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Question 1
Correct
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A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive again. She has just completed chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?
Your Answer: 1 year from completion of treatment
Explanation:According to the RCOG greentop guidelines, a women who have underdone chemotherapy for GTD are advised not to conceive for 1 years after completion of the chemotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?
Your Answer: IUS
Correct Answer: Combined pill
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following has been shown to increase ovarian cancer risk?
Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pill use
Correct Answer: Hormone replacement therapy (oestrogen only)
Explanation:Factors that increase the risk of ovarian cancer include nulliparity, IUD, endometriosis, cigarette smoking, HRT and obesity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?
Your Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now
Explanation:To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.
Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Correct Answer: Thyroid function
Explanation:These are the six routine blood tests that every mum-to-be has to undergo around week 7 of pregnancy: Full Blood Count, Blood Typing, Hepatitis B Screening, Syphilis Screening, HIV Screening and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?
Your Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis
Explanation:Mefenamic acids is a NSAID. It works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis – It inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 hence reducing the process of inflammation. Activation of antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up. On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal. When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid. Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?
Your Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane
Explanation:This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”. Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).
An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.Causes of oligohydramnios
a) Maternal causes includes:
– Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
– Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
b) Placental causes are:
– Abruption of placenta
– Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
– Placental thrombosis or infarction
c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
– Chromosomal abnormalities
– Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
– Growth restriction
– Demise
– Post-term pregnancy
– Ruptured fetal membranes
– Infections
– Idiopathic causesDuring First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.
During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.
During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67 year old patient with endometrial carcinoma is to undergo staging investigations. There is evidence of invasion into the vaginal wall, but the lymph nodes are spared, and there is no distant metastasis. According to FIGO, what stage is this?
Your Answer: 4A
Correct Answer: 3B
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is one of the most common gynaecological malignancies present in postmenopausal women, with a peak incidence between the ages of 60-89. Factors associated with endometrial cancer include obesity, hypertension and diabetes. Full staging for endometrial cancer is surgical, including several other radiologic investigations. According to FIGO staging classifications:
Stage 1 indicates a tumour confined to the uterine body
Stage 2 indicates the invasion of the cervical stroma
Stage 3 indicates local and regional spread, where the tumour invades the serosa in stage 3A, spreads to the vagina and parametrium in stage 3B, and metastasizes to the pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes in stage 3C.
Stage 4 indicates tumour invasion on the bladder or bowel mucosa, or distant metastasis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Correct
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What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in females?
Your Answer: Perineal, inferior rectal and dorsal nerve of clitoris
Explanation:The pudendal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. The nerve gives the following branches in females: the inferior anal nerve, the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Regarding monozygotic twins, all of the following are correct, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Has a constant incidence of 1:250 births
Correct Answer: Has a constant incidence 1:600 births
Explanation:The incidence of monozygotic twins is constant worldwide (approximately 4 per 1000 births). Approximately two thirds of twins are dizygotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection. All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination
Explanation:The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.
A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.
Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has felt a little unwell with diarrhoea and flu like symptoms. She is 28 weeks pregnant. Upon questioning she discloses she ate a soft cheese and deli meats platter 5 days earlier. A blood culture confirms listeria infection. What is the appropriate treatment (she has no known drug allergies)?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:The diagnosis of listeria depends on clinical suspicion and isolation of the organism from blood, vaginal swabs or the placenta. Meconium staining of the amniotic fluid in a preterm foetus may increase clinical suspicion for listeriosis. For women with listeriosis during pregnancy, intravenous antibiotic treatment (ampicillin 2 g given every 6 hours) is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 27-year-old G2P1 visits the gynaecologist with complaints of increased hair growth on her face, breast, and belly, but hair loss in the temporal regions of her head. She has also struggled with acne. On physical examination, the patient's face, chest, and belly are covered in coarse, dark hair. Her clitoris is swollen on pelvic examination. Her left adnexal mass is 7 cm in diameter. What is the most likely ovarian tumour to be associated with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour
Explanation:Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours constitute less than 0.5 percent of ovarian neoplasms. They may behave in a benign or malignant fashion, which correlates with the degree of differentiation in an individual case. Approximately 75 percent occur in women under the age of 40 years (mean age at diagnosis is 25), but they occur in all age groups. The neoplasms are characterized by the presence of testicular structures that produce androgens. This can result in virilization, although not all of these neoplasms are functionally active.
