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Question 1
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of fever, fatigue, and loss of appetite for the past 3 weeks. During the examination, you observe a pansystolic murmur that was not detected during a pre-operative assessment for a cholecystectomy 4 months ago. You start considering the likelihood of infective endocarditis. Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with infective endocarditis?
Your Answer: Janeway lesions
Explanation:Infective endocarditis is a condition that can be identified by certain signs, although none of them are definitive proof of the disease. The most reliable indicators are the presence of a heart murmur and a fever. However, there are other signs that are commonly associated with infective endocarditis, including splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, and Roth spots. It is important to note that these signs can also appear in other conditions, and they are not always present in patients with infective endocarditis. In fact, each of these signs is typically found in less than a third of patients diagnosed with the disease.
Further Reading:
Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.
The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.
Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.
The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.
In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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You review a 72-year-old woman who is on the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a fall. Her son is present, and he is concerned about recent problems she has had with memory loss. He is very worried that she may be showing signs of developing dementia. You perform a mini-mental state examination (MMSE).
Which of the following scores is indicative of mild dementia?Your Answer: 23
Explanation:The mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is a tool consisting of 11 questions that is utilized to evaluate cognitive function. With a maximum score of 30, a score below 24 generally indicates impaired cognitive function. This assessment can be employed to categorize the severity of cognitive impairment in dementia. Mild dementia is typically associated with an MMSE score ranging from 20 to 24, while moderate dementia falls within the MMSE score range of 13 to 20. Severe dementia is characterized by an MMSE score below 12. For more information on testing and assessment for dementia, you can visit the Alzheimer’s Association website. Additionally, the RCEM syllabus references EIP9 for memory loss and EIC4 for dementia and cognitive impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 3
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman originally from South Sudan has developed a chronic skin condition. She has widespread areas of both hyper- and hypopigmented skin along with areas of skin atrophy and lichenification. The hypopigmented areas are mostly confined to her forearms. Over the past few years, her vision has gradually deteriorated, and she has now been registered blind.
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Onchocerca volvulus
Explanation:Onchocerciasis is a parasitic disease caused by the filarial nematode Onchocerca volvulus. It is transmitted through the bites of infected blackflies of Simulium species, which carry immature larval forms of the parasite from human to human.
In the human body, the larvae form nodules in the subcutaneous tissue, where they mature to adult worms. After mating, the female adult worm can release up to 1000 microfilariae a day.
Onchocerciasis is currently endemic in 30 African countries, Yemen, and a few isolated regions of South America. Approximately 37 million people worldwide are currently infected.
Symptoms start to occur around a year after the patient is infected. The earliest symptom is usually an intensely itchy rash. Various skin manifestations occur, including scattered, red, pruritic papules (acute papular onchodermatitis), larger, chronic, hyperpigmented papules (chronic papular onchodermatitis), lichenified, oedematous, hyperpigmented papules and plaques (lichenified onchodermatitis), areas of skin atrophy with loss of elasticity (‘Lizard skin’), and depigmented areas with a ‘leopard skin appearance, usually on shins.
Ocular involvement provides the common name associated with onchocerciasis, river blindness, and it can involve any part of the eye. Almost a million people worldwide have at least a partial degree of vision loss caused by onchocerciasis. Initially, there may be intense watering, foreign body sensation, and photophobia. This can progress to conjunctivitis, iridocyclitis, and chorioretinitis. Secondary glaucoma and optic atrophy may also occur.
In a number of countries, onchocerciasis has been controlled through spraying of blackfly breeding sites with insecticide. The drug ivermectin is the preferred treatment for onchocerciasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. Despite taking the maximum dosage of paracetamol, codeine phosphate, and ibuprofen regularly, his symptoms are no longer being adequately managed. You determine that it is necessary to discontinue the use of codeine phosphate and initiate stronger opioids.
What would be the most suitable initial dosage regimen in this situation?Your Answer: 20-30 mg oral morphine daily in divided doses
Explanation:When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.
For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.
When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.
In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.
For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman from a retirement community experiences a sudden collapse. Her blood sugar level is measured and found to be 2.2. She has a medical history of diabetes mellitus.
Which ONE medication is most likely to have caused her episode of hypoglycemia?Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Of all the medications mentioned in this question, only pioglitazone is known to be a potential cause of hypoglycemia. Glucagon, on the other hand, is specifically used as a treatment for hypoglycemia. The remaining medications mentioned are antidiabetic drugs that do not typically lead to hypoglycemia when used alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe headache that has been ongoing for the past 3 hours. She describes it as the 'most intense headache she has ever experienced'. She also complains of sensitivity to light and stiffness in her neck. There is no history of any head injury. Initially, she was treated conservatively and her symptoms improved. However, on the third day, she had a seizure and lost the ability to move her left arm. Physical examination reveals weakness in the left arm but normal sensation. A CT scan of her head shows a localized area of decreased density in the right frontal lobe, with a loss of distinction between grey and white matter and surrounding swelling.
What is the most likely cause of her current condition?Your Answer: Cerebral vasospasm
Explanation:Intracranial hemorrhages can be categorized based on their location into epidural, subdural, subarachnoid, or intracerebral hemorrhages. The patient in this case is experiencing a severe headache accompanied by signs of meningismus, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage. Additionally, there is no history of trauma, and most cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage are caused by the rupture of a berry aneurysm located in the circle of Willis. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for the rupture of an aneurysm.
During the patient’s hospital stay, they develop an ischemic stroke, which is confirmed by a CT scan. This is most likely a result of cerebral vasospasm secondary to the subarachnoid hemorrhage. To prevent this complication, patients are often treated with the cerebral selective calcium channel blocker Nimodipine.
Another potential complication of this condition is rebleeding, with the highest risk occurring in the first few days. Rebleeding can be potentially fatal, so it is crucial to repair the aneurysm as soon as possible. The presence of blood in the subarachnoid space can also disrupt the production and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, leading to hydrocephalus.
Long-term complications of subarachnoid hemorrhage include epilepsy, with most patients experiencing their first seizure within a year after the hemorrhage. However, the risk of epilepsy decreases over time. Cognitive dysfunction is also a common long-term complication and can manifest as memory loss, difficulty concentrating, or challenges in performing regular tasks. Emotional problems, such as depression and anxiety, are frequently observed as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes in with a slight vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal discomfort. Her pregnancy test shows positive results. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa and right-sided adnexa. Additionally, she exhibits cervical motion tenderness.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Bleeding in a confirmed early pregnancy, along with adnexal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness, is indicative of an ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise. The amount of bleeding caused by an ectopic pregnancy can range from no bleeding or slight spotting to a level similar to a normal menstrual period. It is important to note that 90% of patients with an ectopic pregnancy experience abdominal pain. Other clinical features that may be present include shoulder tip pain, which is caused by irritation of the diaphragm, as well as adnexal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness, rebound tenderness, guarding, and adnexal masses in some cases. Additionally, hypotension and shock may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 52-year-old man presents with a swollen and painful right big toe. He has a history of gout and states that this pain is similar to previous flare-ups. He has been taking allopurinol 200 mg daily for the past year and this is his second episode of acute gout during that time. He has no significant medical history and is not on any other medications. He has no known allergies.
