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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?
Your Answer: A calcium receptor modulator
Correct Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator
Explanation:Raloxifene: A Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator
Raloxifene is a medication that belongs to the class of selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). It works by selectively binding to oestrogen receptors in different parts of the body, acting as an agonist or antagonist depending on the location.
There are two types of oestrogen receptors, alpha and beta, which are found in various locations such as the breast, uterus, bone, and vasculature. Raloxifene acts as an oestrogen agonist in the bone, promoting mineralisation, while acting as an antagonist in the uterus and breast, preventing hyperplasia.
This is different from tamoxifen, another SERM, which acts as a partial agonist in the endometrium and can promote endometrial hyperplasia. Raloxifene’s selective action makes it a useful medication for treating osteoporosis and reducing the risk of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 2
Correct
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You receive a discharge summary for a middle-aged patient who was admitted with back pain and diagnosed with vertebral wedge fractures. The patient has been prescribed high dose vitamin D replacement due to a proven vitamin D deficiency found during the work-up for the fractures. What monitoring should be arranged?
Your Answer: Calcium
Explanation:It is important to monitor calcium levels when starting vitamin D as it can reveal any underlying hyperparathyroidism and lead to hypercalcaemia. Therefore, patients with renal calculi, granulomatous disease, or bone metastases may not be suitable for vitamin D. The National Osteoporosis Society recommends checking serum calcium after one month. However, there is no need to regularly check vitamin D levels once replacement therapy has begun.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A group of medical students want to investigate the impact of childhood drug use on the diagnosis of dementia in later life. They propose a case-control study design. The students will randomly select a sample of patients with dementia (the cases) and a sample of patients without dementia (the controls). After this, patients will be asked to report their experience of childhood drug use. The hospital's ethical review board is concerned with the study design. They argue that this study is particularly susceptible to recall bias and should be revised.
What is the specific concern of the review board regarding the proposed study design?Your Answer: The accuracy of responses may differ between the two groups
Explanation:Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved from study participants in different groups, which may be influenced by factors such as the presence of a disorder. In the case of a study investigating drug use in individuals with dementia compared to a control group, recall bias is a significant concern as dementia patients may have poorer memory and be more disinhibited in admitting to prior drug use. While a case-control study may be flawed, it may be the only feasible option given the research question and study design. However, obtaining informed consent from patients with dementia and accounting for their potential forgetfulness about their participation in the study are important ethical considerations. Lying about teenage drug use may not necessarily lead to bias unless there is a systematic difference in lying rates between the two groups.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has started to experience episodes of pallor in the distal parts of the middle three digits of her hands. A feeling of pain and numbness and cyanosis follows this. Finally, the digits become red and feel warm. This first occurred around six months ago.
Which of the following features is most suggestive that these symptoms occur secondary to an underlying disorder, rather than occurring in isolation?Your Answer: Symmetrical involvement of digits
Correct Answer: Her age
Explanation:Characteristics of Primary Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition characterized by recurrent vasospasm of the fingers and toes, typically triggered by stress or cold exposure. Here are some key characteristics that can help distinguish primary Raynaud’s phenomenon from secondary disease:
Age of onset: Symptoms that develop before age 30 are more likely to be primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while later onset may suggest an underlying autoimmune disorder.
Gender: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is more common in females than males.
Digital ulceration: Absence of digital ulceration is more likely to indicate primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while secondary disease is associated with more severe symptoms.
Antinuclear antibody: The presence of an antinuclear antibody may suggest an underlying condition, while its absence is more associated with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Symmetry: Symmetrical involvement of digits is more indicative of primary Raynaud’s phenomenon and the absence of an underlying disorder.
By considering these characteristics, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage patients with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The District Nurse requests a prescription for a syringe driver for a patient you assessed earlier in the day. The patient, who is in their late 70s, is dying from metastatic renal cancer. You recommend a 24-hour dose of 60mg of diamorphine. Please provide the correct wording for the prescription.
Your Answer: Diamorphine 30 mg ampoules. Supply 6 ampoules. 60mg (sixty milligrams) daily by subcutaneous infusion over 24 hours.
Correct Answer: Diamorphine 30 mg ampoules. Supply 6 (six) ampoules. 60mg daily by subcutaneous infusion over 24 hours.
Explanation:Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.
Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.
Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes in seeking advice about urinary symptoms and the decision is made to perform a PSA test. He is a regular gym-goer and exercises daily. What is the recommended duration for him to abstain from intense exercise before taking the PSA test?
Your Answer: 1 week
Explanation:Factors that can affect PSA levels
PSA testing is a common method used to screen for prostate cancer. However, there are several factors that can increase PSA levels, which can lead to false positives and unnecessary biopsies. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of these factors before undergoing a PSA test.
Firstly, men should not have a PSA test if they have an active urinary infection, as this can cause inflammation and increase PSA levels. Additionally, if a man has had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks, this can also cause an increase in PSA levels and should be avoided.
Furthermore, vigorous exercise in the last 48 hours or ejaculation in the last 48 hours can also affect PSA levels. This is because physical activity and sexual activity can cause temporary inflammation in the prostate gland, leading to an increase in PSA levels.
In conclusion, men should be counselled on these factors prior to undergoing a PSA test to ensure accurate results and avoid unnecessary procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she appears to be in good health.
What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?Your Answer: CT venogram
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to see you asking for a prescription for the contraceptive pill. She attends alone and tells you that she has had a boyfriend for the last few months and they have recently started having sexual intercourse. He is the same age as she is and up until now they have used condoms but she is worried about becoming pregnant as a friend of hers recently became pregnant by accident and had a termination.
You discuss things in detail and she says that she is going to continue to be sexually active but doesn't want to get pregnant. She tells you that her parents do not know that she has a boyfriend or that she is sexually active. She cannot be persuaded to tell her parents and doesn't consent to your discussing things with them. You discuss the implications of having sex and also methods of contraception and she understands and retains your advice.
What is the most appropriate management in this situation?Your Answer: Prescribe contraception and arrange follow up
Explanation:Fraser Guidelines for Young People’s Competence to Consent to Contraceptive Advice or Treatment
The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for healthcare professionals to determine whether a young person is competent to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment.
According to the guidelines, a young person is considered competent if they understand the doctor’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or allow the doctor to inform the parents, are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, their physical or mental health (or both) are likely to deteriorate if contraceptive advice/treatment is not given, and their best interests require the doctor to give advice/treatment without parental consent.
It is important to follow these guidelines as failure to provide contraceptive advice or treatment can put young people at risk of physical and mental harm, including unwanted pregnancies. In the UK, statistics suggest that about 30-40% of young people have had sexual intercourse by the time they are 16. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to assess young people’s competence to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of worsening vision in his right eye. He has a history of being human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. During the examination, the doctor observes a few distinct, raised, yellowish growths with unclear edges close to the optic disc of his right eye. What is the probable reason for the lesion observed in this individual?
Your Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations of Infectious Diseases
Choroidal tubercles, toxocariasis, Kaposi’s sarcoma, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis are all infectious diseases that can manifest in the eye. Choroidal tubercles are a common presentation of intraocular tuberculosis, while toxocariasis is caused by roundworm larvae migration and can lead to ocular larva migrans. Kaposi’s sarcoma presents as highly vascular lesions on the eyelids, conjunctiva, caruncle, and lacrimal sac. Syphilis can cause optic neuritis, uveitis, and interstitial keratitis, while toxoplasmosis can lead to chorioretinitis and vitreous inflammation. It is important to consider these infectious diseases in patients presenting with ocular symptoms and to evaluate for systemic involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner following an Occupational Health screen.
Investigations have shown the following hepatitis B (HBV) serology:
Test Result
HBsAg
(Hepatitis B surface antigen)
Positive
HBeAg
(Hepatitis B e-antigen)
Positive
Anti-HBs
(Antibody to HBsAg)
Negative
Anti-HBe
(Antibody to HBeAg)
Negative
Anti-HBc IgG
(Antibody to hepatitis B core-antigen immunoglobulin G)
Positive
Which of the following most accurately reflects this patient’s HBV status?
Your Answer: Persistent carrier, high infectivity
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Understanding the results of hepatitis B tests is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here, we will discuss the different test results and what they mean.
Persistent Carrier with High Infectivity:
If a patient is positive for surface antigen, e-antigen, and core antibody, and negative for surface antibodies and e-antibodies, it suggests chronic carrier status. The presence of e-antigen confers high infectivity, indicating active viral replication. Core antibodies are a marker of past infection and will not be found in vaccinated individuals who have never been infected.Persistent Carrier with Low Infectivity:
If a patient is positive for surface antigen and core antibody, but negative for e-antigen and e-antibodies, it suggests a moderately high viral load and elevated ALT levels. This is caused by a hepatitis B virus that has certain mutations (pre-core mutation) that allow the virus to replicate even when the e-antigen is absent.Previous Vaccination against Hepatitis B:
If a patient has surface antibodies but not core antibodies, it indicates previous vaccination against hepatitis B.Spontaneously Cleared Infection:
If a patient has lost surface antigen and developed surface antibodies, it marks seroconversion and indicates immunity. If IgM antibodies to core antigen (anti-HBc IgM) are present, it indicates recent infection.In conclusion, understanding hepatitis B test results is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for interpretation of test results and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with epilepsy is well controlled on sodium valproate 600 mg twice daily and had been taking oral contraceptives for three years.
She presented to her general practitioner 12 weeks pregnant.
Which of the following is correct?Your Answer: There is an increased risk of a neural tube defect in her fetus
Correct Answer: She is at increased risk of anaemia in pregnancy
Explanation:Anticonvulsants and Pregnancy
During pregnancy, taking Anticonvulsants can increase the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus. However, it is important to note that the benefits of preventing seizures outweigh the risks associated with treatment. Therefore, it is recommended that the drug be continued during pregnancy. To minimize the risks, it is advised to take folate supplements. It is also important to note that sodium valproate is not an enzyme inducer and will not speed up the metabolism of the pill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Is there any medication listed on her repeat prescription that could cause interactions and contraindicate the use of this contraceptive method?