Pure Sertoli cell tumours are usually estrogenic and may also secrete renin, leading to refractory hypertension and hypokalaemia. In addition, these tumours may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
Pure Leydig cell tumours are androgen secreting; only a few cases have been reported. Virtually all of these rare tumours are unilateral and confined to the ovary at diagnosis.
Granulosa cell tumours typically present as large masses; the mean diameter is 12 cm. Women may present with an asymptomatic mass noted on abdominal or pelvic examination. Granulosa cell tumours often produce oestrogen and/or progesterone; consequently, symptoms related to hyperestrogenism are common at diagnosis.
Krukenberg tumour, also known as carcinoma mucocellulare, refers to the signet ring subtype of metastatic tumour to the ovary. The stomach followed by colon are the two most common primary tumours to result in ovarian metastases, pursued by the breast, lung, and contralateral ovary.
A rare tumour that is made up of more than one type of cell found in the gonads (testicles and ovaries), including germ cells, stromal cells, and granulosa cells. Gonadoblastomas are usually benign (not cancer), but they may sometimes become malignant (cancer) if not treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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When consenting a patient for abdominal hysterectomy what would you advise regarding the risk?
Your Answer: Haemorrhage requiring transfusion approximately 1%
Correct Answer: Injury to ureter or bladder is approximately 1%
Explanation:Abdominal hysterectomy is performed through a Pfannenstiel incision. There are certain complications associated with hysterectomy including haemorrhage, injury to the ureter(1%) and less commonly bladder and bowel (0.04%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You see a diabetic women in preconception clinic. Which of the following is appropriate advice regarding folic acid supplementation?
Your Answer: 5 mg daily until week 14
Correct Answer: 5 mg daily until week 12
Explanation:The aim of pre-pregnancy counselling is to achieve the best possible glycaemic control before pregnancy and to educate diabetic women about the implications of pregnancy. Patient information leaflets about pregnancy should make clear the risks of pregnancy in diabetes, and include advice to take high dose (5 mg) folic acid pre-conception and for the first 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 16
Correct
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A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk of a chest X Ray. How many days of natural background radiation is equivalent to a chest X Ray?
Your Answer: 2.5
Explanation:X-rays carry low levels of risk during pregnancy and are not a significant cause for concern if the total exposure to ionising radiation is less than 5 rads throughout the pregnancy; a chest X-ray is about 0.00007 rads. The amount of radiation generated from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 2.4 days of natural background radiation. Non-urgent radiological tests should, however, be avoided between 10-17 weeks gestation as there is a higher risk of central nervous system teratogenesis during this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:
Your Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months
Explanation:Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.
Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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The following are true for dizygotic twins EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Both twins are identical & of the same sex
Explanation:Dizygotic means two (di) fertilized eggs (zygotes). Dizygotic twins occur when two eggs are fertilized by two separate sperm. Dizygotic twins are also known as fraternal or non-identical twins. They are the most common type of twins.
Unlike monozygotic twins (also known as identical twins), dizygotic twins do not share the same genes. Monozygotic twins share 100 percent of each other genes. Dizygotic twins share only 50 percent. This is the same genetic similarity found between siblings conceived and born at different times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress, a 24-year-old woman develops fever with a temperature of 37.9°C. Intraoperative notes show that she was administered one dose of prophylactic antibiotics. She had been afebrile during the post-partum period until today. Which is the least likely cause of her fever?
Your Answer: Acute endometritis.
Correct Answer: A deep venous thrombosis (DVT).
