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  • Question 1 - A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for...

    Correct

    • A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for 2 days, vomited once, and the father reports foul-smelling urine. The boy is happily playing with toys in your office.

      A recent urine sample reveals: negative leukocytes, positive nitrites, negative protein, and negative blood.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Start antibiotics and send a sample for culture

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, dipstick testing for leukocyte esterase and nitrite is just as effective as microscopy and culture for diagnosing UTIs in children over the age of 3. If both leukocytes and nitrites are positive, the child should be treated for a UTI with antibiotics. If the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or has had a UTI in the past, a urine sample should be sent for culture. If nitrites are positive but leukocytes are negative, antibiotics should be started and a urine sample should be sent for culture. If leukocytes are positive but nitrites are negative, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. It is important to only prescribe antibiotics if there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI, such as dysuria. If the dipstick is negative, another cause for the symptoms should be investigated and urine should not be sent for culture.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?

      Your Answer: Urgent CT scan

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms

      An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      63.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You refer a 26-year-old female to rheumatology with occasional pain and swelling of...

    Correct

    • You refer a 26-year-old female to rheumatology with occasional pain and swelling of the metacarpal phalangeal joints over the last 4 months. An x-ray reveals soft-tissue swelling and loss of joint space. Rheumatoid factor is positive, and the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is confirmed. What is the probable initial treatment that she will receive to slow down the progression of the disease?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate + short-course of prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The rheumatoid arthritis guidelines were updated by NICE in 2018, with a new recommendation for the initial treatment approach. Instead of dual DMARD therapy, they now suggest DMARD monotherapy with a brief course of bridging prednisolone.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18)...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18) and calls the surgery on the Monday morning after a weekend away with her boyfriend to say that she has missed three of her combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for her?

      Your Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week, have her pill-free period and ask for emergency contraception

      Correct Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week, start a new pack and use barrier contraception for a week

      Explanation:

      Missed Birth Control Pills

      When a woman misses three or more birth control pills in the third week of her cycle, she should complete the third week but skip the pill-free period and start a new pack immediately. This advice is according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH). It is also recommended to use barrier contraception for seven days. On the other hand, if only one pill is missed, the woman can maintain the pill-free week. It is not usually necessary to extend the pill-free period beyond seven days. However, emergency contraception may be necessary depending on when the pills were missed. It is important to review the latest FSRH guidance before taking any exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      148.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old woman comes to morning surgery and says she thinks she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to morning surgery and says she thinks she has a recurrence of depression. She has all the same symptoms as during a previous bout. You want to assess the severity of her symptoms by using a questionnaire.

      Which one of the following questionnaires is validated for use in primary care?

      Your Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire 9

      Correct Answer: Hamilton Depression Rating Scale

      Explanation:

      Severity Categorisation in Depression Assessment Tools

      The severity of depression is an important aspect to consider when assessing and treating patients. There are several depression assessment tools that categorise severity differently. The Patient Health Questionnaire 9 (PHQ-9) categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate, moderately severe and severe. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS-D) categorises depression as normal, mild, moderate and severe. Lastly, the Beck Depression Inventory II categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate and severe. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand the severity categorisation of each tool to accurately assess and treat patients with depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in the previous four months. She has been amenorrheic for some months.

      On examination she had fine lanugo hair and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.

      Which one of the following laboratory results would support the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Suppressed T3 concentration

      Correct Answer: Low plasma testosterone concentration

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and its Associated Hormonal Changes

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that affects many individuals. It is characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Patients with anorexia often experience hormonal changes that can have significant effects on their health.

      One of the most common hormonal changes associated with anorexia is functional hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. This condition is characterized by low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH). Despite this, plasma testosterone levels are typically normal in females with anorexia.

      Cortisol levels may also be affected in patients with anorexia. While they may be within the normal range, they may fail to suppress with dexamethasone. Additionally, basal levels of T3 may be depressed, while thyroxine (T4) and TSH levels may be normal. Finally, ferritin levels are often low in a state of malnutrition.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa can have significant effects on a patient’s hormonal balance. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these changes and to monitor patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, and weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, and weight loss. He reports feeling fatigued and experiencing itching on his back. A recent abdominal x-ray showed no abnormalities. What would be considered the gold standard for managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms

      An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for individuals aged 60 and above who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound, unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia.

      While a gastroenterology opinion may be necessary, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s symptoms are considered red flags and require a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not warranted. This approach ensures timely and appropriate management for elderly patients with potential pancreatic cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - You are contacted about an otherwise well 9-year-old child who is a patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted about an otherwise well 9-year-old child who is a patient of yours. His primary school has flagged to you that he is often absent from class, appears withdrawn and is keen to cover up areas of his limbs, which he says is due to eczema, when he is doing sport.

      The school nurse has contacted you because he has extensive bruising to his buttocks with evidence of grip marks. You are concerned about non-accidental injury.

      What is first line recommended management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should arrange for the child to be referred to a paediatrician or social services immediately

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for GPs on Suspected Child Abuse Cases

      Department of Health guidelines state that only a paediatrician is qualified to diagnose physical or sexual abuse, not a GP. It is important for GPs to maintain links with the family as they will have to continue a relationship with them in the future. If a child is in imminent danger, they should be removed to a place of safety. GPs are not responsible for confronting the parents themselves as it is possible for another factor, such as bullying, to be responsible for the signs and symptoms seen. If hospital admission or urgent paediatric review is not necessary, the child should be flagged to social services.

