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  • Question 1 - A 45 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with a suspected massive pulmonary embolism. It is decided to intubate him pending transfer to ITU. Your consultant requests you prepare the patient for rapid sequence intubation. You start pre-oxygenating the patient. What is the gold standard evaluation for ensuring sufficient pre-oxygenation?

      Your Answer: End tidal O2 > 85%

      Explanation:

      The blood gas measurement of pO2 should be equal to or greater than 18 kilopascals (kPa) at a level of 10.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You assess a 42-year-old woman who has a background of schizophrenia. She was...

    Correct

    • You assess a 42-year-old woman who has a background of schizophrenia. She was initiated on an atypical antipsychotic drug a few months ago and has since experienced significant weight gain.
      Which SPECIFIC atypical antipsychotic medication is most likely to be accountable for her weight gain?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the atypical antipsychotic that is most likely to result in notable weight gain. Additionally, it is linked to the emergence of impaired glucose metabolism and metabolic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after being hit by...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while riding her bike. The patient was not wearing a helmet and suffered a head injury from hitting the pavement. She has a significant scalp contusion and appears drowsy. There is a suspicion of increased intracranial pressure. How does intracranial pressure affect cerebral perfusion pressure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) = mean arterial pressure (MAP) - intracranial pressure (ICP)

      Explanation:

      Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated by adding the intracranial pressure (ICP) to the diastolic blood pressure (DBP).

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6 month old infant is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old infant is brought to the emergency department by his father due to a 24 hour history of fever, fussiness, and crying. On examination, the infant is alert and responsive, with a temperature of 38.3ºC. The capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds, and there is mild redness in the throat. The left tympanic membrane appears red and bulging, while the chest is clear and the abdomen is soft with no rashes.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit under paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a child under 3 months old has a temperature of 38ºC or higher, it is considered a red flag according to the NICE traffic light system. This indicates that the child may have acute otitis media and it is recommended that they be admitted for further evaluation and treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.

      Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.

      Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

      Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.

      The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45 year old man comes to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man comes to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on his digoxin medication. He informs you that he consumed approximately 50 tablets of digoxin shortly after discovering that his wife wants to end their marriage and file for divorce. Which of the following symptoms is commonly seen in cases of digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Yellow-green vision

      Explanation:

      One of the signs of digoxin toxicity is yellow-green vision. Other clinical features include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, loss of appetite, confusion, and the development of arrhythmias such as AV block and bradycardia.

      Further Reading:

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.

      ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old teacher complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her hands that appeared 15 minutes after she wore a pair of latex gloves. What is the most probable cause for the development of this rash?

      Your Answer: Irritant contact dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reactions are allergic reactions that occur when a person is exposed again to a particular antigen, known as an allergen. These reactions are triggered by IgE and typically happen within 15 to 30 minutes after exposure to the allergen.

      A rapid onset of an urticarial rash, which occurs shortly after being exposed to an allergen (such as latex), is highly likely to be caused by a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into...

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    • You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You are considering administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the use of atropine?

      Your Answer: Up to 6 doses of 500 mcg can be given every 3-5 minutes

      Explanation:

      When treating adults with bradycardia, it is recommended to administer a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg. These doses can be repeated every 3-5 minutes. The total cumulative dose of atropine should not exceed 3 mg in adults.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 15 minutes before her arrival. On arrival, she is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. She is known to be homeless and has a long history of alcohol abuse. The paramedics administered a single dose of rectal diazepam on the way, approximately 12 minutes ago. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 110, BP 100/60, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 37.2°C.
      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin infusion

      Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine

      Explanation:

      Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In this particular patient’s case, his history of chronic alcohol abuse, homelessness, and likely impaired nutrition necessitates the administration of intravenous thiamine in the form of Pabrinex. Additionally, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given, and his blood glucose levels should be urgently checked.