Explanation:This question is about the differential diagnoses that should be considered if a patient presents with postpartum fever. The work-up for such patients would usually involve vaginal swabs, midstream urine culture and sensitivity and an ultrasound scan of the wound to look for any presence of a haematoma. LSCS is a major surgery and one common cause of puerperal fever would be surgical site infection. It is not surprising that women who deliver via LSCS are at higher risk of developing post-partum fever compared to those who deliver vaginally. Other common causes include endometritis and UTI. Ultrasound examination of the pelvic deep venous system and the legs would also be done to look for any thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis can occur due to immobility, however it is unlikely to present with fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 19 year old patient on Lamotrigine 125 mg twice a day for the past two years has recently been prescribed Microgynon 30 as a contraceptive before she leaves for Uni. What could the main concern be?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine is a strong enzyme inducer and may inhibit contraceptive effect
Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive may reduce Lamotrigine levels and increase seizure risk
Explanation:Lamotrigine, a drug used to treat epilepsy, is less effective when taken with combined oral contraceptives. The oestrogen component of the pill decreases the circulating levels of Lamotrigine, increasing the risk of seizures. The combination is therefore classified as a UKMEC 3, as the risk of the drug combination may outweigh the benefit. As an alternative, the progesterone-only pill, depo progesterone, Mirena or the copper IUD may be considered as there is no restriction on concomitant use. Lamotrigine is not metabolised through cytochrome P450 like other antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine and phenytoin, neither is it an enzyme inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in patients of childbearing age?
Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis is a common condition which results in a foul smelling discharge from the vagina without any inflammation. It is the most common cause of abnormal PV discharge. Most of the women are asymptomatic carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Correct
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The typical female breast contains how many lobes?
Your Answer: 15-20
Explanation:The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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Herpes Simplex is which type of virus
Your Answer: double stranded DNA
Explanation:Herpes simplex is a double stranded DNA virus. There are two viral types, HSV-1 and HSV-2. The majority of orolabial infections are caused by HSV-1. These infections are usually acquired during childhood through direct physical contact such as kissing. Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection and is most commonly caused by HSV-2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks. She had been taking Microgynon in the past but stopped taking this 6 months prior to falling pregnant as she wasn't in a serious relationship.
Your Answer: Start in 3 weeks
Correct Answer: Start immediately
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) can be started immediately following abortion or miscarriage. Note following childbirth COCPs should not be restarted for 3 weeks (assuming the patient is not breastfeeding).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Correct
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The normal lining of the fallopian tube is:
Your Answer: Columnar epithelium with cilia
Explanation:The Fallopian tubes, also known as, uterine tubes, and salpinges, are two very fine tubes lined with ciliated columnar epithelia, leading from the ovaries of female mammals into the uterus, via the uterotubal junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery to repair an episiotomy. Which spinal segments form the pudendal nerve?
Your Answer: S2, S3 and S4
Explanation:The pudendal nerve provides sensory innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. Pudendal nerve blocks are indicated for analgesia of the second stage of labour, repair of an episiotomy or perineal laceration, and for minor surgeries of the lower vagina and perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization?
Your Answer: 1 in 200
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Tubal sterilization is a safe and effective surgical procedure that permanently prevents pregnancy. However, pregnancy can occur in 1 in 200 cases, according to international sources. In the 1st year after tubal sterilization, the estimated failure rate is 0.1-0.8% respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach' after hearing about several methods (calendar calculation). Menstrual periods last between 26 and 29 days for the woman. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: From day 6 to day 17
Explanation:Luteal phase is always fixed to 14 days. In this patient, ovulation will occur between days 12-15. Sexual encounter must be ceased until 24-36 hours before day 15 (day 17). The start date of abstinence, calculated by decreasing 6 days (life span of the sperm) from the earliest possible day of ovulation (12-6=6). Hence from day 6-17, sexual encounter must be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?
Your Answer: Ductus Arteriosus
Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale
Explanation:Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below: Pulse rate: 64 beats/min, Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg, Temperature: 36.8°C. On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min. Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?
Your Answer: Placenta praevia.
Explanation:In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.
An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.
In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.
A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 32
Correct
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During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:
Your Answer: Corpus luteal cyst
Explanation:Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 33
Correct
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Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include:
Your Answer: Clearing of the airway
Explanation:Immediate treatment for infants with suspected meconium aspiration syndrome is to clear/suction the airway. Intubation and tracheal toileting have remained a matter of debate till the most recent times. All neonates at risk of MAS who show respiratory distress should be admitted to a neonatal intensive care unit and monitored closely. The treatment is mainly supportive and aims to correct hypoxemia and acidosis with the maintenance of optimal temperature and blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 34
Correct
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At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?
