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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the acute medical ward with red flag...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the acute medical ward with red flag sepsis, possibly originating from the urinary tract. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is recorded as 90/60mmHg, and he exhibits cool, mottled skin peripherally. To increase his preload and stroke volume, a fluid bolus is administered. What other physiological parameter is likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: Increased pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      When stroke volume increases, pulse pressure also increases. This is important to consider in the management of shock, where intravenous fluids can increase preload and stroke volume. Factors that affect stroke volume include preload, cardiac contractility, and afterload. Pulse pressure can be calculated by subtracting diastolic blood pressure from systolic blood pressure.

      Decreased cardiac output is not a result of increased stroke volume, as cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to an increase in cardiac output.

      Similarly, decreased mean arterial pressure is not a result of increased stroke volume, as mean arterial pressure is calculated by multiplying cardiac output by total peripheral resistance. An increase in stroke volume would lead to an increase in mean arterial pressure.

      Lastly, increased heart rate is not a direct result of increased stroke volume, as heart rate is calculated by dividing cardiac output by stroke volume. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to a decrease in heart rate.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of weakness in his arms...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of weakness in his arms and legs that he first noticed 3 weeks ago. The symptoms have been progressively worsening since then.

      Upon conducting a neurological examination, the doctor observes spastic weakness in all four limbs, slight muscle wasting, fasciculations, and hyperreflexia with up-going plantar reflexes. The patient's speech and eye movements are normal, and there is no evidence of ptosis. All sensation is intact.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient based on the examination findings?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of motor neuron disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). This is supported by the presence of both upper and lower motor neuron signs, as well as the lack of sensory involvement. It is common for eye movements and bulbar muscles to be spared until late stages of the disease, which is consistent with the patient’s recent onset of symptoms. The patient’s age is also in line with the typical age of onset for MND.

      Huntington’s disease, which is characterized by chorea, is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Saccadic eye movements and personality changes are also associated with Huntington’s disease.

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a possible differential diagnosis for spastic weakness, but the patient’s symptoms alone do not meet the criteria for clinical diagnosis of MS. Additionally, MS would not explain the presence of lower motor neuron signs.

      Myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by fatigability and commonly involves the bulbar and extra-ocular muscles, is also a possible differential diagnosis. However, the patient’s symptoms do not suggest this diagnosis.

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.

      Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it does not affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are designing a research project looking at the sensitivities and specificities of...

    Incorrect

    • You are designing a research project looking at the sensitivities and specificities of various markers in relation to myocardial necrosis. Specifically you want to assess the molecule which troponin C binds to.

      Which molecule will you study in your research project?

      You are designing a research project looking at the sensitivities and specificities of various markers in relation to myocardial necrosis. Specifically, you want to assess the molecule which troponin C binds to.

      Which molecule will you study in your research project?

      Your Answer: Tropomyosin

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Troponin C plays a crucial role in muscle contraction by binding to calcium ions. However, it is not a specific marker for myocardial necrosis as it can be released due to damage in both skeletal and cardiac muscles.

      On the other hand, Troponin T and Troponin I are specific markers for myocardial necrosis. Troponin T binds to tropomyosin to form a complex, while Troponin I holds the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place by binding to actin.

      Muscle contraction occurs when actin slides along myosin, which is the thick component of muscle fibers. The sarcoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of calcium ions in the cytoplasm of striated muscle cells.

      Understanding Troponin: The Proteins Involved in Muscle Contraction

      Troponin is a group of three proteins that play a crucial role in the contraction of skeletal and cardiac muscles. These proteins work together to regulate the interaction between actin and myosin, which is essential for muscle contraction. The three subunits of troponin are troponin C, troponin T, and troponin I.

      Troponin C is responsible for binding to calcium ions, which triggers the contraction of muscle fibers. Troponin T binds to tropomyosin, forming a complex that helps regulate the interaction between actin and myosin. Finally, troponin I binds to actin, holding the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place and preventing muscle contraction when it is not needed.

      Understanding the role of troponin is essential for understanding how muscles work and how they can be affected by various diseases and conditions. By regulating the interaction between actin and myosin, troponin plays a critical role in muscle contraction and is a key target for drugs used to treat conditions such as heart failure and skeletal muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      139
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A saturation curve is created to demonstrate the impact of cyanide on the...

