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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female with no prior medical history presents with a left-sided hemiparesis and is found to be in atrial fibrillation. Imaging reveals a cerebral infarction. What anticoagulation approach would be most suitable for this patient?
Your Answer: Lifelong aspirin started after 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Aspirin started immediately switching to Lifelong warfarin after 2 weeks
Explanation:Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke
Atrial fibrillation is a major risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the hospital three months ago following a cholecystectomy. He was started on several new medications due to hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Despite feeling well, he has noticed ankle swelling and suspects it may be a side effect of one of the new medications.
During the examination, his blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, and his heart rate is 68/min irregularly irregular.
Which medication is most likely responsible for the observed side effect?Your Answer: Indapamide
Correct Answer: Felodipine
Explanation:Felodipine is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil compared to dihydropyridines like amlodipine. Calcium channel blockers are commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in patients over 55 years old, but a common side effect is peripheral edema. Dihydropyridines, such as amlodipine, work by selectively targeting vascular smooth muscle receptors, causing vasodilation and increased capillary pressure, which can lead to ankle edema. On the other hand, non-dihydropyridines like verapamil are more selective for myocardial calcium receptors, resulting in reduced cardiac contraction and heart rate.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You have a phone review scheduled with Mrs. Johansson, a 55-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension, which had been detected during a routine check-up. Subsequent ambulatory home blood pressure monitoring showed an average home BP of 148/84 mmHg.
You arranged an ECG, urine albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR), and some blood tests, and scheduled the appointment to discuss the findings. The ACR and blood tests are within normal limits. The ECG shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. You entered her cholesterol results into a cardiovascular risk calculator, which estimates a 10-year CV risk of 6.5%.
What is the appropriate management plan for her hypertension?Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and monitor in 5 years
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice, and discuss commencing a calcium-channel blocker
Explanation:Consider medication for stage 1 hypertension in patients aged 60 or under, but for those aged 55 or over, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line option. Lifestyle advice should also be given. Referral to cardiology is not necessary at this stage.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including blood tests, electrocardiogram, and urine dip, all come back normal. His QRisk2 score is 18%. His blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/100. He has no significant medical history, but there is a family history of high blood pressure. Despite making lifestyle changes, his blood pressure remains elevated, and you both agree on treatment.
What is your plan for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker
Explanation:First Step in Managing Hypertension
Having diagnosed hypertension, the first step in management involves considering several key factors in the patient’s history. One important factor is whether the patient has diabetes, as this influences the choice of antihypertensive medication. In diabetic patients, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are preferred over calcium antagonists due to their secondary benefits in managing diabetes.
Another important factor is the patient’s age, with a threshold of 55 years indicating the preference for a calcium antagonist over an ACE inhibitor or ARB in step 1. This is because these medications are less effective in older individuals. Other age thresholds, such as 40 and 80 years, are also important in diagnosis and monitoring.
While not relevant to this question, it is important to note that in patients under 80 years of age, the target blood pressure should be below 140/90 in clinic or below 135/85 in home or ambulatory monitoring. Additionally, a statin may be considered for patients with a QRisk2 score above 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a past medical history of hypertension, migraine, and obesity (BMI is 38). Currently, he takes metformin 1 g BD and ramipril 5 mg OD for blood pressure control. His latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol, and his total cholesterol is 5.2 with an LDL cholesterol of 3.5. His QRisk2 score is 21%.
During the consultation, you discuss the addition of lipid-lowering medication to reduce his cardiovascular risk, especially in light of his recently treated hypertension. You both agree that starting him on Atorvastatin 20 mg at night is an appropriate treatment for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease.
Before prescribing the medication, you review his latest blood results, which show normal full blood count, renal function, and thyroid function. However, his liver function tests reveal an ALT of 106 IU/L (<60) and an ALP of 169 IU/L (20-200). Bilirubin levels are within normal limits.