Your Answer: 60
Explanation:The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 46 year old women with a BMI of 34 is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy for irregular menstrual bleeding. Histology shows atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate 1st line management?
Your Answer: Levonorgestrel intra-uterine system (IUS)
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic hysterectomy
Explanation:There is an increase risk of developing carcinoma of the uterus, if the endometrium shows hyperplasia with atypia. The standard surgery is total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingectomy which can be performed abdominally or laparoscopically If the disease is grade 1-2 and less than 1B i.e. less than 50% invasion of the uterine body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 36
Correct
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Regarding the foetus, which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Fetal lie describes the long axis of the foetus to the long axis of the mother
Explanation:Fetal lie describes the relationship of the long axis of the foetus with respect to the long axis of the mother.
Coronal suture is the transverse suture separating the parietal bone from the frontal bone.
Umbilical cord is composed of two arteries and one vein. the vein carries the oxygenated blood, whereas the arteries contain the deoxygenated blood.
At the time of birth, the anterior fontanelle is open and appears as a soft jelly like structure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 37
Correct
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Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:
Your Answer: Coagulopathy
Explanation:A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 38
Correct
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Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?
Your Answer: Large for gestational age
Explanation:Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.
Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
– Hypocalcemia in newborn.
– Development of Rickets later in life.
– Defective tooth enamel.
– Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
– Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 39
Correct
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During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?
Your Answer: Tissue Factor
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Macrophages are derived from what type of white blood cell?
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Correct Answer: Monocytes
Explanation:Macrophages are derived from monocytes. When monocytes come across a pathogen they differentiate into macrophages for phagocytosis to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 41
Correct
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An 19-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of painful menses for the past year. She was given NSAIDs at first, then OCPs after the NSAIDs failed to control her symptoms. OCP has also struggled to regulate the painful menses. Which of the following would be the best next step in your management?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Adolescents who fail to respond to first- or second-line treatment and have recurrent symptoms or have symptoms that worsen over time should be re-evaluated for other possible and serious causes of secondary dysmenorrhea such as endometriosis, uterine leiomyomas, polyps, or pelvic pathologies.
When pelvic pathology is suspected, abdominal and transvaginal ultrasonography should be used as first-line investigation. However, transvaginal ultrasound is more accurate and the preferred option if possible.
CT scan is not indicated in the assessment of dysmenorrhea.
D&C and laparoscopy can be considered as treatment options once a diagnosis has been established but can not be used as primary steps in diagnosis of dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 42
Correct
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Regarding the urinary bladder, what type of epithelium lines it?
Your Answer: Transitional
Explanation:The urinary bladder, and most of the urinary structures are lined by epithelium called the urothelium, or the transitional epithelium. This stratified lining is divided into three parts, an apical layer, an intermediate layer and a basal layer. The transitional epithelium is available to stretch to accommodate the increased volume when the bladder is distended, without structural damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?
Your Answer: Uterine tenderness
Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding
Explanation:Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of fever, she had given birth to a healthy male baby four days ago. During vaginal delivery, she sustained small vaginal laceration, suture repair was not done as the lesion were small. Presently she is breastfeeding her baby. Physical examination shows no uterine tenderness and the rest of the examinations were unremarkable. Which of the following can be the most likely cause of this Patient's fever?
Your Answer: Breast engorgement
Correct Answer: Infection of the unrepaired vaginal laceration
Explanation:As the time of onset of fever is the 4th day of postpartum and absence of uterine tenderness on exam makes infection of vaginal laceration the most likely cause of this presentation.
Exquisite uterine tenderness will be experienced in case of endometritis and symptoms are expected to start much earlier like by 2-3 days of postpartum.
UTI is often expected on days one or two of postpartum, also there are no urinary symptoms suggestive of UTI
Breast engorgement usually develops by 7th -2st day of postpartum and in the given case it’s too soon for it to occur.
As it is expected during the first 2 hours postpartum, Atelectasis is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in the given case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal. What is the next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
Correct Answer: Cone biopsy
Explanation:If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a routine visit at 16 weeks gestation. She has had a normal pregnancy to date, and her only medication is a multivitamin with 0.4 mg folic acid. You order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level. Adjusted for gestational age, maternal weight, and race, the results are significantly elevated. Which one of the following would you now recommend?
