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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is having surgery for an inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons locate the spermatic cord and move it into a hernia ring. They also identify a thin nerve located above the cord. What is the most probable identity of this nerve?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The inguinal canal is where the ilioinguinal nerve can be found and it is frequently identified during hernia surgery. The genitofemoral nerve divides into two branches, with the genital branch passing through the inguinal canal within the cord structures. Meanwhile, the femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve enters the thigh at the back of the inguinal ligament, on the outer side of the femoral artery. Lastly, the iliohypogastric nerve penetrates the external oblique aponeurosis above the superficial inguinal ring.
The Ilioinguinal Nerve: Anatomy and Function
The ilioinguinal nerve is a nerve that arises from the first lumbar ventral ramus along with the iliohypogastric nerve. It passes through the psoas major and quadratus lumborum muscles before piercing the internal oblique muscle and passing deep to the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. The nerve then enters the inguinal canal and passes through the superficial inguinal ring to reach the skin.
The ilioinguinal nerve supplies the muscles of the abdominal wall through which it passes. It also provides sensory innervation to the skin and fascia over the pubic symphysis, the superomedial part of the femoral triangle, the surface of the scrotum, and the root and dorsum of the penis or labia majora in females.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the ilioinguinal nerve is important for medical professionals, as damage to this nerve can result in pain and sensory deficits in the areas it innervates. Additionally, knowledge of the ilioinguinal nerve is relevant in surgical procedures involving the inguinal region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with uncontrolled diabetes visits the ophthalmology clinic for his annual eye examination. During fundoscopy, the ophthalmologist observes fluffy white patches on the retina.
What is the underlying pathology indicated by this discovery?Your Answer: Retinal infarction
Explanation:Cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy indicate areas of retinal infarction.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycaemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has recently had a parathyroidectomy for primary hyperparathyroidism. The surgery was challenging, with all four glands explored. The wound was left clean and dry, and a suction drain was inserted. However, on the ward, she becomes agitated and experiences stridor. Upon examination, her neck is soft, and the drain is empty. What is the initial treatment that should be attempted?
Your Answer: Administration of intravenous lorazepam
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous calcium gluconate
Explanation:Manipulation of the parathyroid glands can lead to a reduction in blood flow, causing a rapid decrease in serum PTH levels and potentially resulting in symptoms of hypocalcaemia such as neuromuscular irritability and laryngospasm. Immediate administration of intravenous calcium gluconate is crucial for saving the patient’s life. If there is no swelling in the neck and no blood in the drain, it is unlikely that there is a contained haematoma in the neck, which would require removal of skin closure.
Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body
Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.
PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.
Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.
Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to cerebrospinal fluid is false?
Your Answer: The foramen of Luschka are paired and lie laterally in the fourth ventricle
Correct Answer: The choroid plexus is only present in the lateral ventricles
Explanation:The choroid plexus is present in every ventricle.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP after experiencing a sudden deterioration of vision in her left eye 10 days ago. She reports that her vision became blurry and has only partially improved since. Additionally, the patient describes intermittent sensations of pain and burning around her left eye. She has no significant medical history.
During the examination, the direct pupillary light reflex is weaker in her left eye. Her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/12, while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6. The patient experiences pain when her left eye is abducted.
What is the most frequent cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Optic neuritis, which is characterized by unilateral vision loss and pain, is most commonly caused by multiple sclerosis. This is an inflammatory disease that affects the central nervous system and is more prevalent in individuals of white ethnicity living in northern latitudes. Behcet’s disease, a rare vasculitis, can also cause optic neuritis but is less strongly associated with the condition. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, does not cause vision loss and is characterized by redness and irritation of the outer surface of the eye. Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune condition that causes muscle weakness, does not cause optic neuritis but can affect ocular muscles and lead to symptoms such as drooping eyelids and double vision.
Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis
Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.
To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.
The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35 years old female presents to the emergency department with a mid-shaft humerus fracture. During the examination, the physician observes that she has lost the ability to extend her wrist, forearm, and fingers. Based on this, the doctor diagnoses a radial nerve injury.
What other structure is most susceptible to damage in this scenario?Your Answer: Radial artery
Correct Answer: Profunda brachii artery
Explanation:The deep brachial artery, also known as the profunda brachii artery, arises from the brachial artery just below the teres major muscle. It runs closely alongside the radial nerve in the radial groove and provides blood supply to structures in the posterior aspect of the forearm. The brachial artery divides into the radial and ulnar arteries at the cubital fossa. It is important to note that the profunda femoris vein and great saphenous vein are located in the leg, not the arm.
