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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl visits the clinic with her father. She sustained a minor injury to her knee while playing soccer and her father is worried that it might be infected. The injury occurred 3 weeks ago and was described as a scrape. Upon examination, you observe a well-healed superficial abrasion on the skin, with several small, raised pink bumps with a central dimple surrounding the scrape. The skin around the wound is not red and feels cool to the touch. Additionally, you notice a cluster of similar bumps on her back. Her father reports that these bumps have been present for approximately 7 months.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pompholyx eczema
Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum, a viral lesion commonly seen in children, can exhibit the Koebner phenomenon, which causes lesions to appear at sites of injury. Unlike contact dermatitis, there is no history of exposure to chemicals. Chickenpox presents with a shorter time frame and a rash that blisters and scabs over, while pompholyx eczema is typically found on the hands and soles of the feet. The presence of cool surrounding skin suggests that a bacterial infection is unlikely.
The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury
The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.
This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.
The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes?
Your Answer: Methyldopa
Correct Answer: Doxazosin
Explanation:Prohibited Substances in Sports
Beta-blockers and diuretics are among the substances prohibited in certain sports. In billiards and archery, the use of beta-blockers is not allowed as they can enhance performance by reducing anxiety and tremors. On the other hand, diuretics are generally prohibited as they can be used as masking agents to hide the presence of other banned substances. It is important to note that diuretics can be found in some combination products, such as Cozaar-Comp which contains hydrochlorothiazide. Athletes should be aware of the substances they are taking and ensure that they are not violating any anti-doping regulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist.
What is an example of a medication that falls under the category of muscarinic antagonist?Your Answer: Tolterodine
Explanation:Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease risk of 20%. It is decided to initiate treatment with atorvastatin 20 mg. Before starting the medication, liver function tests are conducted:
Bilirubin 10 ”mol/l (3 - 17 ”mol/l)
ALP 96 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
ALT 40 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
Gamma-GT 28 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)
After three months, the LFTs are repeated:
Bilirubin 12 ”mol/l (3 - 17 ”mol/l)
ALP 107 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
ALT 104 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
Gamma-GT 76 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)
What is the most appropriate action to take?Your Answer: Reduce dose to atorvastatin 10 mg on and repeat LFTs in 1 month
Correct Answer: Continue treatment and repeat LFTs in 1 month
Explanation:If serum transaminase levels remain consistently 3 times higher than the upper limit of the reference range, treatment with statins must be stopped.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with longstanding bipolar disorder has recently joined your practice after moving to the area. He has been on a stable dosage of lithium for the past 4 years and has been adherent to treatment. He has no other medical history of note and is not taking any medication that interacts with lithium. His previous blood tests have all been within normal limits, with a serum lithium level consistently around 0.5 mmol/litre (within target range).
What is the minimum ongoing blood monitoring required for this patient in relation to his lithium treatment?Your Answer: Serum lithium level, serum electrolytes, eGFR, thyroid function and full blood count annually
Explanation:Lithium Monitoring Requirements
Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic ratio, which means it requires careful monitoring. The British National Formulary (BNF) outlines the monitoring requirements for patients taking lithium. After initiation and each dose change, serum-lithium monitoring should be carried out weekly until concentrations are stable. After that, it should be checked every 3 months for the first year and every 6 months thereafter as a minimum.
Patients who are 65 years and above, taking drugs that may interact with lithium, at risk of impaired renal or thyroid function, have high calcium levels, poor symptom control or adherence to treatment, or whose last serum-lithium concentration was 0.8 mmol/litre or higher should be monitored every 3 months. Additionally, serum-lithium measurements should be checked if there is a significant intercurrent illness/disease or a significant change in sodium or fluid intake.
Before treatment is initiated, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be assessed, and an ECG is recommended for those with cardiovascular disease or risk factors. Body-weight/BMI, serum electrolytes, and a full blood count should also be measured. During treatment, body-weight/BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function should be monitored every 6 months. If there is evidence of impaired renal or thyroid function or raised calcium levels, monitoring should be more frequent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. She missed her last menstrual period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 8 weeks ago. She denies any vaginal discharge or bleeding and has no urinary symptoms.
During the examination, her abdomen is soft, but there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic region. Her heart rate is 72 beats per minute, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, and she has no fever. A pregnancy test is performed, and it comes back positive.
As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit
Explanation:Women with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be immediately referred for assessment to exclude ectopic pregnancy, which could be fatal. Referral should be made even if an ultrasound cannot be arranged immediately, as the patient may require monitoring in hospital. Serial hCG measurements should not be done in secondary care, and referral to a sexual health clinic alone is not appropriate.
Bleeding in the First Trimester: Causes and Management
Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for women, often leading them to seek medical attention. The main causes of bleeding during this time include miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. Of these causes, ectopic pregnancy is the most important to rule out as it can be life-threatening if missed.