Your Answer: Amniocentesis
Correct Answer: Fetal ultrasonography
Explanation:A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down syndrome- An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at the same gestational age is considered elevate- Approximately 5%-10% of patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most of these women will have normal foetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies (neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where the AFP would be low, not elevate- The hCG level would be expected to be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 48
Correct
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You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to episiotomy. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (without adrenaline)?
Your Answer: 3 mg/kg
Explanation:The half-life of lidocaine is approximately 1.5 hours. It is a local anaesthetic and the maximum dose that can be given is 3mg/kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 34 year old patient who has just undergone a C-section delivery has lost almost 1 litre of blood. You suspect uterine atony as the likely cause, and have bimanually compressed the uterus. Which of the following pharmacological interventions should follow?
Your Answer: Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection
Explanation:In the management of postpartum haemorrhage, it is essential that the bleeding is first mechanically prevented, followed by the administration of oxytocic drugs, which cause the uterine smooth muscle to contract and clamping off bleeding sites in the endometrium. The drug of choice in the treatment protocol of PPH is 5 units of syntocin, a synthetic oxytocin uterotonic, by slow intravenous infusion. This is particularly suitable in the case of uterine atony. Other uterotonics, misoprostol, carboprost, ergometrine, can be used, but are not as effective in an emergency setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 50
Correct
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A patients MSU comes back showing heavy growth of E.coli that is resistant to trimethoprim, amoxicillin and nitrofurantoin. You decide to prescribe a course of Cephalexin. What is the mechanism of action of Cephalexin?
Your Answer: inhibit peptidoglycan cross-links in bacterial cell wall
Explanation:Cephalosporins are beta lactum drugs, like penicillin. They act by inhibiting the cross linkage of the peptidoglycan wall in bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 51
Incorrect
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You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 147/96. Automated reagent strip testing shows protein 2+. You send for a protein:creatinine ratio and this shows a ratio of 36 mg/mmol. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Admit and start labetalol
Correct Answer: Admit for observation
Explanation:It is important to be aware of the difference between management of simple hypertension and pre-eclampsia in pregnancy. A BP of 140/90 to 149/99 mmHg is classed as mild hypertension. Without proteinuria this can be monitored once weekly and the patient can be discharged. If proteinuria is present with any degree of hypertension the patient requires admission and BP should be monitored at least 4 times daily according to NICE guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Trans-vaginal sonography (TVS)
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 53
Correct
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A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your advice since she is experiencing painful coitus at the vaginal introitus. It's accompanied by painful involuntary pelvic muscular contractions. The pelvic examination is normal except for confirmation of these findings. The most prevalent cause of this ailment is one of the following?
Your Answer: Psychogenic causes
Explanation:Vaginismus is an uncontrollable painful spasm of the pelvic muscles and vaginal exit that this patient has. It’s mainly caused by psychological factors. It’s important to distinguish it from frigidity, which indicates a lack of sexual desire, and dyspareunia, which is characterized as pelvic and/or back pain or other discomfort linked with sexual activity. Endometriosis, pelvic adhesions, and ovarian neoplasms are all common causes of dyspareunia. Vaginismus pain can be psychogenic, or it might be caused by pelvic diseases like adhesions, endometriosis, or leiomyomas. Organic vulvar or pelvic reasons (such as atrophy, Bartholin gland cyst, or abscess) are extremely rare, hence vaginismus is mostly treated with psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal delivery, which was complicated by a small perianal tear that was taken care of without stitching. On the fifth day of postpartum patient presents with heavy bright red vaginal bleeding and mentions that lochia was in scant amounts compared to her previous pregnancy. On examination, her temperature was 38.8°C and uterus is mildly tender to palpation. Which one of the following would most likely be her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometritis
Correct Answer: Retained products of conception
Explanation:Secondary postpartum hemorrhage of bright red character accompanied with fever, between 24 hours to 12 weeks of postpartum is suggestive of retained products of conception (RPOC).
The basal portion of the decidua may remain after separation of placenta in many cases. This decidua will then divides into two layers, the superficial layer which will be shed spontaneously and the deep layer which will regenerates and covers the entire endometrial cavity with in 16 days of postpartum.