Anatomy of the Brachial Artery
The brachial artery is a continuation of the axillary artery and runs from the lower border of teres major to the cubital fossa where it divides into the radial and ulnar arteries. It is located in the upper arm and has various relations with surrounding structures. Posteriorly, it is related to the long head of triceps with the radial nerve and profunda vessels in between. Anteriorly, it is overlapped by the medial border of biceps. The median nerve crosses the artery in the middle of the arm. In the cubital fossa, the brachial artery is separated from the median cubital vein by the bicipital aponeurosis. The basilic vein is in contact with the most proximal aspect of the cubital fossa and lies medially. Understanding the anatomy of the brachial artery is important for medical professionals when performing procedures such as blood pressure measurement or arterial line placement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease visits the renal clinic for a routine examination. Her blood work reveals hypocalcemia and elevated levels of parathyroid hormone.
What could be the probable reason for her abnormal blood test results?Your Answer: Decreased levels of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol (calcifediol, inactivated vitamin D)
Correct Answer: Decreased levels of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol, activated vitamin D)
Explanation:Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body
Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.
PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.
Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.
Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Correct
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Which one of the following is not a feature of Wallerian Degeneration if the age is altered slightly?
Your Answer: The axon remains excitable throughout the whole process
Explanation:Once the process is established, the excitability of the axon is lost.
Understanding Wallerian Degeneration
Wallerian degeneration is a process that takes place when a nerve is either cut or crushed. This process involves the degeneration of the part of the axon that is separated from the neuron’s cell nucleus. It usually begins 24 hours after the neuronal injury, and the distal axon remains excitable up until this time. Following the degeneration of the axon, the myelin sheath breaks down, which occurs through the infiltration of the site with macrophages.
Regeneration of the nerve may eventually occur, although recovery will depend on the extent and manner of injury. Understanding Wallerian degeneration is crucial in the field of neurology, as it can help doctors and researchers develop treatments and therapies for patients who have suffered nerve injuries. By studying the process of Wallerian degeneration, medical professionals can gain a better understanding of how the nervous system works and how it can be repaired after damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old male who has recently traveled to Nigeria visits the GP complaining of muscle weakness. During the clinical examination, the doctor observes reduced tone in his limbs, diminished reflexes, and fasciculations.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Poliomyelitis
Explanation:Lower motor neuron signs are a common result of poliomyelitis, which is a viral infection that can cause reduced reflexes and tone. On the other hand, upper motor neuron signs are typically associated with conditions such as multiple sclerosis, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Understanding Poliomyelitis and Its Immunisation
Poliomyelitis is a sudden illness that occurs when one of the polio viruses invades the gastrointestinal tract. The virus then multiplies in the gastrointestinal tissues and targets the nervous system, particularly the anterior horn cells. This can lead to paralysis, which is usually unilateral and accompanied by lower motor neuron signs.
To prevent the spread of polio, immunisation is crucial. In the UK, the live attenuated oral polio vaccine (OPV – Sabin) was used for routine immunisation until 2004. However, this vaccine carried a risk of vaccine-associated paralytic polio. As the risk of polio importation to the UK has decreased, the country switched to inactivated polio vaccine (IPV – Salk) in 2004. This vaccine is administered via an intramuscular injection and does not carry the same risk of vaccine-associated paralytic polio as the OPV.
Certain factors can increase the risk of severe paralysis from polio, including being an adult, being pregnant, or having undergone a tonsillectomy. It is important to understand the features and risks associated with poliomyelitis to ensure proper prevention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Correct
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A young man comes to the clinic with difficulty forming meaningful sentences following treatment for a right middle cerebral artery infarction. He struggles to complete his sentences and frequently pauses while speaking. However, his comprehension of spoken language remains intact. The physician suspects a neurological origin. Which area of his brain is likely affected?
Your Answer: Broca's area
Explanation:The individual in question is experiencing Broca’s aphasia, which results in impaired language production but preserved comprehension. Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, would result in impaired comprehension but preserved language production. Both Broca’s and Wernicke’s aphasia are typically caused by a stroke and affect areas in the left hemisphere, not involving the occipital lobe. Therefore, the options that suggest specific anatomical landmarks are incorrect.
Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.
Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.
Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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