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  • Question 1 - Which virus is associated with the development of cervical cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which virus is associated with the development of cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Human herpes virus 2

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the hormone responsible for controlling blood sodium levels? ...

    Correct

    • What is the hormone responsible for controlling blood sodium levels?

      Your Answer: Antidiuretic hormone

      Explanation:

      The Role of Antidiuretic Hormone in Regulating Blood Sodium Levels

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a polypeptide hormone produced in the hypothalamus and released into the circulation by the posterior pituitary. Its main function is to promote the reabsorption of water from the kidney, preventing its loss in the urine. This, in turn, has a secondary effect on blood sodium levels.

      ADH works by stimulating the production of a water channel called aquaporin, which is inserted into the cell membrane of cells lining the collecting duct of the kidney. This allows water molecules to move from the collecting duct lumen into the cells, from where they can move back to the interstitial fluid and the bloodstream. As a result, less water is lost in the urine, and blood sodium levels are regulated.

      In summary, ADH plays a crucial role in regulating blood sodium levels by conserving water and preventing its loss in the urine. Its action on aquaporin production allows for the reabsorption of water from the kidney, which has a secondary effect on blood sodium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What role does vitamin K play in the body? ...

    Correct

    • What role does vitamin K play in the body?

      Your Answer: Activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X

      Explanation:

      The Roles of Vitamin K in the Body

      Vitamin K plays several important roles in the body. One of its main functions is to modify clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X through a process called carboxylation. This modification allows calcium to bind to the factors, which is necessary for them to participate in the clotting pathway. This principle is used in full blood counts to prevent clotting by adding EDTA, which chelates the calcium. Vitamin K also modifies osteocalcin and matrix proteins in bone, as well as nephrocalcin in the kidney, in a similar way.

      In addition to its role in blood clotting and bone health, vitamin K is also important for nervous tissue development and growth. However, vitamin K antagonists such as warfarin are sometimes used as anticoagulants to prevent blood clots. It is important to follow guidelines and instructions carefully when using these medications. Overall, vitamin K plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of various systems in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a several-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a several-hour history of excruciating pain in the left knee. Her medical history is significant for hypertension and a previous episode of gout. She takes amlodipine.

      On examination, she is in severe pain and the left knee is swollen, red, warm and tender. Arthroscopic evaluation of the synovial fluid aspirate showed monosodium crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarized light. A diagnosis of recurrent gout is made and ultimately the patient is commenced on prophylaxis using allopurinol.

      What is the mechanism of action of allopurinol?

      Your Answer: Oxidises urate

      Correct Answer: Inhibits xanthine oxidase

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol is a medication that inhibits xanthine oxidase, which is used for gout prophylaxis. By blocking the conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine to uric acid, it reduces the levels of uric acid in the blood. The other options, such as inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase, ribonucleotide reductase, and thymidylate synthase, are not related to gout prophylaxis. Rasburicase, which oxidizes urate to allantoin, is also used for gout prophylaxis, but it works differently than allopurinol.

      Allopurinol can interact with other medications such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. It can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine when used with azathioprine, reduced renal clearance when used with cyclophosphamide, and an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline. Patients at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of claudication. It is decided to assess...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of claudication. It is decided to assess his ankle brachial pressure index. Using a handheld doppler device, the signal from the dorsalis pedis artery is detected. Which vessel does this artery continue from?

      Your Answer: Popliteal artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior tibial artery

      Explanation:

      The anterior tibial artery continues as the dorsalis pedis.

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia undergoes his yearly physical examination. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia undergoes his yearly physical examination. He is currently taking risperidone as part of his medication regimen.

      What is the most common issue that can be linked to the use of risperidone in this patient?

      Your Answer: Galactorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, has the potential to increase prolactin levels. This is because it inhibits dopamine, which reduces dopamine-mediated inhibition of prolactin. Although elevated prolactin may not cause any symptoms, it can have adverse effects if persistently elevated. One of the major roles of prolactin is to stimulate milk production in the mammary glands. Therefore, any cause of raised prolactin can result in milk production, which is known as galactorrhoea. This can occur in both males and females due to raised prolactin levels. Galactorrhoea is the most likely side effect caused by risperidone.

      Raised prolactin levels can also lead to reduced libido and infertility in both sexes. However, it is unlikely to result in increased libido. Prolactin can interfere with other hormones, such as oestrogen and progesterone, which can cause irregular periods, but it does not specifically cause painful periods. Elevated levels of prolactin would not result in seizures. Risperidone is more likely to be associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, as it acts on the histamine receptor.

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A toddler is brought to the hospital at 18 months of age with...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to the hospital at 18 months of age with symptoms of increased work of breathing and difficulty while feeding. On examination, a continuous 'machinery' murmur is heard and is loudest at the left sternal edge. The cardiologist prescribes a dose of indomethacin. What is the mechanism of action of indomethacin?

