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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman is brought to the Geriatrics outpatient clinic by her son....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is brought to the Geriatrics outpatient clinic by her son. He is extremely concerned and she has been displaying some very odd behaviour and has had some weakness in her lower limbs.
      She reports that about a year ago she and her family noticed that their mother’s house was beginning to become cluttered as she had become unable to manage her belongings. They had also had complaints from neighbors who felt their mother’s behavior was often rude and disinhibited, laughing or crying at inappropriate times. She had developed a ‘sweet tooth’ and would hoard such items, eating little else. The son reported that over the last few weeks he had noticed his mother’s speech sounded different and she had difficulty getting out of her chair.
      She had previously been fit and well, with no past medical history and took no medications.
      On examination, the patient’s speech has a nasal quality and she has an impaired swallow with tongue fasciculations. The remainder of the cranial nerve examination is normal and there is no papilloedema. She has proximal limb weakness of 4/5 bilaterally and fasciculations of her left quadriceps. Her reflexes are brisk. Her sensory exam is normal. Her mini-mental state examination (MMSE) scores 28/30, with some subtle word-finding difficulties.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IV immunoglobulin (not useful in this case)

      Correct Answer: Urgent review by Intensivist

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms strongly suggest botulism, which can occur from consuming improperly canned fish. Diagnosis is typically made based on clinical presentation rather than laboratory tests or imaging. Botulism causes paralysis of the central and autonomic nervous systems, leading to respiratory muscle weakness and hypoventilation. Treatment involves supportive therapy in an intensive care unit, including intubation and ventilation, respiratory physiotherapy, nasogastric tube placement, and catheterization. Recovery can take up to 100 days, with severe cases requiring ventilation for an extended period. Ciprofloxacin is not effective for botulism, while IV immunoglobulin is only useful if given early in asymptomatic patients. Metronidazole can be used as treatment, but stabilizing the airway is the most critical aspect of management. A CT brain scan is not necessary and may delay necessary airway management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old male arrives at the hospital with sudden onset of right-sided weakness...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male arrives at the hospital with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and speech impairment that has lasted for two hours. A CT cerebral angiogram reveals thrombosis in the proximal left middle cerebral artery (LMCA). The patient had undergone laparotomy for bowel obstruction caused by an incarcerated umbilical hernia seven days prior to this incident. In the absence of IV thrombolysis, what emergency treatments could potentially help this patient?

      Your Answer: Intra-arterial clot retrieval

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been diagnosed with an acute proximal MCA, distal internal carotid artery, or basilar artery occlusion may find intra-arterial clot retrieval to be beneficial. It is recommended that the procedure be performed within 6 hours of the onset of symptoms.

      If a patient has recently undergone abdominal surgery, they are not eligible for intravenous thrombolysis, making intra-arterial clot retrieval a viable option.

      Recent randomized trials have confirmed the safety and effectiveness of intra-arterial clot retrieval in conjunction with intravenous thrombolysis for eligible stroke patients. Patients who are unable to receive IV thrombolysis but present with large vessel occlusion within the appropriate time frame may also benefit from intra-arterial clot retrieval.

      None of the other options have been proven to be beneficial in an emergency setting. However, initiating a statin-based therapy as part of a secondary prevention regimen is recommended for all patients who have experienced an ischemic stroke.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 3 - A 35 year old male Intravenous drug user presents to genito-urinary clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male Intravenous drug user presents to genito-urinary clinic. He was diagnosed with HIV 2 years ago after presenting with tuberculosis (TB). He was treated for TB for 6 months. He is now on third line anti-retroviral therapy for previous virological failure and co-trimoxazole. His most recent CD4 count was 110, and his viral load was 2,500 copies/ml.

      He complains of weakness on his right side, and deterioration in hearing, getting worse for three weeks. He has a severe headache. On examination his hearing is reduced in his right ear and normal in his left ear. He has weakness, in his right arm and leg, brisk reflexes and mildly increased tone.

      He is immediately admitted.

      A CT scan shows several ring enhancing lesions in his left cerebral hemisphere and one on the right cerebral hemisphere.

      On audiological review he has a large area of cochlear necrosis in his right ear.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cerebral TB

      Correct Answer: Cerebral toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasmosis is the most likely diagnosis for an HIV patient presenting with neuro symptoms and multiple brain lesions with ring enhancement. The top three differential diagnoses for this presentation are CNS lymphoma, TB, and Toxoplasmosis. The presence of retinal necrosis is a characteristic feature of ophthalmic toxoplasmosis, and the presence of multiple lesions further supports this diagnosis. The patient’s poor compliance with HIV treatment, as evidenced by the low CD4 count and high viral load, suggests that their adherence to co-trimoxazole treatment may also be poor.

      Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.

      Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
      Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
      Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
      Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
      Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman has been referred to the first fit clinic after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman has been referred to the first fit clinic after experiencing a seizure three weeks ago. Her boyfriend witnessed the seizure, which lasted for approximately three minutes and involved violent shaking of her arms and legs. He also noted laboured breathing, blood in her mouth, and incontinence of urine. The day before the seizure, she had consumed one bottle of champagne and felt tired before going to bed. She has a history of asthma and frequent headaches, for which she takes sumatriptan and a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She is a smoker and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. She works in publishing and holds a driving license.

      On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 67 beats/minute, and neurological system is normal. Investigations reveal abnormal liver function tests, with elevated gamma GT, alkaline phosphatase, and alanine aminotransferase levels.

      What would be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange for an EEG and head imaging to incorporate MRI and head CT

      Explanation:

      Nocturnal Seizure and Possible Precipitants

      The patient has experienced a nocturnal seizure that was witnessed by someone. One possible cause could be her heavy alcohol consumption, although she also reported feeling tired, which is a known trigger for epileptic seizures. She has a history of frequent headaches, and her liver function tests indicate that she drinks heavily. While this could be a symptom of alcohol withdrawal, further investigations are necessary to rule out other causes, such as an arteriovenous malformation that could explain her seizures and headaches.

      As a result of her recent seizure, the patient should inform the DVLA and stop driving. However, since she has only had one seizure of uncertain origin, it is not advisable to start her on anti-epileptic medication at this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the outpatient clinic with a complaint of mild...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the outpatient clinic with a complaint of mild exertional dyspnoea that had been ongoing for two months. She reported that her symptoms were more noticeable when she walked her dog in the evening, but not in the morning. Her husband had observed that she sometimes spoke with slurred speech after the evening walk and appeared depressed. She had a history of mild anxiety and depression that had been treated by her GP.

      During the examination, the patient appeared anxious, but there was no palpable lymphadenopathy. Her heart sounds were normal, and her chest was clear on auscultation. Her abdomen was soft and non-tender with no palpable masses or organs. Cranial nerves were intact, and there were no abnormalities in tone, bulk, or power in her limbs. Her reflexes were brisk and symmetrical with bilateral flexor plantar responses.

      What bedside test could be used to help confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Counting numbers aloud

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia Gravis: A Possible Diagnosis for Muscle Fatigability

      The patient’s history suggests that they may be suffering from myasthenia gravis, a condition characterized by muscle fatigability that becomes more prominent as the day progresses. The weakness of facial muscles can lead to a loss of facial expression, resulting in a depressed appearance and a snarling smile, as well as slurred speech. While early symptoms of motor neurone disease may present similarly, it is highly unlikely in this age group.

      At the bedside, muscle fatigability can be demonstrated by asking the patient to count aloud from 1 to 20 slowly, which often induces slurred speech. Additionally, fatigable ptosis can be demonstrated by asking the patient to maintain upward gaze without blinking for 30-60 seconds. These symptoms, along with the patient’s history, suggest that myasthenia gravis may be the underlying cause of their muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 82-year-old woman presents with poor mobility and lethargy. Her husband called for...

    Correct

    • A 82-year-old woman presents with poor mobility and lethargy. Her husband called for an ambulance when he had difficulty waking her up in the morning. She would briefly open her eyes in response to his voice before falling back asleep. She typically uses a Zimmer frame to walk and had fallen the week before being admitted. Her medical history includes hypertension and diabetes.

      During examination, her Glasgow coma scale was reduced to 13/15 and both planters were upgoing. An urgent CT head scan was ordered, revealing evidence of bilateral subdural hematomas.

      Which vessel is affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Bridging veins

      Explanation:

      Types of Haemorrhage and their Causes

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage can occur when the anterior and posterior communicating arteries rupture. On the other hand, tearing of the middle meningeal artery can result in an extradural haematoma. The superior sagittal sinus is a venous channel that drains blood from the brain into the internal jugular vein. However, thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus can occur, leading to intracerebral haemorrhage.

      In summary, there are different types of haemorrhage that can occur in the brain, and each has its own specific cause. It is important to understand these causes to properly diagnose and treat the condition. Subarachnoid haemorrhage is caused by the rupture of certain arteries, while extradural haematoma is caused by tearing of the middle meningeal artery. Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus can also lead to intracerebral haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - A 65 year old man has been referred to you by a psychiatrist...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man has been referred to you by a psychiatrist for a second opinion. He has been experiencing low mood, apathy and suicidal thoughts for the past 3 months. He was also asked to retire early from his job as an accountant due to poor performance. Additionally, he has been sleeping for an average of 14 hours per day.

