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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man has carcinoma of the prostate with metastases in bone. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has carcinoma of the prostate with metastases in bone. His adjusted serum calcium on routine testing on two occasions is 2.7 mmol/L (normal range 2.15-2.65 mmol/L). He has no symptoms to suggest hypercalcaemia. He still has a reasonable quality of life and is expected to live for several months more. He would prefer not to go into hospital.
      Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Low calcium diet

      Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake (3-4 L per day by mouth)

      Explanation:

      Management of Mild Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care

      Mild hypercalcaemia, with an adjusted serum calcium concentration of 3.0 mmol/L or less, is a common complication in palliative care, particularly in patients with cancer. While asymptomatic cases may not require hospital admission, specialist advice should be sought to determine the necessity of treatment. In the meantime, patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake to 3-4 L per day to maintain good hydration. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be useful as adjuvant analgesics, but caution should be exercised to avoid renal toxicity from future bisphosphonate treatment. Calcitonin and intravenous bisphosphonates are effective in reducing serum calcium levels, but hospital admission may be necessary for their administration. A low calcium diet is not necessary as intestinal absorption of calcium is usually impaired. Overall, management of mild hypercalcaemia in palliative care requires a tailored approach based on the patient’s individual circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of feeling low for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of feeling low for a week every month, just before her period starts. She reports feeling tearful and lacking motivation during this time, but her symptoms improve once her period begins. Although her symptoms are bothersome, they are not affecting her work or personal life. She has a regular 30-day cycle, doesn't experience heavy or painful periods, and denies any intermenstrual bleeding. She is in a committed relationship and uses condoms for contraception, with no plans to conceive in the near future. What treatment options can you suggest to alleviate her premenstrual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI)

      Correct Answer: A new generation combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is currently being treated for a cold but her mother is worried about her heart rate. What is the typical heart rate for a 4-year-old child?

      Your Answer: 70 - 120 bpm

      Correct Answer: 90 - 140 bpm

      Explanation:

      Paediatric vital signs refer to the normal range of heart rate and respiratory rate for children of different ages. These vital signs are important indicators of a child’s overall health and can help healthcare professionals identify any potential issues. The table below outlines the age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. Children under the age of one typically have a higher heart rate and respiratory rate, while older children have lower rates. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor these vital signs regularly to ensure that children are healthy and developing properly.

      Age Heart rate Respiratory rate
      < 1 110 - 160 30 - 40
      1 – 2 100 – 150 25 – 35
      2 – 5 90 – 140 25 – 30
      5 – 12 80 – 120 20 – 25
      > 12 60 – 100 15 – 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis is worried about her own risk. What is the best method to evaluate her risk?

      Your Answer: Check her calcium and phosphate levels

      Correct Answer: Assess her using the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Although radiographs can reveal osteopenia, they are insufficient for accurately assessing the extent of osteopenia/osteoporosis. Normal calcium and phosphate levels are observed in osteoporosis.

      The tool for Birmingham Hip Score doesn’t exist.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of cough and blood stained...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of cough and blood stained sputum, shortness of breath on exertion, and a dull ache in the right side of his chest for the past two weeks. He used to smoke 10 cigarettes per day for many years but quit five years ago. He works as a heating engineer and admits to having worked with asbestos in the past before safety measures were mandatory. On examination of the respiratory system, there are no abnormal findings, and he is apyrexial. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a respiratory physician

      Correct Answer: Arrange a routine chest x ray and review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding Asbestos Exposure and Mesothelioma

      Asbestos is a group of minerals that occur naturally in the environment as bundles of fibres. Exposure to asbestos can lead to various health problems, including asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and other cancers. Smokers who are also exposed to asbestos have a higher risk of developing lung cancer. If you suspect that you have been exposed to asbestos, it is important to inform your physician and report any symptoms.

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that is commonly associated with asbestos exposure. Symptoms of mesothelioma may include chest pain, breathlessness, weight loss, fatigue, and sweats. In some cases, there may be evidence of effusion or pleural thickening on a chest X-ray. An occupational history is important in identifying potential exposure to asbestos.

      According to NICE guidelines, individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss should be offered an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks to assess for mesothelioma. This is especially important for those who have been exposed to asbestos or have a history of smoking. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for those with mesothelioma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a repeat prescription of her combined oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a repeat prescription of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is satisfied with this method as it has been effectively managing her acne. She reports no changes in her medical history but mentions that her aunt was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She seeks advice on the risks of the combined oral contraceptive pill and its impact on cancer.

      What is the appropriate guidance to provide her concerning the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk of bowel cancer

      Explanation:

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of her right humerus for a few weeks. The pain radiates into her forearm and is aggravated by resisted dorsiflexion of her wrist. What is the most cost-effective management option for her in the long-term (12 months)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wait-and-see approach with analgesia

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: A Comparison of Effectiveness and Costs

      Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness on the outer part of the elbow. In a randomized controlled trial, three treatment options were compared: physiotherapy, corticosteroid injections, and a wait-and-see policy with analgesia.

      At six weeks, corticosteroid injections showed the most significant improvement in symptoms, but the benefits were short-lived. At 52 weeks, physiotherapy was found to be superior to corticosteroid injections for all outcome measures. The wait-and-see policy also showed beneficial long-term effects compared with corticosteroid injections.