      The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures, which are outlined in the following table:

      1st stage (Early status, 0-10 minutes):
      – Secure the airway and provide resuscitation
      – Administer oxygen
      – Assess cardiorespiratory function
      – Establish intravenous access

      2nd stage (0-30 minutes):
      – Implement regular monitoring
      – Consider the possibility of non-epileptic status
      – Initiate emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy
      – Perform emergency investigations
      – Administer glucose (50 ml of 50% solution) and/or intravenous thiamine as Pabrinex if there are indications of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition
      – Treat severe acidosis if present

      3rd stage (0-60 minutes):
      – Determine the underlying cause of status epilepticus
      – Notify the anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU)
      – Identify and treat any medical complications
      – Consider pressor therapy when appropriate

      4th stage (30-90 minutes):
      – Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit
      – Establish intensive care and EEG monitoring
      – Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring if necessary
      – Start initial long-term, maintenance AED therapy

      Emergency investigations include blood tests for gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium levels, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be performed to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, depend on the clinical circumstances.

      Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department with a three...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department with a three day history of nausea and upper abdominal pain. The patient is concerned as the nausea became severe enough to cause her to vomit today and she noticed dark blood in the vomitus. The patient takes simvastatin daily for high cholesterol and has recently been taking ibuprofen to treat knee pain. You are able to schedule her for an endoscopy today.

      Upon returning to the ED, you decide to conduct a risk assessment for upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate to use?

      Your Answer: Blatchford score

      Correct Answer: Full Rockall score

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, when evaluating patients with acute upper GI bleeding, it is recommended to use the Blatchford score during the initial assessment and the full Rockall score after endoscopy. The Rockall score is specifically designed to assess the risk of re-bleeding or death in these patients. If a patient’s post-endoscopic Rockall score is less than 3, they are considered to have a low risk of re-bleeding or death and may be eligible for early discharge.

      Further Reading:

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.

      The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.

      Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.

      Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.

      Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.

      For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are requested to evaluate a 6-year-old child who has arrived at the...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 6-year-old child who has arrived at the emergency department displaying irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and a widespread rash. Upon further investigation, you discover that the patient is a refugee and has not received several vaccinations. The diagnosis of measles is confirmed.

      What guidance should you provide regarding the exclusion of this child from school due to measles?

      Your Answer: 4 days from onset of rash

      Explanation:

      The current school exclusion advice for certain infectious diseases with a rash is as follows:

      – For chickenpox, children should be excluded for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash and until all blisters have crusted over.
      – In the case of measles, children should be excluded for 4 days from the onset of the rash, provided they are well enough to attend.
      – Mumps requires a 5-day exclusion after the onset of swelling.
      – Rubella, also known as German measles, requires a 5-day exclusion from the onset of the rash.
      – Scarlet fever necessitates exclusion until 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment.

      It is important to note that school exclusion advice has undergone changes in recent years, and the information provided above reflects the updated advice as of May 2022.

      Further Reading:

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.

      Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.

      The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.

      In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.

      When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old woman presents with severe diarrhea one week after a hip replacement...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with severe diarrhea one week after a hip replacement surgery. The diarrhea has a foul odor and is yellow in color. You suspect a diagnosis of Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD).

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate initial test to investigate this condition?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile toxin assay

      Explanation:

      The current gold standard for diagnosing Clostridium difficile colitis is the cytotoxin assay. However, this test has its drawbacks. It can be challenging to perform and results may take up to 48 hours to be available.

      The most common laboratory test used to diagnose Clostridium difficile colitis is an enzyme-mediated immunoassay that detects toxins A and B. This test has a specificity of 93-100% and a sensitivity of 63-99%.

      Stool culture, although expensive, is not specific for pathogenic strains and therefore cannot be relied upon for a definitive diagnosis of CDAD.

      Sigmoidoscopy is not routinely used, but it may be performed in cases where a rapid diagnosis is needed or if the patient has an ileus. Approximately 50% of patients may exhibit the characteristic pseudomembranous appearance, which can be confirmed through a biopsy.

