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  • Question 1 - You are conducting a routine check-up on a one-month-old infant and notice that...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a routine check-up on a one-month-old infant and notice that the baby has ambiguous genitalia. The parents are understandably upset and want to know what could have caused this. What is the most probable reason for the ambiguous genitalia in this situation?

      Your Answer: Male pseudohermaphroditism

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in newborns is congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Kallman’s syndrome does not result in ambiguous genitalia, as those affected are typically male but have hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, which is usually diagnosed during puberty. Androgen insensitivity syndrome results in individuals who are phenotypically female and do not have ambiguous genitalia. Male pseudohermaphroditism is a rare cause of ambiguous genitalia, with external genitalia typically being female or ambiguous and testes usually present.

      During fetal development, the gonads are initially undifferentiated. However, the presence of the sex-determining gene (SRY gene) on the Y chromosome causes the gonads to differentiate into testes. In the absence of this gene (i.e. in a female), the gonads differentiate into ovaries. Ambiguous genitalia in newborns is most commonly caused by congenital adrenal hyperplasia, but can also be caused by true hermaphroditism or maternal ingestion of androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.5
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  • Question 2 - A 3-month-old infant is brought in with progressive noisy breathing that is particularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old infant is brought in with progressive noisy breathing that is particularly noticeable during feeding. The baby is below average in weight gain and has a poor appetite. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital subglottic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      The primary reason for stridor in infants is laryngomalacia, which is characterized by a soft epiglottis that collapses into the airway during inhalation. Although it typically resolves on its own, if the stridor worsens and causes respiratory distress or hinders feeding, surgery may be necessary to enhance the airway.

      Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.9
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of lithium. After being stabilised, her baby is delivered without complications. However, during routine neonatal examinations, a pansystolic murmur is detected. Further evaluation through cardiac echocardiogram shows tricuspid incompetence with a large right atrium, a small right ventricle, and a low insertion of the tricuspid valve. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that results in the ‘atrialisation’ of the right ventricle. This condition is characterized by a low insertion of the tricuspid valve, which causes a large right atrium and a small right ventricle, leading to tricuspid incompetence. It is important to note that Ebstein’s anomaly is not the same as Fallot’s tetralogy, coarctation of the aorta, or transposition of the great arteries.

      Understanding Ebstein’s Anomaly

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a type of congenital heart defect that is characterized by the tricuspid valve being inserted too low, resulting in a large atrium and a small ventricle. This condition is also known as the atrialization of the right ventricle. It is believed that exposure to lithium during pregnancy may cause this condition.

      Ebstein’s anomaly is often associated with a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or atrial septal defect (ASD), which causes a shunt between the right and left atria. Additionally, patients with this condition may also have Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome.

      The clinical features of Ebstein’s anomaly include cyanosis, a prominent a wave in the distended jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, tricuspid regurgitation, and a pansystolic murmur that is worse on inspiration. Patients may also have a right bundle branch block, which can lead to widely split S1 and S2 heart sounds.

      In summary, Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve and can cause a range of symptoms. It is often associated with other conditions such as PFO or ASD and can be diagnosed through clinical examination and imaging tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29.2
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  • Question 4 - You are requested to assess a preterm neonate in the neonatal unit. During...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a preterm neonate in the neonatal unit. During the examination of the palate, you observe a white nodule on the roof of the mouth. The baby is alert and active, and there is no interference with feeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epstein's pearl

      Explanation:

      Epstein’s pearls, which are located in the middle of the posterior hard palate, can be mistaken for neonatal teeth. However, unlike neonatal teeth, Epstein’s pearls do not need any treatment. Bohn’s nodules, on the other hand, are situated on the inner labial aspect of the maxillary alveolar ridges. Dermoid cysts, which may contain teeth, are not commonly found in the oral cavity. Oral candida infection can manifest as white patches on the interior of the mouth.