Upon further investigation, you discover that the ALT rise has persisted since his first blood tests at the surgery over four years ago. However, the liver function results have remained stable over this time, showing no significant variation from the current values. A liver ultrasound done two years ago reports some evidence of fatty infiltration only.
What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20 mg nocte can be initiated and repeat liver function tests should be performed within the first three months of use
Explanation:Liver Function and Statin Therapy
Liver function should be assessed before starting statin therapy. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can be used. It is important to repeat liver function tests within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months, as well as if a dose increase is made or if clinically indicated.
In the case of a modest ALT elevation due to fatty deposition in the liver, statin therapy can still be beneficial for primary prevention, especially if the patient’s Qrisk2 score is over 10%. Mild derangement in liver function is not uncommon in overweight type 2 diabetics. The patient can be treated with the usual NICE-guided primary prevention dose of atorvastatin, which is 20 mg nocte. A higher dose or alternative statin may be required in the future, depending on the patient’s response to the initial treatment and lifestyle modifications. The slight ALT rise doesn’t necessarily require a lower statin dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of leg pain while walking. Upon examination, his feet appear cool and dusky, with the right foot being more affected than the left. An ankle brachial pressure index is measured at 0.8 on the right and 0.9 on the left. Both femoral pulses are present, but posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are absent in both legs. His blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg.
Which of the following medications is LEAST likely to provide relief for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Treatment options for Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)
Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD) is a condition that causes intermittent claudication. Antiplatelet therapy is recommended for those with symptomatic disease to reduce major cardiovascular events. Clopidogrel is suggested as the drug of first choice by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors have been shown to reduce cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in patients with PAD. However, they should be carefully monitored as more than 25% of patients have co-existent renal artery stenosis. Statins are also recommended as they reduce the risk of mortality, cardiovascular events and stroke in patients with PAD. Naftidrofuryl oxalate is an option for the treatment of intermittent claudication in people with PAD for whom vasodilator therapy is considered appropriate. Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In this case where a 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hypertension and started on Ramipril 2.5mg, with subsequent blood tests showing a 20% reduction in eGFR but stable renal function and serum electrolytes, what would be the recommended course of action according to NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop Ramipril and replace with calcium channel blocker
Explanation:Managing Abnormal Results when Initiating or Increasing ACE-I Dose
When initiating or increasing the dose of an ACE-I, it is important to monitor for any abnormal results. According to NICE, a slight increase in serum creatinine and potassium is expected. However, if the eGFR reduction is 25% or less (or serum creatinine increase of less than 30%), no modification to the treatment regime is needed, as long as no further reductions occur.
If the eGFR decrease is 25% or more, it is important to consider other potential causes such as volume depletion, other nephrotoxic drugs, or vasodilators. If none of these are applicable, it may be necessary to stop the ACE-I or reduce the dose to a previously tolerated level. It is recommended to recheck levels in 5-7 days to ensure that the treatment is effective and safe for the patient. By closely monitoring and managing abnormal results, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the best possible care when taking ACE-Is.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following patients is most likely to have their actual risk of cardiovascular disease underestimated by QRISK2?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 54-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia who takes olanzapine
Explanation:Patients with a serious mental health disorder and those taking antipsychotics may have their cardiovascular disease risk underestimated by QRISK2.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins. These have been present for a few years and do not cause any discomfort, but she is unhappy with their appearance.
Upon examination, there are no skin changes, leg ulcers, or signs of thrombophlebitis.
What is the MOST SUITABLE NEXT step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg OD
Explanation:Conservative Management of Varicose Veins
Conservative management is recommended for patients with asymptomatic varicose veins, meaning those that are not causing pain, skin changes, or ulcers. This approach includes lifestyle changes such as weight loss, light/moderate physical activity, leg elevation, and avoiding prolonged standing. Compression stockings are also recommended to alleviate symptoms.
