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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of vomiting. She reports a concurrent headache that has been present for the same duration. She had previously experienced a runny nose, sore throat, and myalgia for a few days, but did not seek medical attention at that time.

      Upon further questioning, she reveals that she works as a preschool teacher, where some children were recently diagnosed with hand, foot, and mouth disease. She has not had any sick contact besides this and has not traveled recently. She received all mandatory and recommended vaccinations as a child, as well as the annual flu shot.

      During the examination, nuchal rigidity is observed, but there is no associated rash. An abdominal examination is performed and is unremarkable. No neurological deficits are detected.

      At triage, her vital signs are recorded as a blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, pulse of 80 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.7ºC, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.

      What is the most probable causative organism for her condition?

      Your Answer: Enterovirus

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of this patient’s meningitis is enteroviruses, which are the most common viral meningitis in adults. The patient’s symptoms, including fever, headache, vomiting, and nuchal rigidity, along with a history of upper respiratory tract symptoms and contact with children with hand, foot, and mouth disease, support this diagnosis.

      Meningococcal meningitis, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, typically presents with a petechial rash on the trunk and legs, and patients may experience shock or sepsis. However, as the patient appears stable with no rash or significant travel or contact history, it is unlikely to be the cause of her symptoms.

      Mumps, caused by the mumps orthorubulavirus, typically presents with painful parotitis. However, the patient has received the MMR vaccination, which provides immunity to mumps.

      Cryptococcal meningitis, caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, is usually seen in immunocompromised patients, such as those with HIV. As the patient does not have any significant medical history indicating an immunocompromised state, it is less likely to be the cause of her symptoms.

      Viral meningitis is inflammation of the leptomeninges and cerebrospinal fluid caused by a viral agent. It is more common and less severe than bacterial meningitis. Risk factors include extremes of age and immunocompromised patients. Symptoms include headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, confusion, and fever. Diagnosis is confirmed through a lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid analysis. Treatment is supportive, and broad-spectrum antibiotics may be given if bacterial meningitis or encephalitis is suspected. Viral meningitis is generally self-limiting, and complications are rare in immunocompetent patients. acyclovir may be used if HSV is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 2 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to a pediatrician by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to a pediatrician by her mother due to a persistent runny nose and cough for the past six months. Despite being treated with antibiotics for an upper respiratory tract infection, the symptoms have not improved. During the examination, the pediatrician observes that the girl has frontal bossing, a flattened nasal bridge, and a protruding tongue. The child's growth is also below average, but there is no corneal clouding. Further investigation reveals low levels of iduronate sulfatase enzyme activity, confirming the diagnosis. The pediatrician informs the mother that this is a genetically inherited condition and that treatment will involve replacing the defective enzyme. What is the correct name of the condition that this girl is suffering from?

      Your Answer: This disease is only transmitted through the maternal line

      Correct Answer: This disease is transmitted by carrier mothers to half of their sons but not daughters

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a metabolic disease, specifically one of the lysosomal storage diseases such as Hurler syndrome or Hunter syndrome. Hurler syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and is characterized by corneal clouding due to low alpha-L-iduronidase activity. Hunter syndrome, on the other hand, does not involve corneal clouding and is diagnosed through low iduronate sulfatase activity.

      1: This transmission pattern is seen in mitochondrial myopathies, a group of genetically inherited diseases with a mitochondrial pattern of inheritance.
      2: Autosomal dominant diseases only require one affected parent to transmit the disease, examples include Huntington disease, Marfan syndrome, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis.
      3: X-linked dominant diseases are transmitted by affected mothers to half of their sons and daughters, but not by fathers. Examples include fragile X syndrome, Alport syndrome, and vitamin D-resistant rickets.
      4: X-linked recessive diseases are transmitted by carrier mothers to half of their sons, but not their daughters. Examples include Hunter syndrome, ocular albinism, G6PD deficiency, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
      5: Autosomal recessive diseases require both parents to be carriers of the defective gene for the disease to be transmitted. Examples include cystic fibrosis, Kartagener syndrome, sickle cell anemia, and Hunter syndrome.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

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  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old woman has recently come back from a camping trip in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman has recently come back from a camping trip in a US national park where she reports seeing numerous rabbits and raccoons, and even a rat. Upon returning, she visits her GP with complaints of painful lumps in her armpits. She also mentions feeling very unwell, having a headache, and experiencing a high temperature at home, which the GP measures at 39ºC. During questioning, she reveals getting several itchy bites while camping and experiencing muscle cramps and weakness, but no noticeable rash. What is the most probable causative agent?

      Your Answer: Wuchereria bancrofti

      Correct Answer: Yersinia pestis

      Explanation:

      The patient has returned from her trip and is showing signs of bubonic plague, which is caused by Yersinia pestis. The history reveals that she encountered rodents and experienced itchy bites, which could potentially be flea bites, the vector for Yersinia pestis. The presence of painful lumps in the axillae, high temperature, weakness, and muscle cramps are typical symptoms of bubonic plague.

      Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella henselae and is transmitted by cats. It causes swelling of the lymph nodes associated with cat scratches, not insect bites.

      Malaria, caused by Plasmodium falciparum, is characterized by high fever and weakness, but the patient did not travel to a malaria-endemic area.

      Elephantiasis, caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, is a parasitic roundworm transmitted by mosquitoes. It can present with general symptoms like fever, headache, and myalgia, and eventually lead to lymphatic dysfunction, but the patient did not travel to an at-risk area.

      Understanding Bubonic Plague

      Bubonic plague is the most common type of plague that affects humans. It is transmitted by fleas that carry the bacteria from rodents to humans through their bites. The disease can also spread from one infected person to another through aerosolized particles if it develops into pneumonic plague in the lungs. Bubonic plague is still present in many countries, and Yersinia pestis is the bacteria responsible for causing the disease.

      Symptoms of bubonic plague usually appear 3-7 days after exposure and include flu-like symptoms such as high fever, headache, and weakness. The lymph nodes in the affected area become inflamed, tense, and painful.

      Fortunately, treatment with antibiotics such as streptomycin can significantly reduce mortality rates from 60% to 15%.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding interferon? ...

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    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding interferon?

      Your Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Interferons

      Interferons are a type of cytokine that the body produces in response to viral infections and neoplasia. They are categorized based on the type of receptor they bind to and their cellular origin. IFN-alpha and IFN-beta bind to type 1 receptors, while IFN-gamma binds only to type 2 receptors.

      IFN-alpha is produced by leucocytes and has antiviral properties. It is commonly used to treat hepatitis B and C, Kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, and hairy cell leukemia. However, it can cause flu-like symptoms and depression as side effects.

      IFN-beta is produced by fibroblasts and also has antiviral properties. It is particularly useful in reducing the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.

      IFN-gamma is mainly produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells. It has weaker antiviral properties but plays a significant role in immunomodulation, particularly in macrophage activation. It may be beneficial in treating chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis.

      Understanding the different types of interferons and their functions can help in the development of targeted treatments for various diseases.

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  • Question 5 - A father brings his 3-year-old child to the pediatrician with a 3-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 3-year-old child to the pediatrician with a 3-week history of perianal itching that is not improving. The father mentions that the itching seems to be more severe at night. He is worried because his older son, who shares a room with the affected child, has also started experiencing similar symptoms in the past few days.

      What organism is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Echinococcus granulosus

      Correct Answer: Enterobius vermicularis

      Explanation:

      A 3-year-old child is experiencing perianal itching, especially at night, which may be caused by Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm). This condition is usually asymptomatic, but the itching can be bothersome. Diagnosis involves applying sticky tape to the perianal area and sending it to the lab for analysis.

      Clonorchis sinensis infection is caused by eating undercooked fish and can lead to biliary tract obstruction, resulting in symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and jaundice. It is also a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma.

      Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is commonly found in farmers who keep sheep. Dogs can become infected by ingesting hydatid cysts from sheep, and the eggs are then spread through their feces. Patients may not experience symptoms for a long time, but they may eventually develop abdominal discomfort and nausea. A liver ultrasound scan can reveal the presence of hepatic cysts.

      Taenia solium is another type of tapeworm that is often transmitted through the consumption of undercooked pork. It can cause neurological symptoms and brain lesions that appear as a swiss cheese pattern on imaging.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman had undergone bilateral breast augmentation surgery several years ago. Recently,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman had undergone bilateral breast augmentation surgery several years ago. Recently, she has been experiencing discomfort and tension in her breasts, leading to the removal of the implants. During the procedure, the surgeon discovered a dense membrane surrounding the implants with a coarse granular appearance. The tissue was sent for histology, which revealed fibrosis with the presence of calcification. What is the underlying process responsible for these changes? Is it hyperplasia, dysplasia, metastatic calcification, dystrophic calcification, or necrosis? It is important to note that breast implants can often develop a pseudocapsule, which may undergo dystrophic calcification over time.

      Your Answer: Dysplasia

      Correct Answer: Dystrophic calcification

      Explanation:

      Breast implants can develop a pseudocapsule around them, which may eventually undergo dystrophic calcification.

      Types of Pathological Calcification

      Pathological calcification refers to the abnormal deposition of calcium in tissues. There are two types of pathological calcification: dystrophic and metastatic. Dystrophic calcification occurs when calcium deposits accumulate in tissues that have undergone degeneration, damage, or disease, even when serum calcium levels are normal. On the other hand, metastatic calcification occurs when calcium deposits accumulate in otherwise normal tissues due to increased serum calcium levels.

      In dystrophic calcification, the calcium deposits are a result of tissue damage or disease, which triggers an inflammatory response. This response leads to the release of cytokines and other molecules that attract calcium to the affected area. In metastatic calcification, the increased serum calcium levels can be caused by various factors such as hyperparathyroidism, renal failure, or vitamin D toxicity. The excess calcium then accumulates in tissues that are not normally prone to calcification, such as the kidneys, lungs, and blood vessels.

      Understanding the different types of pathological calcification is important in diagnosing and treating various diseases. Dystrophic calcification can occur in a variety of conditions, including atherosclerosis, arthritis, and cancer. Metastatic calcification, on the other hand, is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease or hyperparathyroidism. By identifying the type of calcification present, healthcare professionals can better manage and treat the underlying condition.

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  • Question 7 - A 47-year-old patient visits his doctor complaining of a cough, fever and coryzal...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient visits his doctor complaining of a cough, fever and coryzal symptoms. The doctor notes a temperature of 38.1ºC. What is the primary effector responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IL-1

      Explanation:

      IL-1 is primarily responsible for inducing fever, which is likely the cause of the patient’s fever in the context of an upper respiratory tract infection. This cytokine is produced by macrophages as part of the acute inflammatory response. Other cytokines, such as IL-5 and IL-8, have different functions, such as eosinophil activation and neutrophil chemotaxis, respectively. However, they are not the main effector responsible for the fever in this case. Additionally, von Willebrand factor is a blood glycoprotein that plays a crucial role in primary and secondary haemostasis.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 8 - In a normal distribution, what percentage of individuals are within 3 standard deviations...

    Incorrect

    • In a normal distribution, what percentage of individuals are within 3 standard deviations of the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 99.7%

      Explanation:

      The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old patient is undergoing anaesthesia for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The anaesthetist administers...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is undergoing anaesthesia for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The anaesthetist administers suxamethonium to induce temporary paralysis before administering longer acting anaesthetics.

      What is a known negative outcome of suxamethonium administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Succinylcholine (suxamethonium) can lead to hyperkalemia, which is a potential adverse effect of this depolarising neuromuscular blocker. It is typically administered to induce temporary paralysis during general anaesthesia by binding to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and causing persistent depolarization of the motor end plate. Other possible side effects include malignant hyperthermia, hypotension, muscle pain, and rash. However, xerostomia or dry mouth is not a common side effect of succinylcholine as it actually increases saliva production.

      Understanding Neuromuscular Blocking Drugs

      Neuromuscular blocking drugs are commonly used in surgical procedures as an adjunct to anaesthetic agents. These drugs cause muscle paralysis, which is necessary for mechanical ventilation. There are two types of neuromuscular blocking drugs: depolarizing and non-depolarizing.

      Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs, such as succinylcholine, bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate. On the other hand, non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs, such as tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, and pancuronium, are competitive antagonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.