      To summarize, GPs should be cautious when dealing with suspected child abuse cases and follow the guidelines set by the Department of Health. It is important to prioritize the safety of the child and maintain a professional relationship with the family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old male with a ten year history of type 2 diabetes is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a ten year history of type 2 diabetes is being treated with metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily.

      He is obese, has gained weight over the last year and his HbA1c has deteriorated from 59 to 64 mmol/mol (20-42). He is being considered for treatment with either insulin or pioglitazone.

      The patient wants to know the side effects of pioglitazone.

      What is considered a typical side effect of pioglitazone therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Diabetes Medications

      Pioglitazone, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, may cause fluid retention in up to 10% of patients. This side effect can be worsened when taken with other drugs that also cause fluid retention, such as NSAIDs and calcium antagonists. In addition to fluid retention, pioglitazone can also cause weight gain due to fat accumulation. However, it is important to note that pioglitazone is contraindicated in patients with cardiac failure.

      Metformin, another commonly prescribed diabetes medication, can cause lactic acidosis as a side effect. This is a serious condition that can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

      Some sulphonylureas, a class of medications used to stimulate insulin production, may cause a photosensitivity rash in some patients. This rash can be uncomfortable and may require treatment.

      Finally, statins and fibrates, medications used to lower cholesterol levels, are associated with myositis, a condition that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. This side effect is rare but can be serious.

      It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking diabetes medications and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing for the past few weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Initially, she thought it was just a cold, but now she has noticed swelling in her feet. Upon examination, she has crackling sounds in both lungs, a third heart sound, and a displaced point of maximum impulse.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Cardiomyopathy and Recent Travel History

      Cardiomyopathy is a myocardial disorder that can range from asymptomatic to life-threatening. It is important to consider this diagnosis in young patients presenting with heart failure, arrhythmias, or thromboembolism. While recent travel history may be relevant to other potential diagnoses, such as atypical pneumonia or thromboembolism, neither of these fully fit the patient’s history and examination. Rheumatic heart disease, pericarditis, and pulmonary embolus can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. The underlying cause and type of cardiomyopathy in this case are unknown but could be multiple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg daily. She initially sought help due to a recent break-up and stress at work caused by a difficult colleague. This is her first experience with depression and she has been taking medication for three months. She has a supportive family, including her parents and sister who live nearby.

      At her last appointment one month ago, she reported still feeling sad when alone with her thoughts and not fully recovered. However, at her most recent appointment, she reported feeling like her usual self again. She has resolved the work issues with her colleague and is enjoying her social life with friends. She has also started practicing yoga and is interested in tapering off her medication.

      Based on her current progress, when is the earliest appropriate time for her to consider tapering off her medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He can tail off in six months

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment

      This patient, a relatively young individual who has experienced a first episode of depression, has successfully recovered without any lingering issues that would indicate a high risk of recurrence. It is recommended that he continue taking his antidepressants for at least six more months. While there are situations where treatment may need to be extended, such as for older adults or those at a high risk of relapse, this patient is eager to reduce his medication. Therefore, six months is the earliest opportunity for reducing the dose.

      It is common for patients to want to stop taking their medication once they feel better. However, it is important to remind them that depression can be a recurrent condition. Continuing treatment for the recommended period can help prevent relapse and will not result in addiction to the medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on both cheeks. Milder patches are also to be found on the limbs and trunk. The limbs are predominantly affected in the flexures. The child has been scratching and has disturbed sleep because of the itch.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Atopic Eczema, Impetigo, Acute Urticaria, Psoriasis, and Scabies

      When examining a child with skin complaints, it is important to distinguish between different skin conditions. Atopic eczema is a common cause of skin complaints in young children, presenting with poorly demarcated erythematous lesions, scale, and crusting. It typically affects the face in young children and only starts to predominate in the flexures at an older age.

      Impetigo, on the other hand, would cause lesions in a less widespread area and present with a yellow/golden crust. Acute urticaria would cause several raised smooth lesions that appear rapidly, without crust or scale. Psoriasis produces well-demarcated lesions, which are not seen in atopic eczema.

      Scabies would normally produce a more widespread rash with papules and excoriation, and sometimes visible burrows. It would not produce the scaled crusted lesions described in atopic eczema. By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - You are assisting in the care of a 65-year-old man who has been...

    Incorrect

    • You are assisting in the care of a 65-year-old man who has been hospitalized for chest pain. He has a history of hypertension, angina, and currently smokes 20 cigarettes per day. Upon admission, blood tests were performed in the Emergency Department and revealed the following results:

      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 3.3 mmol/l
      Urea 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l

      What is the most likely explanation for the electrolyte abnormalities observed in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia are caused by bendroflumethiazide, while spironolactone is linked to hyperkalaemia. Smoking would only be significant if the patient had lung cancer that resulted in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, but there is no evidence of this in the given scenario.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral gynaecomastia.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia and Ataxia: Indicators of Lung Cancer

      Gynaecomastia and ataxia are both symptoms that can indicate the presence of lung cancer. While Klinefelter’s syndrome can cause gynaecomastia and cerebellar stroke can cause ataxia, the combination of the two makes it more likely to be lung cancer. Gynaecomastia is a non-metastatic paraneoplastic syndrome that is often associated with non-small cell lung cancer. It can be painful and may also be accompanied by testicular atrophy. Ataxia, on the other hand, can occur as a result of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration associated with the malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools and other childcare settings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular detection by combing should be carried out by parents

      Explanation:

      Head Lice Treatment and Prevention

      Head lice are a common problem, especially among children. However, it is important to note that children should not be excluded from school if they have head lice. Treatment is only necessary if live lice have been seen. Hatched eggs or nits are not a sign of infestation.