      Abdominal X-ray and CT scanning are not typically used, but they can be beneficial in severe cases where complications such as perforation and toxin megacolon are suspected.

      It is important to note that a barium enema should not be performed in patients with CDAD as it can be potentially harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You evaluate a 30-year-old patient who has intentionally ingested a large amount of...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 30-year-old patient who has intentionally ingested a large amount of aspirin. The medical student on rotation in the emergency department inquires about the administration of activated charcoal. What are the indications for using activated charcoal in cases of salicylate overdose?

      Your Answer: Presentation within 1 hour of ingestion and ingested dose >125 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal should be administered in cases of salicylate overdose if the patient arrives at the medical facility within one hour of ingestion and the amount ingested is greater than 125 mg per kilogram of body weight.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old girl comes in with excessive thirst, frequent urination, and increased thirst....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl comes in with excessive thirst, frequent urination, and increased thirst. She has been feeling very fatigued lately and has experienced significant weight loss. Blood tests show normal levels of urea and electrolytes, but her bicarbonate level is 18 mmol/l (reference range 22-26 mmol/l). A urine dipstick test reveals 2+ protein and 3+ ketones.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      This child is displaying a typical pattern of symptoms for type I diabetes mellitus. He has recently experienced increased urination, excessive thirst, weight loss, and fatigue. Blood tests have revealed metabolic acidosis, and the presence of ketones in his urine indicates the development of diabetic ketoacidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are called into the pediatric resuscitation room to assist with a child...

    Correct

    • You are called into the pediatric resuscitation room to assist with a child who has arrested. The team have just started the first cycle of chest compressions and have attached monitoring. You suggest briefly pausing chest compressions to check if the rhythm is shockable.

      How long should the brief pause in chest compressions last?

      Your Answer: ≤ 5 seconds

      Explanation:

      The duration of the pause in chest compressions should be kept short, not exceeding 5 seconds. This applies to both pausing to assess the rhythm and pausing to administer a shock if the rhythm is deemed shockable. It is important to note that a pulse check lasting less than two seconds may fail to detect a palpable pulse, particularly in individuals with a slow heart rate (bradycardia).

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of central abdominal pain which has now moved to the right-hand side. His appetite is poor, and he is complaining of nausea. He has a history of chronic constipation and recently had an episode of sudden, unexplained rectal bleeding for which he has been referred to the general surgical outpatient clinic by his GP. His observations are as follows: temperature 38.4°C, HR 112, BP 134/78, RR 18. On examination, he is tender in the right iliac fossa, and his PR examination revealed rectal tenderness.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis

      Correct Answer: Acute diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Acute diverticulitis occurs when a diverticulum becomes inflamed or perforated. This inflammation can either stay localized, forming a pericolic abscess, or spread and cause peritonitis. The typical symptoms of acute diverticulitis include abdominal pain (most commonly felt in the lower left quadrant), fever/sepsis, tenderness in the left iliac fossa, the presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa, and rectal bleeding. About 90% of cases involve the sigmoid colon, which is why left iliac fossa pain and tenderness are commonly seen.

      To diagnose acute diverticulitis, various investigations should be conducted. These include blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, C-reactive protein, and blood cultures. Imaging studies like abdominal X-ray, erect chest X-ray, and possibly an abdominal CT scan may also be necessary.

      Complications that can arise from acute diverticulitis include perforation leading to abscess formation or peritonitis, intestinal obstruction, massive rectal bleeding, fistulae, and strictures.

      In the emergency department, the treatment for diverticulitis should involve providing suitable pain relief, administering intravenous fluids, prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics (such as intravenous co-amoxiclav), and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking. It is also important to refer the patient to the on-call surgical team for further management.