      While these drugs are effective in inducing muscle paralysis, they can also cause adverse effects. Malignant hyperthermia and hypotension are some of the possible side effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs. However, these effects are usually transient and can be reversed with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like neostigmine.

      It is important to note that succinylcholine is the muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction for intubation. However, it is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as it increases intra-ocular pressure. Additionally, it may cause fasciculations.

      In summary, neuromuscular blocking drugs are essential in surgical procedures that require muscle paralysis. Understanding the different types, mechanisms of action, adverse effects, and contraindications of these drugs is crucial in ensuring patient safety and successful surgical outcomes.

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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man presents with an acute paronychia that progresses to sepsis. Why...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with an acute paronychia that progresses to sepsis. Why does the tissue exudate have a higher protein content compared to normal tissue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capillary walls are more permeable

      Explanation:

      Plasma proteins are able to exude due to the heightened permeability.

      Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.

      The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.

      Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.

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  • Question 11 - You have been asked to prepare a presentation for the geriatric journal club...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to prepare a presentation for the geriatric journal club on a novel drug in the treatment of osteoporosis.

      You find a relevant recent systematic review and meta-analysis which combines data from multiple randomized controlled trials investigating the effectiveness of the novel drug on bone mineral density in elderly patients with osteoporosis.

      A figure in the meta-analysis shows each study as a dot on a plot where the x-axis represents the effect size for each study and the y-axis is the standard error of the effect size for each study.

      What is the name of the figure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A forest plot is a graphical representation of the results of multiple studies on a particular topic. It displays the effect size and confidence intervals for each study, with a diamond at the bottom indicating the average effect size. On the other hand, a Kaplan-Meier curve is a visual representation of a survival function, showing the probability of an event occurring at a given time. The y-axis typically represents the probability of survival, while the x-axis represents time.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman presents with similar symptoms as the previous case. She complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with similar symptoms as the previous case. She complains of shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and haemoptysis. Her vital signs are heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 110/65 mmHg, oxygen saturation 93% on room air, and respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute. A CT pulmonary angiography is ordered.

      During the procedure, the patient's blood pressure drops to 80/50 mmHg, and she develops swollen lips and hives on her skin. The on-call physician administers IM adrenaline.

      What is the purpose of the medication given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acts on alpha-adrenergic receptors and causes vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be treated with a combination of medications, including 1:1000 adrenaline, hydrocortisone, and chlorphenamine. Adrenaline should be administered immediately upon diagnosis as it acts on alpha-adrenergic receptors and causes vasoconstriction, which can help alleviate symptoms.

      While hydrocortisone is also used in anaphylaxis, it takes time to work as it reduces the number of mast cells. Therefore, the administration of adrenaline should not be delayed due to hydrocortisone. Similarly, chlorphenamine is effective in treating anaphylaxis but should not delay the administration of adrenaline.

      It is important to note that fluids are typically used to increase intravascular volume in hypovolemic shock, but in this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest anaphylaxis rather than hypovolemia.

      Lastly, it is worth noting that while the patient is suspected to have a pulmonary embolism, adrenaline was not given as a thrombolytic agent but rather to treat the anaphylaxis.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 13 - A teenage girl is hospitalized for a gynaecological infection and is given a...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is hospitalized for a gynaecological infection and is given a prescription for a cephalosporin antibiotic. Can you explain the mechanism of action for this class of antibiotics and its related categories?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics involves the inhibition of cell wall synthesis. Cephalosporins, along with penicillins and carbapenems, belong to this class of antibiotics. By preventing the production of peptido-glycan cell walls in bacteria, these antibiotics cause the death of the bacterial cells.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

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  • Question 14 - A patient who drinks alcohol wants to know by how many years drinking...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who drinks alcohol wants to know by how many years drinking will reduce his lifespan. You explain that it is not possible to determine this precisely for him but you can tell him what proportion of deaths in drinkers happen due to their alcohol consumption. Select the epidemiological term that describes this and its correct definition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      The rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group is known as the attributable risk. This measure helps determine the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that can be attributed to the exposure. On the other hand, relative risk compares the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group to that of the unexposed group. Lastly, the attributable proportion indicates the percentage of disease that could be eliminated in a population if the disease rate in the exposed group was reduced to that of the unexposed group.

      Understanding Disease Rates and Relative Risk

      Disease rates are measurements used to monitor and establish causation of diseases, as well as to evaluate interventions. These rates are calculated by comparing the number of individuals with a disease to the total population. The attributable risk is a measure of the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that were caused by the exposure. It is calculated by subtracting the rate of the disease in the unexposed group from the rate in the exposed group.

      The relative risk, also known as the risk ratio, is a measure of the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of the disease in the exposed group by the rate in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 indicates no difference between the two groups, while a relative risk of less than 1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, and a relative risk of greater than 1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group.

      The population attributable risk is a measure of the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It is calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group. Understanding these measures is important for evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and identifying risk factors for diseases.

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  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old Turkish woman comes to your clinic complaining of growing fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old Turkish woman comes to your clinic complaining of growing fatigue and exhaustion. During the clinical examination, you observe pale conjunctiva and peripheral cyanosis. Her complete blood count and haematinics indicate iron deficiency anaemia. You prescribe a course of ferrous fumarate (iron supplement) and advise her to steer clear of certain things that could hinder its absorption. What is one of the things you tell her to avoid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tea

      Explanation:

      The absorption of iron in the intestine may be reduced by tannin, which is present in tea.

      Iron is abundant in fava beans.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 16 - A team of pediatricians are gathering for a conference. The caterer in charge...

    Incorrect

    • A team of pediatricians are gathering for a conference. The caterer in charge of preparing the snacks has a cut on their hand. Roughly 30 minutes after consuming the snacks, the team experiences intense nausea. What is the probable cause for this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of enterotoxin from Staphylococcus aureus in the food

      Explanation:

      The release of an enterotoxin by Staphylococcus aureus is characterized by preformed toxins that cause a quick onset of symptoms in those affected.

      Overview of Surgical Microbiology

      Surgical microbiology is a vast topic that covers various organisms causing common surgical infections. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive coccus that is a common cause of cutaneous infections and abscesses. It is ideally treated with penicillin, but many strains have become resistant through beta-lactamase production. Streptococcus pyogenes is a gram-positive bacteria that produces beta haemolysis on blood agar plates. It releases virulence factors into the host, resulting in rapid tissue destruction. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod that produces lethal toxins resulting in haemolytic-uraemic syndrome. It is resistant to many antibiotics used to treat gram-positive infections and acquires resistance rapidly. Campylobacter jejuni is a curved, gram-negative, non-sporulating bacteria that is one of the commonest causes of diarrhoea worldwide. Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative, helix-shaped rod that colonises the gastric antrum and irritates, resulting in increased gastrin release and higher levels of gastric acid.

      In summary, surgical microbiology covers a wide range of organisms that can cause infections. It is essential to understand the characteristics of these organisms to diagnose and treat infections effectively.

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  • Question 17 - A juvenile with cystic fibrosis also experiences malabsorption. What are some potential conditions...

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    • A juvenile with cystic fibrosis also experiences malabsorption. What are some potential conditions and outcomes for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin A deficiency and night blindness

      Explanation:

      Patients with cystic fibrosis experience a decrease in lipase secretion due to impaired pancreatic exocrine function, leading to inadequate absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K. One of the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency is night blindness. However, this scenario would not cause vitamin B12 deficiency or excess vitamin A. Vitamin D deficiency can result in osteomalacia, while vitamin K deficiency can lead to coagulopathy.

      Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.

      When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.

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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old businessman presents to the clinic with a history of fever, chills...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old businessman presents to the clinic with a history of fever, chills and a headache after returning from a business trip to Nigeria and the Democratic Republic of Congo. Previous studies have shown that 70% of patients who present with these symptoms and a travel history to Sub-Saharan Africa have Malaria.

      The rapid test for Malaria that you plan to use has a sensitivity of 92% and specificity of 98%.

      What is the positive likelihood ratio for the test result with the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 46

      Explanation:

      The likelihood ratio is a useful tool for determining the probability of a patient having a particular disease or condition. It is calculated by dividing the sensitivity of the test by the complement of the specificity. A higher likelihood ratio indicates a greater likelihood of the patient having the condition, while a lower likelihood ratio suggests that the patient is less likely to have the condition. The positive likelihood ratio indicates the change in odds of a positive diagnosis, while the negative likelihood ratio indicates the change in odds of a negative diagnosis.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 19 - A 79-year-old patient is being evaluated in a memory clinic for progressive memory...

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    • A 79-year-old patient is being evaluated in a memory clinic for progressive memory loss and behavioural alterations. The physician discusses the potential diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease and informs the patient that the root cause is a deficiency in the production of a specific neurotransmitter in the brain, called acetylcholine.

      As a medical student observing the consultation, you are prompted by the doctor to identify the location of acetylcholine synthesis in the central nervous system.

      What is the site of acetylcholine production in the brain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal nucleus of Meynert

      Explanation:

      The basal nucleus of Meynert is responsible for the synthesis of ACh in the central nervous system, while dopamine is synthesised in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area. It should be noted that although Alzheimer’s disease is associated with hippocampal atrophy, ACh is not produced in this region. Additionally, the thalamus is not involved in the production of ACh.

      Acetylcholine (ACh) is a crucial neurotransmitter in the somatic nervous system and plays a significant role in the autonomic nervous system. It is the primary neurotransmitter in all pre- and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons, all preganglionic sympathetic neurons, and postganglionic sympathetic fibers, including sudomotor neurons that regulate sweat glands. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. In conditions such as myasthenia gravis, where there is a deficiency of functioning acetylcholine receptors, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used.

      In the central nervous system, acetylcholine is synthesized in the basal nucleus of Meynert. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with decreased levels of acetylcholine in the basal nucleus of Meynert. Therefore, acetylcholine plays a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system, and its deficiency can lead to various neurological disorders.

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  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old girl is undergoing assessment for short stature. Her family has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is undergoing assessment for short stature. Her family has no history of bone disorders and they are immigrants. The child was breastfed exclusively until 7 months old and has been consuming a diverse diet of meats, fruits, and vegetables. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits. Upon physical examination, the child displays frontal bossing, dental enamel defects, and symmetrical, bead-like swelling of the costochondral junctions.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Rickets is caused by a lack of vitamin D

      Vitamin D can be obtained through diet or produced in the skin when exposed to sunlight. A daily intake of 600 IU of vitamin D is recommended.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

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  • Question 21 - A 63-year-old patient is undergoing treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy caused by long-term alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old patient is undergoing treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy caused by long-term alcohol abuse. The patient is currently being administered thiamine (vitamin B1) supplementation.

      What is the metabolic function of thiamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is important for sugar catabolism

      Explanation:

      Thiamine plays a crucial role in the breakdown of sugars and amino acids, making it essential for proper brain function. Chronic alcoholism can lead to a deficiency in thiamine, resulting in the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While other vitamins such as folate, vitamin C, vitamin B12, and vitamin E have important functions in the body, they are not directly related to the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy or thiamine deficiency.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia. She is prescribed iron supplements to be taken twice daily. However, after four weeks of treatment, she reports no improvement in her fatigue. Her blood tests reveal that her Hb levels have only increased from 95g/L to 101g/L, which is still below the normal range for females (115 - 160). Despite her menorrhagia improving with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills, and her adherence to her medication regimen (omeprazole for dyspepsia and sertraline for depression), her anaemia persists. What could be the most likely reason for this lack of improvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole is interacting with her iron tablets

      Explanation:

      According to NICE (2021), this patient should have experienced a rise in haemoglobin levels of 20g/L within 3-4 weeks of taking iron supplements. However, this has not been the case despite the patient adhering to the prescribed dosage. The possible reasons for this could be an increase in blood loss (although there is no evidence of this in the brief as the patient’s menorrhagia has improved) or poor absorption of the iron tablets. Among the options provided, only omeprazole would hinder iron absorption. This is because gastric acid aids in iron absorption, but omeprazole (and other proton-pump inhibitors) reduces gastric acid, leading to decreased iron absorption.

      Sertraline does not affect iron absorption and would not lead to poor absorption of iron.