      The baby was born prematurely at 36 weeks via an emergency cesarean section. Despite the early delivery, the baby appeared healthy and was given a dose of Vitamin K soon after birth. The mother lived in a cottage up in the mountains and was discharged the next day with her happy, healthy baby. However, six weeks later, the baby was brought back to the hospital with concerning symptoms.

      Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin synthase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Indomethacin is a medication that hinders the production of prostaglandins in infants with patent ductus arteriosus by inhibiting the activity of COX enzymes. On the other hand, bosentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist, is utilized to treat pulmonary hypertension by blocking the vasoconstricting effect of endothelin, leading to vasodilation. Although endothelin causes vasoconstriction by acting on endothelin receptors, it is not employed in managing PDA. Adenosine receptor antagonists like theophylline and caffeine are also not utilized in PDA management.

      Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.

      This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.

      The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A neonate was discovered to have an empty right scrotal sac during a...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate was discovered to have an empty right scrotal sac during a routine medical examination. The left testis is palpable in the scrotal sac, but an oval-shaped soft mass was discovered elsewhere. Further investigation and an ultrasound scan suggest the possibility of an ectopic testis.

      What is the most frequent location for this suspected condition in infants?

      Your Answer: Perineum

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal pouch

      Explanation:

      Ectopic testis is most commonly found in the superficial inguinal pouch, followed by the perineum, femoral triangle, and contralateral scrotum.

      Common Testicular Disorders in Paediatric Urology

      Testicular disorders are frequently encountered in paediatric urological practice. One of the most common conditions is cryptorchidism, which refers to the failure of the testicle to descend from the abdominal cavity into the scrotum. It is important to differentiate between a undescended testis and a retractile testis. Ectopic testes are those that lie outside the normal path of embryological descent. Undescended testes occur in approximately 1% of male infants and should be placed in the scrotum after one year of age. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be used to locate intra-abdominal testes, but laparoscopy is often necessary in this age group. Testicular torsion is another common condition that presents with sudden onset of severe scrotal pain. Surgical exploration is the management of choice, and delay beyond six hours is associated with low salvage rates. Hydroceles, which are fluid-filled sacs in the scrotum or spermatic cord, may be treated with surgical ligation of the patent processus vaginalis or scrotal exploration in older children with cystic hydroceles.

      Overall, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of testicular disorders are crucial in paediatric urology to prevent long-term complications and ensure optimal outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old man needs long term parenteral nutrition and a PICC line is...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man needs long term parenteral nutrition and a PICC line is chosen for long term venous access. The insertion site is the elbow region of the basilic vein. During catheter advancement, which venous structure is the catheter tip most likely to pass into from the basilic vein?

      Your Answer: Subclavian vein

      Correct Answer: Axillary vein

      Explanation:

      The most common site for a PICC line to end up in is the axillary vein, which is where the basilic vein drains into. While PICC lines can be placed in various locations, the posterior circumflex humeral vein is typically encountered before the axillary vein. However, due to its angle of entry into the basilic vein, it is unlikely for a PICC line to enter this structure.

      The Basilic Vein: A Major Pathway of Venous Drainage for the Arm and Hand

      The basilic vein is one of the two main pathways of venous drainage for the arm and hand, alongside the cephalic vein. It begins on the medial side of the dorsal venous network of the hand and travels up the forearm and arm. Most of its course is superficial, but it passes deep under the muscles midway up the humerus. Near the region anterior to the cubital fossa, the basilic vein joins the cephalic vein.

      At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into the basilic vein. It is often joined by the medial brachial vein before draining into the axillary vein. The basilic vein is continuous with the palmar venous arch distally and the axillary vein proximally. Understanding the path and function of the basilic vein is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating conditions related to venous drainage in the arm and hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old male is seen in an outpatient neurology clinic after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male is seen in an outpatient neurology clinic after experiencing a stroke 3 weeks ago. He reports sudden, uncontrollable flailing movements in his right arm and leg. The movements are strong and involuntary, originating from the proximal sections of his limbs.

      What area of the brain is likely to be impacted in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra of the basal ganglia

      Correct Answer: Subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      Hemiballism is a rare hyperkinetic movement disorder that can be caused by a lesion to the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia. This patient is exhibiting symptoms of hemiballism, including intense, flailing movements of the limbs that originate in the proximal area of the limb. It is important to distinguish hemiballism from chorea, which originates in the distal area of the limb.

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is associated with a lesion to the amygdala and presents with symptoms such as hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia.

      Gait ataxia, characterized by an unsteady and uncoordinated gait, is associated with midline cerebellar lesions. However, this would not account for the hyperkinetic movements seen in this patient.

      A stroke affecting the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia can cause Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by bradykinesia, resting tremor, and shuffling gait.

      A lesion to the temporal lobe can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, which is characterized by disorderly but fluent speech due to damage to Broca’s area.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      25
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Principles (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Basic Sciences (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (0/2) 0%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (0/1) 0%
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