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Question 1
Correct
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How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac angioplasty?
Your Answer: 1 week
Explanation:DVLA guidance after angioplasty – refrain from driving for a period of 7 days.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a check-up. He is taking warfarin for a mechanical aortic valve and has a history of trigeminal neuralgia, depression, and COPD. During an INR check, his INR is found to be subtherapeutic at 1.5. Which drug is most likely to cause a decrease in his INR if co-prescribed with warfarin therapy? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Interactions with Warfarin: Understanding the Effects of Carbamazepine, Alcohol, Clarithromycin, Prednisolone, and Sertraline
Warfarin is a commonly prescribed anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety. However, several factors can interact with warfarin and affect its metabolism and anticoagulant effect. Here are some examples:
Carbamazepine is a medication used to manage trigeminal neuralgia, but it is also a hepatic enzyme inducer. This means that it can accelerate the metabolism of warfarin, leading to a reduced effect and a decreased international normalized ratio (INR).
Alcohol consumption can enhance the effects of warfarin, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, patients on warfarin should avoid heavy drinking or binge drinking.
Clarithromycin is an antibiotic that may be prescribed for a COPD exacerbation. However, it is associated with reduced warfarin metabolism and enhanced anticoagulant effect, which can lead to a raised INR.
Prednisolone is a steroid medication that may also be prescribed for a COPD exacerbation. It is associated with an enhanced anticoagulant effect, which can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.
Sertraline is an antidepressant medication that belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class. SSRIs have an antiplatelet effect, which can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.
In summary, understanding the interactions between warfarin and other medications or substances is crucial for managing its anticoagulant effect and preventing adverse events. Patients on warfarin should always inform their healthcare providers of any new medications or supplements they are taking to avoid potential interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with an unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis. What are the available treatment options for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin or Rivaroxaban or Dabigatran or Apixaban
Explanation:Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath. During examination, his peripheral oedema has worsened since his last visit (pitting to mid shins, previously to ankles). He has bibasal crackles on auscultation of his lungs; his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg but his heart rate and oxygen saturations are within normal limits. His current medication includes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, loop diuretic and beta-blocker.
What is the most appropriate management to alleviate symptoms and decrease mortality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Worsening Heart Failure
When a patient with worsening heart failure is already on the recommended combination of an ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic, adding low-dose spironolactone can further reduce cardiovascular mortality. However, it is important to monitor renal function and potassium levels. Stopping beta-blockers suddenly can cause rebound ischaemic events and arrhythmias, so reducing the dose may be a better option if spironolactone therapy doesn’t improve symptoms. Adding digoxin can help reduce breathlessness, but it has no effect on mortality. If the patient has an atherosclerotic cause of heart failure, adding high-intensity statins like simvastatin may be appropriate for secondary prevention. Stopping ACE inhibitors is not recommended as they have a positive prognostic benefit in chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after undergoing catheter ablation due to unresponsive atrial fibrillation despite antiarrhythmic treatment. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with a salbutamol reliever and beclomethasone preventer inhaler, and type II diabetes, which he controls through his diet. The patient is currently receiving anticoagulation therapy in accordance with guidelines. There are no other significant medical histories.
What should be the next course of action in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term
Explanation:Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still need to continue long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. In the case of this patient, who has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 due to age and past medical history of diabetes, it is appropriate to continue anticoagulation.
Amiodarone is typically used for rhythm control of atrial fibrillation, but it is not indicated in this patient who has undergone catheter ablation and has no obvious recurrence of AF.
Beta-blockers and diltiazem are used for rate control of atrial fibrillation, but medication for AF is not indicated in this patient.
Anticoagulation can be stopped after 4 weeks post catheter ablation only if the CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and has a 60-pack/year smoking history. His uncle and father both died in their 50s of a myocardial infarction.
He is found to have a blood pressure of 146/92 mmHg in the clinic. He has no signs of end organ damage on examination and bloods, ACR, urine dip and ECG are normal. His 10-year cardiovascular risk is >10%. He has ambulatory monitoring which shows a blood pressure average of 138/86 mmHg.