      Plastic combs are designed to be used with conditioner and have been shown to have a 38-57% cure rate after 14 days of treatment. Close contacts should also be checked, but only treated if live lice are present.

      If chemical or physical insecticides are being used, such as malathion 0.5% or dimethicone 4%, at least two applications are needed, seven days apart, to effectively kill the lice that emerge from eggs after the first treatment.

      Overall, it is important to take preventative measures, such as avoiding head-to-head contact and sharing personal items, to reduce the risk of head lice infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His blood tests are shown in the table below. Other liver function tests are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 1000 IU/l 30–150 IU/l
      Adjusted calcium 2.25 mmol/l 2.12–2.65 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/l 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects individuals over the age of 40. It is often asymptomatic and is discovered through incidental findings of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels or characteristic abnormalities on X-rays. However, classic symptoms include bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. Diagnosis is established by finding a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level, but normal liver function tests. Differential diagnoses include multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnoses of Paget’s disease of bone is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) measured on an annual basis. Last year, his eGFR was estimated at 56 ml/minute/1.73 m². This year, he has an unexplained fall in eGFR to 41 ml/minute/1.73 m². This is confirmed by a second blood sample. He feels otherwise well.
      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine outpatient referral to the renal team

      Explanation:

      Referral and Management of Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common condition that requires appropriate management to prevent progression and complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to refer CKD patients for specialist assessment. Patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2, albumin creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, sustained decrease in GFR, poorly controlled hypertension, rare or genetic causes of CKD, or suspected renal artery stenosis should be referred for review by a renal team.

      In addition to referral, patients with CKD may require further investigations such as renal ultrasound. An ultrasound is indicated in patients with rapid deterioration of eGFR, visible or persistent microscopic haematuria, symptoms of urinary tract obstruction, family history of polycystic kidney disease, or GFR drops to under 30. However, the results of an ultrasound should not determine referral.

      Patients with CKD require regular monitoring, but the frequency of monitoring depends on the stage and progression of the disease. Patients with a rapid drop in eGFR, like the patient in this case, require specialist input and should not continue with annual monitoring. However, urgent medical review is only necessary in cases of severe complications such as hyperkalaemia, severe uraemia, acidosis, or fluid overload.

      In summary, appropriate referral and management of CKD patients can prevent complications and improve outcomes. NICE guidelines provide clear indications for referral and investigations, and regular monitoring is necessary to track disease progression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in Africa. The laboratory reports that she has Plasmodium falciparum infection.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding Plasmodium falciparum infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemoprophylaxis is not a guarantee against infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Malaria: Symptoms, Severity, and Prevention

      Malaria is a parasitic infection that can be transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The symptoms and severity of malaria can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and can cause impaired consciousness, fits, renal failure, hypoglycemia, bleeding, and even death. Other types of malaria, such as P. vivax and P. ovale, may not present symptoms until months or even years after exposure.

      The classic symptom of malaria is a cyclical occurrence of sudden coldness, followed by rigor, fever, and sweating lasting about 2 hours or more. The frequency of these cycles can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection. P. vivax and P. ovale infections typically occur every 2 days, while P. malariae infections occur every 3 days. P. falciparum infections can cause recurrent fever every 36-48 hours or a less pronounced and almost continuous fever.

      Severe cases of malaria can lead to renal failure, jaundice, and even death. However, the use of effective chemoprophylaxis and insecticide-treated nets can prevent up to 90% of malaria cases. Travelers should be encouraged to use appropriate prophylaxis for their travel itinerary, but it’s important to note that this is not a guarantee against infection.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, severity, and prevention of malaria is crucial in protecting oneself from this potentially deadly infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent vomiting while taking oral modified-release morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60mg

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half the usual oral dose of morphine.

      When morphine is given through injection (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous), the recommended dose is approximately half of the oral dose. If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically used.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two years, states that he drinks alcohol on his way into work as he suffers from anxiety attacks.

      Which one of the following statements is true regarding his anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and after initial worsening with withdrawal usually will improve after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mild Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms

      This individual is struggling with alcohol dependence and is currently experiencing anxiety during the morning withdrawal period. Anxiety is a common symptom of mild alcohol withdrawal, which can also lead to agitation, fever, sweats, and tremors. While alcohol initially provides relief for these symptoms, continued abstinence can cause them to peak after approximately 72 hours and last for up to a week or more. However, most patients find that these symptoms have resolved within three weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with sudden back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with sudden back pain that radiates down to her left ankle. During the examination, there is a loss of sensation over the lateral side of her left foot and calf, and the Achilles reflex is diminished. The straight leg raising test is positive. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. Her full blood count, liver function tests, and renal function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar disc prolapse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lumbar Disc Prolapse and Differential Diagnosis