      For more information on diverticular disease, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      53.5
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  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old woman comes in after experiencing an episode of weakness in her...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes in after experiencing an episode of weakness in her left arm and leg that resolved within a few hours. Her family has noticed a sudden increase in forgetfulness over the past week, with difficulty remembering names of people and places and struggling to find the right words for things.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Explanation:

      Vascular dementia is the second most common form of dementia, accounting for approximately 25% of all cases. It occurs when the brain is damaged due to various factors, such as major strokes, multiple smaller strokes that go unnoticed (known as multi-infarct), or chronic changes in smaller blood vessels (referred to as subcortical dementia). The term vascular cognitive impairment (VCI) is increasingly used to encompass this range of diseases.

      Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, which has a gradual and subtle onset, vascular dementia can occur suddenly and typically shows a series of stepwise increases in symptom severity. The presentation and progression of the disease can vary significantly.

      There are certain features that suggest a vascular cause of dementia. These include a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, the presence of focal neurological abnormalities, prominent memory impairment in the early stages of the disease, early onset of gait disturbance and unsteadiness, frequent unprovoked falls in the early stages, bladder symptoms (such as incontinence) without any identifiable urological condition in the early stages, and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      29.6
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  • Question 17 - A 20 year old college student comes to the ER with a sore...

    Correct

    • A 20 year old college student comes to the ER with a sore throat that has been bothering them for the past 10 days. After conducting a physical examination, you inform the patient that you suspect they may have glandular fever. You proceed to order blood tests.

      Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of glandular fever?

      Your Answer: Lymphocytosis

      Explanation:

      In the blood tests, certain findings can support a diagnosis of glandular fever. One of these findings is lymphocytosis, which refers to an increased number of lymphocytes in the blood. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. In glandular fever, the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is the most common cause, and it primarily infects and activates lymphocytes, leading to their increased numbers in the blood.

      On the other hand, neutropenia (a decreased number of neutrophils) and neutrophilia (an increased number of neutrophils) are not typically associated with glandular fever. Neutrophils are another type of white blood cell that helps fight off bacterial infections. In glandular fever, the primary involvement is with lymphocytes rather than neutrophils.

      Monocytosis, which refers to an increased number of monocytes, can also be seen in glandular fever. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that plays a role in the immune response. Their increased numbers can be a result of the immune system’s response to the Epstein-Barr virus.

      Eosinophilia, an increased number of eosinophils, is not commonly associated with glandular fever. Eosinophils are white blood cells involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, and their elevation is more commonly seen in those conditions.

      In summary, the presence of lymphocytosis and possibly monocytosis in the blood tests would support a diagnosis of glandular fever, while neutropenia, neutrophilia, and eosinophilia are less likely to be associated with this condition.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12.2
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  • Question 18 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being found disoriented and lethargic by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level. Upon reviewing the salicylate result, you commence the urinary alkalinisation protocol. What is the desired treatment range?

      Your Answer: Urinary pH is 7.5-8.5

      Explanation:

      Urinary alkalinisation aims to achieve a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5. This process helps enhance the elimination of salicylates. It is important to regularly monitor urinary pH, ideally on an hourly basis.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      8
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease presents with symptoms suggestive of acute limb ischemia. After conducting a series of tests, the medical team suspects that an embolus is the likely cause.
      Which of the following investigations would be the most beneficial in determining the origin of the embolus?

      Your Answer: Arteriography

      Correct Answer: Popliteal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden decrease in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb at risk of tissue damage. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a partially blocked artery due to a blood clot or by an embolus that travels from another part of the body. It is considered a surgical emergency, as without prompt surgical intervention, the affected limb may suffer extensive tissue death within six hours.

      The leading cause of acute limb ischaemia is the sudden blockage of a previously narrowed artery segment, accounting for 60% of cases. The second most common cause is an embolus, which makes up 30% of cases. Emboli can originate from sources such as a blood clot in the left atrium of the heart in patients with atrial fibrillation (which accounts for 80% of peripheral emboli), a clot formed on the heart wall after a heart attack, or from prosthetic heart valves. It is crucial to differentiate between these two causes, as the treatment and prognosis differ.