As per the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss treatment with a calcium antagonist
Explanation:Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension for the AKT Exam
The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) published in September 2019 provide important information for general practitioners on the management of hypertension. However, it is important to remember that these guidelines have attracted criticism from some clinicians for being over complicated and insufficiently evidence-based. While it is essential to have an awareness of NICE guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.
One example of a question that may be asked in the AKT exam relates to the cut-offs for high blood pressure on ambulatory monitoring. According to the NICE guidelines, stage 1 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of 135-149/85-94 mmHg and should be treated if there is end organ damage, diabetes, or a 10-year CVD risk of 10% or more. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as blood pressure equal to or greater than 150/95 mmHg and should be treated.
In the exam, you may be asked to determine the appropriate treatment for a patient with stage 1 hypertension. The NICE guidance suggests a calcium channel blocker in patients above 55 or Afro-Caribbean. However, it is important to note that lifestyle factors are also crucial in risk reduction.
While it is unlikely that you will be asked to select answers that contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to remember that the AKT exam tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance. Therefore, it is important to have a broader understanding of the subject matter and consider other guidelines and opinions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Her left ventricular ejection fraction is 55%. She has been experiencing orthopnoea and ankle swelling. The cardiology team has referred her to you for medication initiation.
During the assessment, her vital signs are blood pressure 120/80 mmHg and heart rate 82/min.
What should be the initial consideration in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Furosemide is the appropriate choice for managing symptoms in individuals with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction using loop diuretics. Spironolactone is not recommended for this purpose. In cases of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists should be considered along with an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker if symptoms persist.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The use of beta-blockers in treating hypertension has decreased significantly over the last half-decade. What are the primary factors contributing to this decline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less likely to prevent stroke + potential impairment of glucose tolerance
Explanation:The ASCOT-BPLA study showcased this phenomenon.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual blood test at work. He is otherwise well with no symptoms reported.
He was found to have a serum phosphate of 0.7.
Other tests done include FBC, U+Es, LFTs, Calcium and PTH which were all normal.
Serum phosphate normal range (0-8-1.4 mmol/L)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound neck
Explanation:Management of Mild Hypophosphataemia
In cases of mild hypophosphataemia, monitoring is often sufficient. It may be helpful to check vitamin D levels as it can affect phosphate uptake and renal excretion, along with parathyroid hormone (PTH). If there is a concurrent low magnesium level, it may indicate dietary deficiencies.
An ultrasound of the neck is not necessary unless there are signs of enlarged parathyroid glands. Oral phosphate is typically reserved for preventing refeeding syndrome in cases of anorexia, starvation, or alcoholism. Mild hypophosphataemia usually resolves on its own.
Parenteral phosphate may be considered in acute situations but requires inpatient monitoring of calcium, phosphate, and other electrolytes. Referral should only be considered if the patient is symptomatic, has short stature or skeletal deformities consistent with rickets, or if the hypophosphataemia is chronic or severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic with a history of transient loss of vision in the right eye over the past three weeks. Upon examination, a carotid ultrasound reveals a 48% stenosis of her right carotid artery and an ECG shows sinus rhythm. The patient was initiated on aspirin 300 mg od by her GP after the first episode. What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients diagnosed with ischaemic stroke or TIA without paroxysmal or permanent atrial fibrillation should be prescribed antiplatelet therapy for long-term vascular prevention. The standard treatment is clopidogrel 75 mg daily, which is licensed for use in ischaemic stroke and can be used off-label for TIA. If clopidogrel and aspirin are contraindicated or cannot be tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily may be used. Aspirin 75 mg daily can be used if both clopidogrel and modified-release dipyridamole are contraindicated or cannot be tolerated. If clopidogrel cannot be tolerated, aspirin 75 mg daily with modified-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily may be used. The 2012 Royal College of Physicians National clinical guidelines for stroke now recommend using clopidogrel following a TIA, which aligns with current stroke guidance.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication
Explanation:If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman of African origin comes in for a routine health check. She is a non-smoker, drinks 14 units of alcohol per week, is physically fit, active, and enjoys regular moderate exercise and a balanced diet. Her BMI is 26.8 kg/m2. Her average BP measured by home monitoring for 7 days is 160/95.