      While physiotherapy may be the most effective treatment option, it is also the most expensive. A wait-and-see policy with adequate advice and provision of analgesia may be enough for most patients, as nearly 90% of patients will recover within one year.

      Acupuncture and surgical release of the extensor origin are not recommended due to limited evidence. Clinicians should discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each option with their patients to determine the best course of treatment.

      Comparing Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: Which is Most Effective and Cost-Efficient?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man with coronary artery disease visits his General Practitioner after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with coronary artery disease visits his General Practitioner after an abdominal ultrasound reveals an easily felt epigastric pulsation. The ultrasound shows a normal calibre abdominal aorta without aneurysm, but incidentally finds gallstones. The patient has never experienced biliary colic or jaundice and has a normal body mass index with no history of abdominal surgery.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis

      Asymptomatic cholelithiasis, or gallstones without any symptoms, doesn’t require therapeutic intervention. In fact, up to 70% of patients with gallstones are asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis. The risk of prophylactic cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder, is greater than the benefit likely to be gained by removal. However, in a partially calcified ‘porcelain’ gallbladder, removal may be recommended to prevent pancreatitis or cholangitis.

      Open cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure with a longer recovery time and higher risk of complications, is often reserved for patients where laparoscopy is a higher risk. Endoscopic removal of stones is not suitable for asymptomatic cholelithiasis as it doesn’t remove the gallbladder or stones within it.

      If the patient becomes symptomatic, laparoscopic cholecystectomy would be the treatment of choice. However, for asymptomatic patients, the risks of a procedure outweigh the potential benefits of preventing future complications. Lithotripsy, a procedure that breaks up gallstones, is not routinely recommended for the treatment of any gallstones due to the risk of complications.

      Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is seen at annual review.

    His glycaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is seen at annual review.

      His glycaemic control is suboptimal on diet alone and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46).

      You elect to treat him with metformin 500 mg bd.

      As per NICE NG28 guidance on the management of diabetes, what would be the most suitable interval to re-evaluate his HbA1c after each treatment intensification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Annually

      Explanation:

      Understanding HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control

      The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose. This measurement is widely used in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control, as there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of HbA1c and average plasma glucose concentrations. Additionally, studies have shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.

      The lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately 120 days, and HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, HbA1c should be re-checked at 3/6 monthly intervals with each treatment intensification. Understanding HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial for managing diabetes effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - What is the expected number of newly diagnosed men with rheumatoid arthritis in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the expected number of newly diagnosed men with rheumatoid arthritis in South Bridge practice each year, given an incidence rate of 1.5 per 10000 men per year?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10.2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      This question is easy if you understand the difference between incidence and prevalence and are careful with your calculations. The question asks for the incidence of rheumatoid arthritis in men, which is 1.5 men per 10,000 population. Therefore, in a population of 20,000, the answer is 3. It’s important to be precise with calculations, as it’s easy to make mistakes in the heat of an exam. If the question had asked for incidence in both men and women, the answer would be 5.1 per 10,000, or 10.2 in a population of 20,000. If the question had asked for prevalence, the answer would be 200. Remembering the difference between incidence and prevalence is key to answering questions like this accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 11 - An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns about his hallucinations. The wife reports that he frequently sees cats wandering around the house despite never having a pet cat. Apart from this, he is in good health with no other complaints and doesn't appear to be bothered by the visions. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and cataracts and consumes around 20 units of alcohol per week.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Charles-Bonnet syndrome typically have full awareness of their condition despite experiencing ongoing and intricate visual or auditory hallucinations.

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child two days ago and the child has been febrile since then. He now has a faint erythematous macular rash that blanches on pressure. The parents are anxious.
      Which option would be MOST IMPORTANT in making the decision to admit the child to hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increasing family anxiety

      Explanation:

      Identifying Red Flags in Febrile Children

      Febrile illness in children can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve without complications, some may require urgent medical attention. It is important to identify red flags that indicate a potentially serious underlying condition.

      Factors that may increase family anxiety include a history of serious illness or death due to feverish illness, other illnesses affecting the child or family members, and parental instinct. Parents should not ignore their intuition and seek medical advice if they are concerned.

      While there are no set rules about how long a fever should last, parents should seek further advice if their child has been febrile for five days without resolution. In infants aged 0-3 months, a temperature of >38°C is a red flag, while a temperature of >39°C in infants aged 3-6 months is an amber flag. After six months of age, the temperature alone is no longer an indicator of intermediate or high risk.

      Reduced fluid intake, dry mucous membranes, reduced urine output, and reduced skin turgor are amber warning signs that require medical attention. A blanching erythematous rash is likely to indicate a viral infection and is not a cause for concern. However, non-blanching petechiae and patches in a sick child suggest meningococcal disease and require urgent medical attention.

      In conclusion, identifying red flags in febrile children is crucial for timely diagnosis and management of potentially serious conditions. Parents should seek medical advice if they are concerned about their child’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 13 - A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over the last few days. Some of these he converts into apparently purposeful movement by pushing back his hair or scratching his nose. There is reduced tone in the limbs, and he is unsteady. He seems unconcerned and intermittently giggles. His mother tells you that he had a sore throat four weeks previously.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sydenham’s chorea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sydenham’s Chorea: A Common Cause of Acute Chorea Worldwide

      Sydenham’s chorea, also known as St Vitus’ dance, is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and remains the most common cause of acute chorea worldwide. While it was commonly seen in the 1930s, it occurs less frequently in the UK today. This condition can occur with or without symptoms of rheumatic fever and is usually self-limiting. Improvement occurs over about two weeks, but total recovery can take up to nine months, and may recur in some patients.