Normal shedding of blood and decidua is referred to as lochia rubra, which is red / reddish brown in colour and it lasts for few days following delivery. This vaginal discharge gradually becomes watery and pinkish brown in colour, lasting for 2 to 3 weeks and is called as lochia serosa. Ultimately, this discharge becomes yellowish-white called as lochia alba.Scanty lochia in the first few days after delivery is suggestive of the placental site not undergoing involution, which occurs mostly due to RPOC. Later these retained products will undergo necrosis resulting in fibrin deposition which will eventually form a placental polyp. Detachment of this scar of polyp will result in brisk hemorrhage and the remaining necrotic products will get infected resulting in uterine infection which will present with fever, lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness.
Endometritis can lead to fever, offensive lochia and abdominal pain with tenderness. It is the most common cause of postpartum fever, but occurs within the first 5 days of postpartum with the peak incidence between days 2 and 3. Though vaginal bleeding is a presenting feature, bright red bleeding is unlikely of endometritis.
Another cause of postpartum fever is genital lacerations which have a peak incidence of wound infection between 4th and 5th days. Although fever as a temporal symptom favours wound infection, this diagnosis is less likely in the given case as wound infection will not affect the normal course of lochia, also it does not present as heavy bright red bleeding. Moreover, there are no symptoms like erythema, tenderness or discharge in history suggestive of wound infection.
Another cause of bleeding and fever can be cervical tear but this tends to present as primary postpartum hemorrhage rather than secondary, which occurs after 24 hours of postpartum. An overlooked and infected minor cervical laceration can cause fever but ii will not result in bright red bleeding, also genital tract lacerations do not affect lochia.
It is very unlikely for uterine rupture to occur 24 hours after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Which of the following can be considered as a major contraindication for the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera)?
Your Answer: Elective surgery and immobilisation
Correct Answer: History of breast cancer
Explanation:Contraindications of PROVERA (medroxyprogesterone acetate) include: undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding, known, suspected, or history of breast cancer, known or suspected oestrogen- or progesterone-dependent neoplasia, active DVT, pulmonary embolism, or a history of these conditions, active arterial thromboembolic disease (for example, stroke and MI), or a history of these conditions, known anaphylactic reaction or angioedema, known liver impairment or disease, known or suspected pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 56
Correct
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The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:
Your Answer: Chromosomal anomaly in 50-60% of gestations
Explanation:Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of first trimester miscarriage and are detected in 50-85% of pregnancy tissue specimens after spontaneous miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 57
Correct
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A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks duration. Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.
Explanation:It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).
The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.
In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 58
Incorrect
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You are called to see a 24 year old patient who is currently in labour but is failing to progress. A fetal blood sample is sent for analysis. pH is 7.22. Which of the following is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat in 30 minutes
Correct Answer: Consider delivery
Explanation:A normal pH value is above 7.25. A pH below 7.20 is confirmation of fetal compromise. Values between 7.20 and 7.25 are ‘borderline’.
The base deficit can also be useful in interpretation of the fetal scalp pH. A base excess of more than -10 demonstrates a significant metabolic acidosis, with
increasing risk of fetal neurological injury beyond this level. Delivery should be considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at 14 weeks gestation. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping, no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin. Patient follows a vegan diet and drinks 2 cups of coffee in the morning, also she is an avid runner who runs 5 miles most days. Patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or any other illicit drugs. On physical examination her vital signs are normal, with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 kg/m2. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine gestation with a heart rate of 155/min. Among the following possible lifestyle modifications needed during pregnancy, which is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?
