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Question 1
Correct
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What is the accuracy of psychiatric diagnosis?
Your Answer: Is increased by semi-structured interviews
Explanation:Psychiatric diagnosis reliability can be measured through observer and interview methods. With skilled practitioners, psychiatric diagnoses are now as reliable as clinical judgments in other medical fields, and sometimes even more so. To increase reliability and reduce disagreement, structured of standardized interviews can be used, along with definitions for all psychopathology items covered by the interview and operational definitions to ensure consistent diagnoses. The WHO conducted field trials in 1986, which showed almost global acceptability, coverage, and inter-rater reliability of psychiatric diagnostic categories. While reliability and validity are independent, reliability sets a limit on validity. Diagnostic criteria and standardized interview schedules have been proven to increase psychiatric diagnosis reliability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old teacher who you are seeing for anxiety. She tells you that she is convinced that her colleagues are talking about her behind her back. She knows this because sometimes they whisper when she walks by and then stop when she approaches. She has started recording their conversations and tells you she would confront them if she had proof. She has previously confronted a colleague and accused them of spreading rumors. She has two young children who she cares for at home.
Which of the following is the most urgent aspect of your management plan?Your Answer: Contact social services to ensure they are aware of the risk to any children visiting the house
Correct Answer: Contact his wife to warn her she is in danger
Explanation:The management plan will include all options, including contacting the police, and may involve admission under the Mental Health Act depending on the level of immediate risk. Morbid jealousy is a highly dangerous condition, with 17% of homicides in the UK linked to it. Studies have shown that 14% of those suffering from it have attempted to harm their partner, with over 50% having assaulted them, often while under the influence of alcohol. While the patient may be threatening only the other man, their partner is the most likely person to be harmed. Both men and women can pose a risk to their partners, but men are more likely to cause severe injuries. It is important to note that the duty of confidentiality does not override the duty to prevent foreseeable harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female is admitted after a suicide attempt. What single factor indicates a heightened risk of future suicide?
Your Answer: Previous history of overdose
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The single feature that best suggests a high risk of future suicide in a 52-year-old male who has taken an overdose is a history of previous suicide attempts. Research has shown that individuals who have attempted suicide in the past are at a significantly higher risk of future suicide attempts and completed suicide. This is because suicide attempts are often a sign of underlying mental health issues, such as depression, anxiety, of substance abuse, that can persist and increase the risk of suicidal behavior. Additionally, previous suicide attempts may indicate a lack of effective coping mechanisms of support systems, which can further increase the risk of future suicide attempts. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to assess and address the underlying mental health issues and provide appropriate support and treatment to reduce the risk of future suicide attempts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient with a history of depression visits her doctor with concerns of decreased energy, difficulty sleeping, and feelings of hopelessness.
Which self-report questionnaire would be the most suitable for the patient to fill out?Your Answer: BDI (Beck depression inventory)
Explanation:The list includes various psychiatric rating scales, with the Beck depression inventory (BDI) being the only self-report tool. It consists of 21 items that evaluate symptoms such as fatigue, irritability, and interest in others, and is designed to measure the severity of depression. On the other hand, the BAS is a clinician-administered scale that assesses medication-induced akathisia, while the BPRS evaluates depression, anxiety, and psychotic symptoms. The HAM-A is a clinician-administered questionnaire that measures the severity of anxiety, and the PANSS is a clinician-administered tool that assesses both positive (hallucinations and delusions) and negative symptoms (social and emotional withdrawal, disordered thinking) in patients with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is the most effective demonstration of strong interviewing abilities? Can you provide an example of a skillful interview technique?
Your Answer: Being sympathetic rather than empathetic
Correct Answer: The use of non-verbal methods of communication
Explanation:Effective interview techniques involve utilizing open-ended inquiries, actively listening to the interviewee, facilitating the conversation, being attentive to verbal, non-verbal, and vocal cues, seeking clarification when necessary, requesting specific examples, addressing emotional responses, reflecting on the information provided, using empathetic language, comprehending hypotheses, directly acknowledging emotions, verifying information, promoting accuracy, managing the pace of the interview, utilizing transitional statements, and summarizing key points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You encounter a 45-year-old man with a history of mild cognitive impairment and recurrent episodes of major depressive disorder. He was admitted to the hospital under section 3 of the Mental Health Act two months ago due to aggressive behaviour.
He reports feeling tired, sad, and lacking motivation to participate in any activities on the ward. He also reports difficulty getting out of bed in the morning. Despite being eligible for section 17 leave, he has refused to take advantage of it for the past two and a half months and spends all his time in his room.
He is currently taking fluoxetine 20 mg and PRN lorazepam for agitation. He has no known physical health issues. Your consultant has requested that you perform a blood test on him before considering adjusting his medication.
What is the most relevant blood test to request in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D levels
Explanation:The most appropriate test to perform for this patient, who is exhibiting symptoms indicative of vitamin D deficiency due to insufficient exposure to sunlight, is a vitamin D level test. It is important to also check corrected calcium and PTH levels, as vitamin D is involved in calcium metabolism. Additionally, given the patient’s use of fluoxetine, U+Es may be checked to monitor for potential hyponatremia, while routine blood tests such as FBC, LFTS, and folic acid should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the definition of Othello syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional belief that the one's partner is unfaithful
Explanation:Morbid jealousy of delusions of jealousy are also known as Othello syndrome, named after the Shakespearean character who murdered his wife due to false beliefs of her infidelity. This condition poses a significant risk to the partner, similar to the original story. It can affect individuals of any gender and occur in relationships of any status of gender combination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the symptoms of ADHD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadotropin levels are lowered in anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa share similar clinical syndromes, and individuals with eating disorders may transition between the two disorders multiple times. The bulimic subtype of anorexia nervosa involves binge episodes. Anorexia nervosa is more prevalent in females, with a female-to-male ratio of 10:1. Endocrine abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, low levels of gonadotropins (LH and FSH), low levels of estrogen and progesterone, low levels of triiodothyronine, high levels of cortisol, high levels of fasting growth hormone, and irregular vasopressin release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes and was prescribed medication. He now presents with weight loss and increased thirst.
Which investigation is most likely to help make the correct diagnosis of this weight loss and increased thirst?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting glucose
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is important to note that the patient is experiencing weight loss, which is more commonly associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus of new onset type 2 diabetes mellitus. A fasting glucose test can aid in making a diagnosis and provide insight into the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
While abnormalities related to dehydration may be observed in U&Es, this investigation alone would not be sufficient for a diagnosis. LFTs and FBC may be useful as routine blood tests, but they would not provide an explanation for the patient’s clinical presentation.
If the patient is taking lithium, measuring lithium levels could be helpful in identifying potential side effects such as increased thirst. However, lithium is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, so it may not be relevant in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 10
Incorrect
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During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your elderly client. They do eventually provide an answer, but only after an extended conversation about the intricacies of the topic, including precise and detailed information about each aspect. What is this occurrence referred to as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Different types of thought disorders are associated with specific personality traits of mental illnesses. Circumstantiality involves taking a long and detailed route to get to the initial point. Loosening of association makes it difficult to follow how one idea connects to the previous one, resulting in derailment. Overinclusive thinking blurs the boundaries between words and concepts, causing unrelated ideas to be associated with each other. Tangentiality involves answers that are related to the question but do not directly answer it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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