      Lumbar disc prolapse occurs when a herniated disc in the lumbosacral spine compresses a lumbar nerve root, resulting in sciatica symptoms such as unilateral leg pain, numbness, weakness, and loss of tendon reflexes. The most common level affected is L5/S1, and pain is usually relieved by lying down. Differential diagnosis includes osteoarthritis, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and spinal stenosis. Osteoarthritis may cause localized back pain without radiation or sensory loss, while osteomalacia presents with raised alkaline phosphatase and parathyroid hormone levels and low 25-hydroxycholecalciferol levels. Osteoporosis is unlikely in a young patient and doesn’t typically cause pain. Spinal stenosis is a disease of the elderly, presenting with pseudo claudication and a negative straight leg raising test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man presents with bilateral eye irritation, foreign body sensation, itching and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with bilateral eye irritation, foreign body sensation, itching and erythema of the lids and partial loss of eyelashes. He also has scalp itching and flaking.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Blepharitis: Inflammation of the Eyelids

      Blepharitis is a condition that involves inflammation of the eyelids. It can be categorized into two types: anterior and posterior blepharitis. Anterior blepharitis affects the eyelashes and follicles, while posterior blepharitis involves the meibomian gland orifices. Staphylococcal and seborrhoeic variants are the two subtypes of anterior blepharitis, which often overlap. Blepharitis is commonly associated with other ocular diseases such as dry eye syndromes, chalazion, conjunctivitis, and keratitis, as well as skin conditions like rosacea and seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      While contact dermatitis is a common cause of eyelid inflammation, it is not usually confined to the eyelid margins. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is characterized by acute onset of conjunctival erythema, a gritty or foreign body sensation, and eye discharge that may produce crusts on the lids. Dry eye syndrome may also develop in people with blepharitis. Trichiasis, a condition where the eyelashes are misdirected towards the globe, is often associated with blepharitis.

      Understanding blepharitis and its subtypes is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 23 - You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients with dermatologic problems and need to refer some of them to hospital. Unfortunately this is a long way away and many elderly patients find it difficult to travel.

      You think about setting up an audiovisual telemedicine clinic. Which one of the following statements is correct about audiovisual telemedicine clinics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There will need to be important organisational changes to the way in which you and your colleagues in secondary care work to make telemedicine work

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Implementing Telemedicine in Secondary Care

      There are several important organizational changes that need to be made in order for telemedicine to work effectively in secondary care. However, it is important to note that telemedicine clinics may not necessarily have economic benefits, as the costs of implementing the necessary technology can be expensive. Additionally, while patients may appreciate the convenience of not having to travel to see a specialist, they may still prefer face-to-face consultations. It is also unclear whether clinical outcomes will improve with the use of telemedicine. Finally, it is important to obtain explicit consent from patients before using any video consultations for teaching purposes. These considerations should be taken into account when considering the implementation of telemedicine in secondary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon examination, you note a blotchy, brownish pigmentation on both cheeks. She reports starting the combined oral contraceptive a few months ago and believes that her skin began to develop the pigmentation after starting the pill. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloasma

      Explanation:

      Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by brown pigmentation that typically develops across the cheeks. It is more common in women and in people with darker skin, and commonly presents between the ages of 30-40. Hormonal contraceptives, pregnancy, sun exposure, and certain cosmetics are well-documented triggers for developing the condition.

      It is important to note that other conditions can cause facial rashes, but they would not fit into the description of chloasma. Acne rosacea causes papules and pustules, as well as facial flushing. Dermatomyositis causes a heliotrope rash across the face, eyelids, and light-exposed areas. Perioral dermatitis, also known as muzzle rash, causes papules that are usually seen around the mouth. Seborrhoeic dermatitis causes a scaling, flaky rash.

      Overall, chloasma is a common skin condition that can be triggered by hormonal changes and sun exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 62-year-old woman presents with a history of anorexia, weight loss, and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with a history of anorexia, weight loss, and abdominal discomfort for the past five weeks. On examination, she appears pale and cachectic with no significant abdominal findings. However, there is palpable adenopathy in the left supraclavicular fossa.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the stomach

      Explanation:

      Metastatic Lymph Nodes in the Neck: Causes and Symptoms

      Metastatic lymph nodes in the neck, particularly at the root of the neck, are often indicative of cancer in the abdomen, specifically gastric or pancreatic tumors. These types of cancers can remain asymptomatic while spreading to the lymph nodes, making early detection difficult. Virchow’s node is a term used to describe an enlarged left supraclavicular node, which can also be caused by lymphoma, breast cancer, or arm infection. On the other hand, an enlarged right supraclavicular lymph node is typically associated with thoracic malignancies such as lung and esophageal cancer, as well as Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It’s important to note that none of the other options are malignant disorders. If you notice any unusual swelling or lumps in your neck, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He is known to drink five cans of beer per day and a number of shots of whiskey whilst socializing with his colleagues after work. His supervisor is concerned as he has become lethargic, confused and has taken to sitting down frequently.
      On examination he has nystagmus, is restless and disorientated. He has edema, but his abdomen doesn't appear tense and he is afebrile. You get him to walk and he has truncal ataxia.
      You think he should be admitted to hospital. How should he be treated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine replacement

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholism

      Sudden deterioration in alcoholism can be caused by alcohol withdrawal or acute infection, such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. However, if confusion, nystagmus, and truncal ataxia are present, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be considered. Thiamine replacement is crucial to prevent the development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result in permanent short-term memory impairment. It is important to recognize and treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy promptly to prevent long-term neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 27 - John is a 50-year-old man who visits his doctor with a rash around...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 50-year-old man who visits his doctor with a rash around his left eye. The rash is causing him a lot of pain. Upon examination, he has a vesicular rash on one side of his face that extends to his nose. His eye appears normal, and his vision is not affected. The doctor suspects that he may have shingles.