      Understanding Epstein’s Pearl

      Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums, which may be mistaken for a tooth eruption. The good news is that no treatment is usually required as these cysts tend to disappear on their own within a few weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old girl has been referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl has been referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician due to ongoing bedwetting. Her mother has expressed concern as the girl has never had a dry night. The pediatrician has provided advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting habits, but the bedwetting persists despite the use of a reward system. The mother has contacted the enuresis clinic for further intervention. What is the likely intervention that will be provided?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When a child experiences nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first option if general advice has not been effective. According to NICE guidelines, this is the primary approach. It may be worthwhile to consider a more appealing reward system to motivate the child, as they may not be incentivized if the prize is not deemed valuable. However, it is assumed that the mother can adequately motivate their child, so this may not be the chosen route for the clinic. If the initial intervention is unsuccessful, it is unlikely that repeating it will yield different results. If the enuresis alarm is not effective, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered, with desmopressin being the usual choice.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.6
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  • Question 6 - A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to see you at the General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to see you at the General Practice surgery where you are working as a Foundation Year 2 doctor. The daughter had a runny nose and sore throat for the past few days but then developed bright red rashes on both her cheeks. She now has a raised itchy rash on her chest, that has a lace-like appearance, but feels well. She has no known long-term conditions and has been developing normally.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus infection

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Rashes and Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Parvovirus Infection: Also known as ‘slapped cheek syndrome’, this mild infection is characterized by a striking appearance. However, it can lead to serious complications in immunocompromised patients or those with sickle-cell anaemia or thalassaemia.

      Pityriasis Rosea: This rash starts with an oval patch of scaly skin and is followed by small, scaly patches that spread across the body.

      Impetigo: A superficial infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, impetigo results in fluid-filled blisters or sores that burst and leave a yellow crust.

      Scarlet Fever: This rash is blotchy and rough to the touch, typically starting on the chest or abdomen. Patients may also experience headache, sore throat, and high temperature.

      Urticaria: This itchy, raised rash is caused by histamine release due to an allergic reaction, infection, medications, or temperature changes. It usually settles within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.1
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  • Question 7 - During the baby check of Maya, a 4-day-old neonate delivered via Caesarean section...

    Correct

    • During the baby check of Maya, a 4-day-old neonate delivered via Caesarean section due to a breech position, both Barlows and Ortolani's tests are negative. What should be the next best step?

      Your Answer: Perform a bilateral hip ultrasound at 4-6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Bilateral Hip Ultrasound in Newborns with Risk Factors for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

      Babies with risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip require further investigation even if they test negative on Barlows and Ortolani’s tests. National guidelines recommend a bilateral hip ultrasound at 4-6 weeks for these infants. If the Barlow’s or Ortolani’s tests are abnormal, a scan should be done within 2 weeks. In cases where the baby was in the breech position at term but had negative test results, a hip ultrasound is still necessary. It is important to reassure parents that this is a normal procedure and that no treatment may be necessary. Bilateral hip radiographs are not useful in neonates and MRI is not used in the diagnosis of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Operative approaches are only recommended for patients over 18 months of age, and conservative approaches are preferred for younger children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man has been experiencing muscle weakness and cramps, and after extensive...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has been experiencing muscle weakness and cramps, and after extensive investigation, it has been determined that he has a rare form of myopathy. His family history reveals that his mother, maternal grandmother, brother, maternal aunt, and her two sons are all affected by the same condition. Interestingly, his maternal uncle has the disease, but none of his children do. There is no evidence of the disease on the paternal side, and his wife has no family history of the disorder. What is the likelihood that his biological children will inherit the myopathy from him?

      Your Answer: 0%

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.

      Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - At what age should the oral rotavirus vaccine be administered as part of...

    Correct

    • At what age should the oral rotavirus vaccine be administered as part of the NHS immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer: 2 months + 3 months

      Explanation:

      The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Illness and Mortality

      Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. This vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.

      The rotavirus vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%. It is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70% and provides long-term protection against rotavirus. This vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood illness and mortality, particularly in developing countries where access to healthcare may be limited. By ensuring that children receive the rotavirus vaccine, we can help to protect them from this dangerous and potentially deadly virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.9
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  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old boy visits his family doctor complaining of a limp that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy visits his family doctor complaining of a limp that has been bothering him for the past 48 hours. He mentions having a runny nose and cough for a few days, but he feels better today. He reports pain in his left hip.
      During the examination, the boy seems to be in good spirits and can bear weight with an antalgic gait.
      His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and his heart rate is 90 beats per minute. His respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and his temperature is 38.5ºC.
      What is the most appropriate course of action based on this information?

