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  • Question 1 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Correct

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      70.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true?

      Your Answer: Usually presents with primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea, have non functional or streak ovaries and cant conceive. They are 45X genetically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Correct

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The GI tract forms from the endoderm. The endoderm grows laterally and then ventrally finally folding on its self to form the gut tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome patients have 46XY chromosomes. They are males by genotype but appear as female because of insensitivity to male hormones. It is advisable to perform gonadectomy in these patients after puberty because these patients are at increased risk of developing malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Turner's syndrome is characterised by : ...

    Correct

    • Turner's syndrome is characterised by :

      Your Answer: Streak ovaries

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. Streak ovaries are a form of ovarian dysgenesis and are associated with Turner syndrome. Occasionally they may be functional and secondary sexual characteristics may develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a non pregnant state?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      The corpus luteum is formed from the granulosa cells of the mature follicle. The structure functions as a transient endocrine organ which secretes mainly progesterone with additional secretion of oestradiol and inhibin, which serve to suppress FSH levels. In the event of no pregnancy, the corpus luteum stops producing progesterone and degenerates into the corpus albicans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding fertilization & implantation: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding fertilization & implantation:

      Your Answer: The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida while the tail remains outside

      Explanation:

      During fertilization, a sperm must first fuse with the plasma membrane and then penetrate the female egg cell to fertilize it. Fusing to the egg cell usually causes little problem, whereas penetrating through the egg’s hard shell or extracellular matrix can be more difficult. Therefore, sperm cells go through a process known as the acrosome reaction, which is the reaction that occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as it approaches the egg. The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the anterior half of the sperm’s head. Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote. To prevent polyspermy and minimize the possibility of producing a triploid zygote, several changes to the egg’s cell membranes render them impenetrable shortly after the first sperm enters the egg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female puberty?

      Your Answer: Thelarche, maximal growth velocity, menarche

      Explanation:

      Thelarche means appearance of the breast tissue under the influence of oestrogen from the ovaries. It heralds the onset of puberty among girls. It is followed by an increase in growth velocity followed by menarche which is the time of first menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - From which germ layer does the myenteric plexus of the GI tract developed:...

    Correct

    • From which germ layer does the myenteric plexus of the GI tract developed:

      Your Answer: Neural crest of Ectoderm

      Explanation:

      During the 5th week, the neural crest cells migrate along each side of the spinal cord where they form ganglions located dorsolateral to the aorta. Some of these cells migrate ventrally and form neurons in the preaortic ganglia as the celiac and mesenteric ganglia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?

      Your Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions

      Explanation:

      During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      153
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Correct

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      GI Tract initially forms via gastrulation from the endoderm of the trilaminar embryo around week 3. It extends from the buccopharyngeal membrane to the cloacal membrane. Later in development there are contributions from all three germ cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?

      Your Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions

      Explanation:

      Oogonium become Primary Oocyte via Growth/Maturation. This process is called oocytogenesis Primary Oocyte undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to become Ootids. This process is called Ootidogenesis Ootids differentiate into Ovum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The external carotid develops from the 1st arch. The common and internal carotid develop from the 3rd arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Correct

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of intestinal malrotation?

      Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Correct Answer: Ladd's bands

      Explanation:

      Ladd’s bands are the most common form of peritoneal bands in malrotation of the intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You...

    Incorrect

    • While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?

      Your Answer: Tracheoesophageal

      Correct Answer: Urinary

      Explanation:

      Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:

      Your Answer: May obstruct labour

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension

      Explanation:

      Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In a non-ovulating follicle, follicular growth is followed by: ...

    Incorrect

    • In a non-ovulating follicle, follicular growth is followed by:

      Your Answer: Regression

      Correct Answer: Atresia

      Explanation:

      During the ovulatory cycle, only one follicle will ovulate. The remaining non-ovulating follicles undergo disintegration. This process is known as atresia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The 3rd arch gives rise to the Glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?

      Your Answer: 1-Feb

      Correct Answer: 5-Jul

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the morula enters the uterus, around the 4th day after fertilization, a clear cystic cavity starts forming inside the morula. The fluid passes through the zona pellucida from the uterine cavity and hence forms the blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: High pituitary gonadotropin titre

      Correct Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days? ...

    Correct

    • What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days?

      Your Answer: 14-16

      Explanation:

      After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol. The luteal phase lasts for 14 days and if implantation does not occurs the corpus luteum starts to degenerate. As B-HCG produced by the implanted embryo maintains it and without it luteolysis occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - All of the following statements are true about Androgen insensitivity syndrome except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true about Androgen insensitivity syndrome except:

      Your Answer: No uterus

      Correct Answer: The chromosomal sex is 46XX

      Explanation:

      Patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome have 46XY chromosomes. Due to insensitivity to androgens, they have female characteristics e.g. scant pubic or body hairs, enlarged mammary glands, and a small penis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Correct

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed: ...

    Incorrect

    • The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed:

      Your Answer: At the stage of the Graafian follicle

      Correct Answer: After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte

      Explanation:

      Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium?

      Your Answer: 24-30 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: 10-16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Meconium first appears in the fetal ilium at 10-16 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Regarding implantation, how many days after fertilisation does it typically occur? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding implantation, how many days after fertilisation does it typically occur?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tubes after ovulation. The zygote moves through the fallopian tube and implants in the endometrium about 7-9 days after fertilisation, or 6-12 days after ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The 7th cranial nerve develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Correct

    • The 7th cranial nerve develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      The 7th Cranial nerve is the facial nerve. The facial nerve develops from the second pharyngeal arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome?