    Incorrect

    • A saturation curve is created to demonstrate the impact of cyanide on the function of cytochrome oxidase. As a non-competitive inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase, what will be the effect of cyanide on the enzyme's Km value?

      Your Answer: Increase Km if Vmax changes

      Correct Answer: No effect on Km

      Explanation:

      Enzyme kinetics is the study of how enzymes catalyze chemical reactions. Catalysts increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed or altering the position of equilibrium between substrates and products. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions display saturation kinetics, meaning that there is not a linear response to increasing levels of substrate. Vmax is the maximum rate of the catalyzed reaction, while Km is the concentration of substrate that leads to half-maximal velocity. Enzymes with a low Km have a high affinity for their substrate. The Michaelis-Menten model of a single substrate reaction demonstrates the saturation curve for an enzyme, showing the relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate. Linear plots of the Michaelis-Menten model are used to estimate Vmax. The Lineweaver-Burk plot of kinetic data shows how the y-intercept equals 1/Vmax, and as the y-intercept increases, Vmax decreases. There are three types of inhibitors: competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive. Each type has a different effect on Vmax and Km. Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active binding site, while non-competitive inhibitors bind outside the enzyme’s active binding site. Uncompetitive inhibitors are rare and bind to the enzyme, enhancing the binding of substrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A young adult is started on a novel medication for managing their Crohn's...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult is started on a novel medication for managing their Crohn's disease. They are advised that the medication is to be taken once a week and may elevate their susceptibility to infections. Additionally, folic acid is prescribed alongside the new medication to mitigate other potential adverse effects.

      What is the mode of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibits tumour-necrosis-factor α (TNF-α)

      Correct Answer: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase to suppress the immune system and manage Crohn’s disease. This medication is taken once weekly and prescribed with folic acid. Methotrexate blocks the production of nucleotides, which impairs cell replication, particularly in rapidly replicating immune cells, leading to a reduced autoimmune response. Binding to steroid receptors, inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase, and mimicking the shape of purines are incorrect answers. These mechanisms of action belong to other medications used to manage different conditions.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old woman experiences a fracture at the surgical neck of her humerus...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman experiences a fracture at the surgical neck of her humerus and requires surgery. During the operation, there are challenges in realigning the fracture, and a blood vessel located behind the surgical neck is damaged. What is the most probable vessel that was injured?

      Your Answer: Axillary artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      The surgical neck is where the circumflex humeral arteries are located, with the posterior circumflex humeral artery being the most susceptible to injury in this situation. The thoracoacromial and transverse scapular arteries are situated in a more superomedial position. It is worth noting that the axillary artery gives rise to the posterior circumflex humeral artery.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

      Your Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a widely used tool to assess the severity of brain injuries. It is scored between 3 and 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 the best. The scale comprises three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The verbal response is scored from 1 to 5, with 1 indicating no response and 5 indicating orientation.

      A score of 13 or higher on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a mild brain injury, while a score of 9 to 12 indicates a moderate injury. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      94.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP due to poor glycaemic control for the past three days, with home blood glucose readings around 25 mmol/L. He is currently being treated with metformin and lisinopril. Yesterday, his GP checked his U+E and found that his serum sodium was 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium was 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea was 20 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine was 350 µmol/L (60-110). On examination, he has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 108 bpm, a blood pressure of 96/60 mmHg, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturations of 99% on air. His cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examination are otherwise normal. Further investigations reveal a plasma glucose level of 17 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and urine analysis showing blood ++ and protein ++, but ketones are negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.

      What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Correct Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.

      One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.

      While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.

      Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.

      In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a crush injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a crush injury to his left lower leg. Despite taking opiates, he is still in excruciating pain.

      During the examination, the patient experiences pain when his left lower leg is passively dorsiflexed. The dorsalis pedis pulse is present, but the posterior tibial pulse is absent. Additionally, there is weakness in the left big toe's plantar flexion.

      Which muscle is most likely affected by this condition?

      Your Answer: Fibularis brevis

      Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The muscles located in the deep posterior compartment are:

      Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb

      The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.

      The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.

      The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.

      Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.

      Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications

      Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.

