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  • Question 1 - What is a true statement about amnesia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about amnesia?

      Your Answer: Situation specific amnesia is seen in cases of child sexual abuse

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by a disruption of personal identity, which is not observed in transient global amnesia. In individuals with psychogenic amnesia, there is typically a loss of past memories (retrograde amnesia) while the ability to form new memories (anterograde amnesia) is relatively preserved.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to...

    Correct

    • Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to reinforce his social learning theory?

      Your Answer: Bandura

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the term used to describe the situation where diagnostic categories align...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the situation where diagnostic categories align with clinical experience?

      Your Answer: Construct validity

      Correct Answer: Face validity

      Explanation:

      For diagnostic categories to be useful, they must be related to the disorders encountered in practice. Face validity refers to the degree to which diagnostic categories align with clinical experience. Validity is distinct from diagnosis reliability. Concurrent validity measures how well a test corresponds with other measures of the same thing. Construct validity involves diagnostic categories indicating connections between disorders and independent variables, such as biochemical measures. Content validity involves test items representing the full range of possible items the test could cover. Predictive validity involves diagnostic categories being able to anticipate the outcome of disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the term used to describe the mistake made by the medical...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the mistake made by the medical director during his speech on the proposed merger of two hospitals, where he accidentally said 'murder of two hospitals' instead of 'merger of two hospitals'?

      Your Answer: Parapraxis

      Explanation:

      Parapraxis: A Freudian Slip of the Tongue

      A parapraxis, commonly known as a ‘slip of the tongue’, is a Freudian concept that suggests that these slips reveal important information about the repressed content of the unconscious mind. According to Freud, these mistakes are not accidental but rather a manifestation of the unconscious mind’s desires and thoughts. For instance, a person may accidentally call their boss by their partner’s name, revealing an underlying attraction of resentment towards their boss. Freud believed that these parapraxes could provide valuable insights into a person’s psyche and help uncover repressed memories of emotions. Therefore, he considered them an essential tool in psychoanalysis. Today, parapraxes are still studied and analyzed by psychologists and therapists to gain a better understanding of their patients’ unconscious thoughts and feelings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the lowest daily dose of moclobemide that is effective for treating...

    Incorrect

    • What is the lowest daily dose of moclobemide that is effective for treating depression in adults?

      Your Answer: 25 mg

      Correct Answer: 300 mg

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is also seen in the brains of drug users who do not have HIV?

      Your Answer: Parenchymal T and B lymphocyte infiltration

      Correct Answer: Axonal damage

      Explanation:

      Axonal damage is present in the brains of both individuals with early HIV infection and those who do not have HIV but use drugs. Pre-symptomatic HIV infection has been linked to various neurological changes, including lymphocytic leptomeningitis, perivascular lymphocytic cuffing, and infiltration of T and B lymphocytes in brain tissue, as well as subtle gliosis and microglial activation. While axonal damage has been observed in early HIV infection, it may also be caused by factors such as inflammation, trauma, and hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old female with a long history of bipolar disorder is being discharged...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female with a long history of bipolar disorder is being discharged from the hospital in a week. During her capacity assessment, she stated that she understood her finances and what she planned to do with them. She mentioned that she wanted to invest some of her money in a high-risk stock, which could potentially result in financial loss. However, she believed that the company's new product would be successful and yield a return on her investment. These thoughts are not related to her mental illness. Based on this information, what can be said about her capacity to manage her finances?

      Your Answer: He has capacity for managing his finances

      Explanation:

      The capacity of an individual to make decisions is specific to the decision being made and can change over time. The Mental Capacity Act 2005 aims to protect and empower those who may lack capacity to make certain decisions. The Act is based on five key principles, including the assumption that every adult has the right to make their own decisions unless proven otherwise, the provision of practical help before assuming lack of capacity, and the importance of making decisions in the best interests of the individual. Additionally, any actions taken on behalf of someone lacking capacity should be the least restrictive of their basic rights and freedoms. It is important to note that an unwise decision does not necessarily indicate a lack of capacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      59.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which enzyme is responsible for adding amino acids to RNA molecules to create...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is responsible for adding amino acids to RNA molecules to create transfer RNA?