What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing his condition?Your Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence naproxen
Explanation:Allopurinol should not be started during an acute gout attack as it can make the attack last longer and even trigger another one. However, if a patient is already taking allopurinol, they should continue taking it and treat the acute attack with NSAIDs or colchicine as usual.
The first choice for treating acute gout attacks is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen. Colchicine can be used if NSAIDs are not suitable, for example, in patients with high blood pressure or a history of peptic ulcer disease. In this case, the patient has no reason to avoid NSAIDs, so naproxen would still be the preferred option.
Once the acute attack has subsided, it would be reasonable to gradually increase the dose of allopurinol, aiming for urate levels in the blood of less than 6 mg/dl (<360 µmol/l). Febuxostat (Uloric) is an alternative to allopurinol that can be used for long-term management of gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and difficulty speaking. The child is drooling and has been intubated by a senior anesthesiologist and ENT surgeon. After examination, the diagnosis is determined to be acute epiglottitis.
What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this condition?Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B
Correct Answer: Streptococcus spp.
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.
In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.
The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.
To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.
When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with a prolonged history of nocturia and dribbling at the end of urination comes in with a fever, chills, and muscle soreness. He is experiencing discomfort in his perineal region and has recently developed painful urination, frequent urination, and a strong urge to urinate. During a rectal examination, his prostate is extremely tender.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis
Explanation:Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.
The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42 year old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after confessing to taking a significant overdose of amitriptyline following a recent breakup. The patient later experiences a seizure. Which of the following anticonvulsant medications should not be used in TCA overdose?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Patients who have taken an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should not be given phenytoin.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 12
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents having experienced a minor fall while shopping with her husband. He has observed that she has been forgetful for quite some time and that her condition has been gradually deteriorating over the past few years. She frequently forgets the names of people and places and struggles to find words for things. Lately, she has also been experiencing increased confusion. She has no significant medical history of note.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is the leading cause of dementia, accounting for approximately half of all cases. It involves the gradual degeneration of the cerebral cortex, resulting in cortical atrophy, the formation of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques, and a decrease in acetylcholine production from affected neurons. The exact cause of this disease is still not fully understood.
The onset of Alzheimer’s disease is typically slow and subtle, progressing over a span of 7 to 10 years. The symptoms experienced by individuals vary depending on the stage of the disease. In the early stages, family and friends may notice that the patient becomes forgetful, experiencing lapses in memory. They may struggle to recall the names of people and places, as well as have difficulty finding the right words for objects. Recent events and appointments are easily forgotten. As the disease advances, language skills deteriorate, and problems with planning and decision-making arise. The patient may also exhibit apraxia and become more noticeably confused.
In the later stages of Alzheimer’s disease, symptoms become more severe. The patient may wander aimlessly, become disoriented, and display apathy. Psychiatric symptoms, such as depression, are common during this stage. Hallucinations and delusions may also occur. Behavioral issues, including disinhibition, aggression, and agitation, can be distressing for the patient’s family.
Considering the absence of a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, vascular dementia is less likely. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia typically has a more sudden onset and exhibits stepwise increases in symptom severity.
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder closely associated with Parkinson’s disease. It can be distinguished from Alzheimer’s disease by the presence of mild Parkinsonism features, fluctuations in cognition and attention, episodes of transient loss of consciousness, and early occurrence of visual hallucinations and complex delusions.
Frontotemporal dementia is a progressive form of dementia that primarily affects the frontal and/or temporal lobes. It typically occurs at a younger age than Alzheimer’s disease, usually between 40 and 60 years old. Personality changes often precede memory loss in this condition.
Pseudodementia, also known as depression-related cognitive dysfunction, is a condition characterized by a temporary decline in cognitive function alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. While depression is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 13
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. She is typically healthy but has been experiencing abdominal pain for the past two days. She has vomited once, but there have been no loose stools. Her temperature has been elevated throughout the day. She has been producing urine with a strong odor. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender. Bowel sounds are normal. Urine dipstick reveals the presence of leukocytes and is positive for nitrites.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Explanation:This presentation strongly indicates the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI). According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), certain clinical features are indicative of a UTI in children of this age group. These features include vomiting, poor feeding, lethargy, irritability, abdominal pain or tenderness, and urinary frequency or dysuria. For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of feverish illness in children under the age of 5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following organizations is classified as a Category 2 entity according to the Civil Contingencies Act 2004 in the UK?
Your Answer: NHS bodies
Correct Answer: The Health and Safety Executive
Explanation:The Civil Contingencies Act 2004 establishes a framework for civil protection in the United Kingdom. This legislation categorizes local responders to major incidents into two groups, each with their own set of responsibilities.
Category 1 responders consist of organizations that play a central role in responding to most emergencies, such as the emergency services, local authorities, and NHS bodies. These Category 1 responders are obligated to fulfill a comprehensive range of civil protection duties. These duties include assessing the likelihood of emergencies occurring and using this information to inform contingency planning. They must also develop emergency plans, establish business continuity management arrangements, and ensure that information regarding civil protection matters is readily available to the public. Additionally, Category 1 responders are responsible for maintaining systems to warn, inform, and advise the public in the event of an emergency. They are expected to share information with other local responders to enhance coordination and efficiency. Furthermore, local authorities within this category are required to provide guidance and support to businesses and voluntary organizations regarding business continuity management.
On the other hand, Category 2 organizations, such as the Health and Safety Executive, transport companies, and utility companies, are considered co-operating bodies. While they may not be directly involved in the core planning work, they play a crucial role in incidents that impact their respective sectors. Category 2 responders have a more limited set of duties, primarily focused on cooperating and sharing relevant information with both Category 1 and Category 2 responders.
For more information on this topic, please refer to the Civil Contingencies Act 2004.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 15
Correct
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A 2-month-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting. She is vomiting approximately every 45 minutes after each feed but remains hungry. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and you can palpate a small mass in the upper abdomen.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the smooth muscle in the antrum of the stomach, leading to the narrowing of the pyloric canal. This narrowing can easily cause obstruction. It is a relatively common condition, occurring in about 1 in 500 live births, and is more frequently seen in males than females, with a ratio of 4 to 1. It is most commonly observed in first-born male children, although it can rarely occur in adults as well.