To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal or pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman experiences bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat.
For pregnancies under six weeks gestation and no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, expectant management is appropriate. Women should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops, to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test indicates a miscarriage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage bleeding in the first trimester and ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.
What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?Your Answer: Routine referral to dermatology
Explanation:When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?
Your Answer: Aspirin + statin + ACE inhibitor
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin
Explanation:Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.
Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.
Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: If the patient cannot be persuaded to come in then antibiotics can be prescribed
Correct Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice
Explanation:GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices
Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.
To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.
The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.
Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a year of backpacking in a remote area of India. He has been experiencing diarrhea for two weeks and the laboratory confirms that he has giardiasis.
What is true about giardiasis?Your Answer: Metronidazole is used in the treatment of this condition
Correct Answer: Diagnosis is made by culture of stool
Explanation:Giardiasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Giardiasis is a parasitic infection caused by Giardia lamblia. The incubation period for this infection is typically 1-2 weeks. Symptoms include diarrhea, but it is not bloody like in dysentery. The organism attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. Metronidazole and tinidazole are commonly used in treatment.
To diagnose giardiasis, stool samples are examined microscopically for cysts, not cultures. It may be necessary to collect several samples to confirm the diagnosis as cysts may not be present in every stool. Infection can be contracted from any contaminated water, whether it is still or running. It is important to practice good hygiene and avoid drinking untreated water to prevent giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with an acute red eye.
Of the following conditions which is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Closed angle glaucoma
Explanation:Causes of Acute Red Eye
There are several causes of acute red eye, with glaucoma being the most likely to present with this symptom. Other possible causes include anterior uveitis, corneal ulcers, conjunctivitis, scleritis and episcleritis, and subconjunctival haemorrhage. It is important to note that optic neuritis presents with a specific type of central visual loss known as a central scotoma, while retinal vein occlusion, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage typically present as visual loss or disturbance. Understanding the various causes of acute red eye can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a severely itchy rash that has been present for the past 3 weeks. She had been prescribed quinine for night cramps prior to the onset of the rash. The rash initially appeared on her wrists but has since spread to her left leg after she accidentally hit it.
During the examination, you observe raised erythematous/violaceous plaques of varying shapes and sizes on the flexor side of her wrists and left leg near the site of injury.
Which of the following treatment options would be the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream
Correct Answer: 0.1% betamethasone valerate cream
Explanation:Betamethasone valerate cream may not be the most suitable option as it is a lower potency steroid cream.
While calcipotriol/betamethasone dipropionate ointment is commonly used to treat psoriasis, it may not be the most likely diagnosis in this case as psoriasis typically affects the extensor surfaces and doesn’t usually cause severe itching.
Although fexofenadine can provide relief for itching, it is not typically the first choice of treatment.
Permethrin is not used to treat lichen planus, as it is primarily used to treat scabies.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines over the last half-year. She usually experiences aura before the onset of the headache. During the history-taking process, what is the maximum duration of aura that NICE and the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) consider to be normal?
Your Answer: 30 minutes
Correct Answer: 1 hour
Explanation:The typical duration of an aura is from 5 to 60 minutes.
Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in the previous four months. She has been amenorrheic for some months.
On examination she had fine lanugo hair and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.
Which one of the following laboratory results would support the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Low plasma testosterone concentration
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and its Associated Hormonal Changes
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that affects many individuals. It is characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Patients with anorexia often experience hormonal changes that can have significant effects on their health.
One of the most common hormonal changes associated with anorexia is functional hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. This condition is characterized by low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH). Despite this, plasma testosterone levels are typically normal in females with anorexia.
Cortisol levels may also be affected in patients with anorexia. While they may be within the normal range, they may fail to suppress with dexamethasone. Additionally, basal levels of T3 may be depressed, while thyroxine (T4) and TSH levels may be normal. Finally, ferritin levels are often low in a state of malnutrition.
Overall, anorexia nervosa can have significant effects on a patient’s hormonal balance. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these changes and to monitor patients accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband noticed that she still knew the names of close friends, but she was disorientated in time and place, and seemed perplexed. She could follow complex commands, but was unable to recall something she had been told 5 minutes before. The episode resolved after 10 hours, although she did not remember the event. She has a history of migraine, but the episode of memory loss was not associated with headache.