Your Answer: Mefenamic acid
Correct Answer: Orlistat
Explanation:Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it often causes loose stool or diarrhea unless the patient follows a low-fat diet. It is crucial to assess the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics and contraceptive pills, as it may decrease their effectiveness by increasing gut transit time. If the patient wants to continue taking orlistat, it is advisable to consider alternative contraception methods that are more reliable.
Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is prescribed amiodarone for her newly diagnosed arrhythmia and expresses concern to her General Practitioner about its impact on her thyroid function due to her past medical history of autoantibody-positive hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor thyroid function three months after starting amiodarone
Explanation:Thyroid Monitoring and Amiodarone Use: What Patients Need to Know
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, but it can also cause thyroid dysfunction. Patients on this drug should have their thyroid function regularly monitored, with a baseline check and another three months after starting the medication. Patients with a history of hypothyroidism can still use amiodarone, but with more stringent monitoring. Those with thyroid autoantibodies are at increased risk of drug-induced hyperthyroidism. If thyroid function becomes deranged, amiodarone may need to be discontinued or thyroxine supplements dose-adjusted. Regular thyroid monitoring is crucial for patients on amiodarone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old obese woman presents with a history of worsening headaches for 3 months. The headaches are worse on waking in the morning and improve when standing. She has papilloedema but no obvious neurological deficit.
Select the most important feature to discover in the history.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Worsening visual fields
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the skull, without any apparent cause such as a tumor or blockage. It is most commonly seen in young women who are overweight, and can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. The condition is thought to be caused by a problem with the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid, which can lead to swelling of the optic nerve and other symptoms.
The main symptoms of idiopathic intracranial hypertension are headaches and gradual loss of vision, which is often accompanied by swelling of the optic nerve. Treatment typically involves weight loss, diuretic therapy, and medication to relieve symptoms. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to relieve pressure on the brain and prevent further damage to the optic nerve.
If you are experiencing symptoms of idiopathic intracranial hypertension, it is important to seek medical attention right away. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, it is possible to manage the condition and prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old female has been diagnosed with a small area of Bowen's disease on her right foot. She is concerned about the possibility of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma and is asking whether she should consider having it surgically removed instead of using 5-fluorouracil cream.
As her healthcare provider, you explain the diagnosis and the likelihood of the Bowen's disease progressing into invasive cancer.
What is the risk of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-10%
Explanation:In some instances, it may develop into an invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
Understanding Bowen’s Disease: A Precursor to Skin Cancer
Bowen’s disease is a type of skin condition that is considered a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma, a type of skin cancer. It is more commonly found in elderly patients and is characterized by red, scaly patches that are often 10-15 mm in size. These patches are slow-growing and typically occur on sun-exposed areas such as the head, neck, and lower limbs.
If left untreated, there is a 5-10% chance of developing invasive skin cancer. However, Bowen’s disease can often be diagnosed and managed in primary care if the diagnosis is clear or if it is a repeat episode. Treatment options include topical 5-fluorouracil, which is typically used twice daily for four weeks. This treatment often results in significant inflammation and erythema, so topical steroids are often given to control these side effects. Other management options include cryotherapy and excision.
In summary, understanding Bowen’s disease is important as it is a precursor to skin cancer. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the development of invasive skin cancer and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with lung cancer is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis. He is seen in the hospital clinic and prescribed a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC). What would be the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue on the DOAC for 3-6 months
Explanation:In 2020, NICE revised their guidance to suggest the use of DOACs for individuals with active cancer who have VTE. Prior to this, low molecular weight heparin was the recommended treatment.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman is admitted to your intermediate care unit with a significant medical history of chronic alcoholism. She sustained a brain injury six weeks ago after falling down the stairs at home and is currently bedridden. She was transferred for further rehabilitation and is being fed through a percutaneous gastrostomy, which was inserted three days ago after an initial period of nasogastric tube feeding. The nursing staff reports that she has become increasingly unwell over the past 24 hours, with lethargy and confusion. Upon examination, she appears to be short of breath, and there is evidence of peripheral and pulmonary edema. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Refeeding Syndrome in Malnourished Patients
Refeeding malnourished patients through enteral feeding requires careful monitoring of electrolytes and minerals. This is because refeeding can trigger a significant anabolic response that affects the levels of electrolytes and minerals essential to cellular function. Unfortunately, refeeding syndrome is often under-recognized and under-diagnosed. The metabolic changes that occur during refeeding can lead to marked hypophosphatemia and shifts in potassium, magnesium, glucose, and thiamine levels.
Refeeding syndrome is primarily caused by hypophosphatemia and can result in severe cardiorespiratory failure, edema, confusion, convulsions, coma, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor patients undergoing refeeding to prevent and manage refeeding syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A breastfeeding mother who is 4 weeks postpartum presents with right sided nipple pain. She describes sharp pain during feeds which eases afterwards. She has been seeing her health visitor for baby weighing and he is growing along the 75th centile, but she has not had an observed feed. She doesn't have any concerns about the baby. On examination you notice some fissuring on the right nipple inferiorly but otherwise examination is normal. She is afebrile.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nipple damage from inefficient infant attachment (‘latch’)
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers may experience nipple damage due to poor latch, which can cause pain and fissuring. This is often caused by incorrect positioning and attachment of the baby to the breast. It is important to seek help from a breastfeeding expert to improve positioning and address any underlying issues, such as tongue tie.
Nipple candidiasis can cause burning pain, itching, and hypersensitivity in both nipples, as well as deep breast pain. A bacterial infection may result in purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Vasospasm, also known as Raynaud’s disease of the nipple, can cause intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as blanching, cyanosis, and/or erythema.
If a breastfeeding mother experiences itching and a dry, scaly rash on both nipples, it may be a sign of eczema. For more information and guidance on breastfeeding problems, consult the NICE clinical knowledge summary and the GP infant feeding network.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking guidance on contraception. She has entered a new relationship but is uncertain if she needs contraception due to her suspicion of being in menopause. She is currently experiencing hot flashes and has not had a period in 9 months. What is the best course of action to recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contraception is needed until 24 months after her last period
Explanation:Contraception is still necessary after menopause. Women who are over 50 years old should use contraception for at least 12 months after their last period, while those under 50 years old should use it for at least 24 months after their last period.
Understanding Menopause and Contraception
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.
It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He has a sizable, keratinised genital wart on the shaft of his penis that has been there for approximately three months. Due to embarrassment, he has delayed seeking medical attention. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryotherapy
Explanation:For the treatment of genital warts, cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts, while topical podophyllum is suggested for multiple, non-keratinised warts. As the wart is keratinised, cryotherapy should be the first choice of treatment.
Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a 64-year-old woman known to have breast cancer.
Her family has become worried as yesterday she seemed to be behaving 'oddly'. They tell you that her behaviour has become inappropriate and that she has been walking around the house naked and been swearing a lot in conversation. Prior to yesterday she was her 'usual self'.
The family also report that she seems to be passing urine and opening her bowels as per usual and that she has been eating and drinking fine.
Examination reveals that the patient is alert and uncomplaining. Temperature is 37.1°C, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 86 regular. Systems examination doesn't reveal anything acute aside from the patient swearing frequently and talking about inappropriate topics of conversation. Urine dipstick testing reveals 'trace' of blood and protein.
Which if the following investigations will confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity
Explanation:Considerations for a Patient with Metastatic Cancer and Acute Change in Mental Status
A variety of factors need to be considered when a patient with metastatic cancer presents with an acute change in mental status. In this scenario, potential causes such as infection, hypercalcaemia, and brain metastases should be ruled out. It is also important to review the patient’s drug history to rule out any iatrogenic causes.
In this case, the patient’s observations, including temperature, pulse rate, and blood pressure, are normal, and there are no signs of infection. The urine dipstick test doesn’t reveal any significant abnormalities. The symptoms are also not consistent with hypercalcaemia.
However, the patient’s acute change in mental status with disinhibition requires urgent referral to the hospital and a CT head scan to look for frontal lobe metastases. A full ‘confusion’ screen would also be carried out to further investigate the underlying cause.
In summary, when a patient with metastatic cancer presents with an acute change in mental status, a thorough evaluation of potential causes is necessary to ensure appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old female presents to surgery with her mother. Her mother is worried about her daughter's persistent fatigue, recurrent coughs and sore throats, and recent appearance of small purple spots on her skin. The patient also reports intermittent feverishness. Blood tests for EBV serology were normal a few weeks ago. On examination, the patient appears pale, with unremarkable observations. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly, but small petechiae are present on the torso and arms. Based on NICE guidelines, which finding in the history and examination of this adolescent would warrant immediate specialist evaluation for leukemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unexplained petechiae
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) makes up to 5% of all leukemia cases.
Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.
Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.
Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You have a telephone consultation with Sarah, a 49-year-old woman who is worried about experiencing menopausal symptoms. She reports having hot flashes, insomnia, and mood swings. Her last period was 12 months ago, and she is not using any hormonal contraception. Sarah has tried non-hormonal methods, but they have not been effective. She has never had a hysterectomy and has no history of breast cancer. Sarah smokes 10 cigarettes a day.
With a weight of 75 kg and a height of 160 cm, Sarah's BMI is calculated to be 29.3 kg/m2. She is not currently pregnant.
Sarah is seeking advice on the best HRT option as there are many available. Which HRT option would you recommend for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous combined transdermal preparation
Explanation:The appropriate HRT for Annie, who is postmenopausal and at risk of venous thromboembolism due to her smoking and obesity, is a continuous combined transdermal preparation. This is because she requires the progestogen component for endometrial protection and oral preparations should be avoided in her case. Cyclical preparations, both oral and transdermal, are not indicated as she has been amenorrhoeic for over 12 months.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A patient of yours with COPD who is in his 60s wants to travel to Spain on holiday. He plans to fly, but is prepared to drive and take the ferry if you tell him that he is not fit to do so.