      What should be the next course of action in John's treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to eye casualty

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. Treatment for shingles includes oral aciclovir within 72 hours of rash onset, but steroids and antibiotics are not recommended. Hospitalization is necessary if there are serious complications, visual symptoms, unexplained red eye, severe or widespread rash, or if the patient is severely immunocompromised. While topical aciclovir is available over the counter for oral herpes, NICE guidelines do not recommend routine prescription due to limited evidence of its effectiveness.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is a type of shingles that affects around 10% of cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.

      The management of HZO involves oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be given for severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review.

      Complications of HZO include conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year old man visits your clinic with complaints of excessive thirst and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year old man visits your clinic with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination that have been present for about a month. He has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and is currently on prednisolone. You suspect that he may have developed diabetes mellitus due to his corticosteroid treatment. What is the best method to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single fasting glucose sample

      Explanation:

      If a HbA1c test is not suitable for diagnosing T2DM, then a fasting glucose sample should be taken instead.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 40-year-old accountant has come to seek your advice regarding driving restrictions. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old accountant has come to seek your advice regarding driving restrictions. He recently experienced a seizure and was referred to a neurologist for further investigation. Despite showing symptoms of a seizure, all tests, including EEG and imaging, came back normal. The neurologist concluded that it was a solitary fit and advised against medication. The patient has been discharged from further follow-up but was instructed to inform the DVLA. He has come to you for guidance on how long he should refrain from driving his car after the initial seizure.

      Can you provide information on the potential causes of seizures in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      Understanding DVLA Driving Restrictions for Patients with Neurological Conditions

      There are important pieces of information to consider when it comes to driving restrictions for patients with neurological conditions. In the case of a banking assistant who experienced a solitary seizure, the latest DVLA guidance suggests refraining from driving for six months after the seizure. This applies to Group 1 entitlement drivers, which includes cars and motorcycles. If the patient was an HGV driver, the restriction would be five years.

      It’s important to note that this was an isolated seizure with normal test results and no medication. If the patient had epilepsy, the driving restriction would be one year following the attack. It’s crucial to be familiar with the latest guidance and any new changes, as questions about driving restrictions often come up in the MRCGP exam.

      Understanding the impact of these restrictions on patients’ working and personal lives is also important. As part of the curriculum map for neurological problems, candidates should have an understanding of the current DVLA restrictions on driving, particularly with regard to epilepsy. It’s essential to be aware of any new restrictions or amendments and to pass on this information to patients. By staying informed, doctors can help patients navigate the potential consequences of driving restrictions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have significantly worsened over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:

      Hb 10.9 g/dl
      Platelets 199 * 109/l
      WBC 7.2 * 109/l
      Ferritin 15 ng/ml
      Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
      Folate 2.1 nmol/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      The key indicators in this case suggest that the patient may have coeliac disease, as evidenced by her anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate. While her description of diarrhoea is typical, some patients may have more visibly fatty stools.

      It is unlikely that the patient has irritable bowel syndrome, as her blood test results would not be consistent with this diagnosis. While menorrhagia may explain her anaemia and low ferritin levels, it would not account for the low folate.

      Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, and exams typically provide more clues to suggest a diagnosis of Crohn’s (such as mouth ulcers).

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 31 - A 45-year-old male presents at your clinic following a recent admission at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male presents at your clinic following a recent admission at the cardiac unit of the local general hospital. He suffered a myocardial (MI) infarction three weeks ago and has been recovering well physically, but he cries a lot of the time.

      You find evidence of low mood, anhedonia and sleep disturbance.

      The man feels hopeless about the future and has fleeting thoughts of suicide. He has suffered from depression in the past which responded well to antidepressant treatment.

      Which antidepressant would you choose from the following based on its demonstrated safety post-myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Sertraline for Depression in Patients with Recent MI or Unstable Angina

      Sertraline is a medication that is both effective and well-tolerated for treating depression in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) or unstable angina. In addition to its antidepressant properties, sertraline has been found to inhibit platelet aggregation. This makes it a valuable treatment option for patients who are at risk for blood clots and other cardiovascular complications. With its dual benefits, sertraline can help improve both the mental and physical health of patients who have experienced a cardiac event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 32 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening shortness of breath over the past four to five weeks. He reports bilateral ankle swelling and has experienced two episodes of gasping for breath in the past week. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes indapamide and amlodipine. On examination, his BP is 122/72, his pulse is 90 and regular, and he has bibasal crackles on chest auscultation and bilateral pitting edema. Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 122 g/L (135-177), white cells of 8.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 182 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 141 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 122 μmol/L (79-118), and BNP of 520 pg/mL (<100). Based on the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence ramipril and review in four weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Suspected Heart Failure with Elevated BNP Levels

      According to NICE CG106, individuals with suspected heart failure and an NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2,000 ng/litre should be referred for specialist assessment and transthoracic echocardiography within 6 weeks. Urgent referral within 2 weeks is recommended for those with NT-proBNP levels above 2,000 ng/litre due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels of BNP.