What is the most probable clinical diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Transient global amnesia
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis
Transient Global Amnesia (TGA) is a sudden onset condition that profoundly impairs anterograde memory. Patients are disoriented in time and place, but not in person. Retrograde memory is variably disturbed, lasting for hours to years. Patients recognize their memory deficits and repeatedly ask questions to orient themselves. Immediate and procedural memory are preserved, and patients can perform complex tasks. The attack resolves gradually, with subjective recovery occurring in two-thirds of patients within 2-12 hours. Precipitating events include strenuous exercise, intense emotion, and medical procedures. Differential diagnosis includes migraine, transient epileptic amnesia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of intermittent nosebleeds from both nostrils. She has prominent Littleâs area vessels on both sides of her nasal septum. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Ear, nose and throat specialist referral
Correct Answer: Unilateral nasal cautery and antibiotic cream
Explanation:Treatment Options for Epistaxis (Nosebleeds)
Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be a common occurrence and can often be managed with simple interventions. Here are some treatment options:
Unilateral Nasal Cautery and Antibiotic Cream
Chemical cautery using a silver nitrate stick can be used to produce local chemical damage in the mucosa. After cautery, NaseptinÂź cream should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for ten days. This treatment option is effective for most cases of epistaxis.Ear, Nose, and Throat Specialist Referral
Referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist should be considered if the person has recurrent episodes of epistaxis and is at high risk of having a serious underlying cause.Anterior Nasal Packing
If bleeding continues despite cautery or if a bleeding point cannot be seen, the nose can be packed with nasal sponges or ribbon gauze.Bilateral Nasal Cautery
Only one side of the septum should be cauterized, as there is a small risk of septal perforation resulting from decreased vascularization to the septal cartilage. A 4â6-week interval between cautery treatments is recommended.Iron Tablets
Iron tablets are not appropriate without a diagnosis of anemia.Managing Epistaxis: Treatment Options to Consider
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to the GP seeking emergency contraception. She engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a new partner 4 days ago and is not currently using any form of regular contraception. The patient has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days and is currently on day 12. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.
What would be the most suitable advice or course of action to provide?Your Answer: Offer emergency contraception with ulipristal acetate
Correct Answer: Offer emergency contraception with the copper intrauterine device
Explanation:The copper intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception within 5 days after the first unprotected sexual intercourse in a cycle or within 5 days of the estimated date of ovulation, whichever is later. It’s important to note that pregnancy can occur at any time during the menstrual cycle after unprotected sex. Levonorgestrel is approved for emergency contraception up to 72 hours after intercourse, while ulipristal acetate is approved for up to 120 hours after intercourse. Since the patient is still within 5 days of ovulation on day 16 of her regular cycle, the copper intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception. There is no indication that the patient is pregnant and requires termination.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You encounter a 44-year-old man who has been evaluated in a neurology clinic for epileptic seizures. He has been given carbamazepine, a drug that induces cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes. Which medication would carbamazepine have the most significant interaction with?
Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:The Impact of CYP Inducers on Medications: A Case Study
CYP inducers can have a significant impact on medications that are metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes. In the case of carbamazepine and ciclosporin, carbamazepine’s induction of the enzymes would increase the rate of metabolism of ciclosporin, potentially leading to decreased plasma levels and serious implications due to ciclosporin’s narrow therapeutic window. Paracetamol is also metabolized by CYP, and while it is not contraindicated with carbamazepine, the production of a hepatotoxic metabolite may be relevant in cases of overdose. Lithium, on the other hand, is excreted renally, so induction of P450 enzymes would not alter its excretion rate, but changes in renal function could still impact its plasma level. Penicillins have a wide therapeutic index, so the impact of CYP inducers or inhibitors is not significant. As for salicylate, there is currently no listed interaction with carbamazepine, making it unlikely to cause any issues in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are concerned that alcohol seems to form a big part of a student's life. Although you have never observed any drinking while they are studying, there are often frequent references to it. They say it is just a reward to start winding down after classes. There have been no obvious problems with their academic performance. You are aware there is a fine-wine cellar at home. The only time you have witnessed drunkenness is late at night at parties when your student is with hard-drinking friends. There have been episodes of abstinence in the past â often very public, and once involving sponsorship.
Which of the following principles is APPLICABLE in this scenario?Your Answer: Having been able to give up alcohol on several occasions demonstrates an ability to control alcohol consumption
Correct Answer: Suggesting that drinking at the end of a hard day is a just reward may be a form of denial
Explanation:Myths and Misconceptions about Alcohol Abuse in the Medical Field
1. Drinking at the end of a hard day is a just reward. This common explanation for excessive alcohol consumption may be a form of denial and can lead to dependence on alcohol to relieve stress or difficult emotions.
2. Alcohol abuse is incompatible with proper functioning as a doctor. While alcohol abuse can certainly have negative effects on a doctor’s performance, some individuals with alcohol dependence may not show signs of the problem in their workplace.
3. Becoming drunk in the presence of other heavy-drinking medical colleagues doesn’t suggest an alcohol problem. Any form of alcohol abuse is still abuse, regardless of the setting or company in which it takes place.
4. Having been able to give up alcohol on several occasions demonstrates an ability to control alcohol consumption. Briefly giving up alcohol doesn’t necessarily demonstrate control, as evidenced by the fact that the individual in question resumed drinking.