You currently manage his COPD with a high dose seretide inhaler and PRN salbutamol. On examination at the surgery he looks relatively well. He has good bilateral air entry on auscultation of his chest and sparse bilateral wheeze.
How far should he be able to walk without shortness of breath to be able to fly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25 m
Explanation:Guidelines for Safe Air Travel
When it comes to air travel, there are certain guidelines that need to be followed to ensure a safe journey. One of the most important factors is the ability to walk 50 meters on level ground or climb one flight of stairs without experiencing shortness of breath. This is usually indicative of being able to fly without any issues.
Another important consideration is the hypoxic challenge test, which mimics the conditions on the plane. If the PaO2 level is less than 55 mmHg, it is not recommended to fly. At rest, the oxygen saturation level should be 95% or higher.
If you have had a pneumothorax, it is recommended to wait for at least two weeks before considering air travel. This is especially important if the pneumothorax has been conservatively managed. Only after there is evidence that the pneumothorax has resolved should you consider flying.
By following these guidelines, you can ensure a safe and comfortable air travel experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents after the birth of her second child. She complains of persistent fatigue and a hoarse voice that she can't seem to shake off. Despite breastfeeding her child, she is struggling to lose her pregnancy weight. Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies are present and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is normal. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is 12 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l), with a free thyroxine (T4) of 5 pmol/l. There is no thyroid tenderness on examination, but she has a slight goitre. Her pulse is only 52 bpm.
Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postpartum thyroiditis
Explanation:Postpartum Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Hypothyroidism as a Common Outcome
Postpartum thyroiditis is a subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis that occurs within the first six months after giving birth. It is characterized by antithyroid peroxidase antibodies that mediate the condition. Symptoms may include slight painless thyroid swelling and hyperthyroidism. However, the condition is self-limiting and hyperthyroidism is commonly followed by hypothyroidism, which may become permanent in 25% of patients. The aetiology of postpartum thyroiditis is obscure, but it is associated with hypothyroidism during pregnancy and the presence of antibodies.
Hyperthyroidism, atrophic thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency are all incorrect diagnosis for postpartum thyroiditis. Hyperthyroidism is a hormonal change that is not present in postpartum thyroiditis. Atrophic thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that occurs in elderly women and is characterized by thyroid autoantibodies, hypothyroidism, and absence of goitre. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that is the most common cause of goitrous hypothyroidism in non-iodine-deficient areas. Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide and results in goitre, but it is still a rare cause of hypothyroidism in the UK.
In conclusion, postpartum thyroiditis is a self-limiting condition that may result in hypothyroidism as a common outcome. It is important to diagnose and manage this condition to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old lady with a rash on her arm. It started as a small red pimple on her right forearm but has grown into a painful deep ulcer. She has Crohn's disease but is currently not on any treatment for it. She takes the combined contraceptive pill and occasional ibuprofen for headaches.
You suspect she has pyoderma gangrenosum.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extra-intestinal manifestations are common affecting up to 35% of people with Crohn's disease
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is not linked to disease activity, can occur as a manifestation of Crohn’s disease outside of the intestines.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the likelihood of developing inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Inflammatory bowel disease relapse or exacerbation may be heightened by the use of NSAIDs.
Following an episode of infectious gastroenteritis, the risk of developing Crohn’s disease is increased by four times, particularly within the first year.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a geriatric patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is the recommended vaccination protocol for this population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual influenza + one-off pneumococcal
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden hearing loss in his right ear. He reports that this occurred over the course of a few hours yesterday and has not improved since. He denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history or prior ear issues. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities in the ear canal or tympanic membrane. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for an audiological assessment
Explanation:Referral Guidelines for Sudden or Rapidly Worsening Hearing Loss in Adults
Adults who experience sudden onset or rapidly worsening hearing loss in one or both ears, which cannot be explained by external or middle ear causes, require referral to an ENT or audiovestibular medicine service. The speed at which this referral needs to occur is outlined in NICE guidance. If the loss occurred suddenly within the past 30 days, immediate referral to be seen within 24 hours is necessary. For sudden hearing loss that occurred more than 30 days ago, urgent referral to be seen within 2 weeks is appropriate. Rapid hearing loss over a period of 4 to 90 days also requires urgent referral. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management of hearing loss in adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split into and assessed for a 59-year-old woman named Sarah who has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis and is applying for the benefit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily living component and mobility component
Explanation:The Personal Independence Payment is a benefit for those aged 16 to 64 who have long-term ill health or disability that affects their daily living or mobility for at least 3 months and is expected to last for 9 months. The daily living component covers assistance with tasks such as eating, bathing, dressing, communication, medication management, and financial decision-making. The mobility component covers assistance with moving around and going out. There are standard and enhanced levels for each component based on the level of need. Terminally ill patients automatically receive the enhanced level of the daily living component.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss for the past four months. She describes the pain as dull, piercing and it radiates to her back. She has a history of anorexia. On physical examination, there is mild tenderness in the epigastric region but no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the pancreas
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain: A Case Study
The patient presents with abdominal pain, and a differential diagnosis must be considered. The symptoms suggest carcinoma of the body or tail of the pancreas, as obstructive jaundice is not present. The pain is located in the epigastric region and radiates to the back, indicating retroperitoneal invasion of the splanchnic nerve plexus by the tumour.
Cholangiocarcinoma, a malignancy of the biliary duct system, is unlikely as jaundice is not present. Pain in the right upper quadrant may occur in advanced disease. Early gastric carcinoma often presents with symptoms of uncomplicated dyspepsia, while advanced disease presents with weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, upper abdominal pain, and anaemia.
Peptic ulcer disease is a possibility, with epigastric pain being the most common symptom. Duodenal ulcer pain often awakens the patient at night, and pain with radiation to the back can occur with posterior penetrating gastric ulcer complicated by pancreatitis. However, the presence of weight loss makes pancreatic carcinoma more likely.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, caused by a non-beta-islet-cell, gastrin-secreting tumour of the pancreas, is also a possibility. Epigastric pain due to ulceration is a common symptom, particularly in sporadic cases and in men. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, as well as in female patients.
In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain in this case includes carcinoma of the pancreas, peptic ulcer disease, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Further diagnostic tests are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father. He has a history of asthma and is prescribed salbutamol 100 mcg prn and Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 100 mcg bd via a spacer. Despite the steroid inhaler, he is having to use salbutamol on a daily basis, especially in the morning or after physical activity. Today, his chest examination is normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:For children between the ages of 5 and 16 who have asthma that is not being controlled by a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), it is recommended to add a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.
For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 32
Incorrect
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You have been informed by the local hospital that a 5-year-old boy from your practice has been admitted with definite meningococcal septicaemia. There have not been any previous cases. You need to organise appropriate prophylaxis.
What is the most appropriate group to treat in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Household members only
Explanation:Understanding Close Contacts and Prophylaxis for Meningococcal Disease
Meningococcal disease is a serious bacterial infection that can cause meningitis and sepsis. Close contacts of a patient with meningococcal disease are at risk of contracting the infection, particularly those who live in the same household. Prophylaxis is recommended for these individuals to reduce the risk of transmission.
According to Public Health England, other close contacts who may require prophylaxis include those who have slept in the same house as the patient, spent several hours a day in the house, had intimate contact (such as kissing), shared a room or flat, provided mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, or attended the same childminder as the patient.
It is important to note that prophylaxis is not necessary for all possible contacts from the past week. The risk of transmission is highest within the household and decreases as one moves further away from the patient. School, nursery, and playgroup contacts, as well as medical staff who treated the patient, may not require prophylaxis unless they had close contact with the patient.
Overall, understanding who qualifies as a close contact and when prophylaxis is necessary can help prevent the spread of meningococcal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Can you rearrange the following types of research studies in their correct order according to their level of evidence, starting with the highest level on the left and ending with the lowest level on the right: systematic review of RCTs, RCTs, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case-series? Take your time and try to recall the hierarchy.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systematic review of RCTs, RCTs, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case-series
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old woman presents with a complaint of distorted vision and difficulty reading with her right eye. She reports seeing straight lines as bent and her peripheral vision is unaffected. Upon fundoscopy, yellow spots are observed around the macular region.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macular degeneration
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Visual Distortion
Age-Related Macular Degeneration: A typical history of age-related macular degeneration includes yellow spots called drusen, which are collections of lipid and protein material beneath the retinal pigment epithelium and within Bruch’s membrane.
Cataract: Cataract causes gradual loss of acuity but not distortion of lines.
Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion: Patients with branch retinal vein occlusion usually complain of sudden onset of blurred vision or a central visual field defect.
Chronic Glaucoma: Chronic glaucoma, also known as primary open-angle glaucoma, causes loss of peripheral vision while sparing central vision.
Retinal Detachment: Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, flashes of light, and sudden loss of an outer part of the visual field, which may be described as a curtain over part of the field of vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a sleep disorder. He reports experiencing a creeping, crawling sensation in his legs, which is so intense that he feels the need to constantly rub his legs together to relieve the sensation. He also has an irresistible urge to move around. He feels chronically sleep deprived, only able to sleep in the early hours of the morning and often falling asleep during the day. He recently started taking thyroxine replacement and has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and steatohepatitis, for which he takes amlodipine, ramipril, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 145/82 mmg, and his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological examinations are normal. What is the most likely factor in his medical history associated with his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Restless Legs Syndrome: Causes and Treatment
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by uncomfortable sensations. While RLS may be idiopathic, it can also be caused by underlying conditions such as hypothyroidism, anaemias, renal failure, polyneuropathies, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren’s syndrome, and amyloidosis. Treating any underlying secondary cause can improve symptoms, as can dopamine agonists. However, clinicians may dismiss the seriousness of RLS in the absence of demonstrable neurology, despite the significant impact on quality of life that sleep disturbance can have. It is important to recognize and address RLS to improve patients’ overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the muscles in his left hand.