      For individuals with NT-proBNP levels below 400 ng/litre, alternative causes for symptoms of heart failure should be reviewed. If there is still concern that the symptoms may be related to heart failure, consultation with a physician with subspeciality training in heart failure is recommended.

      It is important to note that very high levels of BNP carry a poor prognosis with respect to both morbidity and increased risk of hospital admission and mortality from heart failure. If transthoracic echocardiogram images are poor, other imaging methods such as radionucleotide scanning or transoesophageal echo should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 33 - A 30-year-old male patient visits your clinic 48 hours after being hit on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male patient visits your clinic 48 hours after being hit on the outer side of his right knee by a car's bumper that was moving at a slow pace. Despite an antalgic gait, he can walk. However, he cannot dorsiflex his ankle, evert his foot, or extend his toes. The dorsum of his foot has lost sensation. What is the most probable structure that has been injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the common peroneal nerve is damaged, it can lead to weakness in the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. This nerve supplies the peroneal and anterior muscles in the leg and provides sensation to the top of the foot. It runs through the popliteal fossa and loops around the head of the fibula, which can be felt in some cases. Peroneal neuropathy can occur due to habitual leg crossing, prolonged bed rest, hyperflexion of the knee, pressure in obstetric stirrups, or conditioning in ballet dancers, which can compress the nerve against the head of the fibula. Temporary neurapraxia can result from transient trauma, while permanent foot drop can occur from prolonged or severe trauma.

      Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion

      A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 34 - Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years with no relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination doesn't reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda declines surgical intervention. What is the next most appropriate intervention for her incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence doesn’t respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be considered as a treatment option. However, it is important to first rule out other potential causes of urinary incontinence, such as infection. Non-pharmacological management, such as pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, should be attempted before medical management. Duloxetine, a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, is commonly used for stress incontinence but may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are ineffective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 35 - A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today

      Explanation:

      Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment

      Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 36 - You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice....

    Incorrect

    • You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice. Whilst using one of the partners room for a surgery you notice a half-empty bottle of wine in the desk drawer. After discussing this with the partner she states that it was a recent gift from a patient and was simply storing it there prior to taking it home. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss this with one of the other partners in the surgery

      Explanation:

      Although you have already raised your concerns about the doctor’s alcohol consumption, he has dismissed them. It is possible that his explanation, which may involve receiving gifts of alcohol, is valid. However, the fact that the bottle is half-empty is worrying and it is important to discuss your concerns with other doctors in the surgery. They may already be aware of the issue and your observation could provide additional evidence for them to take appropriate action. It is also possible that the doctor may be more willing to admit to a problem if approached by a fellow partner rather than a junior colleague like yourself.

      Filling out a clinical incident form is a good way to formally document your concerns, but it doesn’t address the issue immediately. Writing an anonymous letter to the practice manager is unprofessional and could lead to conflict, as the manager may suspect that one of the other partners wrote the letter.

      Removing the bottle doesn’t solve the underlying problem and could potentially put patients at risk. Therefore, taking no further action is not an acceptable option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 37 - You encounter a 45-year-old woman in your women's health clinic. She is perimenopausal...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 45-year-old woman in your women's health clinic. She is perimenopausal with irregular periods and some vasomotor symptoms that she is managing well. She had been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for birth control, but since her divorce, she no longer needs it. However, she has noticed that it helps with her menopausal symptoms, which worsen during the pill-free week, and is hesitant to discontinue it. She has no significant medical history, and her blood pressure and BMI are within normal limits. She has never smoked.

      Which of the following statements regarding the COCP is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The COCP may help to maintain bone mineral density in the perimenopause

      Explanation:

      Using combined hormonal contraceptive pills (CHC) can be beneficial for women in their 40s and beyond. It can reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms. CHC with levonorgestrel or norethisterone are recommended as they have a lower risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other progestogens. However, it is important to note that there are risks associated with CHC use, and women should be informed of these before deciding to use it. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health advises that CHC can be used until age 50, but after that, women should switch to non-hormonal methods as the risks of CHC generally outweigh the benefits. Women who wish to continue using CHC after age 50 should be assessed on an individual basis. Extended or continuous CHC regimens can also be used for contraception and to manage menstrual or menopausal symptoms. Additionally, CHC is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for several decades after stopping use. Finally, CHC may help maintain bone mineral density during the perimenopause compared to not using hormones.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 38 - Which trait is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which trait is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders

      Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a single gene. Beta thalassaemia, on the other hand, is recessively inherited. If an individual has one copy of the abnormal gene, it is called ‘thalassaemia minor’, while having two copies of the abnormal gene results in ‘thalassaemia major’. Prader-Willi syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is characterised by insatiable appetite, hyperglycaemia, and short stature. Lastly, Down’s syndrome is also a chromosomal disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 39 - A 45-year-old male office worker is on quetiapine for his bipolar disorder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male office worker is on quetiapine for his bipolar disorder and visits your clinic alone after driving himself. He has had a stable condition for the past year with no manic or depressive episodes. He reports experiencing flight-of-ideas, pressured speech, and difficulty sleeping.

