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  • Question 1 - What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      90% of genital candida infections are the result of Candida albicans. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding miscarriage rates, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding miscarriage rates, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: In women over 45 years of age miscarriage rate approximately 75%

      Explanation:

      With increasing maternal age, the risk of miscarriage increases. For women between the ages of 40-44, the miscarriage rates sit at about 50% and increases to over 75% for women 45 years and over. The miscarriage rate for women between the ages of 35-39 is 25%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is a tumour marker for ovarian cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a tumour marker for ovarian cancer?

      Your Answer: Ca 125

      Explanation:

      CA-125 is the tumour marker specific for ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following factors will most likely increase the chances of...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following factors will most likely increase the chances of ovulation in female?

      Your Answer: LH surge

      Explanation:

      Different changes can occur during the menstrual cycle including an increased body temperature at the time of ovulation, thinning of the cervical mucus and few other changes, but it is the LH surge which is the most important factor necessary for ovulation.
      Mittelschmerz is characterised by recurrent midcycle pain which occurs around the time of ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness and groin pain. You assess her and find the numb area is the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer: Perineal

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      This describes the sensory area supplied by the ilioinguinal nerve. This is a potential complication with pelvic surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - According to NICE guidance what should be used for wound cleansing for the...

    Correct

    • According to NICE guidance what should be used for wound cleansing for the first 48 hours postoperatively?

      Your Answer: Sterile saline

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines (CG74) advise the following regarding postoperative wound management Use sterile saline for wound cleansing up to 48 hours after surgery. Advise patients that they may shower safely 48 hours after surgery. Use tap water for wound cleansing after 48 hours if the surgical wound has separated or has been surgically opened to drain pus. Do not use topical antimicrobial agents for surgical wounds that are healing by primary intention to reduce the risk of surgical site infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody? ...

    Correct

    • Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      It utilizes the IgG class of the antibody.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has felt a little unwell with diarrhoea and flu like symptoms. She is 28 weeks pregnant. Upon questioning she discloses she ate a soft cheese and deli meats platter 5 days earlier. A blood culture confirms listeria infection. What is the appropriate treatment (she has no known drug allergies)?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of listeria depends on clinical suspicion and isolation of the organism from blood, vaginal swabs or the placenta. Meconium staining of the amniotic fluid in a preterm foetus may increase clinical suspicion for listeriosis. For women with listeriosis during pregnancy, intravenous antibiotic treatment (ampicillin 2 g given every 6 hours) is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment ...

    Incorrect

    • The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The T10 spinal segment provides the sympathetic nerve fibres that innervate the testes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The metabolic adaptations of pregnancy are orchestrated by hormones produced by the placenta and maternal pituitary gland, which undergo dramatic changes during gestation. After involution of ovarian sex steroid production by wk 6, placental oestrogen and progesterone production increases exponentially to term. Concurrently, there are progressive increases in prolactin (PRL), produced by the maternal pituitary gland and decidua, and human chorionic somatomammotropin (CSH, also called human placental lactogen), which has structural similarities to GH and PRL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - At what gestation does a mother typically first become aware of fetal movements?...

    Incorrect

    • At what gestation does a mother typically first become aware of fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 20-24 weeks

      Correct Answer: 18-20 weeks

      Explanation:

      Typically fetal movements become apparent by 18-20 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is a DNA virus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a DNA virus?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B is a DNA virus. All the others are RNA viruses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates...

    Correct

    • During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?

      Your Answer: Tissue Factor

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding the pelvic outlet, what structure marks the posterior boundary? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the pelvic outlet, what structure marks the posterior boundary?

      Your Answer: Ischial tuberosities

      Correct Answer: Tip of the coccyx

      Explanation:

      The bony pelvis is made up of a girdle with a central canal. The rim that surrounds the upper opening of the canal is called the pelvic inlet, while the lower rim is the called the pelvic outlet. The pelvic outlet is diamond-shaped and is bounded posteriorly by the tip of the sacrum, and anteriorly by the pubic symphysis, with its lateral boundaries being the ischial tuberosities and the sacrotuberous ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged...

    Correct

    • You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged 1st stage of labour. You note the fetal head start to retract after being tightly applied to the vulva (turtle-neck sign). What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: McRoberts' manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Signs of shoulder dystocia:
      – Difficulty with delivery of the face and chin
      – The head remaining tightly applied to the vulva or even retracting (turtle-neck sign)
      – Failure of restitution of the fetal head
      – Failure of the shoulders to descend
      Upon identifying shoulder dystocia additional help should be called and McRoberts manoeuvre (flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, positioning the maternal thighs on her abdomen) should be performed first. Fundal pressure is associated with uterine rupture and should not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:...

    Correct

    • The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:

      Your Answer: Crown rump length

      Explanation:

      Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends approximately a quarter of the thickness through the external anal sphincter. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 3a

      Explanation:

      1. First-degree trauma corresponds to lacerations of the skin/vaginal epithelium alone.
      2. Second-degree tears involve perineal muscles and therefore include episiotomies.
      3. Third-degree extensions involve any part of the anal sphincter complex (external and internal sphincters):
      i Less than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      ii More than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      iii Tear involves the internal anal sphincter
      (usually there is complete disruption of the
      external sphincter).
      4. Fourth-degree tears involve injury to the anal sphincter complex extending into the rectal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal...