He had noticed severely impaired hand grip and had noticed problems with writing. He had also developed a tingling sensation over the palm of his hand extending up the forearm.
On examination he appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full.
On examination of the upper limb, there was significant wasting over the left thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the left thumb. No other fasciculations could be detected in the proximal limb or other hand. Tone appeared normal and reflexes were intact. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger.
On examination of the lower limb, no abnormalities could be found.
Given the above history and clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve palsy
Explanation:Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition that occurs when there is pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. This can result in severe wasting of the muscles in the thenar eminence, abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis, as well as the lateral two lumbricals. Nerve conduction studies can confirm denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.
It is important to note that CTS is not indicative of motor neurone disease, which presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone abnormalities without sensory disturbance. Syringomyelia within the cervical cord would cause lower motor neurone signs at the level of the syrinx, with dissociated pain and temperature loss and upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Thoracic inlet syndrome affecting C8, T1 of the brachial plexus would cause additional weakness of hand muscles. An ulnar nerve palsy would cause weakness of small muscles of the hand with preserved thenar muscle function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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You sample 100 patients' ages from your patient list and calculate the mean age to be 45 years old. This baseline data will be used before enrolling these patients on an exercise programme to measure the effect this has on age. The standard deviation of your data is 3. You wish to determine how accurate your estimate of the mean is likely to be.
What is the standard error of the mean?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.5
Explanation:Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean
The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.
To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.
A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Indian woman comes to the clinic with a nodular rash all over her body, eyebrow loss, and burns on her hands. She experiences tenderness in her thickened ulnar nerves. A skin biopsy reveals the existence of multiple acid-fast bacilli (AFBs).
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leprosy
Explanation:Understanding Leprosy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Challenges in the UK
Leprosy, caused by Mycobacterium leprae, is a contagious disease that primarily affects the skin and nerves. While it is rare in the UK, it remains a significant cause of peripheral neuropathy worldwide. The disease progresses slowly, with an average incubation period of 7 years, and can range from mild to severe forms. Diagnosis requires the presence of skin patches or hypopigmented areas with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the detection of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies. However, in countries where leprosy is rare, diagnosis can be delayed due to lack of familiarity with the disease. Understanding the symptoms and challenges of diagnosing leprosy is crucial for effective management and prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Anaemia is a common complication in patients with chronic kidney disease, with a prevalence of about 12%. As the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls, the prevalence of anaemia increases. Patients should be investigated if their haemoglobin falls to 110g/L or less or if symptoms of anaemia develop.
The typical normochromic normocytic anaemia of chronic kidney disease mainly develops from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. Anaemia becomes more severe as the glomerular filtration rate decreases. Iron deficiency is also common and may be due to poor dietary intake or occult bleeding. Other factors contributing to anaemia include the presence of uraemic inhibitors, a reduced half-life of circulating blood cells, or deficiency of folate or vitamin B12.
Although supplements of vitamin C have been used as adjuvant therapy in the anaemia of chronic kidney disease, NICE recommends that they should not be prescribed for this purpose as evidence suggests no benefit. It is important to monitor and manage anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease to improve their quality of life and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the past 5 months. She has smoked for the past 7 years and has a history of eczema. Examination of her chest is unremarkable. Spirometry is arranged and is reported as normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action now?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide + spirometry/bronchodilator reversibility test
Explanation:It is recommended that individuals who are suspected to have asthma undergo both FeNO testing and spirometry with reversibility.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old male smoker develops increasing shoulder pain. After a few weeks, he complains of loss of power and feeling in his left hand. Shortly after, he notices visual disturbances and a left-sided ptosis.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Common Causes of Arm and Shoulder Pain: Symptoms and Characteristics
Arm and shoulder pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and characteristics. Here are some common causes:
Pancoast Tumour: This tumour in the superior pulmonary sulcus can cause constant pain in the shoulder, upper anterior chest, or interscapular region. Other symptoms include weakness and atrophy of hand muscles, Horner syndrome, hoarseness, and spinal cord compression.
Stable Angina: Chest pain is precipitated by exercise and can also occur in the arms, shoulders, neck, jaw, throat, or back. Ischaemic pain in the arm is described as cramp-like, squeezing, or a band around the arm.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Tingling, numbness, or pain in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, and medial half of the ring finger on the palmar aspect are characteristic of this condition resulting from median nerve compromise at the wrist.
Coronary Heart Disease: Chest pain, weakness, light-headedness, nausea, or a cold sweat are common symptoms. Pain or discomfort in the arms or shoulder may also occur.
Syringomyelia: A cyst (syrinx) forms within the spinal cord, causing sensory, motor, and autonomic dysfunction. Chronic severe pain is a common symptom.
Vertebral Disc Prolapse of the Cervical Spine: Myelopathy with neck and arm pain, a lower motor neuron lesion of the upper limbs, and upper motor lesion of the lower limbs can result from ventral compression of the spinal cord by a prolapsed cervical disc.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment of arm and shoulder pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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You are consulted for a 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who presents with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, and vomiting. The patient is currently taking metformin, gliclazide, and empagliflozin. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.4°C, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, pulse of 100, blood glucose of 13 mmol/L, and blood ketones of 3.3 mmol/L. Urinalysis shows +++ ketones, but is otherwise normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes can experience diabetic ketoacidosis, as seen in this case where the patient has a blood glucose level of ≥11mmol/L and blood ketones of ≥3mmol/L. Immediate hospital admission is necessary for treatment with intravenous fluids and insulin. It is important to note that individuals taking SGLT2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, are at risk of DKA even with moderate blood glucose levels. DKA is more prevalent in Afro-Caribbean patients with type 2 diabetes. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic state (HONK) is characterized by elevated blood glucose levels but less than 2+ ketones in urine or 3mmol/L blood ketones.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, moderate aortic stenosis, and stage 3b chronic kidney disease presents for hypertension management. His blood pressure in the clinic is 150/90 mmHg, and he has been recording an average of 155/84 mmHg for the past month. He has previously refused antihypertensive medication due to concerns about dizziness and falls. What is the appropriate initial antihypertensive to consider in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Explanation:Due to the patient’s moderate-severe aortic stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated and a calcium channel blocker should be prescribed as the first-line treatment for hypertension. Alpha-blockers may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if necessary, typically at step 4 of the guidelines when potassium levels are high. While ACE inhibitors are typically recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes to protect the kidneys, they should not be used in this patient due to their aortic stenosis. Beta-blockers are not the first-line treatment for hypertension and are better suited for heart failure and post-myocardial infarction. They may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if needed, typically at step 4 when potassium levels are high.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding Chickenpox in adults is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children are infectious once rash begins until all lesions have scabbed over
Explanation:Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.
One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You are working a morning session in a GP practice in the north of England.
Out of the six prescriptions you sign that morning, which one would be exempt from NHS prescription charges for a patient who is 65 years old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A prescription of desogestrel ('Cerazette') as a contraceptive
Explanation:Prescription charges do not apply to prescribed contraceptives in England, as they are exempt from such charges. Other exempt drugs include STI treatments and medications that a GP can administer. It is important to note that this exemption only applies to England and not to Wales, Scotland, or Northern Ireland. However, if Dianette is prescribed for acne rather than as a contraceptive, it would be subject to prescription charges. Additionally, there are extensive lists of medical conditions that qualify patients for free prescriptions.
Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?
In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.
Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.
Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.
For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 46
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pandemic
Explanation:Key Terms in Epidemiology
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health and disease in populations. In this field, there are several key terms that are important to understand. An epidemic, also known as an outbreak, occurs when there is an increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is expected in a given population over a specific time period. On the other hand, an endemic refers to the usual or expected level of disease in a particular population. Finally, a pandemic is a type of epidemic that affects a large number of people across multiple countries, continents, or regions. Understanding these terms is crucial for epidemiologists to identify and respond to disease outbreaks and pandemics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man who has recently moved to the UK from Uganda presents with complaints of fatigue and purple skin lesions all over his body. During examination, multiple raised purple lesions are observed on his trunk and arms. Additionally, smaller purple lesions are noticed in his mouth. The patient has recently begun taking acyclovir for herpes zoster infection.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:The patient’s raised purple lesions suggest Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is often associated with HIV infection. The recent herpes zoster infection also suggests underlying immunocompromise. Other conditions such as dermatofibromas, psoriasis, and drug reactions are unlikely to present in this way, and a haemangioma is less likely than Kaposi’s sarcoma.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During your examination, you observe that he has a gait pattern characterized by high-stepping, where he excessively flexes his knees to ensure his feet clear the ground while walking. What is the probable reason for this clinical observation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:When a person develops a high-stepping gait, it is often a compensatory mechanism for foot drop. If foot drop is found on only one side, it is likely that there is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve. However, if foot drop is present on both sides, it is more probable that the cause is peripheral neuropathy.
Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that can be categorized based on whether it predominantly causes a motor or sensory loss. When the motor function is affected, conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) like Charcot-Marie-Tooth, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria may be the cause. On the other hand, when the sensory function is affected, conditions such as diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis may be the cause.
Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. Typically, sensory symptoms present before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, where the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of peripheral neuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, reporting symptoms of frequent urination, weak urinary stream, and dribbling at the end of urination. He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately a year. Upon examination, his prostate is soft and normal in size, his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) falls within the normal range for his age, and his bladder and kidneys are not palpable. He has a history of renal colic and has previously undergone cystoscopic removal of a bladder stone. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urethral stricture
Explanation:Possible Causes of Urinary Symptoms: A Differential Diagnosis
Urinary symptoms can be caused by various conditions, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. One possible cause is urethral stricture, which refers to the narrowing of the urethra due to scarring from inflammation, trauma, infection, tumors, or surgery. Patients may experience no symptoms, mild discomfort, or complete urinary retention. Another possible cause is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which can cause urinary frequency, poor stream, and terminal dribbling, but normal examination findings make prostatic disease unlikely. Bladder stones can also cause urinary symptoms such as suprapubic pain, dysuria, intermittency, frequency, hesitancy, nocturia, and urinary retention, as well as terminal hematuria and sudden cessation of voiding with associated pain. Chlamydia infection can cause urethritis with urethral discharge and dysuria, and a possible late complication is a stricture. Prostatic carcinoma can also cause similar symptoms, but the patient’s young age and normal examination of the prostate and PSA result make this diagnosis unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has severe, left, renal, angle tenderness, his BP is elevated at 155/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 95. He is apyrexial. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 121 g/L (135-180) White cell count 6.1 ×109/L (4-10) Platelets 201 ×109/L (150-400) Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143) Potassium 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5) Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-120) Urine blood +++ Which one of the following would be your best next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give him an injection of IM diclofenac
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from acute renal colic due to a calcium-containing renal stone. IM diclofenac is the initial step in management, along with increased fluid intake and arranging for a urology opinion. Antispasmodics should not be offered. Assess response to initial treatment and admit if no response within 1 hour. Offer urgent imaging to confirm diagnosis and assess likelihood of spontaneous stone passage. Offer NSAIDs for pain relief, and consider opioids if necessary. Do not offer antispasmodics. Provide written information on renal and ureteric stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her carer. She lives in sheltered accommodation and has carers twice a day to help with washing, dressing and meal preparation. Typically, she enjoys crosswords and is able to mobilise around the house with the help of a walking stick. Over the past two days, she has become restless and agitated. When the carer arrived that morning, she had been very combative and refused to get dressed.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange admission to hospital for assessment, monitoring and treatment
Explanation:Managing Delirium in Hospitalized Patients
When a patient presents with delirium, it is important to take immediate action to ensure their safety and well-being. Admission to the hospital for assessment, monitoring, and treatment is typically necessary. The decision to admit should take into account the patient’s clinical and social situation, as well as the input of family members or caregivers. If the patient lacks capacity, decisions should be made in their best interests using the Mental Capacity Act 2005.
Once the patient has recovered from delirium, it is important to review them to ensure there are no underlying memory concerns that would warrant a referral to the Memory Clinic. Physical restraints, such as cot sides, should be avoided in patients with delirium. Instead, strategies to maintain safe mobility should be employed, such as encouraging walking or active range of motion exercises.
A computed tomography head may be indicated if there has been a recent head injury or a subdural hematoma is suspected, or if the patient may have underlying dementia. However, if an acute cause is suspected, the patient needs admission to the hospital. If dementia is suspected, then referral to the Memory Clinic once the patient has recovered from delirium is recommended.
Pharmacological measures are a last resort for severe agitation or psychosis that may be recommended by specialists. Short-term, low-dose haloperidol may be suggested, but benzodiazepines are not usually recommended. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage delirium in hospitalized patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says that she is constantly tired, due to looking after her two young sons aged 4 and 6.
She feels constantly sad and tearful and has lost interest in watching her favourite television programmes. She is now losing weight and lying awake for most of the night worrying about her debts. She says that she feels like a worthless mother to her children and has recurrent thoughts of death.
You establish a diagnosis of depression, but what would be the usual minimum length of time that she would have to be experiencing core symptoms in order to reach a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Six weeks
Explanation:Symptoms of Depression
This patient is displaying several symptoms of depression, which include a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest, weight loss, insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of death. The absence of family support and the responsibility of caring for two young children would also raise concern for any GP. It is important to note that symptoms must be present for at least two weeks to make a diagnosis of depression. It is essential not to confuse this with screening questions for depression, which may be used for patients with other medical conditions. These screening questions typically ask about symptoms of depression in the preceding four weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension only complains of worsening breathlessness and swollen ankles for the past 3 months. You plan to conduct a BNP test. What could cause a falsely low BNP result in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Being on ramipril for his blood pressure
Explanation:Serum levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N-terminal pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) can be measured to assess the likelihood of heart failure in patients. NT-proBNP is the inactive prohormone of BNP and is released from the left ventricle in response to ventricular strain. It acts to increase renal excretion of water and sodium, and relax vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilation.
BNP measurements are recommended for patients with suspected heart failure who have not had a previous myocardial infarction. Elevated BNP levels (>400) indicate a poor prognosis and require an urgent referral for echocardiography and specialist assessment. However, normal BNP levels do not confirm the absence of heart failure, as levels may be elevated due to other conditions such as left ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary hypertension, or renal impairment.
NICE guidelines suggest that BNP measurements are not necessary for patients with suspected heart failure who have had a previous myocardial infarction, as urgent referral and assessment are required regardless of BNP levels. BNP levels may also be affected by medications such as ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, as well as obesity.
Overall, BNP measurements can be a useful tool in assessing the likelihood of heart failure, but should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings and patient history.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a check-up. He is taking warfarin for a mechanical aortic valve and has a history of trigeminal neuralgia, depression, and COPD. During an INR check, his INR is found to be subtherapeutic at 1.5. Which drug is most likely to cause a decrease in his INR if co-prescribed with warfarin therapy? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Interactions with Warfarin: Understanding the Effects of Carbamazepine, Alcohol, Clarithromycin, Prednisolone, and Sertraline
Warfarin is a commonly prescribed anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety. However, several factors can interact with warfarin and affect its metabolism and anticoagulant effect. Here are some examples:
Carbamazepine is a medication used to manage trigeminal neuralgia, but it is also a hepatic enzyme inducer. This means that it can accelerate the metabolism of warfarin, leading to a reduced effect and a decreased international normalized ratio (INR).
Alcohol consumption can enhance the effects of warfarin, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, patients on warfarin should avoid heavy drinking or binge drinking.
Clarithromycin is an antibiotic that may be prescribed for a COPD exacerbation. However, it is associated with reduced warfarin metabolism and enhanced anticoagulant effect, which can lead to a raised INR.
Prednisolone is a steroid medication that may also be prescribed for a COPD exacerbation. It is associated with an enhanced anticoagulant effect, which can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.
Sertraline is an antidepressant medication that belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class. SSRIs have an antiplatelet effect, which can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.
In summary, understanding the interactions between warfarin and other medications or substances is crucial for managing its anticoagulant effect and preventing adverse events. Patients on warfarin should always inform their healthcare providers of any new medications or supplements they are taking to avoid potential interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to you with concerns about his erectile dysfunction. He has a clean medical history except for a bout of depression that occurred six years ago. What is the accurate statement regarding prescribing sildenafil for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may be freely prescribed on the NHS
Explanation:In 2014, sildenafil was removed from the list of restricted medications and can now be prescribed without limitations.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
Each of the following can lead to cataract formation except for one. Which one is it?
Down's syndrome
12%
Hypercalcaemia
28%
Diabetes mellitus
6%
Long-term steroid use
6%
Uveitis
48%
Is it true that hypocalcaemia, not hypercalcaemia, is a contributing factor to cataract formation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Cataract formation is more likely to occur due to hypocalcaemia rather than hypercalcaemia.
Understanding Cataracts
A cataract is a common eye condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, making it difficult for light to reach the retina and causing reduced or blurred vision. Cataracts are more common in women and increase in incidence with age, affecting 30% of individuals aged 65 and over. The most common cause of cataracts is the normal ageing process, but other possible causes include smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes mellitus, long-term corticosteroids, radiation exposure, myotonic dystrophy, and metabolic disorders such as hypocalcaemia.
Patients with cataracts typically experience a gradual onset of reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. Signs of cataracts include a defect in the red reflex, which is the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Diagnosis is made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which reveal a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, patient choice, and the risks and benefits of surgery. Complications following surgery may include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis. Despite these risks, cataract surgery has a high success rate, with 85-90% of patients achieving corrected vision of 6/12 or better on a Snellen chart postoperatively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A recently graduated nurse at the nearby hospital receives hepatitis B vaccination. After three months of completing the primary course, the following outcomes are observed:
Outcome Anti-HBs: 10 - 100 mIU/ml
Reference A protective immunity is indicated by an antibody level of >100 mIU/ml.
What is the best course of action to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give one further dose of hepatitis B vaccine
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management
Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.
Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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You are reviewing the recent results for a 23-year-old patient in your general practice. A vaginal swab has come back positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. The patient has a history of asthma and is allergic to penicillin. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant. You have contacted the genitourinary clinic for contact tracing and treatment for her partner. What is the most suitable prescription for her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:In the case of treating Chlamydia during pregnancy, erythromycin would be the most appropriate option among the listed antibiotics. Amoxicillin, azithromycin, or erythromycin can be used to treat Chlamydia during pregnancy. However, since the patient is allergic to penicillin, amoxicillin is not suitable. Doxycycline, which is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated Chlamydia in non-pregnant individuals, is not recommended during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. Co-amoxiclav is also not appropriate for treating Chlamydia and is contraindicated in this patient due to their penicillin allergy.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman has been referred for a fasting glucose test following the discovery of 2+ glucose on dip testing. She is 32 weeks pregnant and had a BMI of 32 before her pregnancy.
What is the threshold level of fasting plasma glucose for diagnosing gestational diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7.8
Explanation:Diagnosing Gestational Diabetes
For pregnant women, a fasting glucose level of 5.6 mmol/l or above is the threshold for diagnosing gestational diabetes. This differs from the threshold level for diagnosing diabetes in non-pregnant individuals, which is 7 mmol/l. If an oral glucose tolerance test is performed, a level of 7.8 mmol/l or above represents gestational diabetes. It is important to be familiar with the risk factors for gestational diabetes, what to do if a pregnant woman tests positive for glucose on urine dip, and the values that represent gestational diabetes for both fasting samples and glucose tolerance tests. This information is frequently tested in exams and is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of gestational diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man with motor neuron disease. He mentions that he intends to travel to Switzerland for euthanasia if his condition worsens. What would be your initial response?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss his fears about the terminal phase
Explanation:In recent years, the issue of assisted suicide has gained relevance as UK patients have been travelling to Switzerland ‘Dignitas’ clinic. However, aiding someone to commit suicide is currently illegal. As a healthcare professional, it is important to address the patient’s fears about the terminal phase and discuss the advancements in palliative care. It may also be helpful for the patient to speak with others who have gone through similar experiences for reassurance. If the patient still insists on travelling to Switzerland, it is necessary to inform them of the legal implications of aiding suicide by providing information about appropriate clinics. It is important to note that the ‘double-effect’ principle only applies to accepting the side-effects of pain relief and not to intentionally hastening death. Implying otherwise is inappropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia comes to the clinic with his father after being discharged from an acute inpatient psychiatry unit. He needs a refill of his quetiapine prescription, but his father is worried about his son's ability to drive and wants to know the legal requirements.