      What advice should you give him regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Must stop driving for at least 3 months and inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with bipolar disease are required to inform the DVLA if they experience manic episodes, as this will prevent them from driving. The duration of the driving ban depends on whether the patient has stable or unstable disease. If the patient has stable disease, they must stop driving for a minimum of 3 months. However, if they have unstable disease, they must stop driving for at least 6 months. Before being allowed to drive again, patients must adhere to their treatment plan, regain insight, be free from any medication effects that could impair driving, and receive a favorable specialist report. During a manic episode, patients must stop driving, but they can continue to drive if they inform the DVLA. If a patient experiences a manic episode without informing the DVLA, they must stop driving for 6 months.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 40 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the hospital after falling off her bike...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the hospital after falling off her bike and fracturing her leg. She is experiencing a lot of pain and requests pain medication.

      Which of the following analgesics is not recommended for use in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The use of aspirin as a pain reliever is not recommended for children because it can increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as fever, rash, and vomiting, which can quickly progress to encephalopathy and even lead to death.

      However, aspirin is approved for use in treating Kawasaki disease and as an antiplatelet medication to prevent blood clots after surgery.

      Reye’s syndrome is a serious condition that affects children and causes progressive brain damage. It is often accompanied by the accumulation of fat in the liver, kidneys, and pancreas. The exact cause of Reye’s syndrome is not fully understood, but it is believed to be associated with the use of aspirin and viral infections. The condition is most common in children around 2 years of age and is characterized by confusion, seizures, and coma. Treatment for Reye’s syndrome is primarily supportive, and while the prognosis has improved in recent years, there is still a mortality rate of 15-25%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 41 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his blood glucose levels after starting a new medication for his lipids. Despite maintaining his usual diet and exercise routine, his HbA1c has worsened by approximately 0.5%. Which of the following drugs is the probable culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cholesterol-Lowering Medications on Glucose Control

      The mechanism by which nicotinic acid affects glucose levels is not fully understood, but it may increase blood glucose in some patients by stimulating hepatic glucose output or blocking glucose uptake by skeletal muscle. However, for most patients with diabetes, nicotinic acid has minimal effect. A meta-analysis in 2011 suggested an increased risk of inducing diabetes in patients treated with intensive statin therapy, but this did not examine whether statins worsened glucose control in established diabetics. Cholestyramine may interact with oral hypoglycemics, but it doesn’t typically worsen diabetic control and may even improve it. Fenofibrate and ezetimibe have not been shown to worsen diabetic control. Overall, the effects of cholesterol-lowering medications on glucose control vary and should be monitored closely in patients with diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old man wants to talk about Huntington's disease, which affected his father...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man wants to talk about Huntington's disease, which affected his father and grandfather. He knows about 'genetic anticipation.' What other conditions show this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases can have an earlier age of onset in successive generations due to genetic anticipation, particularly in trinucleotide repeat disorders such as Huntington’s disease and Myotonic dystrophy (which have a CTG repeat sequence). However, genetic anticipation is not observed in Duchenne muscular dystrophy (an X-linked recessive condition), Marfan syndrome (an autosomal dominant condition), or Homocystinuria (inherited in an autosomal recessive manner).

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and doesn’t demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 43 - A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the anterior triangle of his neck, located in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is movable, fluctuant, painless, has no visible punctum, and doesn't shift with swallowing.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing a Branchial Cyst from Other Neck Swellings

      A swelling located in front of the anterior border of the sternomastoid muscle at the junction of its upper and middle thirds is likely a branchial cyst, which is a remnant of the second branchial cleft. It commonly appears in the second or third decade of life and may enlarge during upper respiratory tract infections. The cyst can range in size from 1-10 cm and is typically painless, although it may become tender during an acute stage. Unlike an infected lymph node, there is no overlying punctum, and it is not attached to any underlying structures. Ultrasound can confirm the cystic nature of the lesion. An enlarged thyroid lobe is an incorrect diagnosis as it moves with swallowing. A sebaceous cyst usually has an overlying punctum, and a thyroglossal cyst is typically located midline and rises with swallowing or tongue protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 44 - A 64-year-old man presents with left-sided shoulder pain. He has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man presents with left-sided shoulder pain. He has a medical history of hypertension, osteoarthritis, and COPD. During the examination, he shows good range of motion in the shoulder but experiences pain on the lateral aspect of the shoulder that radiates down to the upper arm and forearm. Additionally, he has some muscle wasting in his hand and a left-sided ptosis and miosis. What is the most suitable investigation to request next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Horner’s Syndrome and Shoulder Pain in a Patient with COPD

      This patient with COPD, likely due to significant cigarette smoking, presents with shoulder pain, small muscle wasting in the hand, and Horner’s syndrome. These symptoms suggest a lesion affecting the cervical sympathetic plexus, which could be caused by an apical lung tumor invading the area. Therefore, an urgent chest x-ray should be requested to confirm the diagnosis of Pancoast’s syndrome.

      In addition to Horner’s syndrome, the clinician should also be alert to the presence of a hoarse voice and bovine cough, which may indicate invasion of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and vocal cord paralysis. While brainstem disease can also cause Horner’s syndrome, CT or MRI scanning of the head would only be useful in such instances.