      On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer: phosphofructokinase-1

      Correct Answer: Isocitrate dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the TCA cycle, which occurs in the mitochondrial matrix in the presence of oxygen and results in the complete oxidation of acetyl Co-A in aerobic respiration. phosphofructokinase-1 is the rate limiting enzyme for glycolysis, while glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase are the rate limiting enzymes for glycogenesis and glycogenolysis, respectively. The rate limiting enzyme for the pentose phosphate pathway is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with an 8-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with an 8-week history of progressive dyspnoea and dry cough with occasional haemoptysis. She has been a heavy smoker for the past 30 years, smoking 50 cigarettes per day.

      During the examination, reduced air entry is noted in the right upper lung field. The patient appears cachectic with a BMI of 18kg/m². A chest x-ray is ordered, which reveals a rounded opacity in the apical region of the right lung.

      What are the most indicative ocular signs of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Partial ptosis and dilated pupil

      Correct Answer: Partial ptosis and constricted pupil

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation of partial ptosis and constricted pupil is consistent with Horner’s syndrome. This is likely due to a Pancoast tumor in the apical region of the right lung, which can compress the sympathetic chain and cause a lack of sympathetic innervation. This results in partial ptosis, pupillary constriction, and anhidrosis. Complete ptosis and dilated pupil would be seen in traumatic oculomotor nerve palsy, while exophthalmos and dilated pupil are associated with Grave’s eye disease. Lid lag and normal pupil size are commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, but should not be confused with ptosis and Horner’s syndrome.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      194.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with bilateral inguinal hernias. The surgical...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with bilateral inguinal hernias. The surgical team plans to perform a laparoscopic extraperitoneal repair. During the procedure, the surgeons make an infraumbilical incision and move the inferior part of the rectus abdominis muscle forward to insert a prosthetic mesh for hernia repair. What anatomical structure will be located behind the mesh?

      Your Answer: Posterior aspect of the rectus sheath

      Correct Answer: Peritoneum

      Explanation:

      In a TEP repair of inguinal hernia, the peritoneum is the only structure located behind the mesh. The query specifically pertains to the structure situated behind the rectus abdominis muscle. As this area is situated below the arcuate line, the transversalis fascia and peritoneum are positioned behind it.

      The rectus sheath is a structure formed by the aponeuroses of the lateral abdominal wall muscles. Its composition varies depending on the anatomical level. Above the costal margin, the anterior sheath is made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, with the costal cartilages located behind it. From the costal margin to the arcuate line, the anterior rectus sheath is composed of the external oblique aponeurosis and the anterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis. The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the posterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis. Below the arcuate line, all the abdominal muscle aponeuroses are located in the anterior aspect of the rectus sheath, while the transversalis fascia and peritoneum are located posteriorly. The arcuate line is the point where the inferior epigastric vessels enter the rectus sheath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What specific receptor in the heart does adrenaline need to act on to...

    Incorrect

    • What specific receptor in the heart does adrenaline need to act on to increase heart rate and cardiac muscle contraction?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 receptor

      Correct Answer: Beta-1 receptor

      Explanation:

      Activation of β1 adrenergic receptors results in cardiac muscle contraction. Adrenaline, which is a nonselective agonist of all adrenergic receptors, specifically acts on β1 receptors to cause this effect. In contrast, activation of β2 receptors leads to smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation in the airway lining. Alpha-1 receptors, on the other hand, cause vasoconstriction, increased peripheral resistance, increased blood pressure, and mydriasis. Alpha-2 receptors can lead to vasoconstriction of certain blood vessels, suppression of norepinephrine release, and decreased motility of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract, among other effects.

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      428
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 2-day-old neonate is examined by a paediatrician for lethargy. The infant seems...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old neonate is examined by a paediatrician for lethargy. The infant seems sleepy, and their mucous membranes appear dry. Upon measuring their blood glucose, it is found to be 32 mmol/L. A deficiency of a glycolytic enzyme that phosphorylates glucose in the liver and beta cells of the pancreas is suspected as the cause of an inborn error of metabolism.

      Which enzyme is the most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Pyruvate kinase

      Correct Answer: Glucokinase

      Explanation:

      Glucose is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme glucokinase. This enzyme is involved in glycolysis and is found in pancreatic beta cells and the liver. Mutations in glucokinase can lead to monogenic diabetes mellitus or neonatal diabetes mellitus. Enolase is another glycolytic enzyme that converts 2-phosphoglycerate into phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP). Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is an enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway that converts glucose-6-phosphate into 6-phosphogluconolactone. Hexokinase is also a glycolytic enzyme, but it phosphorylates glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate in all tissues except for the liver and beta cells of the pancreas. In these specific tissues, glucokinase is responsible for phosphorylating glucose.