What guidance should be provided in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not drive for 3 months, notify the DVLA, follow-up with psychiatrist
Explanation:After recovering from an acute exacerbation of schizophrenia, patients must refrain from driving and inform the DVLA. They can resume driving after being stable and well for three months and obtaining a suitable report from their psychiatrist. It is not necessary for the doctor to inform the DVLA, and patients should be encouraged to do so themselves. A six-month period of not driving is excessive, and patients should still inform the DVLA and follow up with their psychiatrist.
The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant.
What factor is most likely to make you ask her to defer her pregnancy at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HbA1c 80 mmol/mol
Explanation:Managing Diabetes in Pregnancy: Key Considerations
Pregnancy in women with type 1 diabetes is associated with increased risks of congenital abnormalities, neonatal morbidity and mortality, and operative delivery rates. However, pre-pregnancy counselling and achieving near-normal levels of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) can improve pregnancy outcomes. While microalbuminuria and background retinopathy may not be contraindications to pregnancy, regular monitoring and prompt referral to specialists are necessary to prevent progression of these complications. Sensory neuropathy may cause severe vomiting due to gastroparesis, but it is not a contraindication to pregnancy. Additionally, women with diabetes should take 5 mg folic acid daily pre-pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Good diabetic control remains the most important factor in managing diabetes in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old is being initiated on insulin therapy to control his diabetes as his HbA1c levels have been consistently high. He had experienced hypoglycemia four years ago. Additionally, he is taking fluoxetine and atorvastatin. He asks if he can drive to visit his parents.
What would be the appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He must take breaks every 2 hours to check his blood glucose
Explanation:Insulin-dependent diabetics are required to take breaks every 2 hours to check their blood glucose while driving. They must also have hypoglycemia awareness, no severe hypos in the past year, and no visual impairment. It is important to inform the DVLA of their condition. They can still drive a car, but with additional precautions.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice
Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.
On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of atypical stress fractures in the proximal femoral shaft?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:An elevated risk of atypical stress fractures is linked to the use of bisphosphonates.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father who is concerned about a rash that appeared after a recent fever, as she was recovering.
During the examination, you observe numerous pink-red papules and macules (2-5 mm in size) spread across the trunk, which disappear when pressed. The child seems unaffected by them and appears healthy with regular vital signs.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Roseola
Explanation:Roseola infantum, also known as ‘sixth disease’, is a common illness among children aged 6 months to 2 years. It is characterized by a fever followed by a non-itchy, painless, maculopapular rash that typically affects the trunk. Febrile seizures are also common. The rash usually lasts for about 2 days and doesn’t blister. Roseola is caused by the human herpesvirus type 6B or 7, and no treatment is required. Long-term complications are rare.
Chickenpox, on the other hand, would cause a very itchy rash with blistering lesions that eventually scab over. Hand, foot and mouth disease would typically affect the limbs and mouth, rather than the trunk. Measles would start from the face and spread down to the limbs, and the fever would not subside with the appearance of the rash. Rubella would cause a rash that starts from the face and disappears after 3 days. These characteristics make these illnesses less likely diagnoses in this case.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.
The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.
While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A cohort study is being designed to investigate the association between smoking and breast cancer. What is the typical measure of outcome in a cohort study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relative risk
Explanation:The relative risk is typically the outcome measure used in cohort studies.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine
Explanation:If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has previously been diagnosed with distal colitis and proctitis. He is not currently taking any medication. He has been symptom-free but now reports a recurrence of his diarrhea.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine foam enema
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the colon and rectum. In mild-to-moderate cases, the recommended initial treatment is local application of an aminosalicylate, such as mesalazine foam enema. Corticosteroid enema or suppositories are alternatives but are less effective.
If there is no response to local treatment, oral mesalazine can be added. However, oral therapy alone with mesalazine is less effective than topical treatment for milder acute exacerbations of inflammatory bowel disease (proctitis). More severe exacerbations require oral steroids.
For adults with a mild to moderate first presentation or inflammatory exacerbation of left-sided or extensive ulcerative colitis, oral mesalazine is the first line choice to induce remission. Topical mesalazine or oral beclomethasone dipropionate may also be considered.
Managing Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis: Treatment Options and Recommendations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her forearm that has been there for 3 weeks. She mentions that she first noticed it after a minor injury to the area, and it has been growing rapidly since then. Upon examination, there is a 12mm raised, symmetrical nodule with a large keratinized center. The surrounding skin looks normal, and there are no other comparable lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratoacanthoma
Explanation:Understanding Keratoacanthoma
Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in younger people. The appearance of this tumor is often described as a volcano or crater, starting as a smooth dome-shaped papule that rapidly grows into a central crater filled with keratin. While spontaneous regression within three months is common, it is important to have the lesion removed as it can be difficult to distinguish from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal can also prevent scarring. It is important to be aware of the features of keratoacanthoma and seek medical attention if any suspicious growths are noticed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a risk factor for sudden toddler death syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Female sex
Explanation:Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is more likely to occur in infants who sleep on their stomachs, have parents who smoke, share a bed with their parents, experience overheating or have their heads covered, and are born prematurely. Additionally, male infants are at a higher risk for SIDS than female infants.
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A woman presents 6 weeks postpartum following a normal vaginal delivery. She is Breastfeeding her son who is growing well along the 50th centile. She does however complain of intermittent severe bilateral nipple pain during feeding which persists for a few minutes afterwards. She has noticed her nipples turn very pale after feeds when the pain is present and occasional also a blueish colour. She has seen the local breastfeeding team who have observed her feeding and reassured that the infant’s latch is good. On examination of her breasts, they appear normal with no tenderness or nipple cracks evident. Her infant appears well with a normal tongue and no evidence of tongue tie.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raynaud’s disease of the nipple (vasospasm)
Explanation:Raynaud’s disease of the nipple can cause pain in women who are breastfeeding.
Symptoms of Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as nipple blanching followed by cyanosis and/or erythema. Pain subsides when the nipple returns to its normal color. Other possible causes of nipple pain, such as candidiasis or poor latch, should also be considered. Treatment options for Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs after feeding, avoiding caffeine, and quitting smoking. If symptoms persist, referral to a specialist for a trial of oral nifedipine may be necessary (although this is off-license).
Option one is the correct answer, as the clinical history is consistent with Raynaud’s disease of the nipple. Option two is incorrect, as pain would be more localized and may be accompanied by a white spot or tenderness. Option three is also incorrect, as pain is usually more generalized and occurs during the first few minutes of feeding. Option four is incorrect, as an infection would likely present with purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Option five is also incorrect, as an eczematous rash would likely be present with itching and dry, scaly patches.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man who works as a teacher and is generally healthy asks about getting the flu shot. Can you confirm if he is eligible for it on the NHS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 35-year-old woman on metformin for type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Familiarizing oneself with vaccine eligibility is crucial.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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After sending several invitations, 58-year-old Mrs. Johnson attends the clinic for her medication review. She has not been to the clinic for over a year due to her busy work schedule. Mrs. Johnson is currently taking allopurinol 200 mg, candesartan 8mg, indapamide 2.5mg, omeprazole 20 mg, and salbutamol inhaler as required.
During her visit, her blood pressure is measured several times and is found to be 168/96 mmHg. Mrs. Johnson reports taking her medications almost every day, but her blood pressure is still high. As per NICE guidelines, which class of antihypertensive medication should be added to her current treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic, the recommended next step would be to add a calcium channel blocker. This is because adding another ACE inhibitor would not be appropriate, and beta-blockers may be contraindicated if the patient has asthma. Loop diuretics are not typically used as a treatment for hypertension.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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What is the highest ranked source of evidence in the hierarchy of evidence based medicine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meta-analysis
Explanation:Hierarchy of Evidence Grades
The strength of evidence provided by different study types is ranked in a hierarchy. This hierarchy is important to understand when making clinical decisions based on research. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) documents these evidence grades in Chapter 6 of their Guidelines manual (PMG6).
The strongest level of evidence is provided by meta-analyses, followed by randomized controlled trials (RCTs), controlled studies without randomization, quasi-experimental studies, non-experimental descriptive studies, and finally expert committee reports, opinions, and clinical experience.
It is crucial to consider the strength of evidence when interpreting research findings and applying them to clinical practice. By understanding the hierarchy of evidence grades, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions that are based on the most reliable and robust evidence available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman comes in for her annual medication review. She was diagnosed with hypothyroidism a few years ago and is taking thyroxine. She recently had her thyroid function tested and her results show a free T4 level of 29 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-25) and a TSH level of 12 mU/L (0.5-6.0). What is the reason for her abnormal results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Under-replacement of thyroxine
Explanation:Understanding Abnormal Thyroid Function Tests
In this case, a patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed thyroxine replacement, but her latest blood tests show elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4). Abnormal hormone binding due to pregnancy or drugs like amiodarone can cause raised T4 with normal TSH. Sick euthyroidism can cause low T4, T3, and TSH, but it should revert to normal after recovery from non-thyroidal illness. Subacute thyroiditis causes hyperthyroidism, painful goitre, and high ESR, but it is self-limiting. Under-replacement of thyroxine causes high TSH and low T4.