The main symptom of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is vomiting, which typically begins between 2 to 8 weeks of age. The vomit is usually non-bilious and forcefully expelled. It tends to occur around 30 to 60 minutes after feeding, leaving the baby hungry despite the vomiting. In some cases, there may be blood in the vomit. Other clinical features include persistent hunger, dehydration, weight loss, and constipation. An enlarged pylorus, often described as olive-shaped, can be felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastric in approximately 95% of cases. This is most noticeable at the beginning of a feed.
The typical acid-base disturbance seen in this condition is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit, as well as decreased secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. The increased bicarbonate ions in the distal tubule of the kidney lead to the production of alkaline urine. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also commonly present.
Ultrasound scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, as it is reliable and easy to perform. It has replaced barium studies as the investigation of choice.
Initial management involves fluid resuscitation, which should be tailored to the weight and degree of dehydration. Any electrolyte imbalances should also be corrected.
The definitive treatment for this condition is surgical intervention, with the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy being the procedure of choice. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy is also an effective alternative if suitable facilities are available. The prognosis for infants with this condition is excellent, as long as there is no delay in diagnosis and treatment initiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 16
Correct
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A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few of his father's ibuprofen tablets 30 minutes ago. The child is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends giving a dose of activated charcoal.
What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer?Your Answer: 1 g/kg
Explanation:Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.
Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.
The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 17
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her family due to her recent history of strange behavior. She is unable to recall events from a few years ago and also has difficulty answering questions about what has happened over the past few days. She attributes her poor memory to a recent car accident she was involved in. Her family reports that she drinks excessively. She also provides peculiar explanations to some other inquiries but remains friendly and polite during the consultation.
Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer: Korsakoff syndrome
Explanation:Korsakoff syndrome is a form of dementia that occurs due to a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1) in the body. This condition is most commonly observed in individuals who have a long history of alcoholism. The main features of Korsakoff syndrome include anterograde amnesia, patchy retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Additionally, many patients also experience difficulties with language (aphasia), movement (apraxia), recognition (agnosia), or executive functioning. It is important to note that Korsakoff syndrome often coexists with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms including ophthalmoplegia, altered mental state, and gait disturbance (ataxia). When both conditions are present, it is referred to as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate an older adult patient who has been transported to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a fall overnight. What proportion of falls in the elderly population lead to significant lacerations, traumatic brain injuries, or fractures?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:According to NICE 2019, a significant number of falls in older individuals lead to severe injuries such as major lacerations, traumatic brain injuries, or fractures. Therefore, it is crucial for emergency department clinicians to approach patients over the age of 65 who come in with falls with a heightened level of suspicion.
Further Reading:
Falls are a common occurrence in the elderly population, with a significant number of individuals over the age of 65 experiencing at least one fall per year. These falls are often the result of various risk factors, including impaired balance, muscle weakness, visual impairment, cognitive impairment, depression, alcohol misuse, polypharmacy, and environmental hazards. The more risk factors a person has, the higher their risk of falling.
Falls can have serious complications, particularly in older individuals. They are a leading cause of injury, injury-related disability, and death in this population. Approximately 50% of falls in the elderly result in major lacerations, traumatic brain injuries, or fractures. About 5% of falls in older people living in the community lead to hospitalization or fractures. Hip fractures, in particular, are commonly caused by falls and have a high mortality rate within one year.
Complications of falls include fractures, soft tissue injuries, fragility fractures, distress, pain, loss of self-confidence, reduced quality of life, loss of independence, fear of falls and activity avoidance, social isolation, increasing frailty, functional decline, depression, and institutionalization. Additionally, individuals who remain on the floor for more than one hour after a fall are at risk of dehydration, pressure sores, pneumonia, hypothermia, and rhabdomyolysis.
Assessing falls requires a comprehensive history, including the course of events leading up to the fall, any pre-fall symptoms, and details about the fall itself. A thorough examination is also necessary, including an assessment of injuries, neurological and cardiovascular function, tests for underlying causes, vision assessment, and medication review. Home hazard assessments and frailty assessments are also important components of the assessment process.
Determining the frailty of older patients is crucial in deciding if they can be safely discharged and what level of care they require. The clinical Frailty Scale (CFS or Rockwood score) is commonly used for this purpose. It helps healthcare professionals evaluate the overall frailty of a patient and make appropriate care decisions.
In summary, falls are a significant concern in the elderly population, with multiple risk factors contributing to their occurrence. These falls can lead to serious complications and have a negative impact on an individual’s quality of life. Assessing falls requires a comprehensive approach, including a thorough history, examination, and consideration of frailty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 82 year old who has been admitted to the emergency department due to high fever and worsening disorientation in the past few days. During chest examination, you observe left basal crackles. A chest X-ray confirms the presence of pneumonia. Your diagnosis is pneumonia with suspected sepsis. What is the mortality rate linked to sepsis?
Your Answer: 65%-70%
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:The mortality rate linked to sepsis can vary depending on various factors such as the patient’s age, overall health, and the severity of the infection. However, on average, the mortality rate for sepsis is estimated to be around 30%.
Further Reading:
There are multiple definitions of sepsis, leading to confusion among healthcare professionals. The Sepsis 3 definition describes sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. The Sepsis 2 definition includes infection plus two or more SIRS criteria. The NICE definition states that sepsis is a clinical syndrome triggered by the presence of infection in the blood, activating the body’s immune and coagulation systems. The Sepsis Trust defines sepsis as a dysregulated host response to infection mediated by the immune system, resulting in organ dysfunction, shock, and potentially death.
The confusion surrounding sepsis terminology is further compounded by the different versions of sepsis definitions, known as Sepsis 1, Sepsis 2, and Sepsis 3. The UK organizations RCEM and NICE have not fully adopted the changes introduced in Sepsis 3, causing additional confusion. While Sepsis 3 introduces the use of SOFA scores and abandons SIRS criteria, NICE and the Sepsis Trust have rejected the use of SOFA scores and continue to rely on SIRS criteria. This discrepancy creates challenges for emergency department doctors in both exams and daily clinical practice.
To provide some clarity, RCEM now recommends referring to national standards organizations such as NICE, SIGN, BTS, or others relevant to the area. The Sepsis Trust, in collaboration with RCEM and NICE, has published a toolkit that serves as a definitive reference point for sepsis management based on the sepsis 3 update.
There is a consensus internationally that the terms SIRS and severe sepsis are outdated and should be abandoned. Instead, the terms sepsis and septic shock should be used. NICE defines septic shock as a life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure. Sepsis 3 defines septic shock as persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or more, along with a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation.
NICE encourages clinicians to adopt an approach of considering sepsis in all patients, rather than relying solely on strict definitions. Early warning or flag systems can help identify patients with possible sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of palpitations. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe a faint second heart sound (S2).
What is the most probable cause of this finding?Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Explanation:The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.