      To properly diagnose acute limb ischaemia, several important investigations should be arranged. These include a hand-held Doppler ultrasound scan, which can help determine if there is any remaining blood flow in the arteries. Blood tests such as a full blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, blood glucose level, and thrombophilia screen should also be conducted. If there is uncertainty in the diagnosis, urgent arteriography may be necessary.

      In cases where an embolus is suspected as the cause, additional investigations are needed to identify its source. These investigations may include an electrocardiogram to detect atrial fibrillation, an echocardiogram to assess the heart’s structure and function, an ultrasound of the aorta, and ultrasounds of the popliteal and femoral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      19.6
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  • Question 20 - Following a case review, you arrange a teaching session for the nursing students...

    Correct

    • Following a case review, you arrange a teaching session for the nursing students about the management of atopic dermatitis in the pediatric ward. What is a common characteristic observed in children with atopic dermatitis?

      Your Answer: Elevated IgE levels

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis is a long-lasting inflammatory skin condition that is linked to increased levels of IgE in the bloodstream. It is also characterized by sensitivity to various allergens found in the air, food, and microorganisms.

      Further Reading:

      Eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by dry, itchy skin with eczematous lesions. It often follows a chronic relapsing course and can lead to chronic skin changes such as lichenification and pigment changes. The term eczema is often used interchangeably with dermatitis, but strictly speaking, dermatitis refers to inflammation of the skin while eczema refers to specific conditions where skin inflammation is a feature.

      Atopic eczema, also known as atopic dermatitis, is the most common type of eczema. It is usually first diagnosed in young children, with 90% of cases diagnosed before the age of 5. However, it can affect individuals of any age. Symptoms often improve as patients progress into their teens and adulthood. Around 10-20% of children are affected by atopic eczema, but only 3% of adults experience symptoms.

      The exact cause of atopic eczema is not fully understood, but it is believed to be multifactorial, with both genetic and environmental factors playing a role. Genetic defects in genes that aid in the functioning of the skin barrier have been identified, which may predispose individuals to breaks in the skin barrier and increased exposure to antigens. Environmental factors such as pollution, allergen exposure, climate, and others also contribute to the development of the disease.

      Diagnosing atopic eczema involves assessing the presence of key clinical features, such as pruritus (itching), eczema/dermatitis in a pattern appropriate for age, early age of onset, and personal or family history of atopy. Various diagnostic criteria have been established to aid in the diagnosis, including those set out by the American Academy of Dermatology and the UK working party.

      The severity of atopic eczema can vary, and treatment options depend on the severity. Mild cases may be managed with emollients (moisturizers) and mild potency topical corticosteroids. Moderate cases may require moderate potency topical corticosteroids, topical calcineurin inhibitors, and bandages. Severe cases may necessitate the use of potent topical corticosteroids, topical calcineurin inhibitors, bandages, phototherapy, and systemic therapy.

      In addition to medical treatment, identifying and avoiding triggers is an important aspect of managing atopic eczema. Common triggers include irritants, contact allergens, certain foods, skin infections, inhalant triggers, stress and infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.3
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  • Question 21 - You assess a 7-year-old girl who has been brought to the ER by...

    Correct

    • You assess a 7-year-old girl who has been brought to the ER by her parents due to concerns about her health. They report that she has had a fever and a sore throat for the past few days, but now she has developed a red rash all over her body. After diagnosing scarlet fever, you prescribe antibiotics. What guidance would you provide to the parents regarding their child's attendance at school?

      Your Answer: Exclusion from school until 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been diagnosed with Scarlet fever should be instructed to stay away from school or work until at least 24 hours after they have started taking antibiotics. It is also important for them to practice good hygiene habits.