There is no medication available for varicose veins, and ultrasound is not necessary in the absence of thrombosis. Referral to secondary care may be necessary based on local guidelines, particularly if the patient is experiencing discomfort, swelling, heaviness, or itching, or if skin changes such as eczema are present due to chronic venous insufficiency. Urgent referral is required for venous leg ulcers and superficial vein thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high blood pressure readings during a routine check with the nurse.
You take two blood pressure readings, the lower of which is 190/126 mmHg.
Barbara has no headache or chest pain. On examination of her cardiovascular and neurological systems, there are no abnormalities. Fundoscopy is normal.
What is the most crucial next step to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgently carry out investigations for target organ damage including ECG, urine dip and blood tests
Explanation:If Cynthia’s blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg and she has no worrying signs, the first step is to urgently investigate for any damage to her organs.
According to NICE guidelines, if a person has severe hypertension but no symptoms or signs requiring immediate referral, investigations for target organ damage should be carried out as soon as possible. Since Cynthia has no such symptoms or signs, investigating for target organ damage is the correct option.
If target organ damage is found, antihypertensive drug treatment should be considered immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM. Therefore, prescribing a calcium channel blocker is not the correct answer as assessing for organ damage is the more urgent priority.
Repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days at this stage would not be helpful in guiding further management, as assessing for target organ damage is the priority. NICE recommends repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days only if no target organ damage is identified.
Assessing for target organ damage involves testing for protein and haematuria in the urine, measuring HbA1C, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol in the blood, examining the fundi for hypertensive retinopathy, and performing a 12-lead electrocardiograph.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who has never been screened for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) wishes to be included in the NHS screening programme for AAA.
He denies having recent abdominal or back pain. He doesn't have any long term medical condition and is not on any long term medication. He has never smoked and his family history is negative for AAA.
He is offered an aortic ultrasound which reveals an abdominal aorta diameter of 5.7 cm.
What course of action should be taken for this patient based on the given information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him to be seen by a vascular specialist within 2 weeks
Explanation:Individuals who have an abdominal aorta diameter measuring 5.5 cm or greater should receive an appointment with a vascular specialist within two weeks of being diagnosed. Those with an abdominal aorta diameter ranging from 3 cm to 5.4 cm should be referred to a regional vascular service and seen within 12 weeks of diagnosis. For individuals with an abdominal aorta diameter of 3 cm to 4.4 cm, a repeat scan should be conducted annually. As the patient is in good health, hospitalization in the emergency department is unnecessary.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive
Explanation:To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports feeling extremely hot and unable to concentrate, with a sensation of the world closing in on him. Although his symptoms have mostly subsided, he seeks medical attention. Upon examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 188/112 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. Fundoscopy reveals small retinal hemorrhages, but cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. The patient's PHQ-9 score is 15 out of 27. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for a same day assessment of his blood pressure
Explanation:This individual is experiencing severe hypertension, according to NICE guidelines, and is also exhibiting retinal haemorrhages. In such cases, NICE advises immediate referral and assessment. While the reported panic attack may be unrelated, it is important to rule out the possibility of an underlying phaeochromocytoma.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for follow-up at the hypertension clinic. He is currently on a regimen of amlodipine and ramipril and has no significant medical history. He regularly checks his blood pressure at home and brings in a printed spreadsheet of his readings. What is the recommended target blood pressure for these home measurements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The threshold for stage 1 hypertension, as measured by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM), is a reading of 135/85 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman who is increasingly short of breath on exertion is found to have a 4/6 systolic murmur heard best on her right sternal edge.
What is the single most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the most important diagnostic tests for aortic stenosis is an echocardiogram, which can provide valuable information about the extent of the stenosis and whether surgery is necessary. In addition, an angiogram may be performed to assess the presence of ischaemic heart disease, which often occurs alongside aortic stenosis.
Other diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate aortic stenosis include a chest X-ray, which can reveal cardiac enlargement or calcification of the aortic ring, and an electrocardiogram, which may show evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. Exercise testing is not recommended for symptomatic patients, but may be useful for unmasking symptoms in physically active patients or for risk stratification in asymptomatic patients with severe disease.