      Taking iron tablets on an empty stomach is recommended as it enhances absorption. This is because an empty stomach leads to higher levels of gastric acid, which improves iron absorption. Additionally, an empty stomach means that certain food and drink components that can reduce iron absorption (such as milk or tannins) are absent.

      Taking iron with orange juice would not reduce absorption. Instead, it would increase absorption as orange juice contains vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill does not interfere with iron and would not produce these outcomes.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 23 - A 52-year-old woman presents with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhea that has been bothering her for the past 12 hours. She reports that birds have been repeatedly pecking at her milk bottles, but she has not made any changes to her diet. What is the most probable organism responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter is acknowledged to be present in birds as a reservoir.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 24 - A 49-year-old man comes to the hospital with a complaint of easy bruising....

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    • A 49-year-old man comes to the hospital with a complaint of easy bruising. He was discharged from the hospital not long ago after recovering from community-acquired pneumonia that required extended intravenous and later oral broad-spectrum antibiotics. His vital signs are within normal limits. Lab results show a prolonged prothrombin time, a prolonged partial thromboplastin time, and a normal platelet count.

      What is the probable underlying cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin K deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

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  • Question 25 - A 44-year-old man with active hepatitis B infection is found to have transitional...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man with active hepatitis B infection is found to have transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. After a multidisciplinary assessment, it is determined that his cancer is a non-muscle-invasive tumour of intermediate risk. He undergoes a successful transurethral resection of the carcinoma. However, due to his high risk of recurrence, he is being considered for postoperative intravesical chemotherapy or intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG).

      Despite having a BCG vaccination scar on his shoulder, he was treated for pulmonary tuberculosis 22 years ago. He has been on antiretroviral therapy for HIV for the past six years.

      What is the factor in this patient's medical history that makes intravesical BCG administration contraindicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV positive

      Explanation:

      BCG vaccine cannot be given to individuals who have compromised immune systems, such as those with HIV infection, as it is a live vaccine. It is also contraindicated in pregnant women and those with existing tuberculosis infection. Intravesical BCG is not recommended for individuals with active urinary tract infection, traumatic catheterisation, gross haematuria, or recent bladder surgery. However, having hepatitis B or previous BCG vaccination does not prevent an individual from receiving the BCG vaccine. Additionally, intravesical BCG is indicated for reducing the risk of recurrence in non-muscle-invasive papillary carcinoma cases.

      The BCG vaccine is a form of immunization that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is typically given to high-risk infants and was previously administered to children at the age of 13 years until 2005. The Greenbook recommends that the vaccine be given to infants living in areas with an annual incidence of TB of 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a similar incidence rate. Other groups that should receive the vaccine include previously unvaccinated contacts of respiratory TB cases, healthcare workers, prison staff, and those who work with homeless people.

      The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy. Before receiving the BCG vaccine, individuals must undergo a tuberculin skin test, with the exception of children under six years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is administered intradermally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm and can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, with a four-week interval if not administered simultaneously.

      There are several contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous vaccination, a history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test. It is not recommended for individuals over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it is effective for this age group.

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  • Question 26 - A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being found collapsed on the street. He is barely responsive and has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 92%, and a temperature of 39 ºC. During a full secondary survey, gas gangrene is discovered on his lower limbs. Biopsy results later confirm that the causative organism is Clostridium perfringens. What is the responsible toxin for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha toxin

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is a severe infection caused by Clostridium perfringens, which produces alpha-toxin, a lecithinase. This toxin causes local haemolysis, leading to areas of hypoperfusion and subsequent hypoxia, creating an anaerobic environment that allows the bacteria to thrive and cause further damage.

      Cereulide, Exfoliatin, and Exotoxin A are incorrect as they are produced by Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, respectively, and cause different illnesses or symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhoea, blistering of the skin, and inhibition of protein synthesis.

      Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences

      Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.

      Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.

      On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.

      Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.

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  • Question 27 - A 49-year-old man presents to the infectious disease outpatient clinic with red elevated...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the infectious disease outpatient clinic with red elevated lesions on his nose and hands, accompanied by a low-grade fever and significant weight loss. He has a history of heroin injection use and unsafe sexual practices. The resident suspects either bacillary angiomatosis or Kaposi sarcoma but is unsure how to differentiate between the two. What diagnostic test or procedure would be necessary to accurately diagnose this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: On biopsy, Kaposi sarcoma will show predominantly lymphocytic infiltrates while bacillary angiomatosis will show predominantly neutrophilic infiltrates

      Explanation:

      Given his history of injection drug use and unsafe sexual practices, along with his low-grade fever, significant weight loss, and cutaneous lesions commonly seen in HIV positive individuals, this man is highly likely to be HIV positive.

      Kaposi sarcoma and bacillary angiomatosis are both vascular in origin and involve the proliferation of small blood vessels. They are commonly found in immunocompromised individuals, with bacillary angiomatosis being particularly prevalent in HIV positive individuals who have progressed to AIDS.

      Kaposi sarcoma typically affects the skin and mucosal surfaces in the oral cavity, respiratory tract, and gastrointestinal tract, while bacillary angiomatosis primarily affects the skin. A similar pathological lesion called bacillary peliosis can also occur in the liver, spleen, and nodes.

      Kaposi sarcoma is caused by human herpes virus 8 and is characterized by a lymphocytic infiltrate, while bacillary angiomatosis is caused by the proteobacterium Bartonella henselae and involves the enlargement of endothelial cells in blood vessels. Both conditions have an infectious cause, with Kaposi sarcoma being viral and bacillary angiomatosis being bacterial.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.

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  • Question 28 - A father brings his 15-year-old son to the general practice. Over the last...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 15-year-old son to the general practice. Over the last month, he has been experiencing epistaxis, lethargy and mouth ulcers. As well as this, he has noticed small amounts of blood mixed in with the toothpaste after brushing. The father explains how his son has struggled with anorexia in the past and that he is very selective about the foods he eats.

      On examination, there is conjunctival pallor and his gingiva are inflamed.

      Which protein(s) lack production due to this patient's vitamin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proline and lysine

      Explanation:

      Marfan’s syndrome is linked to mutations in genes related to fibrillin, a glycoprotein that plays a role in connective tissue formation. In contrast, a deficiency in ascorbic acid (vitamin C) can lead to scurvy, which is characterized by gingival inflammation, excessive bleeding, and iron deficiency anemia. Ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes involved in the production of proline and lysine, which are essential for collagen synthesis.

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.

      The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.

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  • Question 29 - A researcher plans to conduct a cohort study to compare the incidence of...

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    • A researcher plans to conduct a cohort study to compare the incidence of hypertension in individuals aged 40-50 years who consume high amounts of salt versus those who consume low amounts of salt. What statistical parameters should they calculate to determine the required sample size in each group for detecting a significant difference, if any?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Power

      Explanation:

      Power refers to the likelihood of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, thereby avoiding a type II error. The positive predictive value indicates the probability of individuals with a positive screening test actually having the disease, while the negative predictive value indicates the probability of individuals with a negative screening test not having the disease. Specificity refers to the proportion of individuals without the condition who receive a negative test result. A type I error, or false positive, occurs when a researcher erroneously rejects a true null hypothesis, while a type II error, or false negative, occurs when a researcher mistakenly accepts a false null hypothesis.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with chest pain in the...

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    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with chest pain in the center. Upon conducting an ECG, it is discovered that there is ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The cardiology team admits him and performs primary coronary intervention. He is prescribed 75mg of aspirin as part of his regular medication.

      What is the mechanism of action for this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Aspirin irreversibly inhibits both COX 1 and 2, suppressing the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes. ADP receptor antagonists like clopidogrel and prasugrel prevent platelet aggregation by blocking the P2Y12 receptors. Direct thrombin inhibitors such as dabigatran directly inhibit thrombin to prevent clotting. However, NOACs like dabigatran are not commonly used for ACS. Selective COX 2 inhibitors like celecoxib and rofecoxib target COX-2 to reduce inflammation and pain. It should be noted that aspirin’s COX enzyme inactivation cannot be reversed.

      How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.

      Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.

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  • Question 31 - A medical researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of opioid use for chronic pain...

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    • A medical researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of opioid use for chronic pain in elderly patients. She needs a visual representation to demonstrate the presence of publication bias.

      Which of the following plots would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are utilized in meta-analyses to indicate publication bias, making it the most appropriate option. Forest plots, on the other hand, are used to present the strength of evidence of individual trials. Box-and-whisker plots are used to display the minimum, quartiles, median, and maximum of a set of data, while histograms are used to represent continuous data grouped into categories.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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  • Question 32 - A 32-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a leg that has been...

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    • A 32-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a leg that has been getting redder, hotter, and more swollen over the past three days. The doctor suspects cellulitis. As the immune system fights off the infection, it employs various mechanisms to eliminate foreign antigens. During the adaptive phase, which cells present antigens to Helper T cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MHC II

      Explanation:

      Helper T cells identify antigens that are displayed by MHC class II molecules. These molecules are exclusively present on professional antigen presenting cells like B cells. During the humoral response, B cells present antigens to Helper T cells (CD4+).

      In the humoral response, B7, a protein found on antigen presenting cells, is a component of the second signal.

      MHC I molecules present antigens to cytotoxic T cells during an intracellular response.

      CD40 is a receptor that is present on B cells. During the humoral response, CD40 ligand (which is present on T Helper cells) binds to CD40 as part of the second signal.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

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  • Question 33 - A 25-year-old male visits his doctor with concerns about his upcoming job interview....

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    • A 25-year-old male visits his doctor with concerns about his upcoming job interview. He is feeling extremely anxious and believes that he will not perform well.

      The doctor reassures him that this is a typical reaction triggered by the sympathetic nervous system, also referred to as the 'fight or flight' response.

      What type of receptors are responsible for mediating this response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G protein-coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Adrenergic receptors, which mediate responses involving hormones, local mediators, and neurotransmitters, are the largest of all cell surface receptors and are classified as G protein-coupled receptors. These receptors activate trimeric GTP binding proteins (G-proteins) that, in turn, activate an enzyme or an ion channel (effector) in the plasma membrane, initiating a sequence of other effects. In contrast, enzyme-coupled receptors, such as tyrosine kinase associated receptors and histidine kinase associated receptors, act as enzymes or associate with enzymes inside cells to activate various intracellular signaling pathways. Finally, ligand-gated ion channel receptors, also known as ionotropic receptors, are responsible for the rapid transmission of signals across synapses in the nervous system by causing changes in membrane potential.

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

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  • Question 34 - A patient with a straightforward pregnancy is presented with the option of inducing...

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    • A patient with a straightforward pregnancy is presented with the option of inducing labour to prevent the potential risks of an extended pregnancy. After an unsuccessful membrane sweep, an alternative method is selected to enhance uterine contractions and facilitate labour.

      What are the substances derived from arachidonic acid that are utilized to induce labour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer for increasing uterine tone is Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). After a failed membrane sweep, NICE recommends using vaginal PGE2 to stimulate uterine contractions and promote cervical ripening by activating collagenases within the cervix.

      Nifedipine is an incorrect answer as it delays labor by binding to calcium receptors in the myometrium, reducing uterine tone.

      Oxytocin is also an incorrect answer as it is a peptide hormone stored and released from the posterior pituitary, used to induce labor by increasing uterine tone, but not derived from arachidonic acid.

      COX-1 is an incorrect answer as it is an enzyme involved in the arachidonic acid/prostaglandin pathway, not a product.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 35 - A 58-year-old patient is having a planned hysterectomy. While the surgery is ongoing,...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old patient is having a planned hysterectomy. While the surgery is ongoing, her blood pressure suddenly decreases to 60/40 mmHg and her heart rate increases to 102 bpm. The anaesthetist decides to give phenylephrine. After a few minutes, the patient's blood pressure returns to 100/80 mmHg and her heart rate drops to 85 bpm.

      What is the mechanism of action of phenylephrine in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: α₁ agonist

      Explanation:

      Smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels is mediated by α1 adrenergic receptors, which can be activated by α1 agonists such as phenylephrine. This causes an increase in peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure. β₁ agonists affect the heart rate and contractility, β₂ agonists affect the airways in the lungs, and M₂ antagonists affect heart rate by blocking the vagus nerve.

