rule out malignancy as the cause of symptoms. However, PSA levels can be raised due to many reasons, so it is important to avoid recent ejaculation, heavy exercise, or a recent DRE before taking the test.
Urine culture is useful to rule out a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of symptoms. However, it is not the most likely cause for BPH symptoms. Urine culture would be appropriate if the patient had more symptoms of a UTI, such as dysuria, fever, or abdominal pain.
Overall, a combination of investigations may be necessary to diagnose and manage BPH effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with a red eye. She complains of gradual onset of one-sided redness with severe, boring pain that radiates to her forehead. The pain worsens with eye movements and disrupts her sleep. She also experiences watering of the eye and sensitivity to light, but her vision is unaffected. She has no prior history of this condition and is generally healthy. Upon examination, her visual acuity is normal, but her left eye shows diffuse redness and tenderness. Both pupils react normally. What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Same day specialist assessment
Explanation:The patient has red eye and a working diagnosis of scleritis, which requires a same day specialist assessment. Features of serious causes of red eye include moderate to severe eye pain or photophobia, marked redness of one eye, and reduced visual acuity. Oral cetirizine may be useful in allergic conjunctivitis, while chloramphenicol drops are used in severe infective conjunctivitis. Fusidic acid drops are an alternative treatment option for infective conjunctivitis. Episcleritis is a possible differential diagnosis but is unlikely due to the patient’s severe pain.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.
Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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