While lung function testing is not typically part of the routine workup for aortic stenosis, it is important for patients to be aware of the risks associated with rigorous exercise, as sudden death can occur in those with severe disease. Overall, a comprehensive diagnostic approach is essential for accurately assessing the extent of aortic stenosis and determining the most appropriate course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is known to have high blood pressure.
Choose from the options the one drug that is expected to increase his blood pressure even more.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Certain medications and substances can cause an increase in blood pressure, known as drug-induced hypertension. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 selective agents cause sodium and water retention, leading to elevated blood pressure. Sympathomimetic amines, such as amphetamines and pseudoephedrine, can also have this effect. Corticosteroids, particularly those with strong mineralocorticoid effects, can cause fluid retention and hypertension. Oral contraceptives may slightly raise blood pressure in some women. Venlafaxine increases levels of norepinephrine, contributing to hypertension. Cyclosporine and tacrolimus, used in transplant and autoimmune patients, can also have a significant effect on blood pressure. Caffeine and certain dietary supplements, such as ginseng, natural liquorice, and yohimbine, can also cause drug-induced hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three months previously.
He has made a full recovery but wants to ask about his diet.
Which one of the following foods should he avoid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pork
Explanation:Tips for a Heart-Healthy Diet after a Heart Attack
Following a heart attack, it is important to adopt a healthier overall diet to reduce the risk of future heart problems. Unhealthy diets have been attributed to up to 30% of all deaths from coronary heart disease (CHD). While reducing fat intake is important, exercise also plays a crucial role in maintaining heart health.
Including canned and frozen fruits and vegetables in your diet is just as beneficial as fresh produce. A Mediterranean diet, which includes many protective elements for CHD, is recommended. Replacing butter with olive oil and mono-unsaturated margarine, such as those made from rape-seed or olive oil, is a healthier option. Organic butter is not any better for heart health than non-organic butter.
To reduce cholesterol intake, it is recommended to eat less red meat and replace it with poultry. Margarine containing sitostanol ester may also help reduce cholesterol intake. Adding plant sterol to margarine has been shown to reduce serum low-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Eating more fish, including oily fish, at least once a week is also recommended.
Switching to whole-grain bread instead of white bread and eating more root vegetables and green vegetables is also beneficial. Lastly, it is important to eat fruit every day. By following these tips, you can maintain a heart-healthy diet and reduce the risk of future heart problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man is worried about his risk of heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away at the age of 45 from a heart attack. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:
HDL 1.4 mmol/l
LDL 5.7 mmol/l
Triglycerides 2.3 mmol/l
Total cholesterol 8.2 mmol/l
Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There is no previous history of any abnormal cardiac findings.
Select from the list the single most likely explanation of this murmur.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Physiological
Explanation:Systolic Murmurs in Pregnancy: Causes and Characteristics
During pregnancy, the increased blood volume and flow through the heart can result in the appearance of innocent murmurs. In fact, a study found that 93.2% of healthy pregnant women had a systolic murmur at some point during pregnancy. These murmurs are typically systolic, may have a diastolic component, and can occur at any stage of pregnancy. They are often located at the second left intercostal space or along the left sternal border, but can radiate widely. If there is any doubt, referral for cardiological assessment is recommended.
Aortic stenosis produces a specific type of systolic murmur that begins shortly after the first heart sound and ends just before the second heart sound. It is best heard in the second right intercostal space. Mitral murmurs, on the other hand, are best heard at the apex and can radiate to the axilla. Mitral incompetence produces a pansystolic murmur of even intensity throughout systole, while mitral valve prolapse produces a mid-systolic click. A ventricular septal defect produces a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard along the left sternal edge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man complains of palpitations.