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

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  • Question 36 - A 56-year-old man comes to you with complaints of excessive thirst and urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to you with complaints of excessive thirst and urination. He has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and a random blood glucose level of 11.2 mmol/l, indicating diabetes mellitus. You plan to initiate treatment with metformin.

      What is the mode of action of metformin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)

      Explanation:

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 37 - A 19-year-old man presents to the acute medical team with symptoms of nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man presents to the acute medical team with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. He has a history of type 1 diabetes and has been feeling ill lately. Laboratory tests reveal diabetic ketoacidosis, and he is initiated on an insulin infusion. What is the receptor type targeted by this therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine kinase receptors

      Explanation:

      The receptor tyrosine kinase in the cell membrane is bound by insulin.

      Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).

      The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas

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  • Question 38 - A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice since birth. Despite one week of phototherapy, the yellowing has not improved. The mother reports that the baby was born at 39 weeks' gestation without any birth trauma or injury. Newborn screening tests, including a thyroid function test, were normal. The mother and baby are both blood group O and Rh-negative, with no known family history of haematological conditions or liver problems. The mother has also noticed that the baby has been passing pale stools and dark urine.

      On examination, the baby appears healthy and has no fever, with scleral icterus present. The baby is moving all four limbs and has symmetrical Moro's reflex. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable masses.

      What is the likely condition affecting this four-week-old baby boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Explanation:

      If a newborn has jaundice for more than 14 days, it is likely due to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This type of prolonged neonatal jaundice is usually caused by post-hepatic factors, such as biliary atresia or choledochal cysts. Haemolysis may also cause jaundice, but in this case, it is unlikely due to the absence of conjunctival pallor, no family history of haematological conditions, and both the mother and baby being blood group O and Rh-negative. Congenital infections, like cytomegalovirus infection, may also cause jaundice, but the baby appears healthy and does not show any signs of TORCH infections.

      Understanding Jaundice in Newborns

      Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.

      Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.

      Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.

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  • Question 39 - Which of the following could not be a value of a Pearson's correlation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could not be a value of a Pearson's correlation coefficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: + 1.5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Correlation and Linear Regression

      Correlation and linear regression are two statistical methods used to analyze the relationship between variables. While they are related, they are not interchangeable. Correlation is used to determine if there is a relationship between two variables, while regression is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable.

      The degree of correlation is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can range from -1 to +1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation, while a coefficient of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation. A coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation between the variables. However, correlation coefficients do not provide information on how much the variable will change or the cause and effect relationship between the variables.

      Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable will change when another variable is changed. A regression equation can be formed to calculate the value of the dependent variable based on the value of the independent variable. The equation takes the form of y = a + bx, where y is the dependent variable, a is the intercept value, b is the slope of the line or regression coefficient, and x is the independent variable.

      In summary, correlation and linear regression are both useful tools for analyzing the relationship between variables. Correlation determines if there is a relationship, while regression predicts the value of one variable based on the value of another variable. Understanding these concepts can help in making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions from data analysis.

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  • Question 40 - Samantha is 49-years-old and is being treated for hypertension and gout. Besides a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 49-years-old and is being treated for hypertension and gout. Besides a recent gout flare-up, she is currently in good health. Her current medications include Lisinopril, Amlodipine, Bendroflumethiazide, Naproxen, and Allopurinol. During her bi-annual GP review, a random venous glucose test shows a reading of 12.1 mmol/L, and a subsequent oral glucose tolerance test reveals a result of 9.2 mmol/L. What is the most probable reason for her abnormal glucose levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause impaired glucose tolerance

      Impaired glucose tolerance can be caused by certain medications. These drugs include thiazides, furosemide (although less common), steroids, tacrolimus, ciclosporin, interferon-alpha, nicotinic acid, and antipsychotics. Beta-blockers can also cause a slight impairment of glucose tolerance and should be used with caution in diabetics as they can interfere with the metabolic and autonomic responses to hypoglycemia. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and monitor patients accordingly, especially those with pre-existing diabetes or at risk for developing diabetes. Adequate management and monitoring can help prevent further complications and ensure optimal patient care.

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  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a painless, enlarged lymph node....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a painless, enlarged lymph node. After conducting blood tests, the doctor discovers an elevated white cell count and refers the patient to an oncologist. Subsequent testing reveals that the patient has follicular lymphoma. Which gene is commonly mutated in this type of cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BCL-2

      Explanation:

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

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  • Question 42 - Amidst the COVID-19 outbreak, a 59-year-old patient is rushed to the ER with...

    Incorrect

    • Amidst the COVID-19 outbreak, a 59-year-old patient is rushed to the ER with a fever and oxygen saturation of 80% on room air, along with a blood pressure of 80/65mmHg. The attending physician diagnoses it as a cytokine storm and prescribes tocilizumab. The medication is produced from mouse cells and undergoes a process called humanization.

      What advantage is most probable from this humanization process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreases immunogenicity

      Explanation:

      The process of humanising monoclonal antibodies decreases their immunogenicity, which is the ability to induce an immune reaction. This is important because many monoclonal antibodies are derived from mice cells, which can cause the human body to develop an immune response and render the drug ineffective. Humanising involves modifying specific protein sequences to prevent the immune system from reacting to the drug.

      Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.

      However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.

      There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.

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  • Question 43 - A 73-year-old male has been diagnosed with Barrett's oesophagus. The histological examination reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old male has been diagnosed with Barrett's oesophagus. The histological examination reveals a reversible alteration in the adult cell type. Due to prolonged chemical irritation, a glandular cell replaces a squamous cell. What is the type of cellular alteration demonstrated in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Cellular Adaptations: Hypertrophy, Hyperplasia, Metaplasia, and Dysplasia

      Cellular adaptations refer to the changes that a cell undergoes in response to external pressures to survive in a different steady state. There are four main types of cellular adaptations: hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, and dysplasia.

      Hypertrophy is an increase in cell mass without an increase in cell number. This adaptive response is due to an increase in the number of intracellular organelles to maintain cell viability at high levels of aerobic metabolism.

      Hyperplasia, on the other hand, is an increase in the number of cells, resulting in an increase in the volume of an organ or tissue. It can occur physiologically, under normal physiological control, or pathologically, due to excessive hormonal stimulation that is not under normal physiological control.

      Metaplasia is a reversible change in form and differentiation, where one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type due to chronic chemical or physical irritation. This change can result in tissues having a form that they were not designed for.

      Dysplasia is abnormal cell growth that is a morphological feature of malignancy, characterized by increased cell proliferation and incomplete differentiation. It can act as an early sign of a tumor, occurring at the epithelium stage where there is no invasion of the basement membrane and surrounding tissues.

      In summary, cellular adaptations are essential for cells to survive in different steady states. Understanding the different types of cellular adaptations can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases.

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  • Question 44 - A toddler is brought to the emergency room with elevated respiratory rate. The...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to the emergency room with elevated respiratory rate. The child is 2 years old and appears otherwise normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      A baby was delivered through an emergency Caesarean section at 40 weeks due to pathological cardiotocography. The baby had Apgar scores of 9 and 10 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. However, the midwife noticed an elevated respiratory rate soon after delivery. The mother's antenatal history was unremarkable, and her observations were normal during labor.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed absorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process.

      Diagnosis of TTN is usually made through a chest x-ray, which may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure. Treatment for TTN involves observation and supportive care, with supplementary oxygen sometimes required to maintain oxygen levels.

      The good news is that TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days, and most babies recover fully without any long-term complications.

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  • Question 45 - A 28-year-old female is prescribed a medication by her physician. Upon reviewing the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female is prescribed a medication by her physician. Upon reviewing the drug's properties, you observe that the rate of excretion remains constant despite an increase in its concentration.

      Which medication exhibits this unique pharmacokinetic characteristic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      When drugs are excreted by zero-order kinetics, the rate at which they are eliminated from the body remains constant regardless of their concentration in the body. This is different from first-order kinetics, where the elimination rate is proportional to the drug’s plasma concentration. Some examples of drugs that follow zero-order kinetics include aspirin, phenytoin, ethanol, and fluoxetine, while drugs like amitriptyline, ampicillin, apixaban, and atenolol follow first-order kinetics.

      Pharmacokinetics of Excretion

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.

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  • Question 46 - Which of the following aims to address confounding factors in the planning phase...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following aims to address confounding factors in the planning phase of a research, while ensuring proper spacing between paragraphs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Randomisation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Confounding in Statistics

      Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.

      Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.

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  • Question 47 - A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of excessive thirst and constipation....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of excessive thirst and constipation. Upon conducting a blood test, the doctor observes elevated PTH levels. What electrolyte would you anticipate to be increased, considering the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      The regulation of calcium metabolism is mainly controlled by PTH and calcitriol. This patient is displaying symptoms of hyperparathyroidism, such as excessive thirst, constipation, and elevated PTH levels. Primary hyperparathyroidism is often caused by a single adenoma, resulting in the continuous release of PTH from a source outside of the parathyroid glands. The recommended treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism is a complete parathyroidectomy. PTH plays a crucial role in increasing calcium levels by releasing calcium from bones and enhancing calcium absorption in the small intestine. If calcium levels in the blood become too high, the parathyroid glands will produce less PTH. On the other hand, chloride and potassium levels are not typically elevated in primary hyperparathyroidism and are not responsible for this patient’s symptoms. Additionally, phosphate levels are usually low in primary hyperparathyroidism, as PTH increases phosphate excretion in the kidneys.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old woman presents with new-onset jaundice. She reports fevers, malaise and generalised...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with new-onset jaundice. She reports fevers, malaise and generalised abdominal pain for the last 5 days. She returned from a trip to India 4 weeks ago, where she admits to eating mainly street food.

      Her blood results show the following:

      Bilirubin 80 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 180 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 3000 u/L (3 - 40)

      What test result is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HAV IgM + HAV IgG

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is most commonly transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food and water or direct contact with an infected person, via the faeco-oral route. Given the patient’s recent visit to an area where hepatitis A is highly endemic and the acute onset of symptoms, it is likely that hepatitis A is the cause. Blood tests typically show elevated levels of aminotransferases (AST) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST), as well as potentially elevated levels of bilirubin, prothrombin time, and alkaline phosphatase. The presence of both HAV IgM and HAV IgG antibodies would be expected, with IgM antibodies detectable 5 days after symptom onset and disappearing after 2 months, and IgG antibodies detectable 5-10 days after symptom onset and persisting.

      HAV IgG alone would not be indicative of an active infection, as it typically indicates prior infection or immunity. HBc IgG would also be an incorrect finding, as hepatitis B is transmitted through parenteral or sexual means and has a longer incubation period. HCV IgG would also be an incorrect finding, as hepatitis C is associated with chronic hepatitis and typically transmitted through blood transfusions.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

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  • Question 49 - A couple has approached you for genetic counselling. The husband, Felix, is worried...

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    • A couple has approached you for genetic counselling. The husband, Felix, is worried about passing on a mitochondrial disease to his future child as his sister died at a young age due to complications associated with the same disease. The wife, Melissa, has no family history of any such disease. Both parents identify as cisgender.

      Felix undergoes testing for the mitochondrial disease, and the results come back positive.

      What is the probability of their first child being affected by this mitochondrial disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0%

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.

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  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old man presents with acute appendicitis and undergoes an appendectomy with complete...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with acute appendicitis and undergoes an appendectomy with complete resolution. What pathological process is unlikely to be observed in the inflamed tissues?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formation of granulomas

      Explanation:

      Acute inflammation is characterized by the presence of neutrophil polymorphs, which are transported to the affected tissues through a series of three phases. The first phase involves changes in blood vessel and flow, resulting in a flush, flare, and wheal. The second phase involves the production of fluid exudates that are rich in protein, including Ig and coagulation factors, due to increased vascular permeability. In the third phase, cellular exudates containing mainly neutrophil polymorphs pass into the extravascular space. Neutrophils are then transported to the tissues through a process that involves margination, pavementing, and emigration. Margination refers to the movement of neutrophils to the peripheral plasmatic of the vessel rather than the central axial stream, while pavementing involves the adhesion of neutrophils to endothelial cells in venules at the site of acute inflammation. Finally, emigration occurs when neutrophils pass between endothelial cells and enter the tissue. In contrast, chronic inflammation is characterized by the formation of granulomas.

      Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.

      The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.

      Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.

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  • Question 51 - Which of the following organisms is responsible for causing erysipelas? ...

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    • Which of the following organisms is responsible for causing erysipelas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Streptococci are spherical bacteria that are gram-positive. They can be classified into two types based on their hemolytic properties: alpha and beta. Alpha haemolytic streptococci, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus viridans, cause partial hemolysis. Pneumococcus is a common cause of pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media. Beta haemolytic streptococci, on the other hand, cause complete hemolysis and can be further divided into groups A-H. Only groups A, B, and D are significant in humans. Group A streptococci, particularly Streptococcus pyogenes, are responsible for various infections such as erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, and pharyngitis/tonsillitis. They can also cause rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis due to immunological reactions. Scarlet fever can also be caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by group A streptococci. Group B streptococci, specifically Streptococcus agalactiae, can lead to neonatal meningitis and septicaemia. Enterococcus belongs to group D streptococci.

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  • Question 52 - A clinical trial is investigating the impact of a new medication Y on...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is investigating the impact of a new medication Y on overall mortality. The mortality rate in the group taking medication Y is 5%, while it is 10% in the control group. What is the number of individuals who need to receive medication Y to prevent one death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      Steps to Calculate NNT:

      Calculate the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR):

      ARR=Control Event Rate (CER)−Experimental Event Rate (EER)

      Here:

      • Control Event Rate (CER) = 10% or 0.10
      • Experimental Event Rate (EER) = 5% or 0.05

      So,

      ARR=0.10−0.05=0.05

      Calculate the NNT:

      NNT=1/ARR

      NNT=1/0.05=20

      Conclusion:

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is 20. This means that 20 individuals need to receive medication Y to prevent one death.

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  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe headache and abdominal pain that started 2 hours ago. Upon assessment, the patient's blood pressure is measured at 210/115 mmHg and heart rate at 140 beats per minute.

      Further tests reveal elevated levels of urinary metanephrines and serum noradrenaline. A CT scan of the abdomen confirms the presence of a pheochromocytoma in the right adrenal gland.

      In which part of the nervous system is this neurotransmitter secreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that noradrenaline is the postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system. It is secreted by postsynaptic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system and acts on effector organs such as vascular smooth muscle and sweat glands. The other options provided are incorrect as they refer to different neurotransmitters and nervous systems.

      Understanding Norepinephrine: Its Synthesis and Effects on Mental Health

      Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized in the locus ceruleus, a small region in the brainstem. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in the body’s fight or flight response, which is activated in response to stress or danger. When released, norepinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, preparing the body to respond to a perceived threat.

      In terms of mental health, norepinephrine levels have been linked to anxiety and depression. Elevated levels of norepinephrine have been observed in individuals with anxiety, which can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. On the other hand, depleted levels of norepinephrine have been associated with depression, which can cause feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low energy.

      It is important to note that norepinephrine is just one of many neurotransmitters that play a role in mental health. However, understanding its synthesis and effects can provide insight into the complex interplay between brain chemistry and mental health. By studying neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, researchers can develop new treatments and therapies for individuals struggling with anxiety, depression, and other mental health conditions.

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  • Question 54 - A 32-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant, has been diagnosed with uncomplicated...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant, has been diagnosed with uncomplicated falciparum malaria after traveling to Tanzania. The infectious disease consultant has prescribed pyrimethamine, but is worried about its impact on folate metabolism and the potential harm to the fetus.

      What is the potential interaction between the newly prescribed medication and folate metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase by pyrimethamine results in interference with folate metabolism. Pregnant women should not be prescribed drugs that disrupt folate metabolism. The other options are incorrect.

      Phenytoin causes disruption in the absorption of folate in the intestines.

      Interference with Folate Metabolism by Drugs

      Folate metabolism is a crucial process in the body that involves the conversion of folic acid into its active form, which is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division. However, certain drugs can interfere with this process, leading to various health complications.

      Trimethoprim, methotrexate, and pyrimethamine are some of the drugs that can interfere with folate metabolism. These drugs inhibit the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that converts dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate, which is required for DNA synthesis. As a result, the body’s ability to produce new cells is impaired, leading to anemia, immune system dysfunction, and other health problems.

      Phenytoin is another drug that can reduce the absorption of folate in the body. This drug inhibits the absorption of folate in the small intestine, leading to a deficiency of this essential nutrient. Folate deficiency can cause birth defects, anemia, and other health problems, especially in pregnant women.

      In conclusion, drugs that interfere with folate metabolism can have serious health consequences. Patients taking these drugs should be closely monitored for signs of folate deficiency and treated accordingly. It is also important to ensure that patients receive adequate folate supplementation to prevent complications.

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  • Question 55 - A 31-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for several...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for several months. He reports a weight loss of 9kg and chronic diarrhea. During a skin examination, the doctor observes purple skin lesions on the tip of his nose, inside his mouth, and bleeding around his gums. The doctor suspects Kaposi's sarcoma and wonders which Human Herpes Virus (HHV) is responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HHV-8

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.

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  • Question 56 - What is the mechanism of action of rifampicin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin hinders the process of RNA synthesis.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP clinic to see the nurse for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP clinic to see the nurse for a follow-up evaluation of a deep cut injury that happened 4 weeks ago while preparing food, requiring multiple stitches. She has no significant medical history and is in good health. The nurse observes that the wound appears smaller than before and that a pale scar has begun to develop. The nurse informs the patient that this is a positive sign, but that this stage of the healing process takes the longest time.

      Which stage of the healing process is the nurse likely referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remodelling

      Explanation:

      The remodelling phase of wound healing is the lengthiest, lasting from six weeks to a year. Given that the injury happened a few weeks ago, it is probable that the patient is currently in this stage of the healing process.

      The Four Phases of Wound Healing

      Wound healing is a complex process that involves four distinct phases: haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodelling. During the haemostasis phase, the body works to stop bleeding by constricting blood vessels and forming a clot. This is followed by the inflammation phase, during which immune cells migrate to the wound site to fight infection and release growth factors that stimulate the production of new tissue. Fibroblasts, which are cells that produce collagen, also migrate to the wound site during this phase.

      The regeneration phase is characterized by the production of new tissue, including blood vessels and collagen. This phase can last several weeks and is critical for the formation of granulation tissue, which is a type of tissue that forms at the wound site and helps to promote healing. Finally, during the remodelling phase, the body works to remodel the new tissue and form a scar. This phase can last up to a year or longer and involves the differentiation of fibroblasts into myofibroblasts, which help to facilitate wound contraction.

      Overall, wound healing is a complex process that involves multiple phases and a variety of different cell types. By understanding these phases, researchers and clinicians can develop new treatments and therapies to help promote healing and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 58 - A new medication is being tested that targets the phase of the cell...

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    • A new medication is being tested that targets the phase of the cell cycle responsible for determining the duration of the cell cycle. During which phase of the cell cycle is it most probable for this medication to function to achieve this outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      The length of the cell cycle is determined by the G1 phase, which is the initial growth phase of the cell. This phase is regulated by p53 and various regulatory proteins. The duration of the cell cycle varies among different cells in different tissues, with skin cells replicating more quickly than hepatocytes. The G0 phase is the resting or quiescent phase of the cell, and cells that do not actively replicate, such as cardiac myocytes, exit the cell cycle during the G1 phase to enter the G0 phase. The G2 phase is a second growth phase that occurs after the G1 phase.

      The Cell Cycle and its Regulation

      The cell cycle is a process that regulates the growth and division of cells. It is controlled by proteins called cyclins, which in turn regulate cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) enzymes. The cycle is divided into four phases: G0, G1, S, G2, and M. During the G0 phase, cells are in a resting state, while in G1, cells increase in size and determine the length of the cell cycle. Cyclin D/CDK4, Cyclin D/CDK6, and Cyclin E/CDK2 regulate the transition from G1 to S phase. In the S phase, DNA, RNA, and histones are synthesized, and centrosome duplication occurs. Cyclin A/CDK2 is active during this phase. In G2, cells continue to increase in size, and Cyclin B/CDK1 regulates the transition from G2 to M phase. Finally, in the M phase, mitosis occurs, which is the shortest phase of the cell cycle. The cell cycle is regulated by various proteins, including p53, which plays a crucial role in the G1 phase. Understanding the regulation of the cell cycle is essential for the development of new treatments for diseases such as cancer.

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  • Question 59 - A 55-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with rectal cancer, is about to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with rectal cancer, is about to undergo an anterior resection surgery. During pre-operative discussions, she expresses her worries about experiencing pain after the surgery. You explain to her the different options available for pain relief after major bowel surgery.

      What is the recommended method of pain management after major bowel surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epidural analgesia

      Explanation:

      For pain relief after major bowel surgery, epidural analgesia is the preferred method. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like diclofenac can hinder healing and increase the risk of anastomotic leak, so they are not commonly used. While paracetamol is the initial step in the WHO pain ladder, it may not be sufficient on its own after major bowel surgery. Local anesthesia can be effective for localized pain, but it is not the optimal form of pain relief.

      The management of pain can involve the use of various drugs and techniques. The World Health Organisation and World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists have developed guidelines for the use of analgesics, starting with peripherally acting drugs and progressing to weak and strong opioids. Local anaesthetics can also be used, either for anaesthesia during surgery or for postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anaesthesia are other options, but have potential side effects and limitations. Transversus Abdominis Plane blocks are a newer technique that can provide wide field blockade without the need for indwelling devices. Patient Controlled Analgesia allows patients to self-administer intravenous analgesia. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine can be effective but have potential side effects and limitations. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, but have their own contraindications and limitations.

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  • Question 60 - A nursing student is drawing blood from a patient in their 60s who...

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    • A nursing student is drawing blood from a patient in their 60s who has a confirmed case of hepatitis C. While wearing gloves, the student accidentally pricks their finger with the needle. The injury site is bleeding when the glove is removed and the nursing student follows the hospital's protocol for needle-stick injuries.

      What is the likelihood of the nursing student testing positive for hepatitis C after the incident?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 61 - A 67-year-old man patient with a history of recurrent renal stones is referred...

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    • A 67-year-old man patient with a history of recurrent renal stones is referred to an endocrinologist for further investigations. The doctor performs a series of investigations, which includes the following results:

      Calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.9 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 17.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 110 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.42 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 130 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most likely cause of this abnormality in the patient's test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

      Explanation:

      The regulation of calcium metabolism is mainly controlled by PTH and calcitriol. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by excessive levels of parathyroid hormone leading to high serum calcium levels. This can result in recurrent renal stones, as well as other symptoms such as abdominal pain, fatigue, and confusion.

      Antidiuretic hormone, which promotes water retention in the body, does not directly affect calcium metabolism and is therefore not the correct answer.

      An excess of calcitriol would cause abnormally low levels of serum calcium, which does not match the clinical presentation in this case.

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulates the secretion of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary gland and is not expected to affect calcium and phosphate levels.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

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  • Question 62 - A 12-day-old infant named Max is brought to the paediatric assessment unit due...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-day-old infant named Max is brought to the paediatric assessment unit due to yellowing of the skin that started 3 days ago. Max is currently in a bright and alert state and has not experienced any fever. The baby has been passing urine and stool normally, and the mother has not noticed any changes in this regard.

      Apart from the jaundice, the mother has no other concerns, and Max has been thriving since birth. Max was born at term, is breastfed, and there are no other children in the house.

      Hb: 140 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)

      Bilirubin: 30 µmol/L (3 - 17)

      Upon further testing, it is revealed that Max's unconjugated bilirubin levels are 26 µmol/L. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of the jaundice in Max's case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic immaturity

      Explanation:

      Neonatal jaundice caused by physiological factors is a result of the liver’s immaturity and the breakdown of fetal hemoglobin. To determine the cause of jaundice, both clinical symptoms and laboratory findings are crucial. In this case, the presence of isolated unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia without any clinical signs is indicative of physiological jaundice. This type of jaundice is common in the first few weeks of life and is caused by the immaturity of the liver and increased breakdown of hemoglobin. The fact that the baby is being breastfed also supports this diagnosis. Obstructive jaundice, on the other hand, would present with an obstructive picture and an elevated conjugated bilirubin level, which is not the case here. In MCQs, the history often provides clues, such as pale stools and dark urine.