5. People who drink expensive wines and spirits are not abusers of alcohol. Alcohol abuse can occur with any type of alcohol, and it is the quantity and pattern of consumption that are important factors to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased swelling in his right leg. He has a medical history of right-sided heart failure. During the examination, his right calf is found to be 3 cm larger than his left and he has bilateral pitting oedema up to the knee. A positive D-dimer result prompts the initiation of apixaban. However, an ultrasound scan of his leg comes back negative.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Stop anticoagulation and discharge with worsening advice
Correct Answer: Stop anticoagulation and repeat scan in 1 week
Explanation:If a D-dimer test is positive but an ultrasound scan for possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is negative, the recommended course of action is to stop anticoagulation and repeat the scan in one week. It is not appropriate to simply discharge the patient with worsening advice, as a follow-up scan is necessary to ensure that a clot has not been missed. Continuing anticoagulation would only be appropriate if the scan had shown a positive result. It is not recommended to continue anticoagulation for three or six months, as these are management strategies for a confirmed DVT that has been detected by a positive ultrasound scan.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice
Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.
On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 ”g/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old male patient with right sided facial paralysis. It started about 3 days ago and has slowly become worse. He is unable to raise his right forehead, close his right eye or move the right-hand side of his mouth. He has also noticed that his taste has been altered on the right-hand side of his tongue.
He is not particularly worried about it as it happened 12 months ago and you diagnosed Bell's palsy. He would like some more treatment as he feels it helped his recovery last time. He is normally fit and well and has no allergies.
You arrange to see the patient in your afternoon clinic to examine him.
Regarding Bell's palsy, which statement below is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A patient with a recurrent Bell's palsy needs urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:Referral to ENT is urgently needed for a patient experiencing recurrent Bell’s palsy. Treatment with corticosteroids is recommended for Bell’s palsy, as it has been shown to improve prognosis in meta-analyses. Antiviral treatments are not recommended. Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side as the facial weakness may occur with Bell’s palsy, but doesn’t require urgent referral to ENT. It is important to note that a bilateral palsy is not a Bell’s palsy and requires urgent referral to ENT or neurology.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with asthma presents with a 4-day history of increasing wheeze, dry cough and chest tightness. She has been needing to use her salbutamol up to 5 times a day to relieve her symptoms.
She is alert and able to complete full sentences at rest. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ÂșC, pulse rate 120/min, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 26/min, oxygen saturation 94% in room air. On auscultation, she has polyphonic wheeze throughout. Her peak expiratory flow reading is 380 L/min (best 550 L/min).
How many features of acute severe asthma does she have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:To alleviate his symptoms, the patient is taking his medication three times daily. Despite his condition, he remains alert and capable of speaking in complete sentences while at rest. His vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37.1ÂșC, pulse rate of 116/min, blood pressure of 118/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 2.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old female, recently diagnosed with hypertension, presents to the emergency department after collapsing. She reports feeling dizzy just before the incident and had recently begun a new medication prescribed by her GP. Her medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, glaucoma, and diverticular disease.
Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:First-dose hypotension is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors like ramipril, which is commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients. If a patient experiences dizziness or lightheadedness, it may be a warning sign of impending syncope.
Prochlorperazine is not indicated for any of the patient’s medical conditions and is unlikely to cause syncope. Fludrocortisone, on the other hand, can increase blood pressure and is therefore not a likely cause of syncope.
Metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia frequently, so it is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s collapse. While beta-blockers can cause syncope, it is unlikely to occur after the application of eye drops.
ACE inhibitors are a type of medication that can have side-effects. One common side-effect is a cough, which can occur in around 15% of patients and may happen up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased levels of bradykinin. Another potential side-effect is angioedema, which may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are also possible side-effects, especially in patients taking diuretics.
There are certain cautions and contraindications to be aware of when taking ACE inhibitors. Pregnant or breastfeeding women should avoid these medications. Patients with renovascular disease may experience significant renal impairment if they have undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis. Aortic stenosis may result in hypotension, and patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at increased risk of hypotension. Individuals with hereditary or idiopathic angioedema should also avoid ACE inhibitors.