Select from the list the single situation in which palpitations will most likely need urgent further investigation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Palpitations accompanied by syncope or near syncope
Explanation:Understanding Palpitations and When to Seek Medical Attention
Palpitations are a common occurrence that can be described as an abnormally perceived heartbeat. While they are usually benign, they can be frightening. A risk stratification system has been developed to determine when urgent referral is necessary. This includes palpitations during exercise, palpitations with syncope or near syncope, a family history of sudden cardiac death or inheritable cardiac conditions, high degree atrioventricular block, and high-risk structural heart disease. However, a history of hypertension is not an indication for urgent referral. Ventricular extrasystoles on an ECG are likely benign unless there is a family history or known structural heart disease. Recurrent episodes of the heart beating fast may indicate a tachyarrhythmia and require routine referral. A normal ECG also warrants routine referral, except for second- and third-degree atrioventricular block, which require urgent referral. It is important to understand when to seek medical attention for palpitations to ensure proper care and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of this being an innocent murmur.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heard during a febrile illness
Explanation:Understanding Innocent Heart Murmurs in Children
Innocent heart murmurs are common in children between the ages of 3 and 8 years. They occur when blood flows noisily through a normal heart, usually due to increased blood flow or faster blood movement. Innocent murmurs are typically systolic and vibratory in quality, with an intensity of 2/6 or 1/6. They can change with posture and vary from examination to examination. Harsh murmurs, pansystolic murmurs, late systolic murmurs, and continuous murmurs are usually indicative of pathology. Heart sounds in innocent murmurs are normal, with a split second heart sound in inspiration and a single second heart sound in expiration. It’s important to note that the absence of symptoms doesn’t exclude important pathology, and some murmurs due to congenital heart disease may not be easily audible at birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is 20 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath in recent weeks and has started coughing up pink frothy sputum, particularly when lying down. She reports no chest pain. Blood tests reveal no anemia, but upon listening to her chest, you detect a mid-diastolic heart murmur at the apex. Her chest exam is otherwise normal, and her resting pulse is 90 bpm SR with O2 sats at 96%. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral Stenosis: Symptoms and Findings
Mitral stenosis is a condition where patients experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema due to increased left atrial pressure. This is more common in younger patients and can be exacerbated by situations of increased blood volume, such as during pregnancy. As a result, a previously asymptomatic patient may present to their GP during pregnancy.
Typical findings in mitral stenosis include a small pulse that may be irregularly irregular. Jugular venous pressure is only raised if there is heart failure, right ventricular hypertrophy, tapping apex beat, loud S1, loud P2 if pulmonary hypertension, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur heard at the apex only, or presystolic accentuation murmur if no atrial fibrillation.
In summary, patients with mitral stenosis may experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema, and typical findings include a small pulse and irregularly irregular heartbeat. Jugular venous pressure may only be raised in certain situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath. During examination, his peripheral oedema has worsened since his last visit (pitting to mid shins, previously to ankles). He has bibasal crackles on auscultation of his lungs; his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg but his heart rate and oxygen saturations are within normal limits. His current medication includes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, loop diuretic and beta-blocker.
What is the most appropriate management to alleviate symptoms and decrease mortality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Worsening Heart Failure
When a patient with worsening heart failure is already on the recommended combination of an ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic, adding low-dose spironolactone can further reduce cardiovascular mortality. However, it is important to monitor renal function and potassium levels. Stopping beta-blockers suddenly can cause rebound ischaemic events and arrhythmias, so reducing the dose may be a better option if spironolactone therapy doesn’t improve symptoms. Adding digoxin can help reduce breathlessness, but it has no effect on mortality. If the patient has an atherosclerotic cause of heart failure, adding high-intensity statins like simvastatin may be appropriate for secondary prevention. Stopping ACE inhibitors is not recommended as they have a positive prognostic benefit in chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with hypertension two years ago and is currently taking ramipril 10 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, indapamide 2.5mg od, and spironolactone 25 mg od. A trial of doxazosin was discontinued due to dizziness. Despite these medications, his blood pressure in clinic today is 160/100 mmHg, which is confirmed with a 24-hour blood pressure reading averaging 156/98 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:Due to the significantly elevated blood pressure of this relatively young patient, despite being on four antihypertensive medications, it is necessary to consider the possibility of a secondary cause. Therefore, referral to secondary care is recommended for further investigation. As per NICE guidelines, if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled even after using the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four medications, it is advisable to seek expert advice if it has not already been obtained.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease
Explanation:Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion
Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.
Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.
On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presented with an episode of right-sided weakness that lasted 10 minutes and fully resolved.
Examination reveals that he is in atrial fibrillation.
Assuming he remains in atrial fibrillation which of the following is the most appropriate management regime?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No additional drug treatment
Explanation:Anticoagulation Recommendation for High Risk Stroke Patient
This patient is at high risk for future stroke and therefore requires anticoagulation with warfarin. Their CHADS2 score is 2, indicating a higher likelihood of stroke. The most appropriate initial target range for their INR is 2-3, with a target INR of 2.5. This will help to reduce their risk of stroke and improve their overall health outcomes. It is important to closely monitor their INR levels and adjust their medication dosage as needed to maintain the target range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain that he has been experiencing for two months. The pain is dull in nature and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is detected in the central abdomen. The patient had undergone an abdominal ultrasound 6 months ago which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the ultrasound and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's ultrasound report which shows no focal pancreatic, liver or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, a 5.4 cm diameter abdominal aorta, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys.
What aspect of the patient's medical history suggests that surgery may be necessary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. The abdominal aortic diameter must be greater than 5.5cm to be classified as high rupture risk, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA’s velocity of growth should be monitored, and a high-risk AAA would only be indicated if there is an increase of more than 1 cm per year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance test. He refuses to undergo an angiogram and is discharged with a medication regimen consisting of aspirin 75 mg od, simvastatin 40 mg on, atenolol 50 mg od, and a GTN spray prn. Upon examination, his pulse is 72 bpm and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. During follow-up, he continues to frequently use his GTN spray. What is the most appropriate course of action for his management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase atenolol to 100 mg od
Explanation:If a patient with angina doesn’t respond well to the first-line drug (such as a beta-blocker), the dose should be increased before adding another drug. The recommended dose of atenolol for angina is 100 mg daily, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm indicates inadequate beta-blockade. The starting dose of isosorbide mononitrate is 10 mg bd.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Choose from the options the medical condition that would most likely prevent the use of ß-blockers in this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:The Benefits and Considerations of β-Blockers in Heart Failure Patients
β-blockers have been proven to provide significant benefits for patients with heart failure and should be offered to all eligible patients. It is recommended to start with the lowest possible dose and gradually increase it. While β-blockers can generally be safely administered to patients with COPD, caution should be exercised in patients with a history of asthma due to the risk of bronchospasm. However, cardioselective β-blockers such as atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol, nebivolol, and acebutolol may be used under specialist supervision. These medications are not cardiac specific and may still have an effect on airway resistance.
In addition to heart failure, β-blockers can also be used for rate control in patients with atrial fibrillation and as a first-line treatment for angina. While they may worsen symptoms of peripheral vascular disease, this is not a complete contraindication to their use.
Overall, β-blockers have proven to be a valuable treatment option for heart failure patients, but careful consideration should be given to individual patient factors before prescribing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes chest pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleuritic pain is sharp and localised and aggravated by coughing
Explanation:Pain and Innervation in the Diaphragm, Lungs, and Pericardium
The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which only supplies the central portion of the muscle. Therefore, pain originating in the outer diaphragm will not be referred to the tip of the shoulder. Additionally, the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura are insensitive to pain, meaning that any discomfort felt in these areas is likely due to surrounding structures.
Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart, can cause chest pain. However, this pain is typically relieved by sitting forward. This is because the pericardium is attached to the diaphragm and sternum, and sitting forward can reduce pressure on these structures, alleviating the pain. Understanding the innervation and sensitivity of these structures can aid in the diagnosis and management of chest pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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