      A plain film of the shoulder may reveal adjacent lung apex and reveal a tumor, but it is not designed to pick up chest pathology. Therefore, a chest x-ray is necessary based on the overall clinical picture. Syringomyelia can also cause Horner’s syndrome and wasting and weakness of the hands and arms, along with loss of pain and temperature sensation over the trunk and arms. An MRI scan can confirm this diagnosis. Nerve conduction studies have no role in this instance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 45 - In a study of 950 subjects under the age of 30, a new...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of 950 subjects under the age of 30, a new serological marker for diabetes was evaluated against the standard test of fasting blood glucose levels. The results are as follows:

      Test positive Test negative
      Blood glucose high 80 20
      Blood glucose normal 120 730

      What is the sensitivity of this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing

      Sensitivity and specificity are important measures in medical testing. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a person with a disease will be correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the probability that a person without the disease will be correctly identified as negative by the test.

      In a study with 50 subjects who have the disease, 40 were correctly identified by the test, resulting in a sensitivity of 80%. On the other hand, out of 900 subjects without the disease, 840 were correctly identified as negative by the test, giving a specificity of 93%.

      To better understand these measures, a table can be used to illustrate the results. The true positives (people with the disease who were correctly identified) and true negatives (people without the disease who were correctly identified as negative) are located in the diagonal cells of the table. False positives (people without the disease who were incorrectly identified as positive) and false negatives (people with the disease who were incorrectly identified as negative) are located in the off-diagonal cells.

      Overall, sensitivity and specificity are important factors to consider when evaluating the accuracy of medical tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 46 - A 56-year-old man presents for follow-up in the diabetes clinic. He was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents for follow-up in the diabetes clinic. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) approximately 8 years ago and is currently taking gliclazide and atorvastatin. Two years ago, he underwent successful treatment for bladder cancer. However, a recent trial of metformin was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side-effects. He works as an accountant, doesn't smoke, and has a BMI of 31 kg/m². His annual blood work reveals the following results:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 104 µmol/l
      - HbA1c: 62 mmol/mol (7.8%)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      Due to his history of bladder cancer and obesity, pioglitazone is not recommended. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, would be the most suitable option. Exenatide is effective in promoting weight loss in obese diabetic patients, but it is not applicable to him as he doesn’t meet the NICE body mass index criteria of 35 kg/m².

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old multiparous woman presents to you with concerns about a lump she...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old multiparous woman presents to you with concerns about a lump she discovered in her breast three days ago. She is very conscious of her health and reports performing regular breast self-examinations. Her last menstrual period was four weeks ago, and she is expecting her next period in six days.

      Upon examination, she reveals a smooth, soft, and mobile 1 cm lump that feels distinct from the other side. There are no associated lymph nodes, and she has no significant medical or family history.

      What is your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise her to come back in the first part of her next cycle to re-examine

      Explanation:

      Breast Lumps and Referral to a Breast Clinic

      Breast lumps are a common concern among women, and it is important to know when to seek medical attention. If a woman over the age of 30 has a discrete lump that persists after their next period or presents after menopause, referral to a breast clinic should be considered. However, if the lump is of very recent onset and the patient is premenstrual, referral may not be necessary at this stage.

      Benign breast lumps tend to be firm or rubbery, often painful, regular or smooth, mobile, and have no nipple or skin signs. On the other hand, malignant lumps are hard, 90% painless, irregular, fixed, and may have skin dimpling, nipple retraction, or bloody discharge.

      It is important to note that evening primrose oil is not a treatment for breast lumps, and there is little evidence to suggest it helps with mastalgia. Despite being marketed as a treatment for this condition, it is not a substitute for medical advice and evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 48 - A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after a recent bout of pneumonia. His asthma has been poorly managed in the weeks leading up to his illness and he expresses concern about his ability to return to full-time work in the near future. He mentions that his finances are tight and that friends have suggested he apply for Employment Support Allowance (ESA). He also mentions that he is hesitant to attend any Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) assessments and asks if you could provide a letter of support. What advice would you give him regarding ESA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If contacted by a healthcare professional from the Centre for Health and Disability Assessments (CHDA), you will need to seek consent from the patient before discussing further

      Explanation:

      Benefits System – A Guide for GPs

      ESA, or Employment and Support Allowance, is a financial support system for individuals who are unable to work due to illness or disability. It also provides personalized assistance for those who are able to work. Eligibility for ESA is determined through an assessment process, which can range from 3 months to 3 years. Claimants with severe conditions may not be called for reassessment. During the assessment phase, claimants are paid the same amount as Jobseeker’s Allowance. Medical evidence and completion of the ESA50 self-assessment form are required. If necessary, a Work Capability Assessment will be conducted by a healthcare professional. Fit notes are required until a decision is made. The ESA65B letter is used to inform claimants of the decision. GPs may be contacted for additional information, and may occasionally be asked to contribute to the ESA50 form. For individuals claiming solely due to cancer, only a portion of the ESA50 form needs to be completed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 49 - A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg while doing DIY work. She reports a severe, sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with movement. During clinical examination, a positive straight leg raise test is observed on the left side. The patient is given appropriate pain relief. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      A prolapsed disc is suspected based on the patient’s symptoms. However, even if an MRI scan confirms this diagnosis, the initial management would remain the same as most patients respond well to conservative treatment like physiotherapy.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. L5 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, S1 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. The first-line treatment is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia (e.g., duloxetine). If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 50 - A senior, delicate lady is admitted to the nearby nursing home following a...

    Incorrect

    • A senior, delicate lady is admitted to the nearby nursing home following a stroke. How can her risk of developing a pressure ulcer be evaluated appropriately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Waterlow score

      Explanation:

      The Waterlow score is utilized to recognize patients who are susceptible to developing pressure ulcers.

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed