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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe bony pain. Despite being treated with increasing doses of opioids as an outpatient, he now reports experiencing intense pain in his right shoulder that worsens with movement. This pain is distinct from the metastatic bone pain he has been experiencing in his lower limbs. There is no history of trauma. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Arrange a shoulder x ray and give him a broad arm sling

      Explanation:

      Managing Bony Pain in Patients with Metastatic Carcinoma

      The common assumption is that all bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma is solely due to bone metastases. However, it is important to consider other possible causes, especially if the pain is worsened by movement and has a different character from known bone metastases. Patients with advanced malignancy are prone to low-force fractures, particularly in the neck of the humerus, even without a history of trauma.

      Before increasing opioid dosage or adding NSAIDs, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and immobilize the fracture site. A broad arm sling can often provide sufficient pain relief. Bisphosphonates should not be used unless hypercalcemia has been confirmed. When a fracture is suspected, an x-ray is a simpler investigation modality than a bone scan or MRI. However, an MRI may be necessary to provide detail if a pathological fracture requires surgical repair, such as a neck of femur fracture associated with metastatic deposit.

      While dexamethasone can be used as an adjunct in pain management, it should not be the next step. Proper diagnosis and immobilization of the fracture site should be the primary focus in managing bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the Oncology Ward with vomiting three days after...

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    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the Oncology Ward with vomiting three days after receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL). She is also experiencing muscle spasms in her hands and feet and has severe muscle weakness.
      The patient’s blood test results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Sodium 144 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 6.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Uric acid 600 µmol/l 140–360 µmol/l
      Creatinine 168 µmol/l 68–98 µmol/l
      Calcium 1.60 mmol/l 2.05–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate 2.4 mmol/l 0.8–1.50 mmol/l
      Creatine kinase 65 U/l 25–200 U/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tumour-lysis syndrome (TLS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tumour-Lysis Syndrome: A Serious Complication of Chemotherapy

      Tumour-lysis syndrome (TLS) is a potentially life-threatening complication of chemotherapy, most commonly seen in patients with lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs when tumour cells are destroyed, releasing their contents into the bloodstream and causing severe metabolic derangement. Symptoms may include vomiting and electrolyte imbalances, such as muscle spasms due to hypocalcaemia. TLS can lead to acute renal failure, seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, and even death.

      To prevent TLS, patients are assessed for their risk before chemotherapy and may be given prophylaxis with medications such as allopurinol or rasburicase. Laboratory TLS in adults are defined by specific criteria for uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and calcium levels.

      Other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms, such as dehydration, chemotherapy-induced vomiting, rhabdomyolysis, and sepsis, were ruled out as they did not explain the marked electrolyte imbalances seen in TLS. It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize and manage TLS promptly to prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 3 - A 78-year-old man is currently receiving end-of-life care due to advanced lung cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is currently receiving end-of-life care due to advanced lung cancer. He has been experiencing intermittent episodes of vomiting, reflux and early satiety believed to be caused by autonomic dysfunction resulting in gastric stasis. He also has a history of Parkinson’s disease.
      What would be the most suitable pharmacological treatment to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Correct Answer: Domperidone

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications for Nausea and Vomiting in Patients with Parkinson’s Disease

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease may experience nausea and vomiting due to gastric stasis or other underlying conditions. When selecting a medication to treat these symptoms, it is important to consider the patient’s history of Parkinson’s disease and the potential for extrapyramidal side-effects.

      Domperidone is a good option for treating nausea caused by gastric stasis because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier, reducing the risk of extrapyramidal effects. Cyclizine is typically used for movement-related or intracranial disease-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone may be considered if other medications are ineffective, but it is primarily used for intracranial disease-related nausea and vomiting. Haloperidol is not recommended for patients with Parkinson’s disease due to its potential to increase extrapyramidal symptoms. Metoclopramide is a first-line prokinetic for motility disorder-related nausea and vomiting, but its use should be carefully monitored in patients with Parkinson’s disease due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects.