      Your Answer: Reassure and give safety netting advice

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently for same-day assessment

      Explanation:

      The option to reassure and provide safety netting advice is not appropriate for a child with an acutely irritable hip and fever >38.5ºC, as septic arthritis is a possible diagnosis that requires urgent assessment, including synovial aspiration. Although transient tenosynovitis is the most likely diagnosis, the presence of fever warrants further investigation to rule out septic arthritis. The recommendation of a Pavlik harness and orthopaedic review is not applicable unless developmental dysplasia of the hip is confirmed. Rest and over-the-counter analgesia are not sufficient management for this patient, as urgent referral for same-day assessment is necessary to exclude septic arthritis.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.8
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  • Question 11 - A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up appointment. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past eight months. During her last visit four months ago, she was wetting the bed six to seven nights a week. You advised her parents to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, establish a toileting routine before bed, and implement a reward system for positive behavior. Despite following these recommendations, she continues to wet the bed six to seven nights a week. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her nocturnal enuresis?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment option for nocturnal enuresis. However, there are exceptions to this, such as when the child and family find the alarm unacceptable or if the child is over 8 years old and needs rapid short-term reduction in enuresis. Additionally, it is important to note that enuresis alarms have a lower relapse rate compared to other treatments.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and knee pain following a minor fall from her bike. Upon examination, her knee appears normal but there is limited range of motion at the hip joint. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects obese adolescent boys with a positive family history. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head from the femoral neck, which can lead to a range of symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include an externally rotated hip and antalgic gait, decreased internal rotation, thigh atrophy (depending on the chronicity of symptoms), and hip, thigh, and knee pain.

      It is important to note that 25% of cases are bilateral, meaning that both hips may be affected. This condition can be particularly debilitating for young people, as it can limit their mobility and cause significant discomfort.

      Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis, as early diagnosis and treatment can help to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.3
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  • Question 13 - A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty and not having started her menstrual cycle. She reports feeling generally well and has no significant medical history. During the examination, it is noted that she has a slender build and underdeveloped breasts. There is no pubic hair present. Upon palpation, marble-sized swellings are felt in both groins. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of androgen insensitivity is primary amenorrhoea, with the key symptom being groin swellings. When combined with the absence of pubic hair, this points towards a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity, also known as testicular feminisation syndrome. This condition occurs in individuals who are genetically male (46XY) but appear phenotypically female due to increased oestradiol levels, which cause breast development. The groin swellings in this case are undescended testes. While non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could also cause groin swellings, it is less likely as it would typically present with systemic symptoms and is not a common cause of delayed puberty.

      Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.

      Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      48.1
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  • Question 14 - You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old girl with a sprained ankle. During your examination, you observe some bruises on her arms. When you ask her about it, she becomes quiet and avoids eye contact. Her father quickly intervenes and explains that she fell off her bike. However, you have a gut feeling that something is not right. What steps do you take next?

      Your Answer: Put the child's arm in a cast and admit them, then contact child protection

      Explanation:

      The GMC’s good medical practice provides guidelines for safeguarding children and young people. It emphasizes the importance of considering all possible causes of an injury or signs of abuse or neglect, including rare genetic conditions. However, the clinical needs of the child must not be overlooked in the process. If concerns persist after discussing with parents, it is necessary to report to the appropriate agency. In this scenario, delaying action while the child is under your care is not acceptable. Therefore, contacting child protection would be the appropriate course of action.

      NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.

      For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.

      For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.

      For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.

      Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when...

    Incorrect

    • You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when you are called to assess a 16-month-old toddler presenting with a runny nose, dry cough, increased respiratory effort, and an elevated respiratory rate. Upon examination, you note a mild generalised wheeze, along with fever and feeding difficulties. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral upper respiratory tract infection (URTI)

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions in Children: Understanding the Differences

      Bronchiolitis, Pneumonia, Asthma, Viral Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI), and Croup are all respiratory conditions that can affect children. However, it is important to understand the differences between them in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory condition caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) that mostly affects children under 18 months old. It presents with coryzal symptoms before progressing to dyspnoea, cough, and fever. Difficulty feeding may occur due to dyspnoea, but most cases do not require admission.

      Pneumonia, on the other hand, is likely to present with a toxic child due to the bacteraemia. Localising signs such as dullness to percussion over the affected lobe may also be present.

      Asthma, which causes wheezing, would not cause fever. It is also important to note that the diagnosis of asthma should be avoided in patients below the age of 5.

      A viral URTI confined to the upper respiratory tract would not cause wheezing or significant respiratory compromise as described in the case history.

      Croup, which typically affects older children between the ages of 2-6 years, presents with a barking cough and, in severe cases, stridor.

      Understanding the differences between these respiratory conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and care for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - At what age and stage of schooling is a child typically offered the...