      In this scenario, the short time course of the chorea and the girl’s age are useful diagnostically. It is important to note that psychological changes may precede or accompany the choreiform movements, as demonstrated by the girl’s emotional lability.

      It is important to consider other potential causes of chorea, such as cerebral tumour, cerebrovascular accident, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and Huntington’s chorea. However, in this case, these conditions are unlikely as they do not fit with the girl’s symptoms and age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old man with fragile X syndrome and asthma attends his annual health...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with fragile X syndrome and asthma attends his annual health check.
      Which of the following characteristics is most commonly seen in an adult male with fragile X syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

      Explanation:

      Common Health Issues in Adults with Fragile X Syndrome

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder that can cause various health issues in affected individuals. Here are some common health issues that may be found in adult males with fragile X syndrome:

      Mitral Valve Prolapse: This condition occurs in about 80% of adult males with fragile X syndrome and can also be associated with aortic-root dilatation. It is caused by connective-tissue disorders.

      Gastro-oesophageal Reflux: While this is common among children with fragile X syndrome, it is less common in adults.

      Infertility: Women with fragile X syndrome are more likely to have premature ovarian failure, but males with the condition are likely to have normal fertility.

      Recurrent Otitis Media: This is a common issue that can cause hearing loss and worsen learning difficulties, but it is not the most likely feature to be found in adult males with fragile X syndrome.

      Seizures: Seizures occur in 20-30% of males with fragile X syndrome, but they are less common in adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an episode of collapse. He tells you that on a few occasions whilst playing basketball he has had some chest pain and breathlessness, and has felt as though he were going to faint. Last night during practice he collapsed and 'blacked out' for a few seconds. On examination he has a harsh ejection systolic murmur with a palpable systolic thrill at the left sternal edge; and a prominent jerky carotid pulse. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition caused by left ventricular outflow tract obstruction due to septal hypertrophy. It can be inherited or sporadic, and a family history of sudden death should be considered. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, palpitations, pre-syncope, and syncope. Clinical signs include a ‘jerky’ pulse, double apex impulse, and a prominent systolic thrill with a harsh ejection systolic murmur.

      Brugada syndrome is a rare inherited cardiac condition that can cause sudden cardiac death. It is caused by a genetic mutation affecting the cardiac sodium channels and is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

      Long-QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired and predisposes to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. Causes include various drugs, ischaemic heart disease, and metabolic abnormalities such as hypocalcaemia.

      Pericarditis can present acutely with chest pain that worsens when lying flat and with inspiration. A pericardial rub may be audible, and causes include viruses, bacteria, fungi, and systemic diseases.

      Constrictive pericarditis occurs when the pericardium becomes rigid and mainly leads to signs of right heart failure. Clinical signs include a diffuse apex beat, quiet heart sounds, and Kussmaul’s sign (JVP rises with inspiration paradoxically). It can occur after an episode of acute pericarditis.

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway that conducts between the atrium and ventricle, facilitating abnormal conduction and often presenting with supraventricular tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old man is admitted with ST elevation myocardial infarction and treated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted with ST elevation myocardial infarction and treated with thrombolysis but no angioplasty. What guidance should he receive regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance following a heart attack – refrain from driving for a period of 4 weeks.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - As a general practitioner, you encounter a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • As a general practitioner, you encounter a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with endometrial hyperplasia. During the consultation, she inquires about the possible causes of this condition. Which of the following factors is linked to endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      The cause of endometrial hyperplasia is the lack of opposition to oestrogen by progesterone. This condition is linked to various factors such as taking unopposed oestrogen, obesity, late menopause, early menarche, being over 35 years old, smoking, nulliparity, and the use of tamoxifen. Tamoxifen is a risk factor because it has a pro-oestrogen effect on the uterus and bones, but it also has an anti-oestrogen effect on the breast.

      Understanding Endometrial Hyperplasia

      Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of the endometrium, which is the lining of the uterus. This growth is excessive compared to the normal proliferation that occurs during the menstrual cycle. There are different types of endometrial hyperplasia, including simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Patients with this condition may experience abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.

      The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is done after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, for atypical cases, hysterectomy is usually advised.

      In summary, endometrial hyperplasia is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management to prevent the development of endometrial cancer. Patients experiencing abnormal vaginal bleeding should seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause of their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of recurrent episodes of 'dizziness'. These episodes usually...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of recurrent episodes of 'dizziness'. These episodes usually last for 30-60 minutes and happen every few days. The patient experiences a sensation of the room spinning and often feels nauseous during these attacks. Additionally, there is a 'roaring' sensation in the left ear. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, but Weber's test indicates localization to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      The Weber’s test in sensorineural hearing loss indicates that the sound is perceived more strongly in the ear opposite to the affected ear.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following would not justify removal from the practice list?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following would not justify removal from the practice list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A patient who refuses to respond to any form of communication from the practice

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Removing Patients from a Practice List

      Removing a patient from a practice list is a serious decision that should not be taken lightly. The Royal College guidelines provide clear examples of situations that may justify removal, such as unacceptable behavior like violence or deception like stealing from the practice. However, clinical matters like patient choice or critical questioning and complaints do not normally justify removal. It is important to note that removal is never justified based on age, gender, ethnic origin, religion, or sexual orientation.