Monitoring is important when taking ACE inhibitors. Urea and electrolytes should be checked before treatment is initiated and after increasing the dose. A rise in creatinine and potassium levels may be expected after starting treatment, but acceptable changes are an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. It is important to note that different guidelines may have slightly different acceptable ranges for these changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a risk factor for bowel cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate alcohol consumption
Explanation:According to Cancer Research UK, there are certain factors that are not associated with an increased risk of bowel cancer. These include fish consumption, low B12 levels, milk consumption, and selenium consumption. However, it is important to note that alcohol consumption, even at moderate levels, is associated with an increased risk of bowel cancer. Therefore, it is recommended to limit alcohol intake to reduce the risk of developing this type of cancer. By being aware of these factors, individuals can make informed choices about their diet and lifestyle to help reduce their risk of bowel cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for a lesion on his forearm. The lesion began as a small red bump and has since progressed into a deep, red, necrotic ulcer with a violaceous border. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics
Shin lesions can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is commonly caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum starts as a small red papule and later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases but may also be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
Understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristics of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He expresses concerns that she may be spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office as her. He has had similar experiences in past relationships and feels as though he will never find the perfect partner, leading to mood swings and feelings of loneliness. He also admits to self-harming but denies any suicidal thoughts. Following a risk assessment, he is referred to psychiatry and diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this 28-year-old man with borderline personality disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents to her health care provider with concerns about missed periods and a positive pregnancy test. She has been sexually active with her 17-year-old boyfriend for the past six months, using condoms as protection. The patient expresses a desire for a termination but doesn't want to involve her parents in any way. Despite counseling on the risks of abortion and the importance of involving parents, she remains firm in her decision to seek an abortion without parental involvement. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contact her parents and inform them of the situation
Explanation:Gillick Competency and Abortion: Understanding the Guidelines
Under the Gillick case, a child who is deemed competent and has a full understanding of the implications of her actions can be offered advice and treatment without parental consent. This means that if a patient requests an abortion, it can be offered with appropriate counselling and support. However, if a healthcare practitioner has conscientious objections to participating in an abortion, they must provide an alternative practitioner who will support the patient.
It is important to note that every effort should be made to persuade the patient to inform her parents. The Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines are in place to ensure that young people are able to make informed decisions about their healthcare, but it is still important to involve parents or guardians where possible. By understanding these guidelines, healthcare practitioners can provide the best possible care for their patients while also respecting their rights and beliefs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks a lot older than her age. You have to decide whether to prescribe or not.
The Sexual Offences Act 2003 considers children under what age as too young to give consent to sexual activity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Under 13 years
Explanation:Child Protection and Sexual Offences
The Sexual Offences Act 2003 states that children under the age of 13 are not capable of giving consent to sexual activity. Any sexual offence involving a child under 13 should be treated with utmost seriousness. Health professionals should consider referring such cases to social services under the Child Protection Procedures. It is advisable to seek advice from designated child protection professionals in the first instance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has multiple, painful, vesicles and erosions on an erythematous base in an area on the left side of the abdomen corresponding to the T10 dermatome. Lesions have been present for a week. He had similar lesions on the opposite flank 18 months before. He also has a solitary verrucous papule on the shaft of the penis. He has had multiple unprotected sexual exposures with commercial sex workers.
Select from the list the single most important investigation in this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Unusual Symptoms and Recommended Tests for a Man with Recurrent Shingles and Penile Wart
The man in question is experiencing a recurrent attack of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, which is an unusual occurrence. This symptom is often associated with HIV infection, where opportunistic infections become prevalent as the disease progresses. Other symptoms that may occur include oral candida, oral hairy leukoplakia, recurrent ulcerating herpes simplex, seborrhoeic dermatitis, tinea infections, warts, and molluscum contagiosum.
To screen for syphilis, a treponemal enzyme immunoassay for immunoglobulin M (EIA IgM) test is recommended. Additionally, a full sexual health screen should be offered to the patient, along with an HIV test. It is important to note that the patient will already have varicella zoster IgG from their original Chickenpox infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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What is meant by the term 'power of the study' in the design of a randomised controlled trial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The probability of a statistically significant treatment effect if the true treatment difference is at a prespecified level
Explanation:Understanding Power Analysis in Statistical Studies
Power analysis is a statistical tool used to determine the sample size required in a study to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect. It is an essential step in planning a study and helps researchers to avoid underpowered or overpowered studies.
The predetermined level of significance is usually set at 0.05, which means that there is a 5% chance of obtaining a significant result by chance alone. The size of effect is the difference between the treatment and control groups that is considered clinically significant.
It is important to note that the size of effect used in power analysis may not necessarily correspond to a clinically significant difference. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with experts in the field to determine an appropriate size of effect.
In summary, power analysis is a crucial step in planning a study and helps researchers to determine the appropriate sample size needed to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that day. He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medication.
His family brought him, unannounced, to the surgery reception and when you see him he appears pale and he feels noticeably short of breath at rest. He is complaining of sharp pains in the right side of his chest when he breathes in.
Clinical examination reveals a patient who is short of breath at rest. His blood pressure is 98/68, pulse rate is 108 bpm and his respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturations are 93 % in room air. His temperature is 36.2 °C. Auscultation of the heart and lungs is normal. He has no calf swelling.
There is no history of gastric ulceration or drug allergies.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate next step in the assessment and management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an immediate 'blue-light ambulance' for rapid transfer to hospital without any delay
Explanation:Management of Suspected Pulmonary Embolism
When a patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic pain, hypotension, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturations, pulmonary embolism (PE) should be suspected. It is important to note any risk factors that may increase the likelihood of an embolism. The absence of signs of deep vein thrombosis doesn’t exclude the possibility of a PE.