    Correct

    • An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She claims to have had regular menstrual cycles even while she was on oral contraceptives (OCP). 20 weeks ago, she stopped taking her OCPs and had a menstrual period few days after. No vaginal bleeding or fluid loss were noted since then. On physical examination, the uterus is palpated right above pubic symphysis. Fetal heartbeats are evident on handheld Doppler ultrasound. Which of the statements can mostly explain the difference between the dates and uterine size?

      Your Answer: Ovulation did not occur until 6-8 weeks after her last period.

      Explanation:

      When the palpated uterine size is in discrepancy with the expected size based on the duration of amenorrhoea, it can have several causes including reduced fluid volume or fetal growth (both of which are more common when there is fetal malformation), or miscalculated age of gestation as a result of wrong dates or actual ovulation occurring at a later date than expected. Reduced fluid volume and fetal growth are the most likely aetiologies during the third trimester of pregnancy, unlike in this patient at 20 weeks age of gestation.

      Premature rupture of membranes is less likely the cause when there is negative vaginal fluid loss like this patient.

      The most likely cause in this case is that ovulation did not occur as expected, especially when the patient ceased her OCPs during this period. In some instances, ovulation can occur 2 weeks later in about 50% of women, 6 weeks later in 90%, and may still not occur 12 months later in 1% of women.

      The other listed statements are unlikely to explain the discrepancies in dates and the observed uterine size in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation. She is worried as she came in contact with a child having chicken pox 48 hours ago and she has no symptoms. You checked her pre-pregnancy IgG level for chicken pox which was negative, as she missed getting vaccinated for chickenpox before pregnancy. What is the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      This woman who is 26 weeks pregnant, has come in contact with a child having chickenpox 48 hours ago. As her IgG antibodies were negative during prenatal testing, she has no immunity against Varicella which makes her susceptible to get chickenpox.

      Prophylactic treatment is required if a susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, which includes administration of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG), within 72 hours of exposure to infection.

      As the patient has already checked for and was found to be negative, checking IgG level again is not relevant. Also, it was already revealed that she is not vaccinated against varicella before pregnancy.

      If the patient had any symptoms typical of chickenpox, measuring IgM would have been helpful, but patient is completely asymptomatic in this case so measuring IgM is not indicated.

      Vaccine for chickenpox is contraindicated during pregnancy as it is a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Commonest cause of precocious puberty is: ...

    Correct

    • Commonest cause of precocious puberty is:

      Your Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty can be defined as secondary sexual characteristics that occur before the age of 8 years in females and 9 years in males. In 80-90% of individuals it is idiopathic. Other causes include CNS anomalies and tumours, increased exposure to sex hormones/steroids, pituitary gonadotrophin secreting tumours and ovarian tumours etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28 year old women is seen in the early pregnancy unit. She...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old women is seen in the early pregnancy unit. She has had a positive pregnancy test but is uncertain of her LMP. Ultrasound doesn't visualise a pregnancy. You perform bHCG tests 48 hours apart. The first bHCG is 400mIU/ml. The second is 190mIU/ml. What is the likely diagnosis

      Your Answer: Non-viable pregnancy

      Explanation:

      B-HCG levels almost double every 48 hours. A B-HCG levels of less than 5 mIU/ml is considered negative and anything above 25 is considered positive. As the foetus was not visualized on ultrasound in the uterus, there is possibility that this might be an ectopic pregnancy. But since the B-HCG levels also continued to fall the pregnancy becomes non-viable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Correct

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most common causative organism in Fitzhugh Curtis syndrome and ophthalmic...

    Correct

    • What is the most common causative organism in Fitzhugh Curtis syndrome and ophthalmic neonatorum?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      A rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease is Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome which is perihepatitis leading to the formation of adhesions between the liver and the peritoneal surface. It is most commonly caused by chlamydia and gonorrhoea. Ophthalmia neonatorum is conjunctivitis which is also caused by these pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department. She is at 38...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department. She is at 38 weeks gestation and has gone into labour. On examination, her cervix is 7cm dilated. Which of the following would be indicative of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section?

      Your Answer: A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman.

      Explanation:

      A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman is associated with high risk of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      Brow presentation occurs when the presenting part of the fetal head is the part between the orbital ridge and anterior fontanelle.

      In multiparous women, the indications differ as vaginal manipulation or spontaneous flexion to a vertex presentation or extension to a face presentation can occur after full cervical dilatation.

      Early fetal heart decelerations are indicative of a mild abnormality on cardiotocograph (CTG). It does not indicate obstructive labour or need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      The slow descent of the fetal head can be controlled subsequently by good uterine contractions and allow for vaginal birth.

      Prolonged labour can cause maternal fever, but that in isolation is not an indication for Caesarean section.

      Caput and head moulding are associated with a ‘tight fit’ of the fetal head in the pelvis, but does not contraindicate vaginal birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      The following hormones are excreted from the anterior pituitary gland: TSH, GN, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, PRL.
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG, or human chorionic gonadotrophin) is a placental hormone secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts during the second week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms? ...

    Correct

    • Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms?