      In exceptional situations where there is an ‘irretrievable breakdown’ in the doctor-patient relationship, a formal process should be agreed upon to try and rectify the problem. It is crucial to give reasons to the patient rather than unilaterally declaring an irretrievable breakdown.

      If removal is necessary, the following steps should be taken: give warning to the patient, inform the clinical commissioning group in writing, and write to the patient. It is important to note that the patient’s family should not be automatically removed, although in some cases, it may be necessary.

      Overall, removing a patient from a practice list should be a last resort and should only be done in accordance with the Royal College guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 20 - A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with a diarrhoeal illness. They were one of twenty-four students on a study abroad program who developed bloody diarrhoea on the third day.

      Which of the following organisms is the likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistosoma mansoni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dysentery and Amoebiasis

      Dysentery is a gastrointestinal infection that is characterized by frequent stools that may contain blood, mucous, or pus. It is caused by Shigella dysenteriae, which is often associated with unsanitary conditions. The disease is transmitted through faecal contamination of water or food, and symptoms usually appear within one to four days of infection. The bacteria penetrate the mucosal epithelial cells of the intestine, causing intense irritation and producing cramps and watery, bloody diarrhoea.

      Amoebiasis, on the other hand, is often asymptomatic initially, with cysts present in the faeces. However, symptoms such as lower abdominal pain and diarrhoea can develop later in the disease course. If left untreated, dysentery can also develop. It is important to note that stool examination has low sensitivity in detecting amoebiasis.

      Other gastrointestinal infections that you should also be familiar with include C. difficile and E. coli toxins, bacterial causes such as salmonella and campylobacter, viral causes such as rotavirus and norovirus, and parasitic causes such as Giardia lamblia. Understanding these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate management and preventing further spread of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man with ulcerative colitis and chronic lower back pain presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with ulcerative colitis and chronic lower back pain presents with a complaint of a red painful eye. What is the most probable feature that will be observed during the examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Photophobia on ophthalmoscopy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of HLA-B27 Associated Uveitis

      HLA-B27 associated uveitis is a condition that affects the eyes and is associated with several symptoms. One of the most common symptoms is photophobia, which is a sensitivity to light that can cause discomfort and pain. Other symptoms include ocular injection, miosis (due to ciliary spasm), normal or near-normal visual acuity, and a normal fundus.

      While retinal and vitreous haemorrhages have been reported with severe uveitis, retinal haemorrhages are not a common symptom. Additionally, a dilated pupil is not typically associated with uveitis, as a small pupil is more common in acute anterior uveitis. Chronic uveitis may cause irregular-shaped pupils due to the presence of synechiae.

      Profound visual loss is not a common symptom of uveitis, although some blurring of vision may occur with anterior uveitis. More severe loss of vision can occur with posterior uveitis and panuveitis. Finally, purulent discharge is not a symptom of uveitis, as it is typically associated with conjunctivitis.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms of HLA-B27 associated uveitis can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 22 - You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a long time. She has recently noticed some darkening of the skin on both lower legs along with some dryness, but no pain or other symptoms. Her routine blood tests, including HbA1c, were normal. On examination, you observe mild pigmentation and dry skin on both lower legs, but normal distal pulses and warm feet. There are no indications of DVT. Your diagnosis is venous eczema. As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to vascular service

      Explanation:

      Patients who have developed skin changes due to varicose veins, such as pigmentation and eczema, should be referred to secondary care.

      Understanding Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.

      To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.

      In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She has observed a well-defined, lobulated, and bright red lesion appearing on his left cheek. The lesion was not present at birth but has now grown to 6 mm in diameter. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      If the strawberry naevus on this baby is not causing any mechanical issues or bleeding, treatment is typically unnecessary.

      Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.

      Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is being seen in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is being seen in clinic. His most recent MMSE score is 18 out of 30, indicating 'moderate' dementia. As per NICE guidelines, what additional steps should be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive care + donepezil

      Explanation:

      Management of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.

      Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements were recorded at 600 L/min. Upon initial assessment, it appears to be an acute severe attack and he is given appropriate treatment. What symptom, if still present after initial treatment, would necessitate hospitalization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SpO2 95%

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Assessment and severity of acute asthma are common topics in exams. The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma, which should be familiar to healthcare professionals.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. Oxygen therapy should aim to maintain SpO2 levels between 94-98%.

      It is important to note that increasing symptoms is not a marker of an acute severe attack, but rather denotes a moderate asthma exacerbation. Additionally, there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients to determine the severity of their asthma. It depends on their personal best or predicted peak flow reading.

      If a patient’s actual peak flow is 33-50% of their personal best or predicted rate, it is a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of the indicators of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, admission is advised. A simple rule of thumb is that if the peak flow remains at <50% predicted or best after initial treatment, admission is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 26 - You are researching month-on-month changes in septoplasty rates nationally.
    Select from the options the...