A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).
On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).
A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.
Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a known notifiable illness.
Which of the following is the LEAST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Leptospirosis
Explanation:Public Health England (PHE) has a primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is important, it is not the main focus. Since 1968, the clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient for reporting purposes.
Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to notify the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) when they suspect cases of certain infectious diseases.
The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 specify the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
It is worth noting that leptospirosis is not considered a notifiable disease, making it the least likely option among the diseases listed above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Correct
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You are overseeing the care of a 68-year-old man who has presented to the ER after experiencing a sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, the patient's heart rate is found to be 44 beats per minute, indicating bradycardia. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing asystole?
Your Answer: Mobitz II AV block
Explanation:Having Mobitz II AV block increases the risk of developing asystole. Other risk factors for asystole include recent asystole, third degree AV block (complete heart block) with a broad QRS complex, and a ventricular pause lasting longer than 3 seconds.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Correct
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You are requested to deliver a teaching session on delirium for the incoming medical interns rotating to the emergency department. What is a commonly acknowledged characteristic of delirium?
Your Answer: Lucid intervals usually occur during the day
Explanation:Delirium is characterized by fluctuating symptoms of disturbed consciousness that typically develop over hours to days. During the day, lucid intervals may occur, while the worst disturbances are often experienced at night. In contrast, dementia has a gradual onset and does not involve fluctuations in mental state. Stroke, on the other hand, is associated with focal neurological deficits.
Further Reading:
Delirium is an acute syndrome that causes disturbances in consciousness, attention, cognition, and perception. It is also known as an acute confusional state. The DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing delirium include recent onset of fluctuating awareness, impairment of memory and attention, and disorganized thinking. Delirium typically develops over hours to days and may be accompanied by behavioral changes, personality changes, and psychotic features. It often occurs in individuals with predisposing factors, such as advanced age or multiple comorbidities, when exposed to new precipitating factors, such as medications or infection. Symptoms of delirium fluctuate throughout the day, with lucid intervals occurring during the day and worse disturbances at night. Falling and loss of appetite are often warning signs of delirium.
Delirium can be classified into three subtypes based on the person’s symptoms. Hyperactive delirium is characterized by inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, and agitation. Restlessness and wandering are common in this subtype. Hypoactive delirium is characterized by lethargy, reduced concentration, and appetite. The person may appear quiet or withdrawn. Mixed delirium presents with signs and symptoms of both hyperactive and hypoactive subtypes.
The exact pathophysiology of delirium is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve multiple mechanisms, including cholinergic deficiency, dopaminergic excess, and inflammation. The cause of delirium is usually multifactorial, with predisposing factors and precipitating factors playing a role. Predisposing factors include older age, cognitive impairment, frailty, significant injuries, and iatrogenic events. Precipitating factors include infection, metabolic or electrolyte disturbances, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, urological disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, severe uncontrolled pain, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, medication use, and psychosocial factors.
Delirium is highly prevalent in hospital settings, affecting up to 50% of inpatients aged over 65 and occurring in 30% of people aged over 65 presenting to the emergency department. Complications of delirium include increased risk of death, high in-hospital mortality rates, higher mortality rates following hospital discharge, increased length of stay in hospital, nosocomial infections, increased risk of admission to long-term care or re-admission to hospital, increased incidence of dementia, increased risk of falls and associated injuries, pressure sores.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and persistent back pain a few days after spinal surgery. She has a temperature of 38.4°C and is highly sensitive over the area where the surgery was performed. On examination, she has weakness of left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Discitis
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.
A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45 year old is brought into the emergency department after sustaining a head injury after falling from a staircase. The patient opens his eyes to voice and localises to pain. The patient's speech is slurred and he appears disoriented. What is this patient's Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?
Your Answer: 12
Explanation:In this case, the patient opens his eyes to voice, which corresponds to a score of 3 on the eye opening component. The patient localizes to pain, indicating a purposeful motor response, which corresponds to a score of 5 on the motor response component. However, the patient’s speech is slurred and he appears disoriented, suggesting an impaired verbal response. This would correspond to a score of 4 on the verbal response component.
To calculate the GCS, we sum up the scores from each component. In this case, the patient’s GCS would be 3 + 4 + 5 = 12
Further Reading:
Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
– GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
– GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Post-traumatic seizure
– New focal neurological deficit
– > 1 episode of vomitingIndications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
– Suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
– Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
– At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– New focal neurological deficit
– For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with acute severe asthma. You initiate management for the patient, guided by the most recent BTS guidelines.
According to the BTS guidelines, which of the following is NOT a suitable treatment?Your Answer: 1 hourly ipratropium bromide nebulisers
Explanation:The BTS guidelines for managing acute asthma in adults provide the following recommendations:
Oxygen:
– It is important to give supplementary oxygen to all patients with acute severe asthma who have low levels of oxygen in their blood (hypoxemia). The goal is to maintain a blood oxygen saturation level (SpO2) between 94-98%. Even if pulse oximetry is not available, oxygen should still be administered.β2 agonists therapy:
– High-dose inhaled β2 agonists should be used as the first-line treatment for patients with acute asthma. It is important to administer these medications as early as possible.
– Intravenous β2 agonists should be reserved for patients who cannot reliably use inhaled therapy.
– For patients with life-threatening asthma symptoms, nebulized β2 agonists driven by oxygen are recommended.
– In cases of severe asthma that does not respond well to an initial dose of β2 agonist, continuous nebulization with an appropriate nebulizer may be considered.Ipratropium bromide:
– Nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) should be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.Steroid therapy:
– Steroids should be given in adequate doses for all cases of acute asthma attacks.
– Prednisolone should be continued at a dose of 40-50 mg daily for at least five days or until the patient recovers.Other therapies:
– Nebulized magnesium is not recommended for the treatment of acute asthma in adults.
– A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulfate may be considered for patients with acute severe asthma (peak expiratory flow rate <50% of the best or predicted value) who do not respond well to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. However, this should only be done after consulting with senior medical staff.
– Routine prescription of antibiotics is not necessary for patients with acute asthma.For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45 year old with asthma is brought into the ER due to worsening shortness of breath. You collect an arterial blood gas sample for analysis. What is the typical pH range for arterial blood?
Your Answer: 7.35-7.45
Explanation:Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.
To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.
Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.
The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.
The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.
The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.
Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.
The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Correct
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A 35 year old male is brought to the emergency department with severe head and chest injuries. As his GCS continues to decline, it is determined that intubation is necessary. You begin preparing for rapid sequence induction (RSI). What is the appropriate dosage of sodium thiopentone for an adult undergoing RSI?