      Further Reading:

      Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the peak incidence at 4 years. The typical presentation of scarlet fever includes fever, malaise, sore throat (tonsillitis), and a rash. The rash appears 1-2 days after the fever and sore throat symptoms and consists of fine punctate erythema that first appears on the torso and spares the face. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later, particularly around the fingers and toes. Another characteristic feature is the ‘strawberry tongue’, which initially has a white coating and swollen, reddened papillae, and later becomes red and inflamed. Diagnosis is usually made by a throat swab, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately without waiting for the results. The recommended treatment is oral penicillin V, but patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Complications of scarlet fever include otitis media, rheumatic fever, and acute glomerulonephritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.9
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a high-speed car accident....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a high-speed car accident. There was a prolonged extraction at the scene, and a full trauma call is made. She is disoriented and slightly restless. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 125, blood pressure 83/45, oxygen saturation 98% on high-flow oxygen, respiratory rate 31, temperature 36.1°C. Her capillary refill time is 5 seconds, and her extremities appear pale and cool to the touch. Her cervical spine is immobilized with triple precautions. The airway is clear, and her chest examination is normal. Two large-bore needles have been inserted in her antecubital fossa, and a complete set of blood tests, including a request for a cross-match, has been sent to the laboratory. She experiences significant tenderness in the suprapubic area upon abdominal palpation, and noticeable bruising is evident around her pelvis. A pelvic X-ray reveals a vertical shear type pelvic fracture.
      What approximate percentage of her circulatory volume has she lost?

      Your Answer: 30-40%

      Explanation:

      This patient is currently experiencing moderate shock, classified as class III. This level of shock corresponds to a loss of 30-40% of their circulatory volume, which is equivalent to a blood loss of 1500-2000 mL.

      Hemorrhage can be categorized into four different classes based on physiological parameters and clinical signs. These classes are classified as class I, class II, class III, and class IV.

      In class I hemorrhage, the blood loss is up to 750 mL or up to 15% of the blood volume. The pulse rate is less than 100 beats per minute, and the systolic blood pressure is normal. The pulse pressure may be normal or increased, and the respiratory rate is within the range of 14-20 breaths per minute. The urine output is greater than 30 mL per hour, and the patient’s CNS/mental status is slightly anxious.

      In class II hemorrhage, the blood loss ranges from 750-1500 mL or 15-30% of the blood volume. The pulse rate is between 100-120 beats per minute, and the systolic blood pressure remains normal. The pulse pressure is decreased, and the respiratory rate increases to 20-30 breaths per minute. The urine output decreases to 20-30 mL per hour, and the patient may experience mild anxiety.

      The patient in this case is in class III hemorrhage, with a blood loss of 1500-2000 mL or 30-40% of the blood volume. The pulse rate is elevated, ranging from 120-140 beats per minute, and the systolic blood pressure is decreased. The pulse pressure is also decreased, and the respiratory rate is elevated to 30-40 breaths per minute. The urine output decreases significantly to 5-15 mL per hour, and the patient may experience anxiety and confusion.

      Class IV hemorrhage represents the most severe level of blood loss, with a loss of over 40% of the blood volume. The pulse rate is greater than 140 beats per minute, and the systolic blood pressure is significantly decreased. The pulse pressure is decreased, and the respiratory rate is over 40 breaths per minute. The urine output becomes negligible, and the patient may become confused and lethargic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      27.9
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis (AS).

      What is the MOST frequently occurring eye complication associated with AS?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Uveitis is the most prevalent eye complication that arises in individuals with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Approximately one out of every three patients with AS will experience uveitis at some stage. The symptoms of uveitis include a red and painful eye, along with photophobia and blurred vision. Additionally, patients may notice the presence of floaters. The primary treatment for uveitis involves the use of corticosteroids, and it is crucial for patients to seek immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      5.4
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  • Question 24 - A 57 year old type 2 diabetic presents to the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 57 year old type 2 diabetic presents to the emergency department with redness on his foot. Upon examination, a foot ulcer measuring 1 cm in diameter is observed, exposing the superficial subcutaneous tissues. There is approximately 1 cm of erythema surrounding the ulcer and some pus at the base. The patient is not running a fever and appears to be in good overall health. It is determined that antibiotics should be initiated. The patient has no known allergies to medications. Which antibiotic would be the most suitable option?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin 500 mg four times a day for 7 days