    Correct

    • At what age and stage of schooling is a child typically offered the HPV vaccine?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      The HPV vaccination is now given to both girls and boys aged 12-13 years old, when they enter Year 8 at school. This is the correct answer. The Hepatitis B vaccine is given at 2, 3, and 4 months of age, while the MMR vaccine is given at 1 year and 3 years, 4 months of age. The meningitis ACWY vaccine is given to school children aged 13-15 years old and to university students up to 25 years old. The tetanus, diphtheria, and polio vaccine is given at age 14.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - What characteristic would be indicative of a ventricular septal defect in an acyanotic,...

    Incorrect

    • What characteristic would be indicative of a ventricular septal defect in an acyanotic, healthy infant who has just had their one-month check-up and a murmur was detected for the first time?

      Your Answer: Reduced pulmonary vascularity on chest x ray

      Correct Answer: A murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge

      Explanation:

      Ventricular Septal Defects

      Ventricular septal defects (VSD) are a common congenital heart condition that can be classified by location and size. The size of the VSD determines the clinical features and haemodynamic consequences. Small VSDs generate a loud, harsh, pansystolic murmur that is heard best at the left sternal edge and often associated with a thrill. They have minimal haemodynamic consequence so children are asymptomatic. Large VSDs cause greater haemodynamic effects, such that there is little flow through the VSD causing a quiet murmur or none at all. These children present with cardiac failure at around 1 month and, if untreated, over 10-20 years they may progress to Eisenmenger syndrome with reversal of the shunt.

      Central cyanosis in infancy would indicate that an alternative diagnosis is more likely. In addition, children with large VSDs suffer an increased frequency of chest infections. There is pulmonary hypertension with increased vascularity seen on chest x Ray and evidence on ECG e.g. upright T-waves in V1. Initially, they are treated with diuretics and an ACE inhibitor, with surgical closure performed at 3-6 months. On the other hand, small VSDs usually close spontaneously, so children are monitored with ECG and echocardiography. the classification and clinical features of VSDs is crucial in the diagnosis and management of this congenital heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A three-week-old preterm baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by...

    Incorrect

    • A three-week-old preterm baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his mother due to concerns of increasing lethargy and refusal to feed over the past 3 days. On examination, the baby's respiratory rate is 66 breaths/min, oxygen saturations are 95% on air, heart rate is 178 bpm, blood pressure is 64/48 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5ºC. The only notable findings are lethargy and signs of dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Galactoseamia

      Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with episodes of cyanosis...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with episodes of cyanosis during physical activity. He was born at term via normal vaginal delivery, without complications during pregnancy. The child has been healthy, but recently started experiencing bluish skin during physical activity.
      After examination, the child is diagnosed with Fallot's tetralogy.
      What is a common association with a patient diagnosed with Fallot's tetralogy?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD), Pulmonary Stenosis, Right Ventricular Outflow Tract (RVOT) Obstruction, Right Ventricular Hypertrophy, and Overriding of the VSD by the Aorta are all characteristics of Fallot’s Tetralogy, the most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease. This condition presents with cyanotic episodes, typically at 1-2 months of age. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is not associated with Fallot’s Tetralogy. Pulmonary Regurgitation is not seen in Fallot’s Tetralogy, but rather Pulmonary Stenosis. A Continuous Murmur throughout Systole and Diastole is a characteristic of Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA). Hypoplastic Right Ventricle is not associated with Fallot’s Tetralogy, but rather Right Ventricular Hypertrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.9
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  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old girl visits your GP practice seeking contraception. After counseling her, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits your GP practice seeking contraception. After counseling her, you both agree that the implant would be the most suitable option. You believe that she has the ability to make this decision and give her consent for the insertion. However, during previous consultations, you have found her to lack capacity for certain decisions and have involved her parents. According to the GMC, what is necessary to proceed with the implant insertion?

      Your Answer: The patient's consent, and the consent of one of her parents.

      Correct Answer: Just the patient's consent.

      Explanation:

      Capacity to make decisions is dependent on both time and the individual’s ability to make decisions. If the patient did not have the capacity to make a decision in the past, but currently has the capacity to do so, their consent is the only one required. It is advisable to involve parents in the decision-making process for pediatric patients, especially in cases involving contraception. However, if the patient is not convinced, the treatment can still proceed as long as they have the capacity to make the decision. If there are doubts, it is good practice to involve another healthcare team member, but if the patient is deemed capable of making the decision, their capacitous consent is sufficient according to the GMC. There is no requirement for a time gap between consultations to allow for decision-making.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after overdosing on alcohol...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after overdosing on alcohol and paracetamol. She was discovered by her friend, unconscious in a local park, after sending a concerning text message. Her parents were both at work at the time. Upon regaining consciousness, she expresses embarrassment and explains that she had an argument with her boyfriend, now regrets her actions, and wishes to return home. All of her blood tests come back normal and she is deemed medically stable.
      What is the best course of immediate action for her management?