Your Answer: 3-5 mg/kg
Explanation:To perform rapid sequence induction in adults, it is recommended to administer a dose of sodium thiopentone ranging from 3 to 5 mg per kilogram of body weight.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 15 year old is brought into the emergency department with burns to the feet which she sustained whilst removing an item from a lit bonfire. The patient's father is worried she has full thickness burns. Which of the following signs is indicative of a full thickness burn?
Your Answer: Painless
Explanation:Full thickness burns are devoid of pain as they result in the complete destruction of the superficial nerve endings. These burns usually display characteristics such as a lack of sensation, a coloration of the burnt skin in shades of white, brown, or black, a texture that is waxy or leathery, and a dry appearance without any blistering.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are following up on a 21-year-old patient you saw who was admitted following a paracetamol overdose. Which of the following is a poor prognostic indicator and indication for liver transplant in paracetamol overdose?
Your Answer: Arterial pH < 7.30 on or after day 2 following overdose
Correct Answer:
Explanation:A pH level in the arteries that is below 7.30 on or after the second day following a paracetamol overdose is considered a poor indicator of prognosis. Additionally, a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) of over 100 seconds (indicated by an international normalized ratio (INR) of over 6.5), along with a high plasma creatinine level of over 300 μmol/L and grade 3 or 4 hepatic encephalopathy, are also poor prognostic indicators and may indicate the need for a liver transplant. Furthermore, an increase in PT between the third and fourth day after the overdose is also considered a poor prognostic indicator.
Further Reading:
Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.
Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.
The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.
In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.
The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 32 year old male attends the emergency department following a fall in which he sustained a minor head injury. You observe that the patient is a Ukrainian refugee and has recently arrived in the UK. During the assessment, you notice a significant goitre. Upon checking his thyroid function, it confirms hypothyroidism. What is the most probable reason for his hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Iodine deficiency
Explanation:Iodine deficiency is a widespread issue globally and is the leading cause of hypothyroidism worldwide. It is particularly prevalent in numerous African countries, as well as in developed nations such as Norway, Germany, Russia, and Ukraine. In the UK, however, autoimmune thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 75 year old man with a long-standing history of hypothyroidism presents to the emergency department due to worsening confusion and fatigue. On examination you note diffuse non-pitting edema and decreased deep tendon reflexes. Observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 98/66 mmHg
Pulse 42 bpm
Respiration rate 11 bpm
Temperature 34.6ºC
Bloods are sent for analysis. Which of the following laboratory abnormalities would you expect in a patient with this condition?Your Answer: Hyponatremia
Explanation:Myxoedema coma is a condition characterized by severe hypothyroidism, leading to a state of metabolic decompensation and changes in mental status. Patients with myxoedema coma often experience electrolyte disturbances such as hypoglycemia and hyponatremia. In addition, laboratory findings typically show elevated levels of TSH, as well as low levels of T4 and T3. Other expected findings include hypoxemia and hypercapnia.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of a headache, stiffness in his neck, and sensitivity to light. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 124, blood pressure 86/43, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 95%, and temperature 39.5oC. He has recently noticed a rash on his legs that does not fade when pressed.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia
Explanation:A non-blanching rash in a child should always raise suspicion of meningococcal septicaemia, especially if the child appears unwell, has purpura lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter, a capillary refill time of more than 3 seconds, or neck stiffness. In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.
In this particular case, the child is clearly very sick and showing signs of septic shock. It is crucial to administer a single dose of benzylpenicillin without delay and arrange for immediate transfer to the nearest Emergency Department via ambulance.
The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin based on age are as follows:
– Infants under 1 year of age: 300 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
– Children aged 1 to 9 years: 600 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
– Children and adults aged 10 years or older: 1.2 g of IM or IV benzylpenicillin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints of chest discomfort. The nurse has handed you the ECG report, as the ECG machine has indicated 'anterior infarction' in its comments.
Which leads would you anticipate observing ST elevation in an acute anterior STEMI?Your Answer: V3-V4
Explanation:The leads V3 and V4 represent the anterior myocardial area.
Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).
The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.
There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.
The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.
The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.
The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 67-year-old right-handed woman experiences a stroke. During examination, it is observed that she has weakness in her left arm and neglect on the left side of her body. Which blood vessel is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes ago. She is currently using tissues to catch the drips, and you have been asked to see her urgently by the triage nurse. Her observations are normal, and she has no haemodynamic compromise. The nurse has gained IV access.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate INITIAL management step for this patient?Your Answer: Sit patient up and tell her to apply direct pressure to the soft, fleshy part of her nose
Explanation:The initial step in managing a patient with uncomplicated epistaxis is to have the patient sit up and instruct them to apply direct pressure to the soft, fleshy part of their nose for a duration of 10 minutes.
If the bleeding persists after the 10-minute period, the next course of action would be to insert a gauze swab or pledget soaked with a solution of adrenaline (1:10,000) and lidocaine (4%) into the nasal cavity. This should be left in place for approximately 10-15 minutes before removal. Following the removal, an attempt can be made to cauterize any bleeding point.
If the above measures prove ineffective, it would be appropriate to consider inserting a nasal pack such as a ‘rapid rhino’ pack or alternatively using ribbon gauze soaked in an oily paste like bismuth iodoform paraffin paste. At this stage, it is advisable to refer the patient to the on-call ENT specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 37
Correct
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A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient has been feeling sick for the past day. The patient's daughter suspects she may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What antidote should be readily accessible in the emergency department for the treatment of digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer: Digoxin specific antibody fragments
Explanation:Digoxin-specific antibody fragments, known as Digibind or Digifab, are utilized for the treatment of digoxin toxicity. These antibody fragments should be readily available in all hospital pharmacies across the UK and accessible within a maximum of one hour.
Further Reading:
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.
ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 38
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of persistent hoarseness of her voice. She has also been bothered by a sore throat on and off but describes this as mild, and she has no other symptoms. On examination, she is afebrile, her chest is clear, and examination of her throat is unremarkable.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate next management step for this patient?Your Answer: Urgent referral to an ENT specialist (for an appointment within 2 weeks)
Explanation:Laryngeal cancer should be suspected in individuals who experience prolonged and unexplained hoarseness. The majority of laryngeal cancers, about 60%, occur in the glottis, and the most common symptom is dysphonia. If the cancer is detected early, the chances of a cure are excellent, with a success rate of approximately 90%.
Other clinical signs of laryngeal cancer include difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), the presence of a lump in the neck, a persistent sore throat, ear pain, and a chronic cough.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) regarding the recognition and referral of suspected cancer, individuals who are over the age of 45 and present with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck should be considered for a suspected cancer referral pathway. This pathway aims to ensure that these individuals are seen by a specialist within two weeks for further evaluation.
For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 39
Correct
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A patient is experiencing lower gastrointestinal bleeding following the administration of heparin. You choose to utilize protamine sulfate to reverse the anticoagulation.