    Incorrect

    • You are researching month-on-month changes in septoplasty rates nationally.
      Select from the options the best source of information.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hospital Episode Statistics

      Explanation:

      Limitations of Different Data Sources for Healthcare Research

      When conducting healthcare research, it is important to consider the limitations of different data sources. National census data, while useful for understanding demographics, cannot provide information on specific healthcare issues. Quality Outcome Framework data is limited to the issues measured in GP practices, and local PAS data may not provide a comprehensive national picture. Additionally, a postal survey of ENT surgeons may result in a low response rate. Therefore, researchers must carefully consider the strengths and limitations of each data source before drawing conclusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and lethargic, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history but admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals bi-basal consolidation, and her blood tests show the following results:

      - White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
      - Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
      - C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
      - Sodium: 125 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l

      Which pathogen is responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophilia

      Explanation:

      Legionella is often characterized by flu-like symptoms, a dry cough, relative bradycardia, and confusion, with blood tests indicating hyponatremia and abnormal liver function. Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia are commonly associated with communal water supplies, as hinted at in the question’s reference to a recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia often results in bi-basal pneumonia. The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old intravenous drug user comes to the clinic after being released from...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old intravenous drug user comes to the clinic after being released from prison. During his time there, he injected heroin and was forced to share needles. He reports experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past two weeks, including fever, joint and muscle pain, and a sore throat. He also had a rash, but it has since disappeared. Upon examination, he has lymph nodes in his neck and armpits, but his chest is clear. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV seroconversion illness

      Explanation:

      Early Detection of HIV: Recognizing Flu-Like Symptoms and Other Risk Factors

      Flu-like symptoms in individuals with known risk factors for HIV should not be ignored. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve prognosis and reduce the risk of transmission. The initial seroconversion illness may be mild and last for about two weeks, after which patients may feel relatively well but continue to unknowingly transmit the virus. This illness typically occurs between one and six weeks after infection and presents with symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, pharyngitis, headaches, diarrhea, neuralgia or neuropathy, lymphadenopathy, and a maculopapular rash. In rare cases, meningoencephalitis may occur. Acute infection may also be asymptomatic.

      Other conditions such as tuberculosis, subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE), hepatitis C, and glandular fever may present with similar symptoms. However, individuals with a high risk of HIV infection should consider it as the most likely diagnosis. SBE may be suspected in intravenous drug abusers who present with a murmur, particularly tricuspid regurgitation. Hepatitis C may be asymptomatic initially but should be considered if there is jaundice.

      In conclusion, recognizing flu-like symptoms and other risk factors for HIV is crucial for early detection and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention and get tested if any of these symptoms are present, as early intervention can make a significant difference in both individual prognosis and the risk of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain, tenesmus, and cramping during bowel movements. Four years ago, he traveled to Thailand for a vacation and had unprotected sex with a sex worker. A few weeks later, he noticed a sore on his penis and tenderness in his left groin, which eventually resolved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum

      Explanation:

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is commonly found in tropical regions and typically presents with a painless genital papule or pustule that later ulcerates. Within 2 to 6 weeks, unilateral painful lymphadenopathy develops. If left untreated, LGV can progress to proctocolitis or even systemic illness.

      African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is caused by the protist Trypanosoma brucei. It is spread by the tsetse fly and is not sexually transmitted. It presents with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and severe neurological complications.

      Genital herpes typically results in multiple painful genital ulcers, which is different from the solitary painless genital sores associated with LGV.

      Chancroid is an STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It also results in genital ulceration and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, but the ulcers are painful (unlike LGV) and are more likely to be multiple. Chancroid is also unlikely to progress to proctocolitis.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 30 - A 94-year-old woman is receiving visits from district nurses. She has recently developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 94-year-old woman is receiving visits from district nurses. She has recently developed a grade 2 pressure ulcer on her left buttock which is causing her discomfort. Upon examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, there are no indications of cellulitis, and there is no discharge. The skin surrounding the ulcer is red but not hot to the touch.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient based on her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wound dressing, Analgesia, Nutritional assessment

      Explanation:

      When treating pressure ulcers, antibiotics should only be used if there are signs of infection, rather than being routinely prescribed. This is important to consider for an elderly patient with a grade 2 pressure ulcer on their right buttock. Management of pressure ulcers should include wound dressings, appropriate pain relief, and a nutritional assessment. NICE recommends that all patients with pressure ulcers receive a nutritional assessment from a healthcare professional with the necessary skills. Antibiotics should only be used in cases where there is evidence of systemic sepsis, spreading cellulitis, or underlying osteomyelitis. As this patient has a normal temperature and no signs of infection in the wound, oral or IV antibiotics are not necessary.

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 31 - Which of the following conditions is NOT inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The following are X-linked conditions: Duchenne/Becker, haemophilia, and G6PD.

      X-Linked Recessive Conditions: Inherited Disorders with Varying Patterns

      X-linked recessive conditions are genetic disorders that are inherited in a specific manner. These conditions are caused by mutations in genes located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. As a result, these conditions are more common in males than in females, as males only have one X chromosome while females have two.

      Some of the most well-known X-linked recessive conditions include Duchenne muscular dystrophy, haemophilia A and B, and colour blindness. Other conditions such as Fabry’s disease, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome are also inherited in this manner.