      Your Answer: RNA amino transferase

      Correct Answer: Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

      Explanation:

      The Aminoacyl tRNA Synthetases (AARSs) are a group of enzymes that attach a specific amino acid to its corresponding tRNA molecule. There are 21 different AARS enzymes, each responsible for a different amino acid, except for lysine, which has two AARSs.

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which statement accurately describes the CATIE study? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the CATIE study?

      Your Answer: Phase II of the study was focused on the cost of antipsychotic drugs

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine was found to be more effective than the other atypical antipsychotics used in phase I

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine was found to have the highest duration of treatment before discontinuation due to inadequate efficacy, the longest period of successful treatment, and the lowest number of hospitalizations caused by worsening of schizophrenia among the patients.

      CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment

      The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.

      Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.

      The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

      Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

      The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation...

    Incorrect

    • What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation (DBS) in individuals with treatment-resistant depression?

      Your Answer: Ventral capsule/ventral striatum

      Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Deep brain stimulation (DBS) for treatment resistant depression targets specific brain regions based on their known involvement in pleasure, reward, and mood regulation. The nucleus accumbens is targeted due to its role in pleasure and reward processing. The inferior thalamic peduncle is targeted based on PET studies showing hyperactivity in depression. The lateral habenula is chosen due to observed hypermetabolism in depressed patients. The subgenual cingulate gyrus is targeted due to its hyperactivity in depression. The ventral capsule/ventral striatum is chosen based on its association with improved mood and reduced depressive symptoms following ablation treatments for OCD and depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is another term for non-declarative memory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another term for non-declarative memory?

      Your Answer: Semantic

      Correct Answer: Implicit

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is an uncommon feature of discontinuing SSRI medication? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an uncommon feature of discontinuing SSRI medication?

      Your Answer: Palpitations

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced during discontinuation can be similar to those of anxiety and depression, leading to the possibility of misinterpreting them as a relapse.

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol dependence by targeting which type of receptors?

      Your Answer: GABA-B

      Correct Answer: Metabotropic glutamate receptors

      Explanation:

      The exact way in which acamprosate helps maintain alcohol abstinence is not fully understood. However, it is believed that chronic alcohol exposure disrupts the balance between neuronal excitation and inhibition. Studies conducted on animals suggest that acamprosate may interact with the glutamate and GABA neurotransmitter systems in the brain, which may help restore this balance. Acamprosate is thought to inhibit glutamate receptors while activating GABA receptors, specifically GABA-A and metabotropic glutamate receptors. It should be noted that some sources suggest that acamprosate affects NMDA receptors, which are a type of ionotropic glutamate receptor. However, this is not entirely accurate and may not be reflected in exam questions.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 20 month old child would be expected to be in which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 month old child would be expected to be in which of the following stages of psychosexual development?

      Your Answer: Genital

      Correct Answer: Anal

      Explanation:

      Psychosexual Development

      The psychosexual theory of development, developed by Freud, outlines a number of stages that individuals go through in their development. These stages are quite complex, but tend to come up in exams. The stages include the oral stage, which occurs from birth to 18 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through sucking, swallowing, and biting. The anal stage occurs from 18 to 36 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through bowel and bladder elimination and retention. The phallic stage occurs from 3 to 5 years, where boys pass through the Oedipal complex and girls the Electra complex. Girls are also said to develop penis envy in this stage. The latency stage occurs from 5 to puberty, where the sexual drive remains latent. Finally, the genital stage occurs from puberty to adulthood, where a person achieves independence from their parents and forms intimate relationships with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in a neuron? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in a neuron?

      Your Answer: Structural support

      Correct Answer: Packaging of macromolecules

      Explanation:

      Melanin

      Melanin is a pigment found in various parts of the body, including the skin, hair, and eyes. It is produced by specialized cells called melanocytes, which are located in the skin’s basal layer. The function of melanin in the body is not fully understood, but it is thought to play a role in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Additionally, melanin may be a by-product of neurotransmitter synthesis, although this function is not well established. Overall, the role of melanin in the body is an area of ongoing research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old woman has been experiencing memory difficulties for the past year. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has been experiencing memory difficulties for the past year. Her husband has noticed that she talks about seeing things that aren't there and becomes very upset. What type of neuroimaging could provide more information about her condition?