      Your Answer: Admit onto the paediatric ward to await an urgent Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) assessment prior to discharge

      Explanation:

      Options for Discharging a Child with Suicidal Ideation

      When a child presents with suicidal ideation, it is important to carefully consider the best course of action for their safety and well-being. Here are some options for discharging a child with suicidal ideation:

      1. Admit onto the paediatric ward to await an urgent Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) assessment prior to discharge.

      2. Start fluoxetine 10 mg and discharge home. However, antidepressants should only be considered following full assessment and recommendation by a child and adolescent psychiatrist.

      3. Discharge home with outpatient CAMHS follow up within a week. This option is only appropriate if the child is not at high risk of deliberate self-harm/attempted suicide.

      4. Discharge home with advice to book an urgent appointment to see their GP the same day. This option is only appropriate if the child is not at high risk of deliberate self-harm/attempted suicide.

      5. Start citalopram 10 mg and discharge home. However, antidepressants should only be considered following full assessment and recommendation by a child and adolescent psychiatrist.

      It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of the child and consult with mental health professionals before making any decisions about discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about her walking and balance. The child learned to walk around 2 years old, much the same as her older brother. However, over the last few months, her dad has noticed that she has become reluctant to walk and often trips or falls when she does.

      On examination, the child is of average build but has disproportionately large calves. When asked to walk across the room she does so on her tiptoes. Gowers test is positive.

      What investigation is considered most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Proximal muscle biopsy

      Correct Answer: Genetic analysis

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) can now be made through genetic testing instead of a muscle biopsy. The symptoms and history described strongly suggest DMD, which is a genetic disorder that causes muscle wasting and weakness. Classic features of DMD include calf hyperplasia and a positive Gowers test. Most individuals with DMD will require a wheelchair by puberty, and management is primarily conservative. CT imaging of the legs is not typically used for diagnosis, and while a high creatine kinase can indicate muscular dystrophy in children, genetic testing is more definitive. Muscle function testing is useful for monitoring disease progression but not for initial diagnosis.

      Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.

      The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his concerned mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his concerned mother due to a fever that has lasted for 72 hours and has now developed a rash on his face and torso. The mother describes the rash as appearing in clusters. The boy is not eating much but is drinking well and has no changes to his bowel or urinary movements. He has no significant medical history and his immunizations are up to date. No one else in the family has been sick recently, but the mother does mention that her son has recently started attending school and a few of the other children have had a similar rash.

      During the examination, the boy's temperature is 38.8ºC, and he has scabbed lesions on his right cheek and erythematous vesicles on his trunk. What is the most appropriate management for this child?

      Your Answer: Acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Topical calamine lotion

      Explanation:

      Varicella zoster virus causes chickenpox, a highly contagious disease that commonly affects children. The onset of the disease is marked by a prodrome of elevated temperature, followed by the appearance of clusters of red blisters on the face and torso. Children remain infectious until all the blisters have scabbed over, and should stay away from school or nursery until this point. Treatment involves supportive measures such as calamine lotion to relieve itching and paracetamol to control fever. Immunodeficient children may require acyclovir to prevent complications such as pneumonia and meningitis. Scabies, which mainly affects the fingers’ web spaces, is treated with permethrin. Flucloxacillin is recommended for bacterial infections that occur on top of chickenpox. It is advisable to avoid ibuprofen in chickenpox, as there is a link between the use of NSAIDs and the development of necrotising fasciitis.

      Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.

      Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia

      Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of gradual onset right groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of gradual onset right groin pain and a limp. He has no significant medical or family history. During the examination, the right leg appears shortened and externally rotated, with limited range of motion. No joint swelling or warmth is detected. The patient's vital signs are normal, and he is in the 50th percentile for height and 90th percentile for weight. What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Correct Answer: Plain X-ray of both hips (AP and frog-leg views)

      Explanation:

      To diagnose SUFE, X-rays are the preferred imaging method. It is important to image both hips, even if there are no symptoms, to rule out involvement of the other hip. MRI is not typically used as a first-line investigation, but may be considered if there is still suspicion of SUFE despite normal X-rays. While CT is sensitive for SUFE, it is not typically used as a first-line investigation in children due to the radiation exposure.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A healthy toddler is playing outside but suddenly stops breathing. The toddler's heart...