      Your Answer: Treponema Pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by spirochete called treponema pallidum. It can be divided into three stages. i.e. primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis.
      – Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre formation at the site of sexual contact.
      – Secondary syphilis ranges from maculopapular lesions to scaly lesions, inguinal lymphadenopathy, condylomata lata and split papules at the corner of mouth.
      – Tertiary syphilis is the late stage of syphilis which is characterized by gummas formation and general paresis along with signs and symptoms of visceral involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department complaining of having headache for the past two week. On examination her blood pressure is 148/100 and heart rate is 90/min.There is swelling over both her ankles, hands and eyes. The rest of the examination is normal. CTG tracing is reassuring and urine dipstick showed proteinuria. Which of the following is considered as the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Observation,steroids and antihypertensives

      Explanation:

      Patient in the given case has developed clinical features of mild preeclampsia presented as hypertension, ankle and facial oedema along with proteinuria.

      As the fetal lungs are not yet matured, best management in this case would be observing the patient frequently, starting her on steroids and antihypertensive drugs like methyldopa, or labetalol. 31 to 34 weeks of gestation is the optimal gestational age for starting dexamethasone therapy which will help in controlling blood pressure, helps in the maturation of lungs and will also gives time to organise delivery when the lungs are matured.

      Immediate C-section is not required at this stage of pregnancy, however a plan for cesarean section must be made to carry it out if the patient develops eclampsia during her stay in the hospital. Immediate vaginal delivery is also not indicated as the pregnancy is far from term. Induced labour will result in fetal demise soon after birth due to the fetal lung immaturity, but immediate delivery has to be considered once the fetal lung attains maturity.

      Magnesium Sulphate is indicated only in women with severe pre-eclampsia and even in such cases primary importance is given to blood pressure controlling. Magnesium sulphate is not indicated on this case as the patient is in mild eclampsia.

      Even though Paracetamol and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis are indicated in this case, anticoagulants should be avoided considering the emergency need for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?

      Your Answer: Retained POC

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she has developed tingling to the right lateral thigh over the past 3 weeks. On examination there are no skin changes and no muscle weakness. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve entrapment

      Correct Answer: Meralgia Paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Raised pressure with the pelvis can cause a number of nerve entrapment syndromes. This is entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (or lateral femoral cutaneous nerve) also known as Meralgia Paraesthetica. Pregnancy is a risk factor. Shingles can effect this nerve but the rash would usually present itself within 14days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following factors causes the greatest increase in risk of developing...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors causes the greatest increase in risk of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is most commonly caused by cigarette smoke. Other risk factors include naphthylamine, azodyes and long term cyclophosphamide use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F). Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.

      The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.

      The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding

      The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.

      Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?

      Your Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis

      Explanation:

      Activation of Antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department due to breech presentation which was confirmed on ultrasound. There is also a failed external cephalic version. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Elective caesarean delivery at 38 weeks of gestation

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      The current recommendation for the breech presentation at term includes offering external cephalic version (ECV) to those patients that meet criteria, and for those whom are not candidates or decline external cephalic version, a planned caesarean section for delivery sometime after 39 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - The expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated as:...

    Correct

    • The expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated as:

      Your Answer: 40 weeks after last menstrual period

      Explanation:

      Expected date of delivery/estimated due date (EDD) is a calculated date (i.e., an estimation), determined by counting forward 280 days (40 weeks) from the first day of the woman’s last menstrual period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

    Correct

    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is: ...

    Correct

    • Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is:

      Your Answer: All are correct

      Explanation:

      LH surge occurs around ovulation and it is this LH surge which results in completion of the 1st meiotic division and ovulation occurs. It enhances the production of androgens and also luteinizes the granulosa cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old high school teacher arrives fora prescription for a combination oral contraceptive...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old high school teacher arrives fora prescription for a combination oral contraceptive tablet. She is new to your clinic, having recently relocated for a new position at a junior college. She does not smoke or consume alcoholic beverages. Sumatriptan 20mg intranasal spray has helped her with recurring headaches with aura in the past. What are your plans for the future?

      Your Answer: Offer progestogen-only contraceptive options

      Explanation:

      The combination oral contraceptive pill is an unequivocal contraindication for this patient (migraine with aura). Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
      There is no need for a neurologist’s assessment or a brain MRI because her migraines are managed with sumatriptan nasal spray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now

      Explanation:

      To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.

      Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
      If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.

      Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
      Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Most children with neonatal herpes present with mucocutaneous lesions.

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
      It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
      All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
      Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
      Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
      Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
      Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
      Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
      Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
      This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Correct

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      GI Tract initially forms via gastrulation from the endoderm of the trilaminar embryo around week 3. It extends from the buccopharyngeal membrane to the cloacal membrane. Later in development there are contributions from all three germ cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - The following are presumptive skin signs of pregnancy, except: ...

    Correct

    • The following are presumptive skin signs of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Maculo-papular rash

      Explanation:

      Skin signs during pregnancy may include: dark spots on the breasts, nipples and inner thighs, melasma (chloasma), linea nigra, stretch marks, acne, spider telangiectasis and varicose veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Emergency Caesarean Section

      Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture

      Explanation:

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.

      The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.

      The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.

      Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?...

    Correct

    • Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      1st Arch = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V) 2nd Arch = Facial (CN VII) 3rd Arch = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) 4th and 6th Arches = Vagus (CN X)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after 18 months of regular sexual activity. She inquires about the possible outcomes for the treatment of various aetiologies during the discussion on aetiology, further work-up, and treatment. Which of the following conditions has the best chance of being treated?

      Your Answer: Tubal obstruction

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Treatment for infertility caused by ovulation issues has had the best results by far. PCOS, also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is marked by hyperandrogenism, tiny cysts in the ovaries, acne, and hirsutism, as well as ovulation issues that result in anovulatory cycles due to hormonal imbalance.