      Explanation:

      When treating diabetic foot ulcers that are infected, the severity of the ulcer is used to determine the appropriate antimicrobial therapy. In the case of a mild foot infection (PEDIS 2 grade), the first-line treatment is typically flucloxacillin. Based on the information provided, there is no indication that pseudomonas or MRSA should be suspected. For mild infections, it is reasonable to prescribe flucloxacillin at a dosage of 500 mg-1g four times a day for a duration of 7 days. It is important to reassess the patient at the end of the treatment course.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic foot is a complication that can occur in individuals with diabetes due to long-standing high blood sugar levels. This leads to a process called glycation or glycosylation, where glucose binds to proteins and lipids in the body. Abnormal protein glycation can cause cellular dysfunction and various complications.

      One of the main problems in diabetic foot is peripheral vascular disease and peripheral neuropathy. These conditions can result in significant foot issues, as trauma to the feet may go unnoticed and untreated. Vascular disease also impairs wound healing and increases the risk of developing ulcers.

      Clinical features of diabetic foot include reduced sensation, especially to vibration, non-dermatomal sensory loss, foot deformities such as pes cavus and claw toes, and weak or absent foot pulses. It is important for diabetic patients to have their feet assessed regularly, at least annually, to identify any potential problems. Additional foot assessments should also be conducted during hospital admissions.

      During a diabetic foot assessment, the healthcare provider should remove shoes, socks, and any bandages or dressings to examine both feet. They should assess for neuropathy using a 10 g monofilament to test foot sensation and check for limb ischemia by examining pulses and performing ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) measurements. Any abnormal tissue, such as ulcers, calluses, infections, inflammation, deformities, or gangrene, should be documented. The risk of Charcot arthropathy should also be assessed.

      The severity of foot ulcers in diabetic patients can be documented using standardized systems such as SINBAD or the University of Texas classification. The presence and severity of diabetic foot infection can be determined based on criteria such as local swelling, induration, erythema, tenderness, pain, warmth, and purulent discharge.

      Management of foot ulcers involves offloading, control of foot infection, control of ischemia, wound debridement, and appropriate wound dressings. Antibiotics may be necessary depending on the severity of the infection. Diabetic patients with foot ulcers should undergo initial investigations including blood tests, wound swabs, and imaging to assess for possible osteomyelitis.

      Charcot foot is a serious complication of diabetic peripheral neuropathy that results in progressive destructive arthropathy and foot deformity. Signs of Charcot foot include redness, swelling, warm skin, pain, and deformity. The hallmark deformity is midfoot collapse, known as the rocker-bottom foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.5
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  • Question 25 - A child presents to the Pediatric Emergency Department with stridor, a hoarse voice,...

    Correct

    • A child presents to the Pediatric Emergency Department with stridor, a hoarse voice, and difficulty breathing. After a comprehensive history and examination, acute epiglottitis is suspected as the diagnosis.
      What is the preferred and most accurate investigation to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibre-optic laryngoscopy

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the epiglottis. It can be life-threatening as it can completely block the airway, especially if not diagnosed promptly. In the past, the most common cause was Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), but with the widespread use of the Hib vaccine, it has become rare in children and is now more commonly seen in adults caused by Streptococcus spp like Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus pneumonia. Other bacterial causes include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

      The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat (initially resembling a viral sore throat), painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (seen as drooling in children), muffled voice (referred to as ‘hot potato’ voice), rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, cervical lymph node enlargement, and rapid deterioration in children.