The correct answer in this case is medication non-compliance, which is the only option that can account for the test results. Patients may start taking their thyroxine again before testing to avoid showing irregular dosing. Erratic thyroxine dosing causes elevated TSH due to under-replacement, but recent use of thyroxine causes normal to high T4. Understanding the various causes of abnormal thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with hypogonadism and infertility. He had a normal puberty and there is no significant family history. On physical examination, he has gynaecomastia, small testes, and is tall. His sense of smell is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Syndromes and Their Characteristics
Klinefelter Syndrome: The Most Common Sex-Chromosome Abnormality
Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra X chromosome (XXY) due to non-disjunction. It is the most common sex-chromosome abnormality, affecting 1 in 600 male births. Men with Klinefelter syndrome tend to be tall and may have mild learning difficulties, although many have normal intellect. This syndrome is also the most common cause of male hypogonadism and infertility.
Fragile X Syndrome: A Learning Disability Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both sexes. In males, it is associated with macro-orchidism, but not hypogonadism or infertility. Females with Fragile X syndrome may experience premature ovarian failure. People with this syndrome have moderate-to-severe learning disabilities and average height.
Kallmann Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism
Kallmann syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, where levels of luteinising hormone and follicular stimulating hormone are low. It has several inheritance patterns, including dominant, recessive, and X-linked. People with Kallmann syndrome fail to go through puberty and are usually infertile. They also have anosmia, but most have normal or above normal height.
Marfan Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Tall Stature
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes people to be tall and thin with long arms and legs compared to their trunk. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility, and intelligence is normal.
XYY Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder
XYY syndrome is a rare genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra Y chromosome in males due to non-disjunction. Symptoms are few but may include being tall, having acne, and a risk of learning difficulty. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show:
- Sodium: 146 mmol/L
- Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
- Bicarbonate: 34 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 78 µmol/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.
The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 68-year old woman with type 2 diabetes attends annual review at the GP practice. She currently takes lisinopril 10 mg OM, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, metformin 1 g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OM and gliclazide 80 mg OM.
You discuss her progress and she tells you that she has episodes in the late morning where she feels generally out of sorts with lightheadedness and has had some blurred vision. She has checked her blood sugar during one of these episodes and it is 2.5 mmol/L (3-6).
Which one of her medicines is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:Understanding the Cause of Hypoglycaemic Episodes
This patient is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea medication. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can lead to significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with these medications. The ACE inhibitor or statin would not be a factor in this presentation.
Gliclazide is a good choice of sulphonylurea as it is often the longer acting agents such as glibenclamide that cause more profound and severe problems with hypoglycaemia. However, it is important to note that all sulphonylureas carry the risk of hypoglycaemia. Understanding the cause of hypoglycaemic episodes is crucial in managing diabetes and ensuring the safety of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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You visit Max, an 85-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease, hip osteoarthritis, and prostate cancer. He claims to be doing well, but his wife is worried because he has been unable to walk today. Upon examination while he is lying on his couch, you observe that he has decreased sensation on both sides and reduced strength (3/5 in both hips). There are no apparent injuries or traumas. He doesn't have any bowel or bladder issues. What is the proper course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit immediately
Explanation:The patient’s history is concerning for suspected metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) due to the bilateral loss of power and inability to walk. It is important to consider common cancers that typically spread to the bone, such as prostate, breast, lung, kidney, and thyroid cancers.
According to NICE guidance, urgent discussion with the local MSCC coordinator is necessary within 24 hours if a patient with a history of cancer experiences pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe and unrelenting lower spinal pain, spinal pain worsened by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain that prevents sleep. Immediate discussion with the local MSCC coordinator is necessary if a patient with known cancer experiences neurological symptoms such as radicular pain, limb weakness, difficulty walking, sensory loss, or bladder or bowel dysfunction, or neurological signs of spinal cord or cauda equina compression.
It is important to note that MSCC can be the initial presentation of cancer, so it should be considered as a differential diagnosis when seeing all patients, even if there is no previous history of cancer.
Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.
Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the treatment that she takes for her asthma. You think that this is largely because she has impaired hearing.
In general terms, which of the following strategies is most likely to help?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Minimising background noise
Explanation:Communicating with Deaf and Hard-of-Hearing Patients
When communicating with deaf and hard-of-hearing patients, it is important to minimise background noise and speak clearly at a normal or near normal rate. Non-verbal communication can also be helpful, as well as decreasing the pitch of your voice. Shouting should never be used, as it can be unpleasant and appear rude. Instead, use the patient’s name to get their attention and ask if they can hear you. Face them when speaking, as many deaf people use lip-reading to supplement their hearing aid(s) and what hearing they have. Remember that clear and polite communication is appreciated by the deaf and hard of hearing community.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 82
Incorrect
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Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular system. Among the following conditions, which is the LEAST likely to be associated with excessive alcohol consumption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Alcohol Abuse and Cardiovascular Problems: Effects and Risks
Alcohol abuse can lead to various cardiovascular problems, including atrial fibrillation, hypertension, strokes, and cardiomyopathy with heart failure. Additionally, infective endocarditis is more common in those who abuse alcohol. However, it is interesting to note that mild to moderate alcohol consumption, particularly in the form of wine and beer, which are rich in polyphenols, may actually have cardiovascular protective effects. This is true for both individuals with existing cardiovascular disease and healthy individuals. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with alcohol abuse, but also to consider the potential benefits of moderate alcohol consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A new anti-epileptic drug is being tested for adolescents with absence seizures. The control group consists of 300 adolescents while 200 adolescents are given the new drug. After 6 months, 80 adolescents in the control group had a seizure while only 10 adolescents in the group taking the new medication had a seizure. What is the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A nervous 19-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner. She asks for cervical screening due to a family friend's recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. She is currently on her third day of her period and has regular menstrual cycles. She has noticed more vaginal discharge and occasional bleeding after sex in the past two weeks. There is no significant family history. What is the best course of action to take at this point in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Speculum examination + STI Screening
Explanation:Women under the age of 25 years cannot receive cervical screening. Before considering referral to colposcopy, other possible causes should be ruled out first.
As she is currently on day 2 of her menstrual period, pregnancy is unlikely. Given her new boyfriend and symptoms of increased vaginal discharge and occasional post-coital bleeding, a speculum examination and STI screening would be the most appropriate course of action.
While cervical screening is not typically offered to women under 25, if the patient’s history strongly suggests cervical cancer and other possibilities have been eliminated, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.
Although cervical cancer is rare in young women, it is still important to investigate the cause of her symptoms.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A sixty-two-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes contacts the clinic for advice and is connected to you as the on-call Doctor. He is experiencing a diarrhoeal illness and has been feeling unwell for the past 24 hours with fever, loose stools, and generalised myalgia. He vomited twice yesterday but hasn't vomited for the last 12 hours and has been able to drink adequate fluids and has eaten some small snacks containing carbohydrate. His diabetes is managed with twice daily mixed insulin at a total dose of 18 units BD. He has been monitoring his blood glucose every 4 hours and has reached out to you as his blood sugar has risen to 20 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate advice to give him in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No change to his insulin dose is needed as long as he continues to not vomit and be able to drink and eat snacks. He should continue to check his blood sugar every 4 hours and contact the surgery for advice if his blood glucose is greater than 30 mmol/L
Explanation:Counselling a Diabetic on Insulin Management When Unwell
A key aspect of counselling a diabetic who has been started on insulin is to educate them on what to do if they become unwell. For type 2 diabetics, it is recommended that they check their blood glucose levels at least every 4 hours when feeling unwell.
A useful resource to refer to when advising patients in this situation is the TREND UK guideline. This guideline provides a clear algorithm for managing blood glucose levels when a patient is unwell. According to the guideline, if the patient’s blood glucose level is less than 13 mmol/L, they should take insulin as normal. However, if the level is greater than 13 mmol/L, insulin adjustment is necessary.
By following the algorithm provided in the TREND UK guideline, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the patient’s insulin dosage and blood glucose levels. For instance, if the patient requires an additional 4 units of insulin added to each dose, this can be easily determined by following the algorithm. Additionally, the patient should continue to monitor their blood glucose levels every 4 hours to ensure that their insulin management is effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic with a neck lump that has been present for four weeks. He first noticed the lump when he was buttoning up his shirt collar. He often entertains clients as part of his job but has been unable to drink alcohol for the past few weeks due to pain in the area of the lump. He also reports recent weight loss and night sweats. During the examination, his vital signs are normal, and a 5cm rubbery, firm supraclavicular lymph node is palpable. The chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft and non-tender. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of action according to NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral (within 2 weeks) for specialist assessment
Explanation:If an adult presents with unexplained lymphadenopathy, it is recommended to consider referral for Hodgkin’s lymphoma within 2 weeks. The decision to refer should take into account any associated symptoms, such as fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, pruritus, weight loss, or alcohol-induced lymph node pain. This referral is specific to Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.
The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.
When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.
In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding Local Medical Committees (LMC) is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LMC members include GP Registrars
Explanation:Local Medical Committees: Representing the Interests of GPs
Local Medical Committees (LMCs) were established in 1911 as part of Lloyd George’s National Insurance Act to ensure that GPs had a say in the government’s health insurance scheme. LMCs represent the interests of GPs on a local level, while a committee within the British Medical Association (BMA) represents GPs on a national level to the government. This committee, now called the General Practitioners Committee (GPC), has the authority to negotiate with the government on matters such as pay and contracts and is recognised by the Department of Health as the GP’s sole negotiating body.
LMCs are funded by a statutory levy on GPs and may cover the area which corresponds to one or more Clinical Commissioning Groups. LMC members are elected and include partners, salaried doctors, and GP Registrars from both GMS and PMS practices. The GPC meets annually with the representatives of the LMCs, who may submit motions for the conference. These motions may then go on to form GPC policy.
Overall, LMCs play an important role in representing the interests of GPs on a local level and ensuring that their voices are heard in the government’s decision-making processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with a pigmented skin lesion. His partner urged him to come and see you as she noticed that the lesion has recently changed and grown in size. There is no history of inflammation, oozing or change in sensation.