What is the most suitable initial course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for Hypertension
Patients diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure reading of >150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension) should be offered drug therapy. For patients younger than 55 years, an ACE inhibitor is recommended as the first-line treatment. However, patients over the age of 55 and black patients of any age should initially be treated with a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide diuretic. These recommendations aim to provide effective treatment options for patients with hypertension based on their age and race.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient who is 65 years old calls you from overseas. He was recently discharged from a hospital in Spain after experiencing a heart attack. The hospital did not report any complications and he did not undergo a percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the minimum amount of time he should wait before flying back home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After 7-10 days
Explanation:After a period of 7-10 days, the individual’s fitness to fly will be assessed.
The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man who was active all his life develops sudden severe anterior chest pain that radiates to his back. Within minutes, he is unconscious.
He has a history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test had revealed no evidence for cardiac disease.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tear in the aortic intima
Explanation:Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain
The patient’s history is indicative of aortic dissection, which is a probable cause of sudden collapse accompanied by acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with these symptoms in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possibility, it is not the most likely explanation. For further information on the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection, please refer to the following references: BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the typical target INR for a patient with a mechanical aortic valve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3.5
Explanation:The recommended target INR for mechanical valves is 3.0 for aortic valves and 3.5 for mitral valves.
Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.
It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who experiences Stokes-Adams attacks has received a pacemaker that is functioning properly. What guidance should he be provided regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 1 week
Explanation:If you have had a pacemaker inserted or the box has been changed, it is important to inform the DVLA. It is also necessary to refrain from driving for a minimum of one week.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of Caucasian descent. He was diagnosed with essential hypertension six months ago and was prescribed ramipril, which has been increased to 10 mg daily. He also has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and gout, and he takes atorvastatin 20 mg once nightly.
He provides a set of home blood pressure readings with an average of 140/95 mmHg.
What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended medication to add would be either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, since the patient has a history of gout, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the most appropriate choice. Losartan, an A2RB drug, should not be used in combination with ACE inhibitors. The maximum daily dose of ramipril is 10 mg. The target home readings for this patient would be less than 135/85 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction in the ED. They have been administered aspirin 300 mg stat and glyceryl trinitrate spray (2 puffs). As per the latest NICE recommendations, which patients should be given ticagrelor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All patients
Explanation:Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain that he has been experiencing for two months. The pain is dull in nature and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is detected in the central abdomen. The patient had undergone an abdominal ultrasound 6 months ago which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the ultrasound and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's ultrasound report which shows no focal pancreatic, liver or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, a 5.4 cm diameter abdominal aorta, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys.
What aspect of the patient's medical history suggests that surgery may be necessary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. The abdominal aortic diameter must be greater than 5.5cm to be classified as high rupture risk, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA’s velocity of growth should be monitored, and a high-risk AAA would only be indicated if there is an increase of more than 1 cm per year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident. The staff are worried about his increasing unsteadiness on his feet in the past few months, which has led to several near-falls. They are also concerned that his DOAC medication puts him at risk of a bleed if he falls and hits his head.
His current medications include amlodipine, ramipril, edoxaban, and alendronic acid.
What steps should be taken in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calculate her ORBIT score
Explanation:It is not enough to withhold anticoagulation solely based on the risk of falls or old age. To determine the risk of stroke or bleeding in atrial fibrillation, objective measures such as the CHA2DS2-VASc and ORBIT scores should be used. The ORBIT score, rather than HAS-BLED, is now recommended by NICE for assessing bleeding risk. A history of falls doesn’t factor into the ORBIT score, but age does. Limiting the patient’s mobility by suggesting she only mobilizes with staff is impractical. There is no rationale for switching the edoxaban to an antiplatelet agent, as antiplatelets are not typically used in atrial fibrillation management unless there is a specific indication. Stopping edoxaban without calculating the appropriate scores could leave the patient at a high risk of stroke.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an ECG shows he is in atrial fibrillation.
When you take a history from him he complains of palpitations and he has also noticed some weight loss over the last two months. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse and displays a fine tremor.
What is the next most appropriate investigation to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exercise tolerance test
Explanation:Assessing Patients with Atrial Fibrillation
When assessing patients with atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to identify any underlying causes. While some cases may be classified as lone AF, addressing any precipitating factors is the first step in treatment. Hyperthyroidism is a common cause of atrial fibrillation, and checking thyroid function tests is the next appropriate step in diagnosis. Other common causes include heart failure, myocardial infarction/ischemia, mitral valve disease, pneumonia, and alcoholism. Rarer causes include pericarditis, endocarditis, cardiomyopathy, sarcoidosis, and hemochromatosis.