      It is important to note that some diseases have varying patterns of inheritance, with the majority being in an X-linked recessive fashion. For example, chronic granulomatous disease is inherited in over 70% of cases in an X-linked recessive manner. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management of affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 32 - A 27-year-old Caucasian woman who is 10 weeks pregnant visits her GP. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Caucasian woman who is 10 weeks pregnant visits her GP. This is her first pregnancy. Her BMI is 29 kg/m² and she has no significant medical history or family history. The birthweight of her siblings is unknown. As per the current NICE guidelines, what investigation should be arranged in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks only

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all women with a BMI greater than 30 undergo screening for gestational diabetes using an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) between 24-28 weeks of pregnancy. Additionally, women who have risk factors for gestational diabetes, such as a family history of diabetes, a previous large baby weighing 4.5 kg or more, or belonging to an ethnic group with a high prevalence of diabetes, should also be offered an OGTT during this time. If a woman has previously had gestational diabetes, she should be offered an OGTT as soon as possible after booking and again at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal. Alternatively, early self-monitoring of blood glucose may be offered as an option.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 33 - A 48-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns about his risk of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns about his risk of coronary heart disease after a friend recently suffered a heart attack. He has a history of anxiety but is not currently taking any medication. However, he is a heavy smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal, with a BMI of 26 kg/m² and blood pressure of 126/82 mmHg.

      Given his smoking habit, you strongly advise him to quit smoking. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing his risk of coronary heart disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a lipid profile then calculate his QRISK2 score

      Explanation:

      Given his background, he is a suitable candidate for a formal evaluation of his risk for cardiovascular disease through a lipid profile, which can provide additional information to enhance the QRISK2 score.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 34 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and loss of taste. There is left-sided weakness of both the upper and the lower facial muscles. Facial sensation is normal. There is a vesicular rash on the eardrum, ear canal, earlobe, tongue and roof of the mouth (palate) on the same side as the weakness of the face.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome and Other Facial Nerve Conditions

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. This can lead to ear pain, hearing loss, vertigo, facial nerve paralysis, and even involvement of other cranial nerves. The presence of lymphocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid and vesicles on the skin of the ear canal or pinna may also be observed. However, it is important to note that this condition can also occur without a skin rash.

      Bell’s palsy, on the other hand, is the most common cause of unilateral facial nerve paralysis. It may also present with otalgia and pain behind the ear, but vesiculation is absent. Acute otitis media can also lead to facial paralysis, but this usually responds well to antibiotics and corticosteroids.

      Postherpetic neuralgia is a nerve pain that occurs after the herpes zoster vesicles have crusted over and begun to heal. However, the description provided doesn’t suggest that this stage has been reached. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterised by recurrent episodes of facial pain following the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve, but without facial paralysis or rash.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions in order to properly diagnose and treat them. While some may share similar symptoms, the underlying causes and treatments can vary greatly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 35 - A 68-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease comes in for a check-up. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease comes in for a check-up. He is currently taking a combination of a dopamine agonist, levodopa and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Although his motor symptoms are well managed, his wife is worried as he is experiencing mild confusion, staying awake for extended periods during the night, and having visual hallucinations accompanied by delusions that she is attempting to poison him. During the clinic visit, he appears quiet and withdrawn. His mini-mental state score is 23, and he is able to walk across the examination room and perform some fine motor tasks, but he is unable to provide a handwriting sample. What is the most effective approach to managing his hallucinations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Medications for Managing Hallucinations and Agitation in Parkinson’s Disease

      Managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease can be challenging. The lack of dopamine, which is the cause of motor symptoms in Parkinson’s, makes it difficult to use medications that reduce dopamine levels or effects as they can worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, low-dose atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine are the most appropriate intervention for this condition.

      However, medications such as lorazepam and benzhexol are not suitable for long-term use in managing Parkinson’s disease. Lorazepam is heavily sedating and has an intermediate duration of action, while benzhexol can cause disturbed sleep and agitation at higher doses. Entacapone, on the other hand, is a COMT inhibitor that prolongs the effects of levodopa in the brain and doesn’t have any role in preventing hallucinations or treating agitation.

      Haloperidol, although effective in treating hallucinations and agitation, is contraindicated for patients with Parkinson’s disease as it is a D2-receptor antagonist that reduces the effect of dopamine in the brain, which can dramatically worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, it is essential to choose appropriate medications that do not worsen motor symptoms while managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 36 - A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate cancer. The test is designed to show positive in the presence of the disease. The sensitivity was reported as 70%.

      Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70% of people with the disease will have a negative test result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity

      Sensitivity and specificity are two important measures used to evaluate the accuracy of medical tests. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify a condition when it is present, while specificity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify the absence of a condition when it is not present.

      In the given scenario, the data suggests that there is a 70% probability of the test being positive when tested in a group of patients with the disease. This means that if 100 patients with the disease were tested, 70 of them would test positive and 30 would test negative. It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not fixed values and can vary depending on the test and the population being tested. Understanding these measures can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the use and interpretation of medical tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 37 - What is the interpretation of an SMR of 125 for a particular town...

    Incorrect

    • What is the interpretation of an SMR of 125 for a particular town in England, with England and Wales as the comparison standard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The town has 25% more deaths than expected if age specific death rates for England and Wales are applied to the population

      Explanation:

      Understanding Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR)

      To compare mortality rates in different populations, we use the Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR). This ratio compares the observed deaths in a study population to the number of deaths that would be expected if the standard population’s age-specific mortality rates were applied. The result is multiplied by 100 for convenience, but SMR is not a rate or percentage. An SMR of 100 means the study population has the same number of deaths as expected by national standards. A value less than 100 indicates fewer observed deaths than expected, while a value greater than 100 indicates more observed deaths than expected.