      Overall, the choice of medication for nausea and vomiting in patients with Parkinson’s disease should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the patient’s individual medical history and potential risks and benefits of each medication.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old woman with metastatic oesophageal cancer is being visited at home by...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman with metastatic oesophageal cancer is being visited at home by her GP. She is believed to be nearing the end of her life. Due to her condition, she is bedridden and unable to swallow. Her current medication includes taking MST 40 mg tablets twice a day, and she seldom requires oramorph for breakthrough pain. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Fentanyl 100 μg patch

      Correct Answer: Morphine 40 mg/24 hours via syringe driver

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Opioid Medications for Palliative Care

      When considering opioid medications for palliative care, it is important to understand the equivalent doses of different drugs. For a patient currently taking 80 mg/24 hours of oral morphine, a switch to a fentanyl 100 μg patch would result in a much higher dose, while a buprenorphine 5 μg patch would provide a much lower dose. Diamorphine 80 mg/24 hours via syringe driver is a higher dose than the current MST, while morphine 80 mg/24 hours via syringe driver is equivalent to the current dose. It is important to consult conversion tables and consider individual patient needs when selecting an opioid medication for palliative care.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man with colorectal carcinoma, Dukes stage D, has severe pain from...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with colorectal carcinoma, Dukes stage D, has severe pain from bony metastases. He has undergone courses of radiation therapy and intravenous infusion of bisphosphonates, which have failed to control his pain. He is currently taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. When previously given opiate analgesia, he became very drowsy and poorly responsive. His pain score is 9/10 at rest and he becomes very distressed when being moved by nursing staff.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: Give stronger nonsteroidal medications to avoid the risk of sedation and respiratory depression

      Correct Answer: Give the patient opiate medications to control the pain despite the risk of sedation

      Explanation:

      Pain Management in Palliative Care

      In palliative care, the primary goal is to provide aggressive comfort care and achieve symptom control. When it comes to managing pain, the first priority should be to control it, even if it means risking sedation and respiratory depression. This is especially true for patients with a limited life expectancy, where quality of life is of utmost importance.

      Relaxation techniques may not be effective in resolving complex pain, so other interventions should be considered. Radiotherapy may not be helpful if it did not work previously. Similarly, bisphosphonates may not be suitable if they did not work before. Stronger nonsteroidal medications may also not be beneficial if the patient is already taking an NSAID as an adjuvant therapy.

      In summary, pain management in palliative care requires a tailored approach that prioritizes symptom control and quality of life. Healthcare providers should consider the patient’s individual needs and preferences when deciding on the best course of action.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 6 - An 85-year-old man with renal failure attends hospital for dialysis three times per...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man with renal failure attends hospital for dialysis three times per week. He presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath and is found to have suffered from a large anterior myocardial infarct. The medical team decides to discuss a DNACPR decision with him. When is it appropriate to consider a DNACPR order?

      Your Answer: Where successful CPR is likely to be followed by a length and quality of life that are not in the best interests of the patient to sustain

      Explanation:

      When to Consider DNACPR Orders: Factors to Consider

      Deciding whether or not to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a patient can be a difficult decision. While CPR can be life-saving, it is not always the best course of action. Here are some factors to consider when deciding whether to issue a Do Not Attempt Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (DNACPR) order:

      1. Length and quality of life: If successful CPR is likely to result in a poor quality of life for the patient, it may not be in their best interests to sustain it.

      2. Patient wishes: If a mentally competent patient has expressed a desire not to receive CPR, their wishes should be respected.

      3. Likelihood of success: If the patient’s condition indicates that CPR is unlikely to be successful, it may not be worth attempting.

      4. Shockable rhythms: If the patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia, CPR may be successful and should be attempted.

      5. Cost and resources: The cost and availability of facilities should not be a factor in deciding whether to perform CPR.

      6. Family wishes: If the patient is mentally competent, their family cannot make decisions regarding resuscitation.

      7. Age: Age alone should not be a factor in deciding whether to issue a DNACPR order, as a fit and healthy older person may have a good chance of survival.

      Considering these factors can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about whether or not to perform CPR on a patient.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 7 - An 82-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is referred to the Palliative Care...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is referred to the Palliative Care team for assessment and planning of further care.
      Which of the following best describes the role of palliative care?