      Glucokinase: An Enzyme Involved in Carbohydrate Metabolism

      Glucokinase is an enzyme that can be found in various parts of the body such as the liver, pancreas, small intestine, and brain. Its primary function is to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate through a process called phosphorylation. This enzyme plays a crucial role in carbohydrate metabolism, which is the process of breaking down carbohydrates into energy that the body can use. Without glucokinase, the body would not be able to properly regulate its blood sugar levels, which can lead to various health problems such as diabetes. Overall, glucokinase is an essential enzyme that helps the body maintain its energy balance and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by his mother, reporting...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by his mother, reporting a deteriorating headache, vomiting, and muscle weakness that has been developing over the past few months. Upon examination, you observe ataxia and unilateral muscle weakness. The child is otherwise healthy, with no significant medical history, and is apyrexial. Imaging tests reveal a medulla oblongata brainstem tumor.

      From which embryonic component does the affected structure originate?

      Your Answer: Metencephalon

      Correct Answer: Myelencephalon

      Explanation:

      The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla oblongata and the inferior part of the fourth ventricle. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and the superior part of the fourth ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct.

      Embryonic Development of the Nervous System

      The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.

      The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in respiratory arrest. According...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in respiratory arrest. According to his partner, he has a history of congestive heart failure and has recently been battling an infection. After being placed on mechanical ventilation, you observe that the patient has decreased lung compliance.

      What could be the cause of this observation?

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Reduced lung compliance is a common consequence of pulmonary edema, which occurs when fluid accumulates in the alveoli and exerts mechanical stress on the air-filled alveoli. This can happen in patients with acute decompensation of congestive cardiac failure, often triggered by an infection. On the other hand, emphysema can increase compliance due to long-term damage that reduces the elastic recoil of the lungs. Additionally, lung surfactant produced by type II pneumocytes can increase lung compliance. Finally, aging can also lead to increased compliance as the loss of lung connective tissue can reduce elastic recoil.

      Understanding Lung Compliance in Respiratory Physiology

      Lung compliance refers to the extent of change in lung volume in response to a change in airway pressure. An increase in lung compliance can be caused by factors such as aging and emphysema, which is characterized by the loss of alveolar walls and associated elastic tissue. On the other hand, a decrease in lung compliance can be attributed to conditions such as pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonectomy, and kyphosis. These conditions can affect the elasticity of the lungs and make it more difficult for them to expand and contract properly. Understanding lung compliance is important in respiratory physiology as it can help diagnose and manage various respiratory conditions. Proper management of lung compliance can improve lung function and overall respiratory health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 19 - A 87-year-old man complains of a headache and hearing loss. Although he frequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 87-year-old man complains of a headache and hearing loss. Although he frequently experiences headaches, this time it feels different, and he cannot hear anyone on his right side. During the examination, a sensorineural hearing loss is observed in the right ear, but nothing else is noteworthy.

      A CT scan of the head reveals no acute bleeding, but an MRI scan shows an ischemic area surrounding the thalamus on the right side.

      What is the probable location of the lesion in the thalamus?

      Your Answer: Lateral geniculate nucleus

      Correct Answer: Medial geniculate nucleus

      Explanation:

      Hearing impairment can be caused by damage to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 20 - A 49-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of weakness in his legs and tingling sensation in his feet. His wife noticed a problem with his gait over the past few weeks. The patient also reports increasing forgetfulness. During examination, the Romberg test is positive. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently on treatment with 5-aminosalicylic acid and prednisone. A peripheral blood smear shows the presence of larger than normal and pale red blood cells. What laboratory finding is most likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Normal methylmalonic acid levels

      Correct Answer: Elevated methylmalonic acid levels

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anemia can be caused by either folate deficiency or vitamin B12 deficiency, but it is important to differentiate between the two. In this case, the patient’s neurological symptoms suggest a diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency. This can be confirmed by checking methylmalonic acid levels, which are normal in folate deficiency but elevated in vitamin B12 deficiency. Homocysteine levels are raised in both conditions and cannot be used to differentiate between them. Reduced iron and elevated ferritin levels are common in anemia of chronic disease, which is associated with inflammatory and autoimmune conditions.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 21 - A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and swelling in the central abdomen.