      The SMR is useful for comparing different towns, cities, or districts, as well as certain groups like social classes. It can also be used for serial comparisons over several years. The data used to calculate SMR is age-standardized, so it corrects for differences in age structures between populations. This means that the crude death rate, which doesn’t use age-specific data, may not necessarily be higher in the study population. Age-specific data is crucial in correcting for differences in age structures and allows for more accurate comparisons of mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 38 - A woman is worried about her risk of breast cancer. When should she...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is worried about her risk of breast cancer. When should she be referred to the local breast services?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A woman whose father has been diagnosed with breast cancer aged 56 years

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 39 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has a medical history of high cholesterol, asthma, constipation, and hay fever. She is currently taking multiple medications, including atorvastatin, a combination beclomethasone-formoterol inhaler, montelukast, nasal steroids, and lactulose. She seeks guidance on how to manage her regular medication during pregnancy.

      What recommendations would you provide to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin but continue her regular medication

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital anomalies and potential impact on fetal development. Atorvastatin, in particular, is contraindicated during pregnancy and should be avoided three months prior to attempting pregnancy. However, lactulose and nasal steroids are considered safe for use during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant individuals with asthma to continue taking their medication to maintain good symptom control.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 40 - A new mother brings her 14-day-old boy to see you and you carry...

    Incorrect

    • A new mother brings her 14-day-old boy to see you and you carry out a clinical examination. She wants to know if there are any indications that her child may have an underlying condition.
      What feature in this boy would be most suggestive of a high risk of a serious underlying problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unilateral Moro reflex

      Explanation:

      Common Infant Characteristics and Abnormalities

      The following are common characteristics and abnormalities that may be observed in infants:

      Unilateral Moro Reflex: A response to something that startles the infant, such as a loud noise or a sudden loss of support. Absence may indicate a profound disorder of the motor system, while persistence beyond four or five months of age occurs in infants with severe neurological defects.

      Scattered Red Marks with Papules and Pustules on the Face and Trunk: This is toxic erythema of the newborn, a common finding in neonates. It doesn’t cause the child discomfort and usually lasts several days.

      Fall in Weight from Birth Weight: Most babies lose about 10% of their birth weight after birth, but they usually regain this weight after about two weeks.

      Pink Moist Granuloma in the Umbilicus: An overgrowth of granulation tissue that occurs after the cord has fallen off. The discharge from an umbilical granuloma may irritate the surrounding skin.

      Single Palmar Crease: About 5% of newborns have a single palmar crease on at least one hand, frequently inherited as a familial trait. It is sometimes associated with Down and other syndromes, although other signs would point to these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 41 - You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past five days. Her mother reports her mouth looks more red and sore than usual. She also reports discomfort in her eyes.

      On examination, you note a widespread non-vesicular rash and cervical lymphadenopathy.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki Disease Treatment and Follow-Up

      Patients diagnosed with Kawasaki disease typically require hospitalization for treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and to monitor for potential myocardial events. Due to the risk of cardiac complications, follow-up echocardiograms are necessary to detect any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to note that Kawasaki disease is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 42 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is nervous every time he is intimate with his new partner. He can still achieve his own erections and has morning erections. His recent NHS health screening blood tests were all normal, and he has normal blood pressure. The GP examines his medication history and advises him against using sildenafil. Which of the following medications listed below is not recommended to be used with sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN)

      Explanation:

      When considering treatment options for this patient, it is important to note that PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil are contraindicated when used in conjunction with nitrates and nicorandil. This is due to the potential for severe hypotension. Therefore, alternative treatment options should be explored and discussed with the patient.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea containing blood and mucous, tiredness and anorexia that have been present for 6 months. Stool samples have been negative for any cultures. The abdomen and rectum examination is normal.

      What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to gastroenterology

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Suspected Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      If a young person presents with rectal bleeding, diarrhea, and anorexia without an infective cause, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) should be suspected. IBD includes Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, and a definitive diagnosis is necessary for proper management. Colonoscopy and intestinal biopsies are required for diagnosis, while blood tests and fecal calprotectin may aid in the diagnosis but cannot differentiate between the two types of IBD. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is necessary for diagnostic investigations.

      An abdominal X-ray is only indicated if acute bowel obstruction is suspected, which is unlikely in this patient’s case. Blood tests may be appropriate in primary care, including FBC, inflammatory markers, renal profile, TFTs, coeliac screen, and LFTs. However, loperamide should not be prescribed in undiagnosed IBD as it can increase the risk of toxic megacolon.

      Once a confirmed diagnosis is made, referral to a dietician may be beneficial for dietary advice. A 2-week-wait referral to gastroenterology is not necessary in this patient’s case, as she is a young adult and malignancy is less likely to be the cause of her symptoms. Clinical judgement should be used, and the presence of a suspicious rectal or abdominal mass would warrant referral at any age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 44 - A pediatrics consultant has entered into a shared care agreement with you regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A pediatrics consultant has entered into a shared care agreement with you regarding a patient's antibiotic prescribing and monitoring. She has initiated treatment with antibiotics and after a period of stable monitoring, has entered into a shared care agreement with you for ongoing prescribing and monitoring, with any future dose changes initiated by the consultant.
      With regard to shared care prescribing, the legal responsibility for prescribing lies with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Both the specialist and the GP

      Explanation:

      Legal Responsibility for Prescribing

      According to the British National Formulary, the Department of Health has advised that legal responsibility for prescribing lies with the doctor who signs the prescription. This guideline is outlined in circular EL (91) 127, which clarifies the responsibility for prescribing between hospitals and general practitioners.