      Your Answer: Symptom control

      Explanation:

      The Focus of Palliative Care: Symptom Control

      Palliative care is a specialized medical care that aims to improve the quality of life of patients with serious or life-threatening illnesses. The primary focus of palliative care is on anticipating, preventing, diagnosing, and treating symptoms experienced by patients, regardless of their diagnosis. Unlike hospice care, palliative care does not depend on prognosis.

      The goal of palliative care is to improve the quality of life for both the patient and their family. Palliative care aims to treat symptoms rather than modify the disease, and it is not focused on curative or life-prolonging care. Pain management is an important aspect of palliative care, but the control of all disease symptoms is the best answer. Overall, the focus of palliative care is on symptom control to improve the quality of life for patients and their families.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 8 - A 79-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer is in hospice care. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer is in hospice care. He is becoming weaker with loud audible breath sounds and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute. He has a very weak cough.
      Which of the following medications may be of most benefit?

      Your Answer: Saline nebuliser

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous infusion of hyoscine hydrobromide

      Explanation:

      Managing Respiratory Secretions in Palliative Care: Medications and Interventions

      Towards the end of life, patients may experience difficulty in clearing respiratory secretions due to underlying disease and a weakening cough reflex. This can cause discomfort and distress. There are several medications and interventions that can be used to manage respiratory secretions in palliative care.

      Subcutaneous infusion of hyoscine hydrobromide is appropriate for patients with a weak cough. This anticholinergic medication helps dry up secretions and is recommended at a dose of 400 micrograms every 4 hours by subcutaneous injection, or more if required.

      Saline nebulisers can be used to loosen secretions in patients who can still cough strongly.

      Intravenous dexamethasone has no role in treating noisy respiratory secretions at the end of life.

      Low-dose morphine can be used to treat shortness of breath in palliative care, but other medications would be used first for patients suffering from secretions.

      Chest physiotherapy, including chest clearance exercises, can be useful for patients who are unable to cough up secretions, but is unlikely to benefit patients who are able to cough.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old lady with metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the hospice for...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old lady with metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the hospice for ongoing care. She complains that, at night, strange men enter her room and move her belongings and that staff talk about her during the day. In addition, she sometimes sees a vision of her deceased sister in her room and this has caused her anxiety and distress.
      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to treat her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Delirium and Hallucinations

      Delirium is a common condition in elderly and unwell patients that can cause hallucinations and agitation. Haloperidol is the preferred treatment for these symptoms. It is an anti-psychotic medication that can effectively manage hallucinations and agitation associated with delirium.

      Benzodiazepines like lorazepam and diazepam have anxiolytic and sedating effects but do not treat hallucinations. Midazolam can be used to treat anxiety and induce sedation but is not effective in treating hallucinations.

      Hyoscine bromide is a medication used to treat respiratory secretions in patients with a weak cough and is not indicated for the treatment of delirium or hallucinations. It is important to actively diagnose and manage delirium in patients to provide appropriate treatment and improve outcomes.

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      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman attending Oncology has metastatic breast cancer with bony metastases in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman attending Oncology has metastatic breast cancer with bony metastases in her pelvis and femur. She has hip pain at rest, not relieved by paracetamol and naproxen.
      Which of the following analgesic options would be most specific for metastatic bone pain?

      Your Answer: Intravenous morphine sulfate

      Correct Answer: Intravenous ibandronate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Metastatic Bone Pain

      Metastatic bone pain can be a challenging symptom to manage in patients with advanced cancer. Here are some treatment options:

      Intravenous Ibandronate: This bisphosphonate is administered intravenously and is effective in controlling pain from bony metastases.

      Oral Gabapentin: Gabapentin is a medication used to treat neuropathic pain.

      Oral Oxycontin: Oxycontin is an opioid that can relieve pain, but it is not specific to metastatic bone pain.

      Oral Tramadol: Tramadol is an analgesic medication that can be taken orally, but according to NICE guidelines, ibandronic acid is the recommended treatment for metastatic bony pain.

      Intravenous Morphine Sulfate: Intravenous morphine is not the preferred medication in palliative care, as it can be difficult to obtain intravenous access in frail patients. Subcutaneous delivery may be an alternative option.

      Overall, the choice of treatment will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, as well as the severity of their pain. A multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and the patient’s family can help to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Palliative Care (5/10) 50%
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