    Correct

    • A healthy toddler is playing outside but suddenly stops breathing. The toddler's heart rate is over 100 bpm, but the skin colour is blue and the toddler is not moving. After calling for help and checking for a pulse, what is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: Give five breaths of air via a face mask

      Explanation:

      Steps for Neonatal Resuscitation

      Neonatal resuscitation is a crucial process that can save a newborn’s life. Here are the steps to follow:

      1. Dry the baby and assess its tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is not breathing or gasping, open the airway by placing the baby on its back with the head in a neutral position. Give five inflation breaths of air via a face mask.

      2. If the heart rate increases but the baby still cannot breathe, give breaths at a rate of 30-40 per minute until the baby can breathe independently.

      3. Cardiac massage should only be done if the chest is not moving or the heart rate drops below 60 bpm. In this case, commence cardiac massage at a rate of three compressions to one breath.

      4. Suction of the airways should only be done if there is an obvious airway obstruction that cannot be corrected by airway repositioning manoeuvres.

      5. While it is important to keep the baby warm, avoid wrapping it tightly in a towel as it can obstruct the resuscitation process.

      6. Intubation is not the first step in the resuscitation process. It is an option when resuscitation is failing and is the decision of a senior paediatrician.

      By following these steps, you can increase the chances of a successful neonatal resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of an itchy rash, initially...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of an itchy rash, initially on her abdomen and now spreading across the rest of her torso and limbs. She is usually healthy and is not taking any other medications, and the rest of her family is also healthy. There is a widespread vesicular rash with some papules and crusting, as well as newer papules. Her temperature is 37.6 °C and her other vital signs are normal.
      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous flucloxacillin and acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Management of Chickenpox in Children: Treatment Options and Complications

      Chickenpox (varicella-zoster) is a common childhood infection that spreads through the respiratory route, causing a vesicular rash. The child may experience a low-grade fever, which can be managed with paracetamol for symptomatic relief. However, parents should also be advised on hydration and red flag symptoms for potential complications. While chlorphenamine and calamine lotion can provide supportive therapy, evidence for their effectiveness is limited.

      In rare cases, chickenpox can lead to complications such as encephalitis, pneumonitis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or bacterial superinfection with staphylococcal aureus. If bacterial superinfection occurs, hospital admission and treatment with antibiotics, possibly in conjunction with acyclovir, may be necessary.

      Zoster immunoglobulin is not recommended for children with uncomplicated chickenpox who do not have a history of immunosuppression. Similarly, oral acyclovir is not recommended for otherwise healthy children under the age of 12.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential complications of chickenpox and to provide appropriate management to ensure the best possible outcomes for affected children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness....

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness. She has no past medical history. Her 7-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Family history is also otherwise unremarkable. Urgent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a surprising finding of blood glucose level of 2.1 mmol/l. This is confirmed on urgent formal blood glucose testing. She is transferred to the hospital’s high dependency unit (HDU) for monitoring and treatment. Blood tests taken shortly after admission reveal elevated insulin and low C-peptide levels.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Factitious hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Factitious Hypoglycaemia and Differential Diagnosis

      Factitious hypoglycaemia is a condition where an individual deliberately induces hypoglycaemia by using insulin or oral hypoglycaemic agents. In contrast to endogenous insulin, synthetic insulin does not contain C-peptide as part of its formulation. Therefore, elevated insulin with an inappropriately low C-peptide level indicates exogenous insulin administration. This condition is often associated with psychological factors, and the individual may be seeking attention or sympathy.

      Differential diagnosis includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, which presents with hyperglycaemia rather than hypoglycaemia. Familial insulinoma syndrome is a rare condition that leads to elevated C-peptide levels. Maturity onset diabetes of the young is another subset of diabetes that presents with hyperglycaemia. Insulinoma, on the other hand, presents with hypoglycaemia, elevated insulin, and elevated C-peptide levels.

      It is crucial to differentiate factitious hypoglycaemia from other conditions to provide appropriate treatment and support for the individual. A thorough medical evaluation and psychological assessment may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the condition.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent jaundice since birth, pale stools and dark urine. The infant is currently being breastfed.
      What is the most probable reason for this infant's jaundice?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Jaundice in Infants

      Jaundice in newborns that lasts for more than two weeks is considered pathological and requires medical attention. In this case, the infant is exhibiting signs of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by jaundice with pale stools and dark urine. This is indicative of biliary atresia, a condition that affects the liver and bile ducts.