      During his last visit to his family doctor two weeks ago, he experienced colicky abdominal pain and was diagnosed with gallstones after further testing. He was scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy in 8 weeks.

      The patient is administered pain relief and scheduled for an urgent abdominal X-ray (AXR).

      What is the most probable finding on the AXR that indicates a cholecystoenteric fistula?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumobilia

      Explanation:

      The presence of air in the gallbladder and biliary tree on an abdominal X-ray is most likely caused by a cholecystoenteric fistula. This is a serious complication of gallstones, particularly those larger than 2 cm, and can result in symptoms of small bowel obstruction such as severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distension. While pneumoperitoneum may also be present in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula, it is not a specific finding and can be caused by other factors that weaken or tear hollow viscus organs. On the other hand, the presence of an appendicolith, a small calcified stone in the appendix, is highly indicative of appendicitis in patients with right iliac fossa pain and other associated symptoms, but is not seen in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula on an abdominal X-ray.

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - A new antibody test is being researched to aid in the early diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A new antibody test is being researched to aid in the early diagnosis of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. It has a specificity of 97%.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 97% of patients without the condition will have a negative test

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his thumb, middle, and index fingers for the past 8 months. This is beginning to interfere with his work as a financial analyst. He has a history of hypothyroidism for which he takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily.

      Which nerves are involved in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      To identify the affected nerve, it is crucial to accurately diagnose the underlying condition. The patient’s symptoms, such as numbness and tingling in the thumb and middle finger (and possibly the radial half of the ring finger), suggest carpal tunnel syndrome. Additionally, the patient’s occupation involving computer use and hypothyroidism are risk factors for this condition.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed at the carpal tunnel as it passes through the wrist.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag, and a moderate goitre with a bruit are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders and their Differentiation

      Thyroid disorders are a common occurrence, and their diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One such disorder is Graves’ disease, which is characterized by a goitre with a bruit. Unlike MNG, Graves’ disease is associated with angiogenesis and thyroid follicular hypertrophy. Other signs of Graves’ disease include eye signs such as conjunctival oedema, exophthalmos, and proptosis. Additionally, pretibial myxoedema is a dermatological manifestation of this disease.

      DeQuervain’s thyroiditis is another thyroid disorder that follows a viral infection and is characterized by painful thyroiditis. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is a chronic autoimmune degradation of the thyroid. Multinodular goitre (MNG) is the most common form of thyroid disorder, leading to the formation of multiple nodules over the gland. Lastly, a toxic thyroid nodule is a solitary lesion on the thyroid that produces excess thyroxine.

      In conclusion, the different types of thyroid disorders and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of difficulty eating and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of difficulty eating and weight loss that has persisted for three months. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, dyslipidemia, and osteoporosis.

      During the examination, the patient's body appears cachectic. Fasciculation of the tongue is observed in the oral cavity, and when asked to stick her tongue out, it deviates to the left. The patient is unable to move her tongue towards her right side.

      Based on these findings, where is the most likely location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tongue deviates towards the side of the lesion in a hypoglossal nerve palsy, with the left hypoglossal nerve being the correct answer. Lesions of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, left facial nerve, and right facial nerve would not cause tongue deviation as they do not control tongue movements.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old, gravida 2 para 1, presents to the emergency department with pelvic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old, gravida 2 para 1, presents to the emergency department with pelvic pain. She delivered a healthy baby at 37 weeks gestation 13 days ago.

      During the examination, it was found that she has right lower quadrant pain and her temperature is 37.8º C. Further tests revealed a left gonadal (ovarian) vein thrombosis. The patient was informed about the risk of the thrombus lodging in the venous system from the left gonadal vein.

      What is the first structure that the thrombus will go through if lodged from the left gonadal vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The left gonadal veins empty into the left renal vein, meaning that any thrombus originating from the left gonadal veins would travel to the left renal vein. However, if the thrombus originated from the right gonadal vein, it would flow into the inferior vena cava (IVC) since the right gonadal vein directly drains into the IVC.

      The portal vein is typically formed by the merging of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins, and it also receives blood from the inferior mesenteric, gastric, and cystic veins.

      The superior vena cava collects venous drainage from the upper half of the body, specifically above the diaphragm.