      Your Answer: CT scan

      Correct Answer: SPECT scan with ioflupane iodine injection

      Explanation:

      Medical Imaging Technologies

      There are several medical imaging technologies used to diagnose and monitor various conditions. One such technology is the SPECT scan with ioflupane iodine injection, also known as the DAT scan. This scan helps to identify dopamine deficiency in the brain, which can rule out Parkinson’s dementia and Lewy body dementia. By using a small amount of a radioactive drug, the scan can determine how much dopamine is available in a person’s brain. In Lewy body dementia, there is a significant loss of striatal dopamine, which can be detected through this scan. This helps to differentiate between Alzheimer’s dementia, where dopaminergic activity is normal.

      Another imaging technology is the CT scan, which uses x-rays and a computer to create detailed images of the inside of the body. This scan is useful in identifying injuries of growths in different parts of the body. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is another technology that uses a strong magnetic field to create detailed images of the structures in the body. It is commonly used to examine organs and tissues.

      PET, of positron emission tomography, is a nuclear medicine imaging technology that produces three-dimensional, color images of the functional processes within the human body. It is used to study existing conditions in the body and how they are developing.

      Finally, an x-ray of the skull is mainly used to detect any bony abnormalities following trauma. However, this is now rarely requested, and if there is sufficient force, a CT scan is usually preferred. These imaging technologies play a crucial role in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      20.1
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  • Question 17 - What is a true statement about the cerebral cortex? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the cerebral cortex?

      Your Answer: The neocortex contains pyramidal cells

      Explanation:

      The cortex is composed of neurons, with the majority being pyramidal neurons that are excitatory and contain glutamate. Grey matter is where neural cell bodies are located, while white matter mainly consists of myelinated axon tracts. The color contrast between the two is due to the white appearance of myelin.

      The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex

      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      20.9
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  • Question 18 - What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based on Thomas and Chess's research?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 19 - What combination of symptoms and signs would strongly indicate the presence of tuberous...

    Correct

    • What combination of symptoms and signs would strongly indicate the presence of tuberous sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Seizures, developmental delay, and skin lesions

      Explanation:

      Tuberous Sclerosis: A Neurocutaneous Syndrome with Psychiatric Comorbidity

      Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the brain, and is associated with significant psychiatric comorbidity. This neurocutaneous syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with a high penetrance rate of 95%, but its expression can vary widely. The hallmark of this disorder is the growth of multiple non-cancerous tumors in vital organs, including the brain. These tumors result from mutations in one of two tumor suppressor genes, TSC1 and TSC2. The psychiatric comorbidities associated with tuberous sclerosis include autism, ADHD, depression, anxiety, and even psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 20 - What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a simple case of depression as a rare mental health condition they recently read about?

      Your Answer: The framing effect

      Correct Answer: Availability

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 21 - Which hypothalamic nucleus plays the most significant role in establishing the set point...

    Correct

    • Which hypothalamic nucleus plays the most significant role in establishing the set point for daily circadian rhythms?

      Your Answer: Suprachiasmatic

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Hypothalamus

      The hypothalamus is a vital part of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. It receives and integrates sensory information about the internal environment and directs actions to control internal homeostasis. The hypothalamus contains several nuclei and fiber tracts, each with specific functions.

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms. Neurons in the SCN have an intrinsic rhythm of discharge activity and receive input from the retina. The SCN is considered the body’s master clock, but it has multiple connections with other hypothalamic nuclei.

      Body temperature control is mainly under the control of the preoptic, anterior, and posterior nuclei, which have temperature-sensitive neurons. As the temperature goes above 37ºC, warm-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering parasympathetic activity to promote heat loss. As the temperature goes below 37ºC, cold-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering sympathetic activity to promote conservation of heat.