      Cystic fibrosis is another condition that may present in infants with recurrent respiratory infections, but it is not associated with jaundice. Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is a common cause of obstructive jaundice, but it is more prevalent in middle-aged individuals. Breastfeeding jaundice occurs due to suboptimal milk intake, but it does not cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

      Physiological jaundice is common in infants and typically lasts for 1-2 weeks. However, if jaundice persists for more than two weeks, it is considered pathological and requires medical attention. It is important to understand the various causes of jaundice in infants to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis?

      Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage

      Explanation:

      Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection

      Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is a condition that causes cyanosis in newborns. It is characterized by an abnormality in blood flow where all four pulmonary veins drain into systemic veins or the right atrium, with or without pulmonary venous obstruction. This results in the mixing of systemic and pulmonary venous blood in the right atrium.

      In contrast, conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), atrial septal defect (ASD), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are left to right shunts. Tricuspid atresia is another condition that is typically associated with cyanosis, but mitral regurgitation is not.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions and their effects on blood flow in order to properly diagnose and treat them. Further reading on TAPVC can be found on Medscape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - As a junior doctor in the emergency department, you are asked by a...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in the emergency department, you are asked by a senior doctor to examine a child with a persistent cough. However, they caution you against examining the child's throat as it may lead to airway obstruction. What could be the possible diagnosis for this case?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to conduct a throat examination on a patient with croup as it may lead to airway obstruction. This risk is higher in cases of acute epiglottitis, which is a less common condition. However, for the other conditions, throat examination is not contraindicated.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 31 - You are requested to assess an infant in the neonatal unit. The baby...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess an infant in the neonatal unit. The baby was delivered at 39 weeks gestation without any complications. The parents are hesitant to give their consent for vitamin K administration, citing their preference for a more natural approach. How would you advise the parents on the recommended practice for neonatal vitamin K?

      Your Answer: Once-off IM injection

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K is crucial in preventing haemorrhagic disease in newborns and can be administered orally or intramuscularly. While both methods are licensed for neonates, it is advisable to recommend the IM route to parents due to concerns about compliance and the shorter duration of treatment (one-off injection). The oral form is not recommended for healthy neonates as there is a risk of inadequate dosage due to forgetfulness or the baby vomiting up the medication.

      Haemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn: Causes and Prevention

      Newborn babies have a relatively low level of vitamin K, which can lead to the development of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN). This condition occurs when the production of clotting factors is impaired, resulting in bleeding that can range from minor bruising to intracranial haemorrhages. breastfed babies are particularly at risk, as breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. Additionally, the use of antiepileptic medication by the mother can increase the risk of HDN in the newborn.

      To prevent HDN, all newborns in the UK are offered vitamin K supplementation. This can be administered either intramuscularly or orally. By providing newborns with adequate levels of vitamin K, the risk of HDN can be significantly reduced. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the risk factors for HDN and to take steps to prevent this potentially serious condition.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 32 - A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born...

    Correct

    • A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born in breech position at 38+4 weeks gestation without any complications during delivery. However, two days after birth, the baby developed jaundice and was treated with phototherapy. The newborn physical examination was normal. The mother has a medical history of anaemia, asthma, and coeliac disease. The baby is currently thriving and is on the 45th centile. What investigations should the GP consider referring the baby for based on their medical history?

      Your Answer: Ultrasounds of pelvis

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 33 - A 23-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder gives birth to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder gives birth to a baby girl at home. She received no prenatal care, but when she found out she was pregnant, she started taking prenatal vitamins that she got from the pharmacist. Her only medication is valproic acid. It is 2 days since the birth, and the mother has brought her baby to the Emergency Department because she has become impossible to arouse. On examination, the baby is estimated to have been born at 35 weeks’ gestation. The baby is afebrile, with stable vital signs. A head ultrasound through the fontanelle shows an intracerebral haemorrhage in the germinal matrix. There are no calcifications. Retinal examination does not show petechial haemorrhages. A full skeletal survey is negative.
      What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism underlying this baby’s haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Folate deficiency from valproic acid treatment

      Correct Answer: Vitamin K deficiency

      Explanation:

      Causes of Periventricular Hemorrhage in Neonates

      Periventricular hemorrhage is a common condition in neonates that can lead to neurological damage. There are several possible causes of this condition, including vitamin K deficiency, folate deficiency from valproic acid treatment, congenital cytomegalovirus, congenital toxoplasmosis, and congenital herpes simplex virus.