      To diagnose acute epiglottitis, the gold standard investigation is fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which allows direct visualization of the epiglottis. However, laryngoscopy should only be performed in settings prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case upper airway obstruction occurs. If laryngoscopy is not possible, a lateral neck X-ray may be helpful, as it can show the characteristic ‘thumbprint sign’.

      Management of acute epiglottitis usually involves conservative measures such as intravenous or oral antibiotics. However, in some cases, intubation may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Your hospital’s oncology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker...

    Incorrect

    • Your hospital’s oncology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in risk stratification of patients with suspected breast cancer. The test will use estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2).
      How long after tumor formation do ER levels start to increase?

      Your Answer: 6 hours

      Correct Answer: 1.5 hours

      Explanation:

      The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      21
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  • Question 27 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 25 kg.

      What is the child's hourly maintenance fluid requirement when he is in good health?

      Your Answer: 65 ml/hour

      Explanation:

      The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration becomes evident only after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.

      The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children:

      Bodyweight:
      – First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg.
      – Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg.
      – Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg.

      Based on this information, the hourly maintenance fluid requirements for this child can be calculated as follows:

      – First 10 kg: 4 ml/kg = 40 ml
      – Second 10 kg: 2 ml/kg = 20 ml
      – Subsequent kg: 1 ml/kg = 5 ml

      Therefore, the total hourly maintenance fluid requirement for this child is 65 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a swollen, red, and hot left knee....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a swollen, red, and hot left knee. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.6°C. The knee feels warm to touch and is stiff, making it impossible for the patient to move it.

      Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this situation?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, which occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint and causes pus formation. The clinical features of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty in moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and overall feeling of being unwell.

      The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria can also be responsible. These include Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea (typically seen in sexually active young adults with macules or vesicles on the trunk), and Escherichia coli (common in intravenous drug users, the elderly, and seriously ill individuals).

      According to the current recommendations by NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) and the BNF (British National Formulary), the treatment for septic arthritis involves using specific antibiotics. Flucloxacillin is the first-line choice, but if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is suspicion of MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus), vancomycin is recommended. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic.

      The suggested duration of treatment for septic arthritis is 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 29 - A middle-aged homeless individual with a history of intravenous drug use complains of...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged homeless individual with a history of intravenous drug use complains of extremely intense back pain, accompanied by a fever and weakness in the left leg. The pain has been disrupting his sleep and hindering his ability to walk. During the examination, tenderness is observed in the lower lumbar spine, along with weakness in left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.

      What is the MOST probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Discitis

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in intravenous drug users and those with weakened immune systems. Gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in 1-2% of cases post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, MRI is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. CT scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is important to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a CRP, to the lab. The choice of antibiotics depends on the specific situation. A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis may include IV flucloxacillin as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy, IV vancomycin if the infection was acquired in the hospital or there is a high risk of MRSA, and possibly IV gentamicin if there is a possibility of a Gram-negative infection. In cases where there is acute kidney injury and Gram-negative cover is required, IV piperacillin-tazobactam alone may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 30 - A young man with a previous occurrence of penile discharge has a swab...

    Correct

    • A young man with a previous occurrence of penile discharge has a swab sent to the laboratory for examination. Based on the findings of this investigation, he is diagnosed with chlamydia.
      What is the MOST probable observation that would have been made on his penile swab?

      Your Answer: Gram-negative rods

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as chlamydia. This bacterium is typically either coccoid or rod-shaped in its appearance.

      There are various serological variants of C. trachomatis, and each variant is associated with different patterns of disease. Specifically, types D-K of this bacterium are responsible for causing genitourinary infections.

      Chlamydia is the most commonly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection in the United Kingdom and is also the leading preventable cause of infertility worldwide. Interestingly, around 50% of men infected with chlamydia do not experience any symptoms, while at least 70% of infected women remain asymptomatic. However, if left untreated, chlamydia can lead to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy, and tubal infertility in women. In men, it can result in proctitis, epididymitis, and epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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