      The hypothalamus also plays a role in regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine is tonically secreted by dopaminergic neurons that project from the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus into the anterior pituitary gland via the tuberoinfundibular pathway. The dopamine that is released acts on lactotrophic cells through D2-receptors, inhibiting prolactin synthesis. In the absence of pregnancy of lactation, prolactin is constitutively inhibited by dopamine. Dopamine antagonists result in hyperprolactinemia, while dopamine agonists inhibit prolactin secretion.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is a complex structure that regulates various bodily functions, including circadian rhythms, body temperature, and prolactin secretion. Dysfunction of the hypothalamus can lead to various disorders, such as sleep-rhythm disorder, diabetes insipidus, hyperprolactinemia, and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 22 - What is the most frequently occurring side effect of rivastigmine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently occurring side effect of rivastigmine?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Correct Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the scale commonly utilized in pharmaceutical research to evaluate extrapyramidal side...

    Incorrect

    • What is the scale commonly utilized in pharmaceutical research to evaluate extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer: Conors

      Correct Answer: AIMS

      Explanation:

      Assessment tools are commonly used in clinical research to diagnose and evaluate various conditions. The abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS) is one such tool that assesses the range of extrapyramidal side effects caused by neuroleptic medication. Another tool, Conors, is used to diagnose ADHD in children, while DIVA is used for the same purpose in adults. DISCO, on the other hand, is an assessment tool used to diagnose ASD at any age. Finally, the Hamilton depression rating scale, also known as HAM D-17, is used to evaluate the severity of depression in patients. Proper use of these assessment tools can aid in accurate diagnosis and effective treatment of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which symptom would indicate a hydrocephalus that is communicating rather than non-communicating? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which symptom would indicate a hydrocephalus that is communicating rather than non-communicating?

      Your Answer: Papilledema

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

      The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 25 - What is an example of an optical illusion that creates the perception of...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of an optical illusion that creates the perception of motion?

      Your Answer: Moon illusion

      Correct Answer: Phi phenomenon

      Explanation:

      The Hering illusion is an optical illusion where straight and parallel lines appear to be curved of bowed outwards when presented in front of a radial background, such as the spokes of a bicycle wheel.

      Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization

      Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 26 - Which option is not considered a scoring factor in the clock drawing test?...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not considered a scoring factor in the clock drawing test?

      Your Answer: Drawing the clock circle

      Correct Answer: Knowing the actual time

      Explanation:

      Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction

      The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.

      The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.

      The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You are employed at a psychiatric inpatient unit where several patients are taking...

    Incorrect

    • You are employed at a psychiatric inpatient unit where several patients are taking clozapine. Among the following patients, who would you suspect to have the lowest plasma clozapine levels if they were all taking the same dose?

      Your Answer: A 60-year-old Afro-Caribbean male non-smoker

      Correct Answer: A 25-year-old Caucasian male smoker

      Explanation:

      Younger patients, males, and smokers typically exhibit lower plasma levels of clozapine, while the Asian population tends to have higher levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?

      Your Answer: Tom Main

      Correct Answer: George Brown

      Explanation:

      The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which antidepressant is commonly linked to priapism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant is commonly linked to priapism?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection

      Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Where was a declaration created that outlines ethical principles for conducting research on...

    Correct

    • Where was a declaration created that outlines ethical principles for conducting research on human subjects?

      Your Answer: Helsinki

      Explanation:

      The Significance of the Declaration of Helsinki in Biomedical Research Ethics

      The Declaration of Helsinki, created by the World Medical Association in 1964, outlines the fundamental ethical principles that govern biomedical research involving human subjects. Over the years, it has undergone several revisions and continues to serve as a cornerstone of good medical practice. Its importance lies in its ability to provide a framework for ethical decision-making in research, ensuring that the rights, safety, and well-being of human subjects are protected. The Declaration of Helsinki is a crucial document that guides researchers, clinicians, and policymakers in their efforts to conduct ethical and responsible research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Social Psychology (4/9) 44%
Classification And Assessment (0/2) 0%
Psychopharmacology (1/7) 14%
Neurosciences (2/6) 33%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Psychological Development (0/1) 0%
Neurological Examination (0/1) 0%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Passmed