      During his assessment with the psychiatrist, abnormal jerky movements were noted in his lower limbs and he had a broad based gait. His MMSE score was 15/30, which was confirmed during your examination. You also observed hyperreflexia in his lower limbs and nystagmus. He has no history of cognitive impairment or psychiatric conditions, and there is no family history of neurological or psychiatric disorders. His only past medical history is an appendectomy 20 years ago, which was complicated by a large intraperitoneal bleed.

      What investigations are most likely to reveal additional information about his condition?

      Your Answer: CAG trinucleotide repeats on the short arm of chromosome 4

      Correct Answer: Increased T2 and FLAIR signal intensity in the putamen and head of the caudate on T2 weighted MRI, 14-3-3 protein on CSF

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Sporadic Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease, which is characterized by a rapidly progressive dementia and neuropsychiatric changes. Death usually occurs within a year of diagnosis. The most common psychiatric symptoms are depression and apathy, but euphoria, anxiety, and emotional lability can also be seen. The most common neurological symptoms are myoclonus, ataxia, nystagmus, and hyperreflexia.

      Option A is the most likely finding for sporadic CJD. This disease usually has a longer clinical course than nvCJD and is typically seen in older individuals. However, nvCJD cannot be ruled out as the patient may have had a blood transfusion 20 years ago.

      Option B is a finding seen in Huntington’s chorea, but the lack of family history makes this diagnosis less likely. Option C’s oligoclonal bands are associated with Multiple Sclerosis, not CJD. Option D is not a recognized investigation finding, and option E would be more consistent with a diagnosis of Pick’s Disease. However, the very rapid onset of symptoms and presence of myoclonic jerks make this answer less likely.

      Understanding Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is a rapidly progressive neurological condition caused by prion proteins that induce the formation of amyloid folds. These folds result in tightly packed beta-pleated sheets that are resistant to proteases. The disease is characterized by dementia with a rapid onset and myoclonus.

      Investigations for CJD include a normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), biphasic high amplitude sharp waves on EEG (only in sporadic CJD), and hyperintense signals in the basal ganglia and thalamus on MRI.

      Sporadic CJD accounts for 85% of cases, while 10-15% of cases are familial. The mean age of onset is 65 years. New variant CJD affects younger patients, with an average age of onset of 25 years. Psychological symptoms such as anxiety, withdrawal, and dysphonia are the most common presenting features. The ‘prion protein’ is encoded on chromosome 20, and its role is not yet understood. Methionine homozygosity at codon 129 of the prion protein is a risk factor for developing CJD, and all patients who have died from the disease have had this. The median survival time for CJD is 13 months.

      Other prion diseases include kuru, fatal familial insomnia, and Gerstmann Straussler-Scheinker disease. Understanding the features and investigations for CJD is important for early diagnosis and management of this devastating disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 59 year old man arrives at the Emergency Room with his wife,...

    Correct

    • A 59 year old man arrives at the Emergency Room with his wife, expressing concern about his memory. He first noticed a problem when he struggled to prepare breakfast in the morning. When questioned, he cannot recall today's events and has only fragmented memories of the past week, although his wife confirms that he had no memory issues yesterday. He seems highly anxious about his memory loss and repeatedly asks, Do I have dementia?

      Your Answer: Supportive care only

      Explanation:

      This individual has been diagnosed with transient global amnesia (TGA), which is characterized by a sudden onset of global memory loss and impaired new learning without any other cognitive defects. TGA patients are often acutely aware of their memory loss, which can cause significant anxiety. Due to the dense anterograde amnesia, repetitive questioning is common, also known as the broken record syndrome. However, loss of personal identity rules out TGA as a diagnosis. Patients remain alert and responsive during the episode.

      TGA is likely caused by a transient malfunctioning of the limbo-hippocampal system, which is responsible for forming and retrieving recent memories. It typically occurs in individuals with pre-existing vascular risk factors in their fifth decade of life, suggesting a cerebrovascular component, although the exact cause is unknown. TGA typically resolves on its own without treatment, but controlling vascular risk factors is important.

      Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is an unlikely diagnosis due to the acute onset and the length of time since the individual’s heavy alcohol consumption. While memory defects are similar, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome also involves attention and concentration deficits, frontal lobe dysfunction, and symptoms such as apathy and withdrawal.

      Thrombolysis is not a treatment for TGA, and it would not typically be administered to someone who woke up with stroke-like symptoms, even if the time window for treatment is less than 4.5 hours.