      70% of females with anovulatory periods begin ovulation under medical supervision, and 50% of those conceive within 6 to 9 months.

      Infertility can be caused by low or no sperm counts, poor sperm motility, or dysmorphic sperms. Treatment options include fertility medicines that promote sperm production, artificial insemination with donor sperm, and intracytoplasmic injection of sperm, but success rates are poor (less than 25 percent ). Following pelvic inflammatory disease, previous surgery, or tuberculosis, the Fallopian tubes become obstructed or damaged, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Tubal blockages and adhesions are treated by laparoscopic surgery. The success rate of conception varies greatly depending on the degree of the blockage, ranging from 10% to 70%.

      Turner syndrome is linked to infertility and ovarian dysgenesis. Treatment for gonadal dysgenesis and reversal of infertility is not an option. Because of the high likelihood of miscarriages, even after egg donation, the success rate is relatively low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease. Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen.

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy.

      Explanation:

      This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.

      The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in? ...

    Correct

    • Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in?

      Your Answer: Enlargement of the pelvic cavity

      Explanation:

      The pelvis is supported by a variety of ligaments. At term, these ligaments allow for variation in its structure such that the overall size of the pelvic cavity is increased in order to accommodate the upcoming foetus into the cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What is the Gold standard investigation to diagnose abnormal uterine bleeding? ...

    Correct

    • What is the Gold standard investigation to diagnose abnormal uterine bleeding?

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy along with dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      During the last decade hysteroscopy has become the tool of choice for the evaluation of the endometrial cavity, including for assessment of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB). Many clinicians would consider that, in most patients, the combination of transvaginal sonography and out-patient endometrial biopsy with diagnostic hysteroscopy could replace the need for dilation and curettage. Hysteroscopy was reported to have sensitivity, specificity, negative predictive value and positive predictive value of 94.2, 88.8, 96.3 and 83.1% respectively, in predicting normal or abnormal endometrial histopathology.

      The highest accuracy of hysteroscopy was in diagnosing endometrial polyps, whereas the worst result was in estimating hyperplasia. Therefore, since the incidence of focal lesions in patients with AUB is high, it seems that the most beneficial approach is to proceed with hysteroscopy complemented by endometrial biopsy early in the assessment of AUB.

      Transabdominal and transvaginal ultrasounds can be used but are inferior to hysteroscopy.

      Coagulation profile can only diagnose possible coagulopathies and pregnancy test can only diagnose pregnancy. All other causes can not be identified with these laboratory investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your...

    Correct

    • Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your office with soreness down below. Physical exam is highly suggestive of genital herpes, and patient says she never had such lesions before and this is the first time she is experiencing such a problem. Laboratory investigations like PCR and culture results confirm the diagnosis of primary herpes simplex infection. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management of the case?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic antiviral therapy

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman develops primary herpes simplex infection after 30 weeks gestation, her risk for transmission of herpes simplex virus to the neonate leading to neonatal infection increases significantly.
      Below mentioned are the most common risk factors resulting in intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the baby:
      – Premature labor
      – Premature rupture of membrane
      -Primary herpes simplex infection near the time of delivery
      – Multiple lesions in the genital area
      The most appropriate management for such case includes:
      – Checking for herpes simplex infection with PCR testing (cervical swab)
      – Prophylactic antiviral therapy of the mother from 36th week until delivery
      – Cesarean section delivery

      In the case above mentioned, it is better to start antiviral therapy immediately and consider cesarean section to minimize the risk of vertical transmission of infection to the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the...

    Incorrect

    • In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum?

      Your Answer: Ethinylestradiol

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      The Corpus Luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes two steroid hormones: 1. Progesterone (17a Hydroxyprogesterone) and 2. Oestradiol. The corpus luteum also secretes Inhibin A. In the menstrual cycle if fertilisation doesn’t occur the corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone and degenerates into a corpus albicans. If fertilisation occurs hCG signals the corpus to continue progesterone production and it is then termed the corpus luteum graviditatis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has been present for the last few hours. Before the pain started she admits experiencing vaginal blood loss. She's a primigravida in her 30th week of gestation. Upon abdominal examination the uterus seems irritable. CTG is, however, reactive. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Antepartum haemorrhage presents with bleeding, which may or may not be accompanied by pain. Uterine irritability would suggest abruptio, however contractions are present which may be confused with uterine irritability and in this case, there are no signs of pre-eclampsia present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Majority of the lymph from the ovaries drain into the para-aortic lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Heart rate increases by 15 beats per minute

      Explanation:

      During the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, cardiac output increases by about 30-50%. To maintain this increase, systemic vascular resistance decreases by 20-30%, while stroke volume and the heart rate increase by 25-30% and 15 beats per minute respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

      Your Answer: Increased [H+]

      Explanation:

      The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right: Increased temperature Increased H+ (i.e. acidosis) Increased 2,3 DPG Increased pCO2 The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left: Increasing pCO shifts the curve to the left Decreased temperature Decreased [H+] (alkalosis) Decreased 2,3 DPG The Oxygen Dissociation Curve for fetal haemoglobin lies to the left of the normal adult Oxygen Dissociation Curve as it has a higher affinity for Oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history of light vaginal bleeding. Her past medical history reveals she had a lumpectomy, postoperative radiotherapy, adjuvant chemotherapy and tamoxifen therapy 3 years ago as treatment for an oestrogen receptor-positive breast malignancy. She was prescribed tamoxifen in a dose of 10mg per day to take for the next five years. Since she completed her chemotherapy three years ago, she has no menstrual periods. What is the most probable cause of her current bleeding?