On examination, there is a 9 mm diameter pigmented skin lesion on his back. The lesion is asymmetrical with an irregular notched border, it is evenly pigmented.
Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by NICE for evaluating pigmented skin lesions, what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Referral for Suspected Cancer
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the ‘7-point weighted checklist’ to evaluate pigmented skin lesions for potential cancer. The checklist includes major features such as changes in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, which score 2 points each, and minor features such as largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing, and change in sensation, which score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation. However, clinicians should always refer lesions they strongly suspect to be cancerous, even if the score is less than 3. For example, a lesion with a score of 5 due to change in size, irregular shape, and a diameter of 9 mm would warrant referral for further evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings
Explanation:Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies
Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.Peanut Allergy:
Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.Allergic Rhinitis:
Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.Chronic Urticaria:
Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old female presents with complaints of irregular periods, bothersome hot flashes, and mood swings for the past six months. She is interested in trying hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and has no contraindications. Her mother has a history of unprovoked DVT, but she has never experienced it. Which HRT preparation would be most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transdermal combined sequential preparation
Explanation:The recommended hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for this patient is a transdermal, combined sequential preparation. This is because she has erratic periods, indicating an intact uterus that requires protection of the endometrium with both oestrogen and progesterone. Therefore, an oestrogen-only HRT is not suitable.
Using a Mirena coil, which releases levonorgestrel into the uterus, is unlikely to alleviate the emotional lability and hot flashes associated with menopause. Additionally, using it alone without an oestrogen component is not an option for this patient. As she is still having periods at the age of 49, a sequential preparation is more appropriate than a continuous one, which is typically used after menopause.
Given the patient’s family history of unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a transdermal preparation may be preferable as it significantly reduces the risk of venous thromboembolism associated with HRT.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has developed symmetrical synovitis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet. This has persisted for eight weeks. She has returned to her General Practitioner (GP) to discuss her test results. Her C-reactive protein is slightly elevated but her test for rheumatoid factor is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option in primary care in addition to analgesia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology
Explanation:The Importance of Urgent Referral to Rheumatology for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis
Suspected rheumatoid arthritis requires urgent referral to a rheumatologist to prevent irreversible joint damage. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends immediate referral as there is no specific diagnostic test for rheumatoid arthritis, and delaying treatment can lead to joint deformity and pain. Corticosteroids and DMARDs such as sulfasalazine are effective treatments, but should only be prescribed by a specialist. Repeat testing is not recommended as rheumatoid factors can be negative in a significant number of cases. Early referral to rheumatology is crucial for managing suspected rheumatoid arthritis and preventing long-term disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about tuning fork tests used for hearing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A false negative Rinne occurs in conductive deafness
Explanation:Tuning Forks for Hearing and Vibration Testing
A tuning fork is a useful tool for testing both hearing and vibration. However, not all tuning forks are created equal. A 128 tuning fork is suitable for testing vibration, but it is not reliable for hearing. For hearing tests, the 512 cps fork is the best option, although a compromise frequency of 256 can also be used. It’s important to note that compromise frequencies are less effective for both hearing and vibration.
When conducting lateralizing tests, the Weber test is commonly used. However, it is less reliable than the Rinne test. False negative Rinne results can occur in cases of sensorineural deafness. Therefore, it’s important to choose the appropriate tuning fork for the specific test being conducted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A study looks at the risk of myocardial infarction in 2 groups of patients with different ages. There are 1000 patients in the group aged 50 and above, and 1000 in the group aged below 50. In the group aged below 50, there were 20 myocardial infarctions, while in the group aged 50 and above there were 80 myocardial infarctions.
Select from the list the risk of a myocardial infarction in the group aged below 50.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.2
Explanation:Understanding Risk: Calculating the Proportion of Patients Developing a Condition
Risk is a term used to describe the likelihood of an event occurring. In the context of healthcare, risk is often used to calculate the proportion of patients who develop a specific condition. For example, if 200 out of 1000 patients develop a certain condition, the risk of that condition is 0.2 or 20%. Understanding risk is important in healthcare as it helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options and preventative measures. By calculating the risk of a particular condition, healthcare providers can identify patients who may be at higher risk and take steps to mitigate that risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A study is being conducted on 35-45 years healthy male volunteers to establish a causal link between smoking and colorectal cancer. All participants are required to log their consumption in order to stratify participants according to overall exposure. The study investigators will perform a colonoscopy on all study participants to investigate for the presence of colorectal cancer every 10 years.
What type of study is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prospective cohort study
Explanation:Prospective cohort studies observe individuals before they are exposed to risk factors, while retrospective cohort studies analyze individuals who have already been exposed to risk factors.
Prospective cohort studies track individuals who do not have a disease but may be exposed to risk factors, and then monitor them for the development of the disease.
Case-control studies examine individuals who have a disease and compare their exposures to those who do not have the disease.
Cross-sectional studies evaluate diseases and exposures at a single point in time.
Crossover studies involve participants who are assigned to either a placebo or treatment group and then switch after a certain period of time.
Retrospective cohort studies are conducted after both the exposure and disease have already occurred.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy which she has taken since her periods stopped three years ago. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:
Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 3 cm simple ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Explanation:Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.
When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.
For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.
Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has advanced ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases and ascites. She is experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic and constipation. During examination, her General Practitioner notes hyperactive bowel sounds. Which treatment option is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:The woman in question is likely suffering from intestinal obstruction, a condition that affects 3% of all cancer patients and up to 25% of those with advanced ovarian cancer. This can be caused by peristaltic failure due to opioid drugs or nerve damage, or by mechanical factors such as bowel wall infiltration, compression, or constipation. The presence of painful colic and hyperactive bowel sounds suggests a mechanical obstruction. To address her nausea and vomiting, a sequence of subcutaneous infusions of cyclizine, haloperidol, and levomepromazine may be tried until the most effective agent is found. However, stimulant laxatives like senna should be avoided due to the patient’s colic, and all oral laxatives should be stopped if there is complete obstruction. Bisacodyl, another stimulant laxative, should also be avoided in patients with colic, with sodium docusate being the preferred laxative for constipation. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is the drug of choice for functional obstruction but is contraindicated in the presence of colic and mechanical obstruction. For pain relief, continuous subcutaneous morphine/diamorphine or a fentanyl patch may be used, but the patient would benefit more from an antiemetic and addressing the underlying cause if possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady who you have looked after during her recent breast cancer diagnosis and treatment comes to see you one year after undergoing a total mastectomy followed by chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
Her disease is now in remission and she is taking tamoxifen. She has a history of a perforated duodenal ulcer and has had bouts of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She complains of feeling very tearful and low in mood, and feels traumatised by her experiences. She is also having some chest wall neuropathic type pain, probably due to the radiotherapy. A PHQ9 depression questionnaire confirms that she is suffering from moderately severe depression.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptylline
Explanation:Treatment for Depression in a Patient with Previous Medical History
When treating a patient with depression who has a previous medical history, it is important to consider potential drug interactions and contraindications. In the case of a patient with a history of gastric bleeding and atrial fibrillation, SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided due to their associated risks. Fluoxetine should also not be prescribed as it reduces the efficacy of tamoxifen.
Instead, the best course of action would be to offer an antidepressant and a high-intensity psychological intervention. This approach addresses the patient’s mood problems stemming from her experiences during diagnosis and treatment, while also avoiding potential harm from medication. It is important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain in this case would be off license and carries a higher risk of arrhythmias.
In summary, when treating depression in a patient with a previous medical history, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of medication options and to include psychological intervention as part of the treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby boy. For the last two days, she has been feeling irritable, tearful, and anxious and she has been struggling to get to sleep. She has no medical or psychiatric history. Her husband and mother are at home with her.
Which is the single most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Organise a review in the perinatal psychiatry clinic
Explanation:Baby Blues vs Postnatal Depression
Mood disturbance in the first ten days after labour is a common and usually self-limiting condition known as ‘baby blues’. While it may not require medical intervention, health visitors can offer practical support and advice to new mothers. However, if the condition persists beyond the first ten days and becomes more severe, a diagnosis of postnatal depression may be considered. In such cases, an antidepressant or psychological therapy may be suitable. Perinatal psychiatry services are generally reserved for more severe mental conditions, and there are no features in this case that suggest a psychiatric emergency. It is important to differentiate between baby blues and postnatal depression, and an awareness of the latter is required under two areas of the RCGP curriculum (3.06 and 3.10).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on the pneumococcal vaccination. As per the current NICE CKS guidance, what would be your recommendation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise the patient she needs the pneumococcal vaccination every 5-years
Explanation:It is important to note that sickle cell patients require the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years, as per current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, advising them that they do not need this vaccination would be incorrect. This is because sickle cell patients, along with those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, and chronic renal disease, are likely to experience a rapid decline in antibody concentration. In contrast, patients with conditions such as chronic respiratory disease or diabetes mellitus may only require vaccination once in their lifetime.
Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.
In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy who is active in sports comes to you for consultation after seeing your colleague 4 weeks ago due to right knee pain. He plays basketball and had a fall during a game 6 weeks ago. Despite the initial consultation, his pain has not subsided and he experiences discomfort at night, which affects his sleep. During the examination, you detect a solid, immovable lump on his distal femur. What would be the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent XR of right knee (within 48 hours)
Explanation:When an adolescent experiences persistent night time pain and has a palpable bony mass, it is important to consider the possibility of a bone tumour until proven otherwise. The NICE guidelines for childhood cancer recommend obtaining an urgent X-ray within 48 hours for suspected sarcoma. Referring the patient to physiotherapy or providing reassurance is not appropriate as it doesn’t address the concerning symptoms. Ultrasound is not the most suitable imaging modality for bone pain and swelling. Urgent outpatient orthopaedic referral is also not the correct answer as it may cause delays in further investigation and management.
Types of Bone Tumours
Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.
Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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