      Prescribing issues are a popular examination theme, and it is important to remember this guidance when answering related questions. By understanding that the doctor who signs the prescription holds legal responsibility, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective prescribing practices. Remembering this key point can help prevent errors and ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 45 - A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.

      Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and is exhibiting signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.

      What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusion of misidentification where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that causes patients with significant vision loss to experience vivid visual hallucinations. These hallucinations can be simple or complex, but patients are aware that they are not real and do not experience other types of hallucinations or delusions.

      De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 46 - A 75-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. She appears to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. She appears to be anaemic and the following blood test results are significant:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 68 g/l 115-155 g/l
      White cell count 2.6 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
      Platelets 160 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
      Reticulocyte count 0.75% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean corpuscular volume 135 fl 76-98 fl
      Ferritin 110 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
      What is the most probable cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Macrocytosis and its Differential Diagnosis

      Macrocytosis is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream. While there are several possible causes of macrocytosis, one of the most common is vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency can lead to anaemia and macrocytosis, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 130 femtolitres or more being a strong indicator of B12 deficiency.

      Other potential causes of macrocytosis include drug-induced effects, excessive alcohol intake, and human immunodeficiency virus infection. However, these conditions may not necessarily lead to anaemia unless poor nutrition is also a factor.

      Myelodysplasia and aplastic anaemia are also in the differential diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency, but the MCV level can help differentiate between these conditions. If the MCV is between 100-110 femtolitres, other causes of macrocytosis should be considered.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes of macrocytosis and their differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 47 - A 65-year-old male is referred with episodes of severe vertigo which may last...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is referred with episodes of severe vertigo which may last up to four hours and are associated with vomiting and uncomfortable pressure in the right ear.

      On examination during an attack he is noted to have right horizontal nystagmus together with mild right-sided sensorineural deafness.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ménière's disease

      Explanation:

      Ménière’s Disease: A History of Paroxysmal Attacks

      Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal attacks that can last for hours and consist of vertigo, vomiting, pressure within the ear, and deafness. These attacks can lead to irreversible sensorineural deafness of low frequency. Tinnitus is often present but may not occur in the early stages, making the classic triad of tinnitus, vertigo, and deafness unreliable for diagnosis.

      Prochlorperazine or cinnarizine can help with vomiting, and restricting salt and fluid intake may hasten resolution. Diuretics may also be used, but there is little evidence for their efficacy. Unilateral hearing loss caused by acoustic neuroma is uncommonly associated with vertigo.

      Benign positional vertigo is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo that are triggered by movement. Labyrinthitis is characterized by acute disabling vertigo, usually preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection, and is rarely episodic. Vertebrobasilar ischaemic attacks last only a few minutes and typically cause a mild swaying or swimming sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 48 - You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is elderly and was previously treated with antibiotics has now developed Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection.

      Which of the following is most likely to have caused this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection

      Antibiotics are known to increase the risk of patients developing C. difficile infection. However, certain antibiotics are more frequently associated with this infection than others. These include clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins.

      If a patient does develop C. difficile infection, there are treatments available. Metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly used to treat this infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with antibiotics and to use them judiciously to prevent the development of C. difficile infection. By doing so, patients can receive the necessary treatment without experiencing unnecessary complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 49 - You are conducting a 12-week postnatal check on a baby boy and his...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a 12-week postnatal check on a baby boy and his mother. During the examination, you inquire about the child's immunisation schedule. The mother expresses concern about recent measles outbreaks and asks when her son will receive his first MMR vaccine.

      At what age is the first dose of the MMR vaccine typically administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 12-13 months of age

      Explanation:

      At the age of 12-13 months, the MMR vaccine is administered as a routine, followed by a Preschool booster at 3-4 years of age.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 50 - A 26-year-old woman presents with symptoms suggestive of vaginal thrush. She is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with symptoms suggestive of vaginal thrush. She is experiencing a thick white discharge and itching around the vulva. This is the third time in 6 months that she has had these symptoms. Previously, she has been treated with antifungal medications and the symptoms have resolved. The patient has recently undergone a full STI screening which came back negative and she is not currently pregnant.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an induction-maintenance regimen of antifungal medication

      Explanation:

      Patients with recurrent vaginal candidiasis, defined as experiencing four or more documented episodes in one year with at least partial symptom resolution between episodes, should be considered for an induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole, according to NICE guidance. This involves prescribing an induction course of three doses of oral fluconazole 150 mg taken three days apart or an intravaginal antifungal for 10-14 days, followed by a maintenance regimen of six months of treatment with an oral or intravaginal antifungal.

      While topical antifungals can be used for uncomplicated episodes of vaginal thrush, prescribing a course of topical treatment would be inappropriate for patients with recurrent symptoms. Instead, the induction-maintenance regime should be used.

      Referral to gynaecology or dermatology may be appropriate for patients aged 12-15 years old, those with doubt about the diagnosis, those with unexplained treatment failure, or those with a non-albicans Candida species identified. Swabbing the discharge to confirm the diagnosis is important, but treatment should not be delayed for symptomatic patients. Therefore, starting treatment with the induction-maintenance protocol is appropriate for patients with recurrent infections.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
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