Which ONE statement about protamine sulfate is NOT true?Your Answer: It is administered subcutaneously
Explanation:Protamine sulphate is a potent base that forms a stable salt complex with heparin, an acidic substance. This complex is inactive and is used to counteract the effects of heparin. Additionally, protamine sulphate can be used to reverse the effects of LMWHs, although it is not as effective, providing only about two-thirds of the relative effect.
Apart from its ability to neutralize heparin, protamine sulphate also possesses a weak intrinsic anticoagulant effect. This is believed to be due to its inhibition of the formation and activity of thromboplastin.
To administer protamine sulphate, it is slowly injected intravenously. The dosage should be adjusted based on the amount of heparin to be neutralized, the time elapsed since heparin administration, and the aPTT. For every 100 IU of heparin, 1 mg of protamine is required for neutralization. However, the maximum adult dose within a 10-minute period should not exceed 50 mg.
It is important to note that protamine sulphate has additional effects on the body. It acts as a depressant on the heart muscle and may lead to bradycardia and hypotension. These effects are caused by complement activation and the release of leukotrienes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Her ROSIER score is 3.
According to the current NICE guidelines, what is the maximum time frame from the start of symptoms within which thrombolysis can be administered?Your Answer: 4.5 hours
Explanation:Alteplase (rt-pA) is a recommended treatment for acute ischaemic stroke in adults if it is initiated within 4.5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms. It is crucial to exclude intracranial haemorrhage through appropriate imaging techniques before starting the treatment. The initial dose of alteplase is 0.9 mg/kg, with a maximum of 90 mg. This dose is administered intravenously over a period of 60 minutes. The first 10% of the dose is given through intravenous injection, while the remaining amount is administered through intravenous infusion. For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals aged 16 and above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 32 year old with a documented peanut allergy is currently receiving treatment for an anaphylactic reaction. What are the most likely cardiovascular manifestations that you would observe in a patient experiencing an episode of anaphylaxis?
Your Answer: Hypotension and tachycardia
Explanation:Anaphylaxis, also known as anaphylactic shock, is characterized by certain symptoms similar to other types of shock. These symptoms include low blood pressure (hypotension), rapid heart rate (tachycardia), irregular heart rhythm (arrhythmia), changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) indicating reduced blood flow to the heart (myocardial ischemia), such as ST elevation, and in severe cases, cardiac arrest.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.
In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.
Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.
The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents with a history of a persistent cough that has been present for the past four weeks. The cough occurs in quick bursts with a deep breath in followed by a series of forceful coughs. She occasionally vomits after coughing. Her mother reports that the cough is more severe at night.
During the examination, her chest sounds clear, but you observe two small subconjunctival hemorrhages and some tiny red spots on her face.
What is the MOST suitable test to perform in this case?Your Answer: PCR testing
Correct Answer: Serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels
Explanation:This presentation strongly suggests a diagnosis of whooping cough, which is an infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. The disease is highly contagious and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The incubation period is typically 7-21 days, and it is estimated that about 90% of close household contacts will become infected.
The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage, known as the catarrhal stage, is similar to a mild respiratory infection with symptoms such as low-grade fever and a runny nose. A cough may be present, but it is usually not as severe as in the second stage. This phase typically lasts about a week.
The second stage, called the paroxysmal stage, is characterized by the development of a distinctive cough. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound. These spasms are followed by a series of rapid, hacking coughs. Patients may also experience vomiting and develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Between spasms, patients generally feel well and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over this period. The later stages of this phase are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.
Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.
Public Health England (PHE) has specific recommendations for testing for whooping cough based on the age of the patient, the time since onset of illness, and the severity of the presentation.
For infants under 12 months of age, hospitalized patients should be tested using PCR testing. Non-hospitalized patients within two weeks of onset should be investigated with culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Non-hospitalized patients presenting over two weeks after onset should be tested using serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.
For children over 12 months of age and adults, patients within two weeks of onset should be tested using culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Patients aged 5 to 16 who have not received the vaccine within the last year and present over two weeks after onset should have oral fluid testing for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 65 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a fall with a suspected fracture of the hip. You gather a 20 gauge cannula for administration of IV fluids and pain relief. What would be considered the best approach for preparing the skin before cannulation?
Your Answer: Skin cleaned for 30 seconds with 30% isopropyl alcohol
Correct Answer: Skin cleaned for 30 seconds with 2% chlorhexidine gluconate in 70% alcohol
Explanation:To minimize the risk of infection and promote proper healing, the best approach for preparing the skin would be to clean it for 30 seconds with 2% chlorhexidine gluconate in 70% alcohol. This solution has been shown to effectively kill bacteria and reduce the risk of infection. Other options such as povidone-iodine, 90% isopropyl alcohol, and 30% isopropyl alcohol may also have some antimicrobial properties, but they are not as effective as chlorhexidine gluconate.
Further Reading:
Peripheral venous cannulation is a procedure that should be performed following established guidelines to minimize the risk of infection, injury, extravasation, and early failure of the cannula. It is important to maintain good hand hygiene, use personal protective equipment, ensure sharps safety, and employ an aseptic non-touch technique during the procedure.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the skin should be disinfected with a solution of 2% chlorhexidine gluconate and 70% alcohol before inserting the catheter. It is crucial to allow the disinfectant to completely dry before inserting the cannula.
The flow rates of IV cannulas can vary depending on factors such as the gauge, color, type of fluid used, presence of a bio-connector, length of the cannula, and whether the fluid is drained under gravity or pumped under pressure. However, the following are typical flow rates for different gauge sizes: 14 gauge (orange) has a flow rate of 270 ml/minute, 16 gauge (grey) has a flow rate of 180 ml/minute, 18 gauge (green) has a flow rate of 90 ml/minute, 20 gauge (pink) has a flow rate of 60 ml/minute, and 22 gauge (blue) has a flow rate of 36 ml/minute. These flow rates are based on infusing 1000 ml of normal saline under ideal circumstances, but they may vary in practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 44
Correct
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A 22-year-old individual comes in with a painful, itchy, red left eye. During the examination, there is noticeable redness in the conjunctiva, and follicles are observed on the inner eyelid when it is turned inside out. The patient recently had a mild and brief upper respiratory tract infection, but there are no other significant medical history details.
What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this condition?Your Answer: Adenovirus
Explanation:Conjunctivitis is the most common reason for red eyes, accounting for about 35% of all eye problems seen in general practice. It occurs when the conjunctiva, the thin layer covering the white part of the eye, becomes inflamed. Conjunctivitis can be caused by an infection or an allergic reaction.
Infective conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection. The most common type of infective conjunctivitis is viral, with adenoviruses being the main culprits. Bacterial conjunctivitis is also common and is usually caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, or Haemophilus influenzae.