      Your Answer: An endometrial cancer produced by the tamoxifen.

      Correct Answer: Endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her bleeding is an endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

      Tamoxifen is often prescribed to decrease risk of breast cancer recurrence in premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive cancers.

      As with any medication, it has known side effects, which include endometrial polyp formation, subendometrial oedema and, rarely, endometrial carcinoma.

      A polyp or carcinoma can cause uterine bleeding, but a polyp is more likely to occur.

      Routine endometrial thickness screening is not recommended in all women taking tamoxifen. However, in cases of abnormal bleeding, ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness, hysteroscopy and curettage are indicated to assess the endometrium in more detail.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with endometrial atrophy.

      Endometrial metastasis from a breast cancer is rare, and tamoxifen would not usually induce follicular development in a woman who has had chemotherapy and resultant amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?

      Your Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Liver cirrhosis is known to lead to decreased levels of SHBG. Other causes of high SHBG are:
      Oestrogens e.g. oral contraceptives
      Pregnancy
      Hyperthyroidism
      Liver cirrhosis
      Anorexia nervosa
      Drugs e.g. anticonvulsants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Correct

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does...

    Correct

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?

      Your Answer: Interphase

      Explanation:

      DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following is probably responsible for physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is probably responsible for physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased progesterone production

      Explanation:

      Progesterone gradually increases during the course of pregnancy, from 25 ng⋅mL−1 at 6 weeks’ to 150 ng⋅mL−1 at 37 weeks’ gestation. Progesterone acts as trigger of the primary respiratory centre by increasing the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide, as indicated by the steeper slope of the ventilation curve in response to alveolar carbon dioxide changes. Progesterone alters the smooth muscle tone of the airways resulting in a bronchodilator effect. It also mediates hyperaemia and oedema of mucosal surfaces, causing nasal congestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways? ...

    Correct

    • Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways?

      Your Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin acts via the G protein receptors and the calcium-calmodulin complex. It activates phospholipase C which produces IP3 to further trigger the calcium-calmodulin complex increasing intracellular Ca ion release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk? ...

    Correct

    • Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?

      Your Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      When considering immunoglobulins in neonates. There are only a few key points you are likely to be tested on. 1. IgA is resistant to stomach acid and found in large amounts in breast milk. 2. IgG is the only Ig that can cross the placenta so is key for passive neonatal immunity 3. When the neonate starts synthesising its own Ig it is IgM that is produced first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Regarding amniotic fluid volume: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding amniotic fluid volume:

      Your Answer: Maybe predicted by ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid can be measured with the help of ultrasound to gauge the amniotic fluid index. The normal value ranges between 8-18.
      Amniocentesis is a procedure by which amniotic fluid is removed. In rhesus disease, it appears yellow due to raised bilirubin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in: ...

    Correct

    • Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in:

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotropin levels dynamically increase during early gestation and the levels are significantly greater in viable pregnancies than in ectopic gestation, biochemical pregnancy, or spontaneous abortions. Similarly, the hCG concentrations are significantly higher in multiple pregnancy as compared with singleton.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping lower abdominal pain. On examination the cervix is closed. Fetal cardiac activity is noted on ultrasound. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antepartum Haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Antepartum haemorrhage is any bleeding that occurs from the female genital tract during the antenatal period after the 24+0 week of pregnancy and prior to the birth of the baby. The most common causes are placenta previa and placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what...

    Correct

    • In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what advice would you give regarding Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer: All RhD-negative women who are not alloimmunized should receive Anti-D IgG

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies within 72 hours following abortion. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Correct

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 149/98. Urine dip shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer: >30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Significant proteinuria = urinary protein:creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The Ovaries lymph drains primarily to the lateral para-aortic lymph nodes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism affect a 15-year-old girl. All of the syndromes listed...

    Correct

    • Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism affect a 15-year-old girl. All of the syndromes listed below have been linked to obesity in children. Select the syndrome with which the other clinical symptoms in this patient are most likely to be linked.

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition in which the ovaries produce an abnormal amount of androgens, male sex hormones that are usually present in women in small amounts. The name polycystic ovary syndrome describes the numerous small cysts (fluid-filled sacs) that form in the ovaries. However, some women with this disorder do not have cysts, while some women without the disorder do develop cysts.

      The symptoms of PCOS may include:
      – Missed periods, irregular periods, or very light periods
      – Ovaries that are large or have many cysts
      – Excess body hair, including the chest, stomach, and back (hirsutism)
      – Weight gain, especially around the belly (abdomen)
      – Acne or oily skin
      – Male-pattern baldness or thinning hair
      – Infertility
      – Small pieces of excess skin on the neck or armpits (skin tags)
      – Dark or thick skin patches on the back of the neck, in the armpits, and under the breasts

      The so-called Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome is a fairly rare condition characterized by six cardinal signs, namely obesity, atypical retinitis pigmentosa, mental deficiency, genital dystrophy, polydactylism and familial occurrence.

      Froehlich syndrome is characterized by increased or excessive eating that leads to obesity, small testes, and a delay in the onset of puberty. It is also common for children with Froehlich syndrome to experience the delay in physical growth and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

      Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder that occurs when your body makes too much of the hormone cortisol over a long period of time. Cortisol is sometimes called the “stress hormone” because it helps your body respond to stress. Cortisol also helps. maintain blood pressure. regulate blood glucose, also called blood sugar.

      Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by short stature, a round face, short neck, and shortened bones in the hands and feet. Intelligence usually ranges from low normal to mentally retarded. Headaches, weakness, tiring easily, lethargy, cataracts and blurred vision or hypersensitivity to light may also be present.
      This patient’s condition can only be explained by PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your advice since she is experiencing painful coitus at the vaginal introitus. It's accompanied by painful involuntary pelvic muscular contractions. The pelvic examination is normal except for confirmation of these findings. The most prevalent cause of this ailment is one of the following?

      Your Answer: Psychogenic causes

      Explanation:

      Vaginismus is an uncontrollable painful spasm of the pelvic muscles and vaginal exit that this patient has. It’s mainly caused by psychological factors. It’s important to distinguish it from frigidity, which indicates a lack of sexual desire, and dyspareunia, which is characterized as pelvic and/or back pain or other discomfort linked with sexual activity. Endometriosis, pelvic adhesions, and ovarian neoplasms are all common causes of dyspareunia. Vaginismus pain can be psychogenic, or it might be caused by pelvic diseases like adhesions, endometriosis, or leiomyomas. Organic vulvar or pelvic reasons (such as atrophy, Bartholin gland cyst, or abscess) are extremely rare, hence vaginismus is mostly treated with psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following increases during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following increases during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Tidal Volume

      Explanation:

      Ventilation begins to increase significantly at around 8 weeks of gestation, most likely in response to progesterone-related sensitization of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide and the increased metabolic rate. Significant alterations occur in the mechanical aspects of ventilation during pregnancy. Minute ventilation (or the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in 1 minute) is the product of tidal volume and respiratory rate and increases by approximately 30–50 per cent with pregnancy. The increase is primarily a result of tidal volume, which increases by 40 per cent (from 500 to 700 mL), because the respiratory rate remains unchanged. The increase in minute ventilation is perceived by the pregnant woman as shortness of breath, which affects 60–70 per cent of women. This physiological dyspnoea is usually mild and affects 50 per cent of women before 20 weeks gestation, but resolves immediately postpartum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which of the following tests is used to detect antibodies or complement bound...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tests is used to detect antibodies or complement bound to red blood cell antigens in vivo?

      Your Answer: Direct Coombs

      Explanation:

      When the red cells are coated with immune IgG antibody, the cells do not agglutinate but when anti-IgG antiserum is added to these sensitized cells visible agglutination occurs. This is known as a positive direct coombs test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy. Her...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy. Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine. What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks

      Explanation:

      Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
      An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.

      It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.

      Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.

      Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 29 year old patient presents due to the sensation of reduced fetal...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient presents due to the sensation of reduced fetal movements (RFM). From what gestation is CTG assessment of RFM advised?

      Your Answer: 24+0 weeks

      Correct Answer: 28+0 weeks

      Explanation:

      The cardiotocograph (CTG) is a continuous tracing of the fetal heart rate used to assess fetal wellbeing. The Doppler effect detects fetal heart motion and allows the interval between successive beats to be measured, thereby allowing a continuous assessment of fetal heart rate. The mother perceives the fetal movement by the 18-20 week of gestation and these increase until the 32 week. A mother should under go CTG if the fetal movements are reduced by the 28 week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia? ...

    Correct

    • Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: Erb palsy is common fetal injury

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the bisacromial diameter, which is the breadth of the shoulders, exceed the diameter of pelvic inlet. This typically results in a bony impaction of the anterior shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis, instead of an arrest at the pelvic inlet. Brachial plexus palsies including Erb’s palsy is the most common foetal injury associated with shoulder dystocia.

      It is not hyper-extension but the hyper-flexion of maternal legs tightly on her abdomen, called as McRoberts manoeuvre, which facilitates delivery during shoulder dystocia. This technique is effective as it increases the mobility of sacroiliac joint during pregnancy, which allows the rotation of pelvis and thereby facilitating the release of fetal shoulder.
      If this manoeuvre does not succeed, another technique called suprapubic pressure is done where an assistant applies pressure on the lower abdomen and gently pulls the delivered head. This technique is useful in about 42% of cases with shoulder dystocia.

      Maternal diabetes mellitus and foetal macrosomia both are a risk factor for shoulder dystocia.

      Administration of epidural anaesthesia during labour increases the possibility of shoulder dystocia.

      Risk of shoulder dystocia may increase with Oxytocin augmentation also.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Luteal phase deficiency is characterised by: ...

    Correct

    • Luteal phase deficiency is characterised by:

      Your Answer: Has inadequate luteal progesterone production

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase occurs after the ovulation. Luteal defect means that the luteal phase is shorter than 10 days and women will find it difficult to sustain the pregnancy. There is decreased progesterone, LH and FSH production in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview, it was noted that she has been having unprotected intercourse with her husband regularly for the past year but has not become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her menses occur every 28 to 30 days and they last 4 to 5 days. A day before her menses, she has episodes of severe lower abdominal pain that is only partially relieved by ibuprofen. Further history taking was done and revealed that she was treated for gonococcal cervicitis at age 19. The patient also takes a prenatal vitamin every day and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her 31-year-old husband recently had semen analysis and his results were normal. Further examination was done and the following are her results: Blood pressure is 126/70mmHg, Pulse is 85/min, BMI is 31 kg/m2. Upon further examination and observation, it was revealed that she has a small uterus with a cervix that appears laterally displaced and there is accompanying pain upon cervical manipulation. Which of the following is most likely considered the cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine adhesions

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecologic disease characterized by the development and presence of histological elements like endometrial glands and stroma in anatomical positions and organs outside of the uterine cavity. The main clinical manifestations of the disease are chronic pelvic pain and impaired fertility. The localization of endometriosis lesions can vary, with the most commonly involved focus of the disease the ovaries followed by the posterior broad ligament, the anterior cul-de-sac, the posterior cul-de-sac, and the uterosacral ligament.