      Understanding Jaundice in Newborns

      Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.

      Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.

      Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.

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  • Question 63 - A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with recurrent fevers. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with recurrent fevers. He has a medical history of Adult-onset Still's disease.

      As the admission progresses, the patient's condition worsens, with high-grade fevers and tachycardia.

      The following blood results are obtained:

      - Hb: 112 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 80 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC: 2.3 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - CRP: 72 mg/L (<5)
      - Ferritin: 22,500 mg/mL (30-400)
      - Triglycerides: 4.9 mmol/L (<1.7)
      - Fibrinogen: 0.8 g/L (2-4)

      What cytokine is believed to play a crucial role in the pathophysiology of this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferon-γ

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 64 - Which of the following pertains to a placebo that induces unfavorable side effects?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pertains to a placebo that induces unfavorable side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A nocebo

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 65 - A 55-year-old man presents with acute closed angle glaucoma and is urgently seen...

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    • A 55-year-old man presents with acute closed angle glaucoma and is urgently seen by an ophthalmologist. The doctor prescribes a medication that acts as a muscarinic agonist and reduces intraocular pressure. What is the name of the medication prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pilocarpine

      Explanation:

      Pilocarpine is the only drug that functions as a muscarinic agonist, making it the correct answer. By causing the sphincter pupillae muscle to contract, pilocarpine reduces resistance to aqueous outflow from the anterior chamber through the canals of Schlemm.

      Oxybutynin, on the other hand, is a muscarinic antagonist and is therefore not the correct answer.

      While physostigmine does enhance muscarinic activity, it does so by acting as an anticholinesterase rather than a muscarinic agonist.

      Apraclonidine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, both reduces aqueous production and increases uveoscleral outflow of aqueous.

      Drugs Acting on Common Receptors

      The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.

      For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.

      Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.

      Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.

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  • Question 66 - A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack...

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    • A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack of energy. She has a medical history of gout, epilepsy, asthma, hay fever, tension headaches, and low back pain. Her blood work reveals low Hb levels, high MCV levels, and normal LFT and TFT results. What could be the possible cause of her symptoms and abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      The cause of this woman’s macrocytic anaemia may be due to her epilepsy medication, phenytoin, which is known to hinder the absorption of folate in the intestines. Her normal thyroid function tests rule out hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism as potential causes. Paracetamol and antihistamines are not associated with macrocytic anaemia.

      Interference with Folate Metabolism by Drugs

      Folate metabolism is a crucial process in the body that involves the conversion of folic acid into its active form, which is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division. However, certain drugs can interfere with this process, leading to various health complications.

      Trimethoprim, methotrexate, and pyrimethamine are some of the drugs that can interfere with folate metabolism. These drugs inhibit the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that converts dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate, which is required for DNA synthesis. As a result, the body’s ability to produce new cells is impaired, leading to anemia, immune system dysfunction, and other health problems.

      Phenytoin is another drug that can reduce the absorption of folate in the body. This drug inhibits the absorption of folate in the small intestine, leading to a deficiency of this essential nutrient. Folate deficiency can cause birth defects, anemia, and other health problems, especially in pregnant women.

      In conclusion, drugs that interfere with folate metabolism can have serious health consequences. Patients taking these drugs should be closely monitored for signs of folate deficiency and treated accordingly. It is also important to ensure that patients receive adequate folate supplementation to prevent complications.

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  • Question 67 - A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of wheezing and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of wheezing and difficulty breathing. Her peak flow is decreased.

      What class of adrenoceptors should be focused on for the treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta 2

      Explanation:

      The relaxation of smooth muscle in the vasculature, respiratory tree, and GI tract is caused by beta 2 adrenoceptors. This is important in the management of asthma, which is why a beta 2 agonist should be used to target bronchodilation. Alpha 1 adrenoceptors cause salivary secretion and relaxation of GI smooth muscle, while alpha 2 adrenoceptors inhibit neurotransmitter release. Beta 1 adrenoceptors increase heart rate and force.

      Adrenoceptors are a type of receptor found in the body that respond to the hormone adrenaline. There are four main types of adrenoceptors: alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, and beta-2. Each type of adrenoceptor is responsible for different physiological responses in the body.

      Alpha-1 adrenoceptors are found in various tissues throughout the body and are responsible for vasoconstriction, relaxation of GI smooth muscle, salivary secretion, and hepatic glycogenolysis. On the other hand, alpha-2 adrenoceptors are mainly presynaptic and inhibit the release of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and acetylcholine from autonomic nerves. They also inhibit insulin and promote platelet aggregation.

      Beta-1 adrenoceptors are mainly located in the heart and are responsible for increasing heart rate and force. Beta-2 adrenoceptors, on the other hand, are found in various tissues such as the lungs, blood vessels, and GI tract. They are responsible for vasodilation, bronchodilation, and relaxation of GI smooth muscle. Lastly, beta-3 adrenoceptors are found in adipose tissue and promote lipolysis.

      All adrenoceptors are G-protein coupled, meaning they activate intracellular signaling pathways when activated by adrenaline. Alpha-1 adrenoceptors activate phospholipase C, which leads to the production of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). Alpha-2 adrenoceptors inhibit adenylate cyclase, while beta-1 and beta-2 adrenoceptors stimulate adenylate cyclase. Beta-3 adrenoceptors also stimulate adenylate cyclase.

      In summary, adrenoceptors play a crucial role in regulating various physiological responses in the body. Understanding their functions and signaling pathways can help in the development of drugs that target these receptors for therapeutic purposes.

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  • Question 68 - A 54-year-old male on the gastroenterology ward has been experiencing recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male on the gastroenterology ward has been experiencing recurrent episodes of diarrhoea following the completion of antibiotics for severe community-acquired pneumonia.

      There is no significant medical history to report.

      The patient has a known allergy to metronidazole.

      The consultant has requested that you initiate treatment with vancomycin and discuss potential side effects with the patient.

      What adverse effect should be highlighted during this discussion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect, along with Redman’s syndrome and blood dyscrasias such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia. Erythromycin is often linked to gastrointestinal upset, while flucloxacillin and amoxicillin are associated with cholestasis. Tendonitis is a known adverse effect of ciprofloxacin, and patients with mononucleosis may experience a rash when taking amoxicillin.

      Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective in treating infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, especially those that are resistant to methicillin, such as Staphylococcus aureus. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the formation of the bacterial cell wall by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala moieties, which prevents the polymerization of peptidoglycans. However, bacteria can develop resistance to vancomycin by altering the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits, which are the sites where the antibiotic binds.

      Despite its effectiveness, vancomycin can cause adverse effects such as nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and thrombophlebitis. Rapid infusion of vancomycin can also lead to a condition called red man syndrome, which is characterized by flushing and itching of the skin. Therefore, it is important to use vancomycin only when necessary and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 69 - A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and foul-smelling, fatty...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and foul-smelling, fatty stools that have persisted for 8 months. During the physical examination, the GP observes multiple unexplained bruises on the patient's abdomen. The patient denies any history of trauma. His sister has been diagnosed with coeliac disease. The patient played football during his childhood and did not experience any unusual bruising. The GP orders the following blood tests:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L; females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 270 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 5.8 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
      - Prothrombin time (PT): 18 seconds (normal range: 10-14 seconds)
      - Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 35 seconds (normal range: 25-35 seconds)

      What is the most probable cause of the patient's unexplained bruising?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin K deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption, leading to symptoms such as foul-smelling, fatty stools and clubbing. Malabsorption syndromes like coeliac disease can impair fat absorption, resulting in a deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins like vitamin K. This vitamin is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors involved in the coagulation cascade, and its deficiency can cause a prolonged PT and aPTT.

      The other options are incorrect. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, bowel cancer, anaemia of chronic disease, and haemophilia type A do not explain the patient’s symptoms, such as steatorrhoea, weight loss, and bruising.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

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  • Question 70 - You are conducting a study to compare the sensitivity and specificity of mammograms...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a study to compare the sensitivity and specificity of mammograms to detect breast cancer. In your study, 200 women had a positive mammogram result, however, 50 of those women were then diagnosed with breast cancer on further testing. A further 500 women had a negative mammogram result, with 20 women being diagnosed with breast cancer from this group.

      What is the positive predictive value of a positive mammogram result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 71 - A 9-month-old baby boy is presented to the GP clinic by his mother...

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    • A 9-month-old baby boy is presented to the GP clinic by his mother who recently moved to the UK. The mother is worried about her son's physical appearance, which she believes is different from other children in his daycare center.

      During the examination, the baby appears healthy, but the doctor observes a shortened neck and a protruding tongue. Additionally, there are several white spots visible in the iris.

      What is the most frequent cytogenetic cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nondisjunction

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

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  • Question 72 - A study aims to evaluate the effectiveness of a new proton pump inhibitor...

    Incorrect

    • A study aims to evaluate the effectiveness of a new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in older adults who are on aspirin therapy. The new PPI is administered to 120 patients, while the standard PPI is given to a control group of 240 individuals. During a five-year follow-up, 24 patients in the new PPI group experienced upper gastrointestinal bleeding, whereas 60 patients in the standard PPI group had the same outcome. What is the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 73 - A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the doctor with a cough and profuse...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the doctor with a cough and profuse watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for a week. He also reports experiencing regular fevers and vomiting. The patient mentions that three of his colleagues have also been affected by a similar illness. Upon examination, he appears dehydrated and has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. A Cryptosporidium infection is confirmed through a stool sample. What stain would be used to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ziehl-Neelsen stain

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of Cryptosporidium can be made using a modified approach.

      Understanding Cryptosporidiosis

      Cryptosporidiosis is a prevalent cause of diarrhoea in the UK, caused by two species of Cryptosporidium – C. hominis and C. parvum. This condition is more common in young children and immunocompromised patients, such as those with HIV. Symptoms include watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, and fever. In severe cases, the entire gastrointestinal tract may be affected, leading to complications like sclerosing cholangitis and pancreatitis.

      To diagnose cryptosporidiosis, a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain (acid-fast stain) of the stool may reveal the characteristic red cysts of Cryptosporidium. Management for immunocompetent patients is largely supportive, while antiretroviral therapy is recommended for HIV patients. Nitazoxanide may be used for immunocompromised patients, and rifaximin is sometimes used for those with severe disease.

      Overall, understanding cryptosporidiosis is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management, especially in vulnerable populations.

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  • Question 74 - A 35-year-old man was admitted to the surgical team for an elective repair...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man was admitted to the surgical team for an elective repair of an inguinal hernia. Before his surgery, he was prescribed subcutaneous enoxaparin injections for the prevention of venous thromboembolism. What is the mode of action of enoxaparin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to antithrombin III and inactivates Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Enoxaparin, a subcutaneously administered LMWH, activates antithrombin III to mainly inhibit Factor Xa. In contrast, unfractionated heparin activates antithrombin III to inhibit both Factors Xa and IIa. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K, while aspirin inhibits the production of thromboxane A2.

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.

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  • Question 75 - A 25-year-old male patient presents to his GP with a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient presents to his GP with a medical history of recurring infections such as sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia. Upon examination, the patient's IgM levels are elevated, while IgA, IgG, and IgE levels are low. This indicates an immune disorder that affects the class switching of B cell antibodies, leading to an inability of immunoglobulins to differentiate from the IgM isotype.

      What factors are crucial for this process to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Th2 cells

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin class switching is a process where B cells change their production of immunoglobulin from one type to another. This process is facilitated by Th2 cells, which provide specific signals to activated B cells via their CD40 and cytokine receptors. Hypergammaglobulinaemia, an immune disorder affecting antibody production, may occur when there are abnormalities in B cell class switching due to insufficient signalling from T helper cells or an inability of B cells to receive these signals. Cytotoxic T cells do not play a role in antibody formation, while Th1 cells work alongside cytotoxic T cells and macrophages as part of the cellular immune system. Macrophages, on the other hand, function as antigen presenting cells in the adaptive immune response.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 76 - Which cellular component is responsible for the degradation of oligopeptides? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cellular component is responsible for the degradation of oligopeptides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lysosome

      Explanation:

      Proteasomes are protein complexes that are responsible for protein degradation in eukaryotes.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

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  • Question 77 - A 47-year-old man visits his doctor and requests a change in medication due...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man visits his doctor and requests a change in medication due to coughing caused by his ACE-inhibitor for hypertension. He is switched to losartan, an angiotensin-II receptor blocker. Losartan's pharmacological activity is mainly due to an active metabolite that binds to an allosteric site on the AT1 receptor, causing a conformational change that reduces the ability of angiotensin-II to bind and activate it.