Your Answer: Decrease current exercise regimen
Correct Answer: Increase caloric intake by about 350 kcal/day
Explanation:Nutrition in pregnancy
Weight gain must be:
– In patients <18.5 kg/m2, there should be an increase of 12.7 - 18 kg (28-40 lb)
– In patients 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb)
– In patients 25 – 29.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 6.8 – 11.4 kg (15-25 lb)
– In patients ≥30 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 5 – 9 kg (11-20 lb)Supplementation required:
– Intake of daily prenatal vitamin
– Additional specific supplements as indicated
– Avoidance of harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, etc
– Substance abuse counseling
– Avoidance of fish with high mercury levels
– Moderating caffeine intakeFood safety:
– Avoid undercooked meat, fish & eggs
– Clean raw fruits & vegetables before consuming
– Avoid unpasteurized dairy productsNutrition in pregnancy is addressed at the initial prenatal visit based on pre-pregnancy BMI. Appropriate weight gain for a women with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 should be 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy. This weight gain is equivalent to the increasing caloric intake of 350 kcal/day during the second and 450 kcal/day during the third trimesters. Patients following any specific diets like veganism can continue their usual diet throughout pregnancy as long as it contains a well-balanced quantity of protein, carbohydrates and fats.
Vitamin and mineral supplementation during pregnancy is a single, daily prenatal vitamin recommended for majority of pregnant women as it helps to fulfill most of the daily vitamin and mineral supplementation requirements. In case of patients with vitamin or mineral deficiencies like iron, calcium, etc, a specific supplementation of the deficit vitamin/mineral only is required rather than multiple prenatal vitamins to avoid consuming harmful amounts of other vitamins like vitamin A. Vegans, who are at risk for some vitamin and mineral deficiencies like vitamin B12, calcium, iron, etc, secondary to lack of meat consumption, may require supplementation.
Pregnant women are counselled on avoidance of harmful substances like alcohol, drugs, etc and substances like fish with high mercury levels. Although high caffeine intake during pregnancy can be harmful, a moderate intake ie, 1 or 2 cups of coffee a day is thought to be safe.
Safe handling of food is important because some food products are found to result in congenital infection and intrauterine fetal demise. Patients are also counselled to avoid undercooked meat, fish, and eggs; to thoroughly clean raw fruits and vegetables and to avoid consumption of unpasteurized dairy products.
By maintaining a proper maternal nutrition during pregnancy, patients are provide appropriate nutrition to the fetal and thereby reducing the risk of pregnancy related complications like low birth weight, preterm delivery, etc.
Pregnant patients are counseled to avoid exercises like contact sports, downhill skiing, etc which increases the risk of abdominal trauma resulting in increased risk of placental abruption. But those patients with an uncomplicated pregnancy, who are already accustomed with long-duration, high-intensity exercise like running 5 miles/day, as in the given case, can continue with their regimen if tolerated.
Proper nutrition in pregnancy includes appropriate weight gain, supplementation of vitamins and minerals, avoidance of any harmful substances, and safe handling of food. Patients with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI should gain around 11.4-15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy by increasing their caloric intake by 350 kcal/day in the second and 450 kcal/day in the third trimesters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 61
Correct
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A 40 year old women who is 13 weeks pregnant is found to have be high risk for Downs following the combined screening test. What is the most appropriate further test to see if the foetus is affected?
Your Answer: Chorionic Villous Sampling
Explanation:Chorion villus sampling is an invasive procedure which aims to collect the rapidly dividing cells in the placenta. It is used for numerous reasons including detection of early pregnancy, viability of the foetus, singleton pregnancy, confirm gestation age and for prenatal diagnosis of the fetal chromosomal abnormalities including diagnosis of Down’s syndrome. However it hold a 2% chance of miscarriage during the procedure. Nuchal thickness and imaging are part of the combined test that must have been performed before.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 62
Correct
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The number of chromosomes in the human somatic cell is:
Your Answer: 46
Explanation:In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes. Each species of eukaryote has a characteristic number of chromosomes in the nuclei of its cells. Human body cells (somatic cells) have 46 chromosomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 63
Correct
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A 24 week pregnant patient complains of itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. She has taken cetirizine but this hasn't settled her symptoms. Examination is unremarkable with no rash. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy
Explanation:The history is typical of Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis and prurigo gravidarum. It is characterised by itching without rash and abnormal LFTs beyond normal pregnancy ranges. Itching affects around 23% of pregnancies and can occur before biochemical changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 64
Correct
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department. She is at 38 weeks gestation and has gone into labour. On examination, her cervix is 7cm dilated. Which of the following would be indicative of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section?
Your Answer: A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman.
Explanation:A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman is associated with high risk of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section.
Brow presentation occurs when the presenting part of the fetal head is the part between the orbital ridge and anterior fontanelle.