For paroxysmal arrhythmias, a 24-hour ECG can be useful, but in cases of persistent atrial fibrillation, an ECG is not necessary. Exercise tolerance tests are used to investigate and risk-stratify patients with cardiac chest pain. While an echocardiogram is useful in patients with atrial fibrillation to look for valve disease and other structural abnormalities, it is not the next most appropriate investigation in this case. Overall, identifying the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits your GP practice, who is typically healthy. He had come to see you a few weeks ago with a viral infection, during which you recorded his clinic blood pressure as 168/105 mmHg. You have since arranged for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM), blood tests, urine dip, an ECG, and are now reviewing the results with him.
The ABPM average shows his blood pressure to be 157/100 mmHg. You have also conducted blood tests to check his plasma glucose, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, serum total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol. His renal function and glucose levels are normal, and a urine dip for protein and ECG are also normal. Upon checking the back of his eyes, you find that the fundi are normal. His QRisk is calculated to be 28%.
You discuss potential treatment options with the patient. What should be included in your management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:As a primary prevention measure for cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to discuss and suggest statin therapy to the patient. The target for clinic blood pressure should be less than 140/90 mmHg and less than 135/85 mmHg for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. To achieve this, amlodipine and lifestyle advice should be offered along with atorvastatin.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady is on warfarin for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. She comes in with a significantly elevated INR. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Warfarin
Ciprofloxacin, a cytochrome p450 inhibitor, can prolong the half-life of warfarin and increase the international normalized ratio (INR). However, the reaction is not always predictable, and susceptibility may be influenced by factors such as fever, infection, or malnutrition. While aspirin is known to increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet activity, it doesn’t have a clear relationship with INR.
Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can increase the rate of metabolism of another drug, resulting in lower plasma concentrations and a reduced effect. St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions with warfarin to ensure its effectiveness and prevent adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents with a leg ulcer above the right medial malleolus. Compression bandaging is being considered as a treatment option. Without diabetes, what is the minimum ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) recommended by SIGN guidelines to ensure the safety of compression bandaging?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.8
Explanation:It is safe to use compression therapy for patients with leg ulcers who have an ABPI of 0.8 or higher.
Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index for Evaluating Peripheral Arterial Disease
The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It measures the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the lower leg to that in the arms. A lower blood pressure in the legs, resulting in an ABPI of less than 1, is an indicator of PAD. This test is particularly useful in evaluating patients with suspected PAD, such as a male smoker who presents with intermittent claudication.
In addition, it is important to determine the ABPI in patients with leg ulcers. Compression bandaging is often used to treat venous ulcers, but it can be harmful in patients with PAD as it further restricts blood supply to the foot. Therefore, ABPIs should always be measured in patients with leg ulcers to determine if compression bandaging is appropriate.
The interpretation of ABPI values is as follows: a value greater than 1.2 may indicate calcified, stiff arteries, which can be seen in advanced age or PAD. A value between 1.0 and 1.2 is considered normal, while a value between 0.9 and 1.0 is acceptable. A value less than 0.9 is likely indicative of PAD, and values less than 0.5 indicate severe disease that requires urgent referral. The ABPI is a reliable test, with values less than 0.90 having a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 98% for PAD. Compression bandaging is generally considered acceptable if the ABPI is greater than or equal to 0.8.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old Caucasian female presents with tiredness to her general practitioner. She has gained a little weight of late and during the last year has become increasingly tired. She has a history of asthma for which she takes inhaled salbutamol on an as required basis (usually no more than once a week) and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes.
Examination reveals a blood pressure of 172/98 mmHg, a body mass index of 29.7 kg/m2, and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. There are no other abnormalities of note. Her blood pressure recordings over the next month are 180/96, 176/90 and 178/100 mmHg.