      Your Answer: Kalman's syndrome is a recognized cause

      Correct Answer: There are usually normal testes

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity (testicular feminization) syndrome is a rare inherited form of male pseudo hermaphroditism that occurs in phenotypically normal women with adequate breast development, normal external genitalia, a vagina of variable depth, absent uterus, and sparse or absent pubic hair and axillary hair. Testosterone levels are normal or elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      104.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Correct

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Correct

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Oxygenation of fetal blood occurs in the placenta before it returns in the umbilical vein which joins the left branch of the portal vein. It bypasses the capillaries of the liver by going through the ductus venosus, which is obliterated after birth and becomes the ligamentum venosum. The oxygenated blood enters the inferior vena cava and is transported to the right atrium and
      then through the patent foramen ovale to the left atrium and on to the left ventricle. From the left ventricle, the blood flows into the aorta and through the fetal vascular network. Blood returning from the head of the foetus passes through the superior vena cava to the right atrium and straight on to the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. However, it does not enter the pulmonary
      circulation, being short-circuited by the ductus arteriosus to the aorta. Aortic blood is carried via the umbilical arteries back to the placenta for reoxygenation. At birth, the three short circuits, the ductus venosus, foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus, close.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?...

    Correct

    • Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      1st Arch = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V) 2nd Arch = Facial (CN VII) 3rd Arch = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) 4th and 6th Arches = Vagus (CN X)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?

      Your Answer: 46XX

      Correct Answer: 46XY

      Explanation:

      Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Commonest cause of precocious puberty is: ...

    Correct

    • Commonest cause of precocious puberty is:

      Your Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty can be defined as secondary sexual characteristics that occur before the age of 8 years in females and 9 years in males. In 80-90% of individuals it is idiopathic. Other causes include CNS anomalies and tumours, increased exposure to sex hormones/steroids, pituitary gonadotrophin secreting tumours and ovarian tumours etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      154.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, decreased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Correct

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except:

      Your Answer: Congenital anomalies of the baby

      Explanation:

      Literature review shows that bicornuate uterus is associated with increase risk of spontaneous abortion in about 36% of patients. There is also an increased risk of preterm birth, malpresentation and fetal growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except?

      Your Answer: The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant

      Explanation:

      Girls with Turner’s syndrome (45,X) are not at risk for malignancy. Patients with feminizing testicular syndrome with XY chromosome composition and patients with mixed gonadal dysgenesis are at risk for malignancy, and bilateral gonadectomy is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      185.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: They have no uterus

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Normal physiological gut herniation occurs at how many weeks gestation? ...

    Correct

    • Normal physiological gut herniation occurs at how many weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      At about 8-12 weeks gestation, normal physiological herniation of the fetal bowel occurs. The midgut protrudes into the base of the umbilicus, and undergoes a 90-degree anticlockwise rotation. When the abdominal cavity enlarges enough to fit the developing midgut, the intestines undergo another 180-degree rotation before returning to the abdominal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon? ...

    Correct

    • What is the innervation to the sigmoid colon?

      Your Answer: T12/L1

      Explanation:

      Sigmoid colon is part of the hindgut and the hindgut is innervated by the T12-L1 segment of the spinal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Branches V2 and V3 of the trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?...

    Correct

    • Branches V2 and V3 of the trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal nerve has three divisions, the first is the ophthalmic division that does not originate from any of the pharyngeal arches, the second and third divisions, namely, the maxillary and the mandibular region develop from the first pharyngeal arch.
      Pharyngeal Arches:
      1st = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V)
      2nd = Facial (CN VII)
      3rd = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
      4th and 6th = Vagus (CN X)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis?

      Your Answer: Oestradiol

      Correct Answer: Pituitary gonadotropins

      Explanation:

      There is marked elevation of FSH and LH in ovarian dysgenesis, produced by the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except:

      Your Answer: The ovaries are usually well developed

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have malfunctioning or streak ovaries due to which they can never conceive. It affects females, who will have a short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck and karyotyping shows 45XO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Correct

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The maxillary arteries and the external carotid arteries develop from the first pharyngeal arch. The stapedial arteries arise from the second, the common carotid artery and the internal carotid arteries from the third and the arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery from the forth arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo? ...

    Correct

    • Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The arches are numbered according to their proximity to the head i.e. the 1st is the closest to the head end of the embryo and the 6th closest to the tail end as shown by the diagram below the table

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts

      Explanation:

      A Bicornuate uterus (heart shaped) is the result of abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts during embryogenesis. Mullerian agenesis typically results in failure to form a uterus. Mullerian duct fusion abnormalities can cause a bicornuate malformation. PKD-1 gene abnormalities are associated with PCOS. Crossed fused ectopia result in Horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external genitalia?

      Your Answer: The genital fold forms the scrotum in males

      Explanation:

      Genital folds lead to the formation of the scrotum in males while in females they form the posterior labial commissure. Genital tubercles form the labia majora whereas the tubercle itself becomes the mons pubis. The labia minora is formed by the urogenital folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?

      Your Answer: 3 days

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the...

    Correct

    • In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      The Corpus Luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes two steroid hormones: 1. Progesterone (17a Hydroxyprogesterone) and 2. Oestradiol. The corpus luteum also secretes Inhibin A. In the menstrual cycle if fertilisation doesn’t occur the corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone and degenerates into a corpus albicans. If fertilisation occurs hCG signals the corpus to continue progesterone production and it is then termed the corpus luteum graviditatis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      15
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (35/50) 70%
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