Immediate admission to the hospital should be arranged for patients with suspected PE who have signs of haemodynamic instability or are pregnant or have given birth within the past 6 weeks. Management should not be delayed for results of a chest X-ray or ECG. Therefore, the correct option is to arrange immediate transfer to the hospital by blue light. Prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug fails to appreciate the possibility of pulmonary embolism and should not be selected.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of suspected PE is crucial to prevent morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old girl presents to you with concerns about her acne on her face, chest, and upper back. She is feeling self-conscious about it, especially after her boyfriend made some comments about her skin. She has been using a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide and antibiotics for the past few months.
Upon examination, you note the presence of comedones, papules, and pustules, but no nodules or cysts. There is no scarring.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for her acne at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymecycline
Explanation:Since the topical preparation did not work for the patient, the next step would be to try an oral antibiotic. The recommended first-line options are lymecycline, oxytetracycline, tetracycline, or doxycycline. Lymecycline is preferred as it only needs to be taken once a day, which can improve the patient’s adherence to the treatment.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is taking haloperidol and reports experiencing a sensation of restlessness and an incapacity to remain seated since commencing her medication.
What is the appropriate term for this adverse effect of the drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Akathisia is a condition characterized by a feeling of restlessness and an uncontrollable urge to move, which can lead to difficulty staying still. Symptoms may include foot stamping, leg crossing and uncrossing, and pacing. It is important to distinguish akathisia from psychotic agitation, as increasing the antipsychotic dose can worsen symptoms. Akathisia can occur within the first two weeks of taking a neuroleptic drug or even after several months of treatment. It has been linked to suicidal behavior and aggression towards others.
Dystonic reaction is a reversible extrapyramidal effect that can occur immediately or after a few hours or days of taking a neuroleptic drug. It causes sustained muscle contractions that lead to abnormal postures or repetitive movements, which may resemble a tremor. Oculogyric crisis is a type of dystonic reaction characterized by prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by fever, muscular rigidity, altered level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs shortly after starting neuroleptic treatment or after a dose increase.
Drug-induced Parkinsonism (DIP) is a condition that can be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease. It is the second most common cause of Parkinsonism in the elderly. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication. DIP can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotics, gastrointestinal prokinetics, calcium channel blockers, and antiepileptic drugs.
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. It occurs in patients who have been treated with long-term neuroleptic drugs. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication, but they usually disappear within three years in about 60% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient presents to you with concerns about burning and irritation of their tongue, as well as rapid changes in its color. Upon examination, you observe multiple irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of their tongue. The patient is anxious about these changes and seeks your advice.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Geographic tongue
Explanation:Common Oral Conditions and Their Symptoms
Geographic tongue is a common oral condition that presents with mild burning and irritation of the tongue. It is characterized by single or multiple well-demarcated irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of the tongue. Stress and spicy food may exacerbate the condition.
Angular chelitis, on the other hand, presents with irritation of the corners of the lips and dryness. Aphthous stomatitis describes solitary or multiple painful ulcers on the mucosal membranes. Oral hairy leukoplakia is an asymptomatic white thickening and accentuation of the folds of the lateral margins of the tongue.
Lastly, acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis presents with punched-out ulcers, necrosis, and bleeding of areas between teeth. It is important to be aware of these common oral conditions and their symptoms to seek appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability before her periods, which resolve a few days after menstruation. She visited her GP, who prescribed a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after reviewing her symptom diary. However, after three months of treatment, she returns to her GP reporting that her symptoms have not improved and it is affecting her ability to be a good mother. What is the most suitable treatment option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:The use of SSRI medications, either continuously or during the luteal phase, may be beneficial in managing premenstrual syndrome (PMS). This is especially true for patients who have not seen improvement with first-line treatments such as combined oral contraceptive pills. Co-cyprindiol, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine systems, mirtazapine, and copper coils are not indicated for the management of PMS.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as YasminÂź (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic. His wife is worried about his increasing forgetfulness. He frequently loses things around the house and struggles to find his way back home when he goes to the shops alone. What characteristic would strongly suggest vascular dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stepwise deterioration in symptoms with a clearly measurable difference between steps and no reversal
Explanation:Understanding Vascular Dementia
Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive decline that includes multi-infarct dementia and other forms of intellectual deterioration in individuals at high risk of atherosclerosis. Unlike Alzheimer’s, it is characterized by a stepwise progression, although it may also present as a steadily progressive dementia. A history of risk factors such as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), stroke, hypertension, smoking, and hypercholesterolemia can raise suspicion of vascular dementia.