The symptoms of infective conjunctivitis include sudden redness of the conjunctiva, discomfort described as a gritty or burning sensation, watering of the eyes, and discharge that may temporarily blurry vision. It can be challenging to differentiate between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis based on symptoms alone.
Here are some key features that can help distinguish between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis:
Features suggestive of viral conjunctivitis:
– Mild to moderate redness of the conjunctiva
– Presence of follicles on the inner surface of the eyelids
– Swelling of the eyelids
– Small, pinpoint bleeding under the conjunctiva
– Pseudomembranes (thin layers of tissue) may form on the inner surface of the eyelids in severe cases, often caused by adenovirus
– Less discharge (usually watery) compared to bacterial conjunctivitis
– Mild to moderate itching
– Symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection and swollen lymph nodes in front of the earsFeatures suggestive of bacterial conjunctivitis:
– Purulent or mucopurulent discharge with crusting of the eyelids, which may cause them to stick together upon waking
– Mild or no itching
– Swollen lymph nodes in front of the ears, which are often present in severe bacterial conjunctivitis
– If the discharge is copious and mucopurulent, infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae should be considered.By considering these distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage cases of conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 2 year old is brought into resus following rescue from a car accident. The patient has severe injuries and observations are consistent with shock. Attempts to insert an IV cannula fail three times. You decide to obtain intraosseous (IO) access. Which of the following is a commonly used site for obtaining intraosseous (IO) access in young children?
Your Answer: Distal femur - 2 cm above condyle in midline
Explanation:The three sites most frequently used for IO access are the proximal tibia, distal tibia, and distal femur. The proximal tibia is located 2 cm below the tibial tuberosity, while the distal tibia is just above the medial malleolus. The distal femur site is situated 2 cm above the condyle in the midline. These sites are commonly chosen for IO access. However, there are also less commonly used sites such as the proximal humerus (above the surgical neck) and the iliac crest. It is important to note that the proximal humerus may be challenging to palpate in children and is typically not used in those under 5 years of age. Additionally, accessing the sternum requires a specialist device.
Further Reading:
Intraosseous (IO) cannulation is a technique used to gain urgent intravenous (IV) access in patients where traditional IV access is difficult to obtain. It involves injecting fluid or drugs directly into the medullary cavity of the bone. This procedure can be performed in both adult and pediatric patients and is commonly used in emergency situations.
There are different types of IO needles available, including manual IO needles and device-powered IO needles such as the EZ-IO. These tools allow healthcare professionals to access the bone and administer necessary medications or fluids quickly and efficiently.
The most commonly used sites for IO cannulation are the tibia (shinbone) and the femur (thighbone). In some cases, the proximal humerus (upper arm bone) may also be used. However, there are certain contraindications to IO cannulation that should be considered. These include fractures of the bone to be cannulated, overlying skin infections or a high risk of infection (such as burns), conditions like osteogenesis imperfecta or osteoporosis, ipsilateral vascular injury, and coagulopathy.
While IO cannulation is a valuable technique, there are potential complications that healthcare professionals should be aware of. These include superficial skin infections, osteomyelitis (infection of the bone), skin necrosis, growth plate injury (in pediatric patients), fractures, failure to access or position the needle correctly, extravasation (leakage of fluid or medication into surrounding tissues), and compartment syndrome (a rare but serious condition that can occur if there is an undiagnosed fracture).
Overall, IO cannulation is a useful method for gaining urgent IV access in patients when traditional methods are challenging. However, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential complications and contraindications associated with this procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of colicky abdominal pain and diarrhea. The patient reports feeling worse in the past 24 hours, although the diarrhea has stopped as he last had a bowel movement more than 12 hours ago. The patient visited his primary care physician 2 days ago, who requested a stool sample. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 38.8ºC
Blood pressure: 98/78 mmHg
Pulse: 106 bpm
Respiration rate: 18
Upon reviewing the pathology results, it is noted that the stool sample has tested positive for clostridium difficile. Additionally, the patient's complete blood count, which was sent by the triage nurse, is available and shown below:
Hemoglobin: 12.4 g/l
Platelets: 388 * 109/l
White blood cells: 23.7 * 109/l
How would you classify the severity of this patient's clostridium difficile infection?Your Answer: Severe
Correct Answer: Life threatening
Explanation:Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
Which of the following conditions is NOT linked to ulcerative colitis disease?Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis is a condition that is less common among smokers, as around 70-80% of individuals affected by this disease are non-smokers. There are several recognized associations of ulcerative colitis, including aphthous ulcers, uveitis and episcleritis, seronegative spondyloarthropathies, sacroiliitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and chronic active hepatitis. These conditions often coexist with ulcerative colitis and can provide additional insight into the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 28 year old IV drug user presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling ill. Considering the history of IV drug abuse, there is a concern for infective endocarditis. What is the most characteristic clinical manifestation of infective endocarditis?
Your Answer: Fever
Explanation:The most common symptom of infective endocarditis is fever, which occurs in the majority of cases and is consistently present throughout the course of the disease. Cardiac murmurs are also frequently detected, although they may only be present in one third of patients at the initial presentation. Individuals who use intravenous drugs often develop right-sided disease affecting the tricuspid and pulmonary valves, making it challenging to detect cardiac murmurs in these cases. Splinter hemorrhages and other symptoms may also be observed.
Further Reading:
Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.
The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.
Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.
The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.
In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 49
Correct
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A concerned parent brings his 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department. He was previously healthy, but suddenly began vomiting this morning, and the father mentions that the last vomit was a vivid shade of green. The baby has been crying uncontrollably for periods of 15-20 minutes and then calming down in between. Upon examination, the child appears slightly pale, and there is no detectable bowel in the lower right quadrant.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception occurs when a section of the bowel folds into another section, causing a blockage. This can be due to a specific underlying issue, like a Meckel’s diverticulum, or it can happen without any specific cause. The condition is most commonly seen in boys between the ages of 5 and 10 months. Symptoms include sudden vomiting and episodes of abdominal pain that come and go. The vomit quickly becomes greenish-yellow in color. Dance’s sign, which is the absence of bowel in the lower right part of the abdomen, may be observed. Redcurrant jelly-like stools are a late indication of the condition. It is believed that more than 90% of cases are caused by a non-specific underlying issue, often viral infections like rotavirus, adenovirus, and human herpesvirus 6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A toddler develops a palsy of his left leg following a fall. On examination, there is a loss of hip abduction, external rotation and knee flexion. The leg is noticeably dragging with the knee extended and the foot turned inward.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Median nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Erb’s palsy
Explanation:Erb’s palsy, also known as Erb-Duchenne palsy, is a condition where the arm becomes paralyzed due to an injury to the upper roots of the brachial plexus. The primary root affected is usually C5, although C6 may also be involved in some cases. The main cause of Erb’s palsy is when the arm experiences excessive force during a difficult childbirth, but it can also occur in adults as a result of shoulder trauma.