      The clinical presentation of the disease differs in women and may be unexpected not only in the presentation but also in the duration. Clinicians usually suspect and are more likely to diagnose the disease in females presenting with the typical symptomatology such as dyspareunia, namely painful sexual intercourse, pelvic pain during menstruation (dysmenorrhea), pain in the urination (dysuria), defecation (dyschezia), and/or infertility. The pain is usually characterized as chronic, cyclic, and progressive (exacerbating over time). Furthermore, some women suffering from endometriosis experience hyperalgesia, a phenomenon, when even with the application of a nonpainful stimulus, an intolerable painful reaction is released. This condition indicates neuropathic pain.

      Tenderness on vaginal examination, palpable nodules in the posterior fornix, adnexal masses, and immobility of the uterus are diagnostically indicating findings of endometriosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG...

    Correct

    • You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG changes. She suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). You inspect the cervix. At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?

      Your Answer: Less than 3cm

      Explanation:

      Indications for FBS:
      1. Pathological CTG in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
      2. Suspected acidosis in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
      Contraindications to FBS:
      – Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
      – Known fetal coagulopathy
      – Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
      – Acute fetal compromise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - When deciding on entry method for laparoscopy a patients build is important. Which...

    Correct

    • When deciding on entry method for laparoscopy a patients build is important. Which of the following entry methods is inappropriately matched to the patient?

      Your Answer: Varess needle entry in a very thin patient (BMI 16)

      Explanation:

      In patients with normal BMI there is no preferential entry method. The Varess technique is not appropriate for morbidly obese or very thin patients for the reasons set out below: Morbid Obesity (BMI>40): Hasson technique or entry at Palmers point Reason: difficult penetration with Varess needle Very Thin Patients: Hasson technique or insertion at Palmers point Reason: higher risk of vascular injury

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in females? ...

    Correct

    • What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in females?

      Your Answer: Perineal, inferior rectal and dorsal nerve of clitoris

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. The nerve gives the following branches in females: the inferior anal nerve, the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - How many days after fertilisation does the morula form? ...

    Correct

    • How many days after fertilisation does the morula form?

      Your Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      When there are about 12-32 blastomeres, the developing human is referred to as morula. It enters the uterine cavity around the 4th day after fertilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical...

    Correct

    • At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?

      Your Answer: 60

      Explanation:

      The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which of the following describes the change from cervical columnar epithelium to stratified...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes the change from cervical columnar epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium?

      Your Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Cells adapt to external stressors in a variety of ways. A cell can either undergo hypertrophy or hyperplasia to overcome the stress, or atrophy if unable to overcome the stress. Metaplasia occurs when fully differentiated cell lines transform into another fully differentiated cell type to adapt to a new external environment. The replacement of columnar epithelium of the cervix to a stratified squamous epithelium occurs in the squamocolumnar transformation zone in response to the exposure of an everted ectocervix to the acidic pH of the vagina at puberty and first pregnancy. Carcinoma in situ is thought to involve the immature metaplastic cells in this region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows a large irregular haemorrhagic mass that appears to be invading into the myometrium. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Choriocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Choriocarcinoma may arise as a complication of gestation or as spontaneous germ cell tumours. As this scenario depicts that the women has previous abortion points to the fact that these may have been molar pregnancies. As choriocarcinoma can arise from a molar pregnancy it can be differentiated from it by the presence of invasion into the uterus and metastasis to the lungs primarily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Post-maturity

      Explanation:

      Multiple pregnancy is considered a high risk for obstetric complications such as spontaneous abortion, hypertensive disorders, placenta previa, and fetal malformations. Specifically, the incidence of hypertensive disorders, a common source of maternal morbidity, is 15% to 35% in twin pregnancies, which is two to five times higher than in singleton pregnancies. Additionally, the aetiology of preterm birth is not completely understood, but the association between multiple pregnancy and preterm birth is well known. A secondary analysis of the WHO Global Survey dataset indicated that 35.2% of multiple births were preterm (< 37 weeks gestation); of all multiple births, 6.1% of births were before 32 weeks gestation, 5.8% were during weeks 32 and 33, and 23.2% were during weeks 34 through 37

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - The yolk sac reaches its maximum diameter at what week of gestation? ...

    Correct

    • The yolk sac reaches its maximum diameter at what week of gestation?

      Your Answer: 10 weeks

      Explanation:

      The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - What is the half life of Oxytocin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the half life of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      The half life of oxytocin is 5 mins, which is why is should be started as an infusion at a low rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of...

    Correct

    • Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:

      Your Answer: Lie

      Explanation:

      Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.

      Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.

      Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.

      Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600 ml at 40 weeks of gestation. On examination, her vital signs were found to be stable, with a tender abdomen and there were no fetal heart sounds heard on auscultation. Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is commonly defined as the premature separation of the placenta, which complicates approximately 1% of births. During the second half of pregnancy abruption is considered an important cause for vaginal bleeding and is mostly associated with significant perinatal mortality and morbidity.
      Clinical presentation of abruption varies from asymptomatic cases to those complicated with fetal death and severe maternal morbidity. Classical symptoms of placental abruption are vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, but at times severe cases might occur with neither or just of one of these signs. In some cases the amount of vaginal bleeding may not correlates with the degree of abruption, this is because the severity of symptoms is always depend on the location of abruption, whether it is revealed or concealed and the degree of abruption.
      Diagnosis of abruption is clinical and the condition should be suspected in every women who presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both, with a history of trauma, and in those women who present with an unexplained preterm labor. All causes of abdominal pain and bleeding, like placenta previa, appendicitis, urinary tract infections, preterm labor, fibroid degeneration, ovarian pathology and muscular pain are considered as differential diagnosis of abruption.

      In the given case patient has developed signs and symptoms of placental abruption, like severe vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain, whose management depends on its presentation, gestational age and the degree of maternal and fetal compromise. As the presentation is widely variable, it is important to individualize the management on a case-by-case basis. More aggressive management is desirable in cases of severe abruption, which is not appropriate in milder cases of abruption. In cases of severe abruption with fetal death, as seen in the given case, it is reasonable to allow the patient to have a vaginal delivery,regardless of gestational age, as long as the mother is stable and there are no other contraindications.
      The uterus is contracting vigorously, and labor occurs rapidly and progresses, so amniotomy is mostly sufficient to speed up delivery. There is a significant risk for coagulopathy and hypovolemic shock so intravenous access should be established with aggressive replacement of blood and coagulation factors. Meticulous attention should be paid to the amount of blood loss; general investigations like complete blood count, coagulation studies and type and crossmatch should be done and the blood bank should be informed of the potential for coagulopathy. A Foley catheter should be placed and an hourly urine output should be monitored.
      It is prudent to involve an anesthesiologist in the patient’s care, because if labor does not progress rapidly as in cases like feto-pelvic disproportion, fetal malpresentation, or a prior classical cesarean delivery, it will be necessary to conduct a cesarean delivery to avoid worsening of the coagulopathy.
      Bleeding from surgical incisions in the presence of DIC may be difficult to control, and it is equally important to stabilize the patient and to correct any coagulation derangement occuring during surgery. The patient should be monitored closely after delivery, with particular attention paid to her vital signs, amount of blood loss, and urine output. In addition, the uterus should be observed closely to ensure that it remains contracted and is not increasing in size.
      Immediate delivery is indicated in cases of abruption at term or near term with a live fetus. In such cases the main question is whether vaginal delivery can be achieved without fetal or maternal death or severe morbidity. In cases where there is evidence of fetal compromise, delivery is not imminent and cesarean delivery should be performed promptly, because total placental detachment could occur without warning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation. This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.

      Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.

      Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after...

    Correct

    • A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after an obstructed labour. Upon examination the leg is cold and pale. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Embolus

      Explanation:

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) during pregnancy and the postpartum window occurs at a 6-10-fold higher rate compared with age-matched peers and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality. Hypercoagulability persists for 6-8 weeks after delivery with the highest risk of PE being during the postpartum period. The lack of randomized trials in pregnant women leads to variability in practice, which are largely based on expert consensus or extrapolation from non-pregnant cohorts. The standard treatment of VTE in pregnancy is anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), which like unfractionated heparin does not cross the placenta and is not teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 31 year old patient undergoes an elective c-section delivery. You estimate blood...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old patient undergoes an elective c-section delivery. You estimate blood loss has reached 1000ml and you suspect uterine atony is the likely cause. Following bimanual uterine compression what pharmacological intervention is advised?

      Your Answer: Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection

      Explanation:

      Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection is the first line pharmacological measurement in this scenario

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Correct Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      RNA viruses are almost always single stranded whilst DNA viruses are almost always double stranded. The exceptions are rotavirus and Parvovirus B19 respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Correct

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings. Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of...

    Incorrect

    • If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of the menstrual cycle and examined under the microscope, what kind of findings would be observed?

      Your Answer: Clear fields, devoid of bacteria Cell

      Correct Answer: A fern pattern characteristic of oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Fern test looks for a specific fern like pattern of cervical mucus when observed under light microscope after the sample is dried. It occurs due to the presence of sodium chloride under oestrogen influence whereas progesterone opposes it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer: Above the arcuate line the internal oblique divides into two lamellae

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal and external oblique muscles and the transversus abdominus muscle. The internal oblique divides into two lamellae and encloses the rectus muscle. Anteriorly it fuses with the aponeurosis of the external oblique and posteriorly with that of the transverus abdominus. Below the arcuate line the aponeurosis of all the flat muscles lies anteriorly and posteriorly it is only enclosed by the transveralis fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Estriol

      Explanation:

      Oestradiol is the predominant form of oestrogen during the reproductive life of a female. The estrogenic potency of oestradiol is 12 times more than estrone and 80 times that of estriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - What is the incubation period for CMV? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incubation period for CMV?

      Your Answer: 2-3 weeks

      Correct Answer: 3-12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of CMV is 3-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (13/15) 87%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Immunology (3/3) 100%
Physiology (13/14) 93%
Anatomy (9/13) 69%
Microbiology (3/5) 60%
Endocrinology (5/5) 100%
Obstetrics (15/21) 71%
Embryology (6/7) 86%
Biochemistry (3/3) 100%
Gynaecology (6/10) 60%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Passmed