Aggression without significant short-term memory loss is more commonly associated with frontal lobe dementia, while Parkinsonian features are typical of Lewy body dementia. Understanding the different types of dementia and their associated symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the condition and seek appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive hair growth on her arms. She has a slim build and olive skin with dark brown hair. The patient shaves the hair to remove it. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 33 days, and she reports no heavy bleeding or pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Genetic phenotype
Explanation:Excessive hair growth on the arms may be noticeable in this woman due to her genetic makeup, as she has olive skin and dark hair. However, hirsutism, which is characterized by excessive hair growth on the face and body, is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Although her menstrual cycle is regular at 33 days, it is important to note that a normal cycle can range from 24 to 35 days. A cycle variation of 8 days or more is considered moderately irregular, while a variation of 21 days or more is considered very irregular. Additionally, this patient has light periods and a slim physique.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with headaches. She suffered headaches occasionally in her early twenties but has had them more frequently over the past 2 months.
Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of tension type headache rather than migraine.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised headache
Explanation:Understanding Tension-Type Headaches: Symptoms and Differences from Migraines
Tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common type of headache that can interfere with daily activities. Diagnosis of TTH is based on the presence of at least two of the following symptoms in at least ten previous headaches: a mild-to-moderate bilateral or generalised headache, a frontal-occipital headache, a non-pulsatile pressing or tightening quality, and no aggravation by routine physical activity.
Compared to migraines, tension-type headaches have a more gradual onset, variable duration, and are usually shorter in duration. They are also more constant in quality, less severe, and respond better to over-the-counter medication when they are episodic. Understanding the symptoms and differences between TTH and migraines can help individuals manage their headaches more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of this being an innocent murmur.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heard during a febrile illness
Explanation:Understanding Innocent Heart Murmurs in Children
Innocent heart murmurs are common in children between the ages of 3 and 8 years. They occur when blood flows noisily through a normal heart, usually due to increased blood flow or faster blood movement. Innocent murmurs are typically systolic and vibratory in quality, with an intensity of 2/6 or 1/6. They can change with posture and vary from examination to examination. Harsh murmurs, pansystolic murmurs, late systolic murmurs, and continuous murmurs are usually indicative of pathology. Heart sounds in innocent murmurs are normal, with a split second heart sound in inspiration and a single second heart sound in expiration. It’s important to note that the absence of symptoms doesn’t exclude important pathology, and some murmurs due to congenital heart disease may not be easily audible at birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old lady who you are reviewing for subfertility. During the history, you discover that she has had chronic pelvic discomfort, pain during intercourse and pain passing urine around the time of menstruation. Examination of the abdomen and pelvis was unremarkable. A recent transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan was normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis: A Possible Cause of Chronic Pelvic Pain
Endometriosis is a condition that can cause chronic pelvic pain, period-related pains, gastrointestinal symptoms, urinary symptoms, deep dyspareunia, and subfertility in female patients. Although a normal ultrasound scan is possible in endometriosis, a diagnostic laparoscopy may be required to make the diagnosis. It is important to consider endometriosis in a patient presenting with these symptoms, even in the absence of period-related symptoms. Other possible causes may not explain the period-related urinary symptoms, making endometriosis a likely culprit. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate the symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is known to have high blood pressure.
Choose from the options the one drug that is expected to increase his blood pressure even more.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Certain medications and substances can cause an increase in blood pressure, known as drug-induced hypertension. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 selective agents cause sodium and water retention, leading to elevated blood pressure. Sympathomimetic amines, such as amphetamines and pseudoephedrine, can also have this effect. Corticosteroids, particularly those with strong mineralocorticoid effects, can cause fluid retention and hypertension. Oral contraceptives may slightly raise blood pressure in some women. Venlafaxine increases levels of norepinephrine, contributing to hypertension. Cyclosporine and tacrolimus, used in transplant and autoimmune patients, can also have a significant effect on blood pressure. Caffeine and certain dietary supplements, such as ginseng, natural liquorice, and yohimbine, can also cause drug-induced hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old trans woman presents to the GP seeking advice on contraception. They are looking for a method that can both prevent pregnancy and stop their menstrual cycle. The patient has previously used the combined contraceptive pill without any issues, but has required emergency contraception due to missed pills. They have no medical history of blood clots, cancer, or migraines, and do not smoke. There is no family history of breast cancer. The patient is currently receiving testosterone therapy for gender dysphoria at a gender identity clinic.
During the examination, the patient's BMI is 23kg/mÂČ and their blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's contraception needs?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer the levonorgestrel intrauterine system
Explanation:Patients assigned female at birth undergoing testosterone therapy should avoid contraceptives containing oestrogen as they can counteract the effects of the therapy. The recommended contraceptive option is the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS), which is a progestogen-only method that doesn’t interfere with hormone regimens used in transgender treatment. Additionally, the IUS can reduce or stop vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s forgetfulness and history of missed pills, the progesterone-only pill is not the best option. It is important to note that while testosterone therapy may suppress menstruation, it doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy and can even have harmful effects on a developing fetus.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man who has recently started a new relationship complains of low libido. On further questioning, he admits to feeling lethargic and weak and has noticed that he has less stubble than previously. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise well, and doesn't suffer from headaches.