      Anatomy of the Inferior Vena Cava

      The inferior vena cava (IVC) originates from the fifth lumbar vertebrae and is formed by the merging of the left and right common iliac veins. It passes to the right of the midline and receives drainage from paired segmental lumbar veins throughout its length. The right gonadal vein empties directly into the cava, while the left gonadal vein usually empties into the left renal vein. The renal veins and hepatic veins are the next major veins that drain into the IVC. The IVC pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm at the level of T8 and empties into the right atrium of the heart.

      The IVC is related anteriorly to the small bowel, the first and third parts of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, the liver and bile duct, the right common iliac artery, and the right gonadal artery. Posteriorly, it is related to the right renal artery, the right psoas muscle, the right sympathetic chain, and the coeliac ganglion.

      The IVC is divided into different levels based on the veins that drain into it. At the level of T8, it receives drainage from the hepatic vein and inferior phrenic vein before piercing the diaphragm. At the level of L1, it receives drainage from the suprarenal veins and renal vein. At the level of L2, it receives drainage from the gonadal vein, and at the level of L1-5, it receives drainage from the lumbar veins. Finally, at the level of L5, the common iliac vein merges to form the IVC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 27 - A medical researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of opioid use for chronic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A medical researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of opioid use for chronic pain in elderly patients. She needs a visual representation to demonstrate the presence of publication bias.

      Which of the following plots would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are utilized in meta-analyses to indicate publication bias, making it the most appropriate option. Forest plots, on the other hand, are used to present the strength of evidence of individual trials. Box-and-whisker plots are used to display the minimum, quartiles, median, and maximum of a set of data, while histograms are used to represent continuous data grouped into categories.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of frequent urination, unquenchable thirst,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and recent weight loss of around 5 kilograms in the last 2 months. The patient reports feeling extremely tired, although he acknowledges that work has been stressful lately, and his eating habits have been poor. The patient has a medical history of cystic fibrosis, with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa flare-up last year that required a brief hospital stay.

      What could be the probable reason for this patient's clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis can lead to the development of a unique type of diabetes mellitus known as cystic fibrosis-related diabetes mellitus. This is caused by the destruction of pancreatic islets due to abnormal chloride channel function, which leads to thickened bodily secretions that damage the exocrine pancreas over time. As a result, there is a gradual reduction in islet cell function and relative insulin deficiency, which can cause symptoms such as polydipsia, polyuria, fatigue, and weight loss.

      It is important to note that this type of diabetes is distinct from type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Additionally, it is not associated with other conditions such as diabetes insipidus, primary hyperparathyroidism, or prostatitis, which have their own unique symptoms and causes.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.

      Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old girl presents to her physician with complaints of polydipsia and fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to her physician with complaints of polydipsia and fatigue for the past month. She had a mild upper respiratory tract infection a few weeks ago. Her medical history is significant for asthma. Upon urine dip testing, she is found to have ++++ glucose and ketones. The physician suspects diabetic ketoacidosis and initiates fluid resuscitation and insulin therapy.

      Which type of receptor does insulin bind to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine kinase receptor

      Explanation:

      The receptor tyrosine kinase in the cell membrane is bound by insulin.

      Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).

      The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 30 - Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. The lump is easily reducible.

      The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia, although it is difficult to differentiate between femoral, direct inguinal, and indirect inguinal hernias in such a young patient.

      Sophie's mother is curious about the cause of her daughter's hernia. What is the pathology of an indirect inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protrusion through the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress

      Explanation:

      Indirect inguinal hernias are caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress, resulting in a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, it may progress into the scrotum, while in females, it may enter the labia. This type of hernia is located lateral to the epigastric vessels.

      On the other hand, direct inguinal hernias are usually caused by weakening in the abdominal musculature, which occurs with age. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is medial to the epigastric vessels. It may exit through the superficial inguinal ring.

      The tunica vaginalis is a layer that surrounds the testes and contains a small amount of serous fluid, reducing friction between the scrotum and the testes. Meanwhile, the tunica albuginea is a layer of connective tissue that covers the ovaries, testicles, and corpora cavernosa of the penis.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (1/2) 50%
Neurological System (2/4) 50%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/2) 0%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
General Principles (0/4) 0%
Respiratory System (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (0/2) 0%
Endocrine System (0/1) 0%
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