      Dementia is also an unlikely diagnosis due to the acute onset of symptoms.

      Understanding Transient Global Amnesia

      Transient global amnesia is a condition that is marked by the sudden onset of anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories. The exact cause of this condition is not yet known, but it is believed to be due to temporary ischaemia in the thalamus, particularly in the amygdala and hippocampus.

      Patients with transient global amnesia may exhibit signs of anxiety and may repeatedly ask the same question. However, these episodes are typically self-limited and resolve within 24 hours. It is important to note that while the memory loss associated with this condition can be alarming, it is usually temporary and does not result in any long-term cognitive impairment.

      Overall, transient global amnesia is a rare but interesting condition that highlights the complex nature of memory and the brain. While more research is needed to fully understand this condition, early recognition and management can help to alleviate symptoms and prevent any unnecessary anxiety or distress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 43-year-old widow presents with a one week history of progressive confusion and...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old widow presents with a one week history of progressive confusion and unsteady gait. She works as a waitress and lives in poor social circumstances.

      On examination, she is malnourished and disorientated. She has nystagmus and is unable to abduct either eye. The pupils are sluggish and unequal. Ankle jerks are absent but upper limb reflexes are present.

      Shortly after her admission, you are called to the ward as she has become very drowsy and has collapsed on the floor.

      What is the most likely cause of her presentation and drowsiness based on the following admission investigations?

      - Haemoglobin 114 g/L (115-165)
      - MCV 99 fL (80-96)
      - White blood count 5.6 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets 230 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Serum sodium 129 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Serum potassium 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Serum bilirubin 27 µmol/L (1-22)
      - Serum gamma GT 440 U/L (4-35)
      - Serum alkaline phosphatase 180 U/L (45-105)
      - Serum AST 90 U/L (1-31)
      - Serum ALT 45 U/L (5-35)
      - Serum albumin 33 g/L (37-49)
      - Prothrombin time 12 secs (11.5-15.5)

      Your Answer: Central pontine myelinolysis (CPM)

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy (WE)

      Explanation:

      A Case of Wernicke Encephalopathy in an Alcoholic Patient

      This patient presents with the classic triad of Wernicke Encephalopathy (WE), which includes encephalopathy, gait ataxia, and oculomotor dysfunction. Additionally, lower limb neuropathy is also present. The patient’s occupation, poor nutrition, social situation, and blood results all suggest underlying alcoholism as the cause of WE. Mild hyponatremia is present, but it is unlikely to cause symptoms or CPM (related to the rapid correction of Na+). A brainstem cerebrovascular accident is unlikely due to the gradual onset over two weeks. Liver function appears well preserved, with a normal prothrombin time and reasonable albumin levels.

      Overall, this case highlights the importance of recognizing the classic triad of WE in alcoholic patients, as prompt treatment with thiamine can prevent further neurological damage. It also emphasizes the need for addressing underlying alcoholism and improving nutrition in these patients to prevent future occurrences of WE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.6
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old man presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted in the city centre. He sustained multiple knife wounds, including two in the left groin. On examination, there is reduced power of hip flexion and knee extension on the left, along with reduced sensation over the medial aspect of the left thigh. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Investigations revealed normal full blood count and biochemistry, with a glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and a prothrombin time of 11.5 s (11.5-15.5). A plain x-ray of the pelvis showed no evidence of fracture. The patient is a previously fit individual who smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week.

      Your Answer: Obturator neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Femoral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Femoral Neuropathy: Causes and Symptoms

      Femoral neuropathy is a condition that primarily affects the quadriceps, causing weakness in this muscle group. The femoral nerve is formed by the L2-4 roots as part of the lumbar plexus and is susceptible to compression within the psoas muscle. This compression can occur due to haemorrhage into the muscle caused by haemophilia, anticoagulation therapy, or trauma.

      The main motor component of the femoral nerve innervates the iliopsoas and quadriceps muscles. The motor branch to the iliopsoas originates in the pelvis proximal to the inguinal ligament. The sensory branch of the femoral nerve, known as the saphenous nerve, innervates the skin of the medial thigh and the anterior and medial aspects of the calf.

      Diabetic patients are more prone to femoral and proximal mononeuropathies. However, the obturator nerve, which innervates the adductors of the hip, and the sciatic nerve, which innervates the hip extensors and all muscle compartments below the knee, are both intact in patients with femoral neuropathy.

      While a lumbar plexopathy could potentially cause similar physical signs, deep-seated excruciating pain is common. An L1 root lesion would not explain weakness of hip flexion and knee extension. the causes and symptoms of femoral neuropathy is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (5/10) 50%
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