In multiparous women, the indications differ as vaginal manipulation or spontaneous flexion to a vertex presentation or extension to a face presentation can occur after full cervical dilatation.
Early fetal heart decelerations are indicative of a mild abnormality on cardiotocograph (CTG). It does not indicate obstructive labour or need for delivery by Caesarean section.
The slow descent of the fetal head can be controlled subsequently by good uterine contractions and allow for vaginal birth.
Prolonged labour can cause maternal fever, but that in isolation is not an indication for Caesarean section.
Caput and head moulding are associated with a ‘tight fit’ of the fetal head in the pelvis, but does not contraindicate vaginal birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about the origin of the ovarian artery?
Your Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery
Correct Answer: It arises from the Abdominal Aorta
Explanation:The ovarian arteries are considered the main blood supply for the ovaries. The ovarian arteries usually arise from the lateral aspect of the abdominal artery, though in some instances they may arise from the renal or iliac arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month ago. There were no cervical abnormalities visualised at the time of the smear. She has no symptoms of unusual vaginal bleeding and her previous smear results have always been negative. She received the following report: 'Your recent smear was negative with no evidence of nuclear abnormalities.' When will she be routinely recalled for her next smear?
Your Answer: 3 years
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Women aged 25-49 years living in England are routinely recalled for screening every three years. Women receive their first invitation for cervical screening at 25 years of age. They are not invited earlier as changes in the young cervix can be normal and result in unnecessary treatment. Provided the smears remain negative and there are no symptoms to suggest cervical cancer, the routine recall is three years for women aged 25-49 years. Women aged 50-64 years old are routinely recalled for a smear every five years. After the age of 65 years, women are only screened if they have not had a smear since the age of 50 years (including those who have never had a smear) or those who have had recent abnormal smears. This is because due to the natural history and progression of cervical cancer, it is highly unlikely that women over 65 years old will go on to develop the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe:
Your Answer: Bacteroides
Correct Answer: Clostridia
Explanation:Obligate anaerobes are a group of bacteria that cannot survive in an oxygen-rich environment. In the body, they are usually found on mucosal membranes such as that of the lower gastrointestinal system, or the vagina. Infection with these organisms is usually suprative and causes abscesses. Examples of gram-negative anaerobes include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium and Prevotella, while gram-positive anaerobes include Actinomyces and Clostridia. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are both gram-positive facultative anaerobes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 68
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section?
Your Answer: Uterine closure can be in 1 or 2 layers
Explanation:Closure of the uterus should be performed in either single or double layers with continuous or interrupted sutures. The initial suture should be placed just lateral to the incision angle, and the closure continued to a point just lateral to the angle on the opposite side. A running stitch is often employed and this may be locked to improve haemostasis. If a second layer is used, an inverting suture or horizontal suture should overlap the myometrium. Once repaired, the incision is assessed for haemostasis and ‘figure-of-eight’
sutures can be employed to control bleeding. Peritoneal closure is unnecessary. Abdominal closure is performed in the anatomical planes with high strength, low reactivity materials, such as polyglycolic acid or polyglactin. Diamorphine is advised for intra and post op analgesia and oxytocin is advised to reduce blood loss. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 69
Correct
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A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill for ten years and has had regular light menstrual cycles during that time. She stopped taking it three months ago. She hasn't had a period since then, except the one she had right after she stopped. She is quite worried and believes she is pregnant, even though she has no additional symptoms that point to this conclusion. A large retroverted uterus is discovered during a vaginal examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate piece of advice?
Your Answer: A pregnancy test should be performed.
Explanation:Despite the fact that pregnancy at her age is uncommon, the best advise you can give her is to take a pregnancy test.
If the test results show she is not pregnant, she can next decide whether to restart the oral contraceptive pill (0CP) or simply weep until the post-pill amenorrhoea goes away.
Although an increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level may indicate ovarian failure, it does not guarantee that no more periods will occur and does not rule out the possibility of a future pregnancy.
Obviously, she should be recommended to use a contraceptive method like condoms until the cause of her amenorrhoea is determined.
Other hormonal tests, such as luteinizing hormone and prolactin testing, may be required. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 70
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Axillary nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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