Clinically, the affected arm will hang by the side with the elbow extended and the forearm turned inward (known as the waiter’s tip sign). Upon examination, there will be a loss of certain movements:
– Shoulder abduction (involving the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles)
– Shoulder external rotation (infraspinatus muscle)
– Elbow flexion (biceps and brachialis muscles)It is important to differentiate Erb’s palsy from Klumpke’s palsy, which affects the lower roots of the brachial plexus (C8 and T1). Klumpke’s palsy presents with a claw hand due to paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles, along with sensory loss along the ulnar side of the forearm and hand. If T1 is affected, there may also be the presence of Horner’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 70-year-old male smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. His electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates an acute myocardial infarction, and he is immediately taken to the catheterization laboratory. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?Your Answer: Anteroseptal
Explanation:A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.
For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.
In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.
Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.
In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
What dose of rectal diazepam is recommended for the treatment of the convulsing child?Your Answer: 0.5 mg/kg
Explanation:The recommended dose of rectal diazepam for treating a child experiencing convulsions is 0.5 mg per kilogram of body weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 53
Correct
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A child with a history of repeated episodes of painless rectal bleeding is found to have a Meckel’s diverticulum during a colonoscopy.
What is the most frequently observed type of ectopic mucosa in Meckel’s diverticulum?Your Answer: Gastric
Explanation:A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.
When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.
Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.
These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.
To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
– It is found in 2% of the population.
– It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
– It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
– It is approximately 2 inches long.
– It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
– The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 54
Correct
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A 42 year old female is brought to the emergency department with a 15cm long laceration to her arm which occurred when she tripped and fell onto a sharp object. You are suturing the laceration under local anesthesia when the patient mentions experiencing numbness in her lips and feeling lightheaded. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Local anaesthetic toxicity
Explanation:Early signs of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) can include numbness around the mouth and tongue, a metallic taste in the mouth, feeling lightheaded or dizzy, and experiencing visual and auditory disturbances. LAST is a rare but serious complication that can occur when administering anesthesia. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of LAST, as early recognition can lead to better outcomes. Additionally, hyperventilation can temporarily lower calcium levels, which can cause numbness around the mouth.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 55
Correct
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A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department due to sudden fever and a sore throat with difficulty swallowing for the past 12 hours. Upon examination, the patient is sitting upright, experiencing excessive saliva drooling, and has a muffled voice resembling a 'hot potato' when answering questions. Additionally, the patient produces high-pitched inspiratory sounds during breathing.
What is the primary investigation that should be prioritized for this patient?Your Answer: Fibre-optic laryngoscopy
Explanation:Fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing epiglottitis. In this case, the patient’s symptoms align with those typically seen in epiglottitis. It is crucial to prioritize the assessment of the airway before conducting any invasive procedures, such as using a tongue depressor to examine the oral cavity or performing needle aspiration of the tonsils.
Further Reading:
Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.
The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.
Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.
Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.
Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 56
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with a one-week history of occasional dizzy spells and feeling generally under the weather. She experienced one brief episode where she fainted. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus four months ago and has been prescribed high-dose ibuprofen. During the examination, she has swelling in her hands and feet but no other notable findings. Her EKG shows broad QRS complexes and tall peaked T waves.
Which ONE blood test will confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Explanation:This patient’s ECG shows signs consistent with hyperkalemia, including broad QRS complexes, tall-peaked T waves, and bizarre p waves. It is estimated that around 10% of patients with SLE have hyperkalemia, which is believed to be caused by hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism. Additionally, the patient has been taking a high dose of ibuprofen, which can also contribute to the development of hyperkalemia. NSAIDs are thought to induce hyperkalemia by reducing renin secretion, leading to decreased potassium excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old accountant presents with a headache. Since she woke up this morning, she describes a right-sided, severe, throbbing headache. She has had similar symptoms previously but feels that this is the worst she has ever had. Her work is very stressful at the moment. She has also vomited this morning. Her husband is with her and is anxious as his mother has recently been diagnosed with a brain tumor. He is really worried that his wife might have the same. On examination, the patient is normotensive with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute, regular. Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, as is the examination of her peripheral nervous system. She has no scalp tenderness.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tension headache
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:Migraine without aura typically needs to meet the specific criteria set by the International Headache Society. These criteria include experiencing at least five attacks that meet the requirements outlined in criteria 2-4. The duration of these headache attacks should last between 4 to 72 hours. Additionally, the headache should exhibit at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity. Furthermore, during the headache, individuals should experience at least one of the following symptoms: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. For more detailed information, you can refer to the guidelines provided by The British Association for the Study of Headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 58
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine dipstick is performed, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Her only past medical history of note is benign bladder enlargement, for which she takes oxybutynin. You make a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of men with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to offer an immediate prescription of antibiotics. However, certain factors should be taken into account. This includes considering previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria.
Before starting antibiotics, it is important to obtain a midstream urine sample from men and send it for culture and susceptibility testing. This will help determine the most appropriate choice of antibiotic.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the initial choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The first-choice antibiotics for men with lower UTI are trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 7 days, or nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 7 days if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.
If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotics, or if the first-choice is not suitable, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses and follow the recommendations in the NICE guidelines on pyelonephritis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing or prostatitis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing. The choice of antibiotic should be based on recent culture and susceptibility results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She has had four bowel movements in the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she is stable with a heart rate of 80 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/77. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there are no visible signs of anorectal bleeding during rectal examination.
What is the shock index for this patient?Your Answer: 0.66
Explanation:The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for evaluating cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are useful in determining which patients should be referred for further assessment.
When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable is defined as having a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP). For example, if the heart rate is 80 and the systolic blood pressure is 120, the shock index would be 0.66.
For patients with stable bleeds, they should be further classified as either major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management) based on a risk assessment tool. The BSG recommends using the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.
Patients with a minor self-terminating bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for outpatient investigation.
Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital for a colonoscopy, which will be scheduled based on availability.
If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 after initial resuscitation, and/or active bleeding is suspected, CT angiography (CTA) should be considered, followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.
If no bleeding source is identified by initial CTA and the patient is stable, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.
If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.
Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding source using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.
Red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/d
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 60
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing his medications, you find out that he is taking warfarin as part of his treatment.
Which ONE of the following beverages should he avoid?Your Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:Warfarin has been found to heighten the likelihood of bleeding events when consumed alongside specific juices, such as cranberry juice and grapefruit juice. As a result, individuals who are taking warfarin should be cautioned against consuming these beverages. For more information on this topic, please refer to the BNF section on warfarin interactions and the interaction between warfarin and cranberry juice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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