Which of the following drugs would you recommend for the treatment of this patient's blood pressure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Hypertension Treatment in Type 2 Diabetes Patients
This patient with type 2 diabetes has sustained hypertension and requires treatment. The first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetes is ACE inhibitors. These medications have no adverse effects on glucose tolerance or lipid profiles and can delay the progression of microalbuminuria to nephropathy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors reduce morbidity and mortality in patients with vascular disease and diabetes.
However, bendroflumethiazide may provoke an attack of gout in patients with a history of gout. Beta-blockers should be avoided for the routine treatment of uncomplicated hypertension in patients with diabetes. They can also precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma. In situations where there is no suitable alternative, a cardioselective beta blocker should be selected and initiated at a low dose by a specialist. The patient should be monitored closely for adverse effects.
Alpha-blockers, such as doxazosin, are reserved for the treatment of resistant hypertension in conjunction with other antihypertensives. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and individual needs when selecting a treatment plan for hypertension in type 2 diabetes patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is newly diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. An echocardiogram shows a valvular anomaly.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Cardiovascular Complications in Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. However, it can also lead to cardiovascular complications. The most common complication is aortic regurgitation, which occurs due to inflammation of the ascending aorta. On the other hand, mitral regurgitation is not typically associated with ankylosing spondylitis and is usually caused by congenital conditions or cardiomyopathies. Aortic stenosis is also not commonly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, as it is usually caused by age-related calcification or congenital bicuspid valve. Similarly, mitral stenosis is more commonly associated with rheumatic heart disease than ankylosing spondylitis. Tricuspid stenosis is a rare cardiac defect that is usually associated with rheumatic fever. Therefore, it is important for individuals with ankylosing spondylitis to be aware of the potential cardiovascular complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The nurse practitioner approaches you with a query after the clinic. A 50-year-old patient had visited her for a regular diabetes check-up and disclosed a history of a minor stroke during a trip abroad a few years ago. The nurse observed that this information was not included in the problem list, so she updated the record with a coded diagnosis. As a result, a computer alert was triggered since the patient was not taking any antiplatelet therapy. The nurse seeks your advice on the preferred antiplatelet medication for this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:Clopidogrel is the top choice for antiplatelet therapy in the secondary prevention of stroke. As a second option, aspirin can be combined with modified-release dipyridamole. However, there is some discrepancy among guidelines regarding the preferred antiplatelet for transient ischaemic attack. While NICE recommends aspirin and dipyridamole due to clopidogrel lack of licensing for this indication, the Royal College of Physicians advocates for clopidogrel. It is worth noting that clopidogrel is associated with frequent gastrointestinal side effects.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man with controlled angina complains that he is experiencing nightmares, constant fatigue, and impotence. Upon reviewing his medication, you note that he is taking ramipril, isosorbide mononitrate, atenolol, and simvastatin.
What is the most suitable approach to managing this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce the atenolol dosage and arrange to review him in 2 weeks
Explanation:Side Effects of Beta Blockers and Other Medications
Beta blockers are known to cause a range of side effects, including erectile dysfunction, nightmares, and reduced exercise capacity. In some cases, they can even trigger bronchospasm or heart failure. Patients on beta blockers may also experience depression, although this typically resolves once the medication is discontinued.
Simvastatin, another commonly prescribed medication, can cause sleep dysfunction and erectile problems. However, in the case of this patient, it is more likely that the beta blocker is responsible for these symptoms.
Ramipril, yet another medication, can cause a dry cough. While it may be worth trying an angiotensin II-receptor antagonist in some cases, it would not be effective in addressing the symptoms experienced by this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease
Explanation:Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion
Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.
Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.
On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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After sending several invitations, 58-year-old Mrs. Johnson attends the clinic for her medication review. She has not been to the clinic for over a year due to her busy work schedule. Mrs. Johnson is currently taking allopurinol 200 mg, candesartan 8mg, indapamide 2.5mg, omeprazole 20 mg, and salbutamol inhaler as required.
During her visit, her blood pressure is measured several times and is found to be 168/96 mmHg. Mrs. Johnson reports taking her medications almost every day, but her blood pressure is still high. As per NICE guidelines, which class of antihypertensive medication should be added to her current treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic, the recommended next step would be to add a calcium channel blocker. This is because adding another ACE inhibitor would not be appropriate, and beta-blockers may be contraindicated if the patient has asthma. Loop diuretics are not typically used as a treatment for hypertension.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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