What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinising hormone) and testosterone levels
Explanation:Investigating Hypogonadism: Appropriate Tests and Procedures
Hypogonadism is a condition that can be caused by primary or secondary factors. To determine the presence and type of hypogonadism, appropriate investigations should be conducted. In cases of primary hypogonadism, gonadotrophin levels are elevated while testosterone levels are low. Secondary hypogonadism, on the other hand, is characterized by low to normal gonadotrophin levels and low testosterone levels.
While investigating hypogonadism, it is important to conduct the appropriate tests and procedures. An MRI scan of the brain is not always necessary, but it may be appropriate in cases of hypopituitarism or hyperprolactinaemia to investigate a pituitary tumour. Depression screening may be appropriate as depression often co-exists with physical illness, but objective evidence of hypogonadism should not be ignored. Semen analysis is not necessary unless investigating infertility, as oligospermia is a consequence of hypogonadism. The Short Synacthen test is used to investigate adrenocortical insufficiency and is not relevant to investigating hypogonadism.
In summary, appropriate investigations for hypogonadism include determining whether it is primary or secondary through gonadotrophin and testosterone level testing. Other tests and procedures may be appropriate depending on the individual case, but should be carefully considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she has not had a wet diaper for the past 12 hours. Her mother suspects a lump in her tummy. Additionally, she has been refusing to walk for the past 36 hours and has been crying excessively. What type of cancer is most likely to present with these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephroblastoma
Explanation:Recognizing Symptoms of Neuroblastoma in Children
Neuroblastoma is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It can be difficult to detect in primary care due to its rarity and vague symptoms. The most common symptom is a lump in the abdomen, which may cause swelling or pain. However, children with neuroblastoma may also experience general symptoms of metastatic disease, such as malaise, bone pain, and respiratory issues. Other concerning symptoms include proptosis, unexplained back pain, leg weakness, and urinary retention. These symptoms may indicate that the tumour is pressing on the spinal cord or adjacent to the adrenal glands. Excessive catecholamine release can also cause tachycardia, flushing, sweating, weight loss, and watery diarrhoea. If a child presents with symptoms that could be explained by neuroblastoma, an abdominal examination and urgent abdominal ultrasound should be performed, along with a chest x-ray and full blood count. Any identified mass should prompt an urgent referral. Knowing the age at peak incidence can also aid in diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells you that his wife is concerned about his family history of bowel cancer.
On questioning, Tom denies any history of abdominal discomfort, changes in bowel habit or rectal bleeding. He is generally fit and well, and rarely attends your surgery.
Which one of the following is the single most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take a full family history
Explanation:Understanding Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer
Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. If you or a family member have been diagnosed with HNPCC, it is important to take the necessary precautions to manage the risk.
If you are a reluctant clinic-attendee, it is important to take your concerns seriously. Reassurance should not be given prematurely without knowing the full family history, including the ages of cancer diagnoses. A full family history can help determine if there is evidence of a genetic susceptibility. The modified Amsterdam criteria are widely recognized for assessing this risk.
It is important to understand the clinical presentation of HNPCC and to take proactive measures to manage the risk. By working with healthcare professionals and staying informed, individuals with HNPCC can take steps to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication
Explanation:If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient complains of mouth pain and halitosis. During examination, it is observed that he has poor dental hygiene, bleeding gums, and extensive gingival ulceration. He also has a fever of 38.0ÂșC. You suggest that he should visit a dentist. What other treatment alternatives should be provided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol + oral metronidazole + chlorhexidine mouthwash
Explanation:Understanding Gingivitis and its Management
Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.
For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.
It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman presents for review. She underwent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring which revealed an average reading of 142/90 mmHg. Apart from hypothyroidism, there is no significant medical history. Her 10-year cardiovascular risk score is 23%. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start amlodipine
Explanation:For patients under 80 years old, the target blood pressure during clinic readings is 140/90 mmHg. However, the average reading is currently above this threshold, indicating the need for treatment with a calcium channel blocker.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for a 4-year-old child with eczema on both lower legs (excluding the feet) for a two-week period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 g
Explanation:How to Apply Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are medications that are applied to the skin to treat various skin conditions. It is important to spread the cream or ointment thinly on the affected area, but enough to cover it completely. To determine the right amount to use, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g, which is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.
When applying to a child’s lower legs, two ftus or 1 g per daily dose is recommended. To treat both lower legs for two weeks, a prescription for 15g is required. It is important to start with the lowest effective dose and apply once daily. Only if there is no improvement should the treatment be increased to twice daily. By following these guidelines, topical corticosteroids can be used safely and effectively to treat skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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