      What is the type of antagonism exhibited by losartan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonism

      Explanation:

      A non-competitive antagonist functions by binding to an allosteric site on the receptor, which induces a change in the active binding site where an agonist would typically bind. In contrast, a competitive antagonist binds to the same site as the endogenous ligand, but does not activate the receptor. An uncompetitive antagonist is similar to a non-competitive antagonist, but requires receptor activation before binding to the allosteric site. A partial agonist binds to the active site of a receptor, but produces a weaker effect than the endogenous ligand. Finally, an inverse agonist binds to the same site as an agonist, but produces the opposite pharmacological effect.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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  • Question 78 - A 72-year-old patient on a cardiology ward has been admitted with worsening heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old patient on a cardiology ward has been admitted with worsening heart failure for the third time this year. On the advice of his cardiologist, he has tried various drug and dosage regimes, but his pulmonary hypertension seems to be resistant to treatment.

      The medical team is considering starting a continuous intravenous infusion of epoprostenol, a naturally occurring prostaglandin I2, also known as prostacyclin or PGI2. How will this medication affect the formation of blood clots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreases platelet aggregation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that prostaglandin I2, also known as epoprostenol, decreases platelet aggregation. This drug is often used to treat pulmonary hypertension that is resistant to other treatments, but it must be given through continuous intravenous infusion due to its short half-life of only three minutes. While it is a potent vasodilator, it also has the added benefit of reducing platelet aggregation. It is important to note that prostaglandin I2 encourages vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, and has no role in preventing fibrinolysis. While it does affect blood clots, it does not reduce inflammation and may actually increase it due to its vasodilator effect.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 79 - You are assessing a patient who is one day post-appendectomy. The procedure was...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient who is one day post-appendectomy. The procedure was done laparoscopically and was uncomplicated with an estimated blood loss of 150ml. The patient reports feeling comfortable, but when asked, she mentions that she has not had a bowel movement or passed gas and is experiencing mild bloating.

      What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      postoperative ileus is a common complication that can occur after gastrointestinal surgery. This condition is characterized by a slowdown or complete stoppage of intestinal movement following surgery, and is often referred to as a ‘functional bowel obstruction’ or ‘paralytic’ ileus. Patients may report not passing stool or gas, and bowel sounds may be absent on auscultation. Unlike mechanical bowel obstruction, which is associated with a tinkling sound, postoperative ileus can cause bowel distension and third-space volume loss, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Diagnosis can be confirmed through imaging, such as an abdominal x-ray, which typically shows generalised dilatation of bowel loops with no transition point and visible air in the rectum.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by reduced bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves nil-by-mouth initially, which may progress to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. Overall, postoperative ileus is a common complication that requires careful management to ensure a successful recovery.

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  • Question 80 - A 55-year-old woman visits her urologist for a follow-up appointment due to ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her urologist for a follow-up appointment due to ongoing urge incontinence despite lifestyle modifications, bladder training, and medication. The urologist recommends botox injection into the bladder. What is the mechanism of action of this medication that leads to its therapeutic effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks release of acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that Clostridium botulinum blocks the release of acetylcholine. This bacterium produces botulinum toxin, which is used in medical treatments for overactive bladder symptoms. The toxin prevents the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, resulting in reduced detrusor muscle activity and improved bladder control.

      Activation of adenylate cyclase, blocking the release of GABA and glycine, and destruction of mitochondria are all incorrect answers. These mechanisms of action are associated with other bacterial toxins and produce different effects, such as watery diarrhea, muscle spasms, and vomiting.

      Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences

      Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.

      Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.

      On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.

      Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.

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  • Question 81 - A study is conducted to assess the impact of cytokine administration on the...

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    • A study is conducted to assess the impact of cytokine administration on the progression of multi-drug resistant tuberculosis in HIV patients aged 50 and above. Various cytokines are administered daily to a group of 15 individuals. Treatment progress is evaluated by chest x-ray and sputum culture. Out of these individuals, 5 showed an increase in intracellular killing of Mycobacterium by macrophages.

      Based on the cytokines administered during the study, which one is most probable to have been given to these 5 participants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferon-γ

      Explanation:

      The activation of macrophages is attributed to Interferon-γ. In the case of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the immune response relies on the cytokines produced by T-helper-1 (TH1) cells to enhance the intracellular killing in phagocytic cells. Interferon-γ, which is produced by TH1 cells, acts on macrophages and triggers the enhancement of their microbicidal properties.

      IL-12 is a cytokine that stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into TH1 cells and activates NK cells.

      IL-2, on the other hand, causes the proliferation of other lymphocytes and does not affect macrophages.

      Tumour necrosis factor-α is a pro-inflammatory cytokine produced by macrophages and plays a crucial role in inflammatory processes.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 82 - Which statistical measure would be most helpful in order to reassure a 60-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Which statistical measure would be most helpful in order to reassure a 60-year-old patient who has received a negative test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 83 - Your nursing student has prepared an information leaflet for elderly patients being started...

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    • Your nursing student has prepared an information leaflet for elderly patients being started on cephalosporin antibiotics. While proofreading the information contained in the leaflet, you note that the student has mixed up the mechanism of actions of cephalosporins with aminoglycosides.

      You call the student and notify her of the error.

      Select the correct mechanism of action that should be mentioned in the patient leaflet.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of various antibiotics includes inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking, RNA synthesis, nucleic acid synthesis, and ribosome subunit binding. Cephalosporins and beta-lactams disrupt the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls by inhibiting cross-linking through competitive inhibition on PCB. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30s ribosome subunit, leading to mRNA misreading and abnormal peptide synthesis, resulting in cell death. Quinolones, like ciprofloxacin, inhibit DNA synthesis by targeting DNA gyrase. Rifampicin is most effective against intracellular phagocytized Staphylococcus aureus in macrophages by inhibiting RNA synthesis. Metronidazole disrupts microbial cell DNA by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.

      Understanding Cephalosporins and their Mechanism of Resistance

      Cephalosporins are a type of antibiotic that belongs to the β-lactam family. They are known for their bactericidal properties and are less susceptible to penicillinases than penicillins. These antibiotics work by disrupting the synthesis of bacterial cell walls, specifically by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking.

      One of the mechanisms of resistance to cephalosporins is changes to penicillin-binding-proteins (PBPs). PBPs are types of transpeptidases that are produced by bacteria to cross-link peptidoglycan chains and form rigid cell walls. When these proteins are altered, they become less susceptible to the effects of cephalosporins, making the antibiotic less effective in treating bacterial infections. Understanding the mechanism of resistance to cephalosporins is crucial in developing new antibiotics and improving treatment options for bacterial infections.

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  • Question 84 - A 67-year-old man with Parkinson's disease is experiencing persistent dyskinesia symptoms despite receiving...

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    • A 67-year-old man with Parkinson's disease is experiencing persistent dyskinesia symptoms despite receiving optimal treatment with levodopa and a dopamine agonist. His physician prescribes amantadine, a drug that stimulates dopamine release from nerve endings. Originally developed as an antiviral medication, what is the most accurate description of its antiviral activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits uncoating of the Matrix-2 (M2) viral protein

      Explanation:

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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  • Question 85 - A three-year-old boy is presented to the pediatrician by his father due to...

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    • A three-year-old boy is presented to the pediatrician by his father due to repeated episodes of otitis media. The pediatrician has attempted delayed antibiotic treatments in the past, but they have not been effective. As the child has a penicillin allergy, the pediatrician follows hospital protocol and prescribes a course of macrolide antibiotic, clarithromycin.

      What is the mode of action of the prescribed antibiotic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to a ribosomal subunit and blocking translocation

      Explanation:

      Macrolides prevent protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit and blocking translocation through their interaction with 23S rRNA. This is the correct mechanism of action.

      Folate antagonists (such as trimethoprim) inhibit cell division by antagonizing vitamin B9, making this answer incorrect.

      Tetracyclines (such as doxycycline) inhibit bacterial growth by binding to bacterial ribosomes, making this answer incorrect.

      Nitroimidazoles (such as metronidazole) disrupt microbial DNA in anaerobic bacteria and protozoa, inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis, making this answer incorrect.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 86 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman visits an obstetrics clinic to review the findings of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman visits an obstetrics clinic to review the findings of her amniocentesis. The karyotyping results reveal that her fetus has trisomy 21 caused by nondisjunction in mitosis.

      At what stage of mitosis did the mistake happen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Anaphase is the stage during mitosis where sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite ends of the cell. This process is called disjunction, and if it fails, it can result in an extra chromosome, which is seen in trisomy 21.

      Cytokinesis is the final step in cell division, where the cytoplasm divides into two daughter cells. Failure of this stage can lead to the development of some tumor cells, but it does not cause genetic abnormalities like trisomy 21.

      During metaphase, chromosomes align in the center of the cell, and microtubules attach to their kinetochores to prepare for anaphase. If chromosomes do not pair up accurately during metaphase, it can result in an imbalance of chromosomes in the daughter cells.

      Prometaphase is the stage before metaphase, where the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing spindle microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. Faults during prometaphase can also lead to an imbalance of chromosomes in the daughter cells.

      After anaphase, telophase occurs, where sister chromatids arrive at opposite ends of the cell, and the mitotic spindle breaks down. New nuclei are formed within the daughter cells. Failure of this phase can result in binucleated cells, which are commonly seen in cancer cells.

      Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division

      Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.

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  • Question 87 - As a junior doctor on paediatrics, you are asked to assess a 48-hour-old...

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    • As a junior doctor on paediatrics, you are asked to assess a 48-hour-old newborn who has a temperature of 39.2ºC. The infant was delivered vaginally without any complications at term. Upon examination, you observe that the infant is febrile and has reduced muscle tone, as well as showing signs of respiratory distress.

      Which organism is the probable culprit for this infant's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK, particularly in cases of vaginal delivery, is group B streptococcus infection. This patient’s symptoms of fever, reduced tone, and respiratory distress suggest a diagnosis of neonatal sepsis, which is further classified as early-onset due to the patient’s age. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a Gram-negative rod, is an important cause of late-onset neonatal sepsis, but is not the primary cause in this case. Herpes simplex virus and Staphylococcus aureus are relatively uncommon causes of neonatal sepsis in general.

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.

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  • Question 88 - A 53-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort. He has no significant medical history and is generally healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient is found to have tachycardia and an ECG confirms supraventricular tachycardia. The on-call cardiologist is consulted and, after further evaluation, suggests starting flecainide.

      What is the mechanism of action of flecainide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blockage of the Nav1.5 sodium channel

      Explanation:

      Flecainide method of action is the blockage of Nav1.5 sodium channels in the heart. It is classified as a class Ic antiarrhythmic drug, which has the strongest effect on the initiation phase of depolarisation.

      Verapamil and diltiazem, which are class IV antiarrhythmic drugs, block L-type calcium channels, specifically the Cav1.2 unit. Amiodarone, on the other hand, exhibits some calcium-channel blocking effects, among other effects, and blocks the Kv11.1 potassium channel.

      Flecainide does not block the Cav2.3 calcium channel, which refers to R-type calcium channels that are poorly understood and sparsely found in the body.

      Flecainide: A Sodium Channel Blocker for Cardiac Arrhythmias

      Flecainide is a type of antiarrhythmic drug that belongs to the Vaughan Williams class 1c. It works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channels, which slows down the conduction of the action potential. This can cause the QRS complex to widen and the PR interval to prolong. Flecainide is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and supraventricular tachycardia associated with accessory pathways like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

      However, it is important to note that flecainide is contraindicated in certain situations. For instance, it should not be used in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or have structural heart disease like heart failure. It is also not recommended for those with sinus node dysfunction or second-degree or greater AV block, as well as those with atrial flutter.

      Like any medication, flecainide can cause adverse effects. It may have a negative inotropic effect, which means it can weaken the heart’s contractions. It can also cause bradycardia, proarrhythmic effects, oral paraesthesia, and visual disturbances. Therefore, it is important to use flecainide only under the guidance of a healthcare professional and to report any unusual symptoms immediately.

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  • Question 89 - A 56-year-old man presents to the neurologist with a complaint of progressive gait...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the neurologist with a complaint of progressive gait disturbance over the past few months. He has no significant medical history and has not seen a healthcare professional in many years due to his busy schedule. He reports a painless lesion on his penile shaft that resolved spontaneously many years ago. His family history is unremarkable, and he travels frequently for business, consuming two glasses of wine per week. He maintains a balanced diet.

      During the examination, the patient exhibits a slamming of his feet onto the ground while walking. There is no dysdiadochokinesis, past-pointing, or nystagmus. His peripheral sensation is intact, and his motor function is normal. Upon examination of his cranial nerves, the neurologist notes small pupils that do not respond to light but contract normally to accommodation and convergence.

      What is the most likely diagnosis, and which anatomic location's lesions are contributing to his gait disturbance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dorsal column of the spinal cord

      Explanation:

      Tabes dorsalis is a manifestation of tertiary syphilis that results in the degeneration of dorsal column fibers. This patient exhibits two key features of the disease, including a sensory ataxic gait (also known as a stomping gait) and Argyll-Robertson pupils, which are bilaterally small and reactive but do not accommodate. A diagnosis of tertiary syphilis can be confirmed by testing the spinal fluid with VDRL or RPR.

      While lesions of the cerebellar vermis can also cause gait ataxia, it typically presents as a truncal ataxia rather than a stomping gait. Additionally, the pupillary findings make neurosyphilis more likely.

      A lesion of the lateral corticospinal tract would result in suboptimal motor function on neurological examination, and Argyll-Robertson pupils would not be consistent with this answer.

      Destruction of the anterior white commissure of the spinothalamic tract is seen in syringomyelia, which presents with bilateral loss of pain and temperature rather than gait disturbance.

      Although a disturbance of the vestibulocochlear nerve can result in gait unsteadiness, a stomping gait would not be the typical manifestation, and the pupillary findings make this answer less likely.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with an incubation period of 9-90 days. The primary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact, along with local lymphadenopathy. Women may not always exhibit visible symptoms. The secondary stage occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection and presents with systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy, as well as a rash on the trunk, palms, and soles. Other symptoms may include buccal ulcers and genital warts. Tertiary syphilis can lead to granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones, ascending aortic aneurysms, general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil. Congenital syphilis can cause blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

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  • Question 90 - A 35-year-old patient visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, weight gain, feeling cold...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, weight gain, feeling cold and low mood for the past few months. Upon conducting blood tests, the results show:

      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 3.6 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      The doctor diagnoses the patient with hypothyroidism and prescribes levothyroxine. What is the target that this medication binds to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nuclear receptors

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine exerts its effects by binding to nuclear receptors located within the nucleus of the cell. As a result, the molecule must be lipid-soluble to penetrate the cell membrane and affect gene transcription. Other drugs that work via nuclear receptors include hormone replacements like levothyroxine and steroids such as prednisolone.

      Enzymatic binding is an incorrect answer because levothyroxine does not bind to an enzyme in the cytoplasm. Instead, it diffuses into the nucleus of the cell and binds to a receptor there.

      GPCR, ion channel, and tyrosine kinase receptor are also incorrect answers. GPCRs are cell membrane-spanning receptors, ion channels are simple, membrane-spanning receptors, and tyrosine kinase receptors lead to phosphorylation of end-targets within the cell. These mechanisms are different from the nuclear receptor mechanism used by levothyroxine.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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  • Question 91 - A psychology student conducts a study examining the relationship between age and the...

    Incorrect

    • A psychology student conducts a study examining the relationship between age and the level of anxiety in individuals. She found that there was not a significant difference in anxiety levels between age groups, however, there was a widespread away from the mean anxiety level in all age groups.

      What term is used to define the measurement of this spread of results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Variance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variance as a Measure of Spread

      Variance is a statistical measure that helps to determine how far apart a set of scores is from the mean. It is calculated by taking the square of the standard deviation. In other words, variance is a way to quantify the amount of variability or spread in a data set. It is a useful tool in many fields, including finance, engineering, and science, as it can help to identify patterns and trends in data. By understanding variance, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the distribution of data and make more informed decisions based on their findings. Overall, variance is an important concept to grasp for anyone working with data, as it provides a way to measure the degree of variability in a set of scores.

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  • Question 92 - A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum, and epicanthic folds. He also experiences cyanosis when exerting himself and has difficulty eating due to a cleft palate. Based on this presentation, what is the child at higher risk for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent infections

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion), which is characterized by thymus hypoplasia leading to recurrent infections. Other symptoms associated with this condition can be remembered using the acronym CATCH-22, which includes cardiac anomalies, abnormal facies, cleft palate, hypoparathyroidism leading to hypocalcaemia, and the location of the deletion on chromosome 22.

      Atopic conditions such as eczema, allergies, and asthma are also common in some individuals.

      Premature aortic sclerosis is often seen in individuals with Turner syndrome (45 XO), while pulmonary hypoplasia is associated with the Potter sequence. Elevated cholesterol levels may be caused by a genetic hypercholesterolaemia syndrome.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymus hypoplasia.

      The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.

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  • Question 93 - A 10-year-old boy is prescribed erythromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is prescribed erythromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Macrolides work by inhibiting protein synthesis through their action on the 50S subunit of ribosomes. This class of antibiotics, which includes erythromycin, does not inhibit cell wall synthesis, topoisomerase IV enzyme, or disrupt the cell membrane, which are mechanisms of action for other types of antibiotics.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 94 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor with a complaint of dysuria that...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor with a complaint of dysuria that has been bothering her for the last 48 hours. She reports that her urine appears cloudier than usual. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the doctor observes positive results for both leukocytes and nitrites. As a result, the doctor prescribes a 3-day course of trimethoprim to treat the suspected urinary tract infection.

      What is the mode of action of the selected antibiotic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits folic acid formation

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim inhibits the formation of folic acid, making it an effective antibiotic. Other antibiotics, such as penicillin, disrupt bacterial cell wall formation, macrolides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of ribosomes, aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes, and rifampicin is an RNA polymerase inhibitor.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 95 - As a medical student in general practice, a 45-year-old male patient complains of...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student in general practice, a 45-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and is diagnosed with anemia. What is the recommended daily intake of iron for an average person?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8-14mg

      Explanation:

      According to the NHS, the recommended daily intake of iron is 8.7mg for men (aged 19-64) and 14.8mg for women (aged 19-50). Women aged 50-64 require 8.7mg per day. It is possible to obtain sufficient iron from a balanced diet.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 96 - A 32-year-old woman has been referred to a clinical geneticist due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been referred to a clinical geneticist due to a family history of breast cancer. She is considering genetic testing for BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene mutations.

      During the consent process, the geneticist explains that not all individuals who test positive for BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations will develop breast cancer.

      What is the best explanation for this occurrence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penetrance

      Explanation:

      Penetrance is the term used to describe the percentage of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and exhibit the associated disease phenotype. Dominance refers to the expression of one allele over another, while expressivity refers to the degree of variation in a non-binary phenotype. Heteroplasmy is a condition seen in mitochondrial disease where only some of the mitochondria in a cell are affected, while others remain healthy.

      Understanding Penetrance and Expressivity in Genetic Disorders

      Penetrance and expressivity are two important concepts in genetics that help explain why individuals with the same gene mutation may exhibit different degrees of observable characteristics. Penetrance refers to the proportion of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and express the related disease phenotype. In contrast, expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual.

      There are several factors that can influence penetrance and expressivity, including modifier genes, environmental factors, and allelic variation. For example, some genetic disorders, such as retinoblastoma and Huntington’s disease, exhibit incomplete penetrance, meaning that not all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition. On the other hand, achondroplasia shows complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition.

      Expressivity, on the other hand, describes the severity of the phenotype. Some genetic disorders, such as neurofibromatosis, exhibit a high level of expressivity, meaning that the phenotype is more severe in affected individuals. Understanding penetrance and expressivity is important in genetic counseling and can help predict the likelihood and severity of a genetic disorder in individuals and their families.

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  • Question 97 - A 20-year-old woman has just been prescribed a new antibiotic for her acne....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has just been prescribed a new antibiotic for her acne. The doctor warns her about the potential harm to a developing fetus and suggests using contraception. Additionally, the doctor advises the patient to always apply sun cream due to the medication's increased risk of sunburn. Upon reviewing the drug information form, the patient discovers that the antibiotic can cause teeth discoloration in children.

      What is the mechanism of action for this antibiotic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes to impair protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines act by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes, which inhibits protein synthesis. Although commonly prescribed for moderate-severe acne, caution should be exercised as they are teratogenic and can cause skin sensitivity, gastrointestinal disturbances, and kidney impairment. Tetracyclines should not be taken with high calcium foods or drinks such as milk due to their ability to bind to calcium ions in developing bones and teeth. The other answer options, including binding to penicillin binding proteins, bacterial dihydrofolate reductase enzyme, topoisomerase IV/DNA gyrase-DNA complexes, and the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, are incorrect as they are mechanisms of action for other antibiotics.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 98 - You are requested to evaluate a 25-year-old woman who was brought in by...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 25-year-old woman who was brought in by the emergency medical services after reporting a bee sting. She has no known allergies but experienced sudden breathlessness and observed swelling of her lips.

      Currently, the patient is feeling improved and can converse with you without difficulty. She believes that the medication administered to her during transportation is responsible for her progress.

      What is the probable reason for the prompt amelioration of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular 0.5ml 1:1000 adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The most crucial drug to administer in cases of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. Hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine are no longer prescribed. It is probable that the patient experienced an anaphylactic reaction due to the bee sting, which is a common trigger for susceptible individuals.

      The correct dosage in this scenario is 0.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline via the intramuscular route. Adrenaline is essential in reducing mast cell degranulation and facilitating bronchodilation and blood pressure maintenance by acting on alpha and beta receptors.

      Administering 1ml of 1:10,000 adrenaline subcutaneously is incorrect as this dosage is intended for cardiac arrest and the delivery method is not appropriate.

      1ml of 1:1000 adrenaline via the intravenous route is also incorrect as the dosage is excessive, and intramuscular injection is the preferred method.

      Chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone are no longer recommended for emergency anaphylaxis management due to insufficient evidence supporting their efficacy.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 99 - A couple is expecting a baby. The father has red-green colour blindness, but...

    Incorrect

    • A couple is expecting a baby. The father has red-green colour blindness, but the mother is unaffected. If they have a son, he will not inherit the disease. The doctor informs them that they are having a daughter.

      What is the likelihood that their daughter will be a carrier of the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      What is the likelihood of a male child from these parents being affected by red-green color blindness? The father has a mutated X chromosome but will pass on his Y chromosome to his son, which does not carry the disease. The mother does not have the condition, so the son will inherit a non-mutated X chromosome from her.

      X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.

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  • Question 100 - A 26-year-old patient is hospitalized for pneumonia and undergoes a rapid HIV screen,...

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    • A 26-year-old patient is hospitalized for pneumonia and undergoes a rapid HIV screen, which returns positive. Upon discharge, the patient is referred to an HIV clinic and prescribed a regimen of antiretroviral therapy, including raltegravir. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevents viral genome from being inserted into host DNA

      Explanation:

      Integrase inhibitors, also known as ‘gravirs’, prevent the insertion of the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell by blocking the action of the enzyme integrase. Raltegravir is an example of an integrase inhibitor. The ‘gr’ in the names of these drugs may help to remember ‘inteGRase inhibitor’. This mode of action is different from nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), which act as chain-terminators to stop reverse transcription, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), which block the action of reverse transcriptase, and protease inhibitor drugs, which block the action of viral proteases. Entry inhibitor drugs, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering cells by binding to CCR5 and GP41, respectively.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

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