      Vitamin K deficiency is a natural occurrence in neonates as they do not have established gut bacteria that produce this vitamin. Vitamin K is essential for the production of clotting factors and anticoagulant proteins. Therefore, neonates born in hospitals are usually injected with vitamin K to prevent periventricular hemorrhage.

      Folate deficiency from valproic acid treatment is a common cause of neural tube defects but does not lead to periventricular hemorrhage. Prenatal vitamins usually contain folate, which can prevent this deficiency.

      Congenital cytomegalovirus and congenital toxoplasmosis can cause periventricular hemorrhage, but they are also accompanied by other congenital abnormalities, such as intracerebral calcifications.

      Congenital herpes simplex virus can cause periventricular hemorrhage and neurological damage, but it also causes a diffuse vesicular rash and other symptoms.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 34 - A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is concerned about his movement. He is diagnosed as having developmental dysplasia of the hip on ultrasound.
      Which statement is correct regarding the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?

      Your Answer: Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting

      Explanation:

      Understanding Treatment Options and Complications for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects the hip joint in infants and young children. Treatment options for DDH include splinting with a Pavlik harness or surgical correction. However, both options come with potential complications.

      Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting. While Pavlik harness splinting can be less invasive than surgical correction, it may not be effective for all children. If the child is under six months, the splint is usually tried first, and if there is no response, then surgery may be necessary.

      The age at diagnosis does not affect the prognosis, but the greater the age of the child at diagnosis, the more likely they will need a more extensive corrective procedure. It is important to note that a Pavlik harness is contraindicated in children over six months old or with an irreducible hip. In these cases, surgery is the only treatment option available.

      Recovery following closed reduction surgery is usually complete after four weeks. However, children may need a plaster cast or a reduction brace for three to four months following the procedure. Surgical reduction is always indicated for children in whom a Pavlik harness is not indicated or has not worked. It may also be indicated for children who were too old at presentation to try a harness or have an irreducible hip.

      In summary, understanding the treatment options and potential complications for DDH is crucial for parents and healthcare providers to make informed decisions about the best course of action for each individual child.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 35 - A 2-year-old child is being evaluated by a neurologist due to delayed motor...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child is being evaluated by a neurologist due to delayed motor development. The child's general practitioner referred them to the specialist. The child exhibits slow, twisting, and repetitive movements of the arms when attempting to move or walk. Additionally, the child experiences rapid involuntary and jerky movements of the legs, along with oro-motor difficulties. There is no significant family history of neurological conditions, and the child's two siblings are healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis, and in which zone is the lesion likely located?

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia and the substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Dyskinetic cerebral palsy is caused by damage to the basal ganglia and the substantia nigra. These areas control movement and are specifically affected by cerebral malformations during development and congenital infections. The main symptoms of dyskinetic cerebral palsy are athetoid movements and oro-motor problems, which involve slow, involuntary, and writhing movements of various muscle groups.

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by lesions to the amygdala, produces a different set of symptoms, including hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. Frontal lobe lesions can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and inability to generate a list. Damage to the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can cause Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome, which is typically seen in alcoholics and those with severe nutritional deficiencies. This syndrome is characterized by nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and amnesia.

      Understanding Cerebral Palsy

      Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.

      Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.

      Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 36 - A family planning clinic is consulted by a couple who are hoping to...

    Correct

    • A family planning clinic is consulted by a couple who are hoping to have another child. They previously lost their first child to Tay Sachs disease. Upon genetic testing, it is discovered that both parents are carriers of the condition. What is the likelihood that their next child will also be a carrier?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      There are two possible scenarios for inheriting the TSD gene. In the first scenario, known as CC, both parents pass on the TSD gene to their child. In the second scenario, known as Cc, only one parent passes on the TSD gene while the other does not. Regardless of which scenario occurs, the patient will be a carrier and heterozygous. The likelihood of either scenario occurring is 25%.

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 37 - A mother has delivered a baby with significant microcephaly and a missing philtrum....

    Correct

    • A mother has delivered a baby with significant microcephaly and a missing philtrum. During examination, a pansystolic murmur is detected. The mother did not receive any prenatal care at this hospital and cannot remember if any abnormalities were detected during the prenatal period. What maternal prenatal occurrences could have led to the infant's abnormalities and presentation?

      Your Answer: Maternal alcohol use

      Explanation:

      If a mother experiences a primary infection between weeks 3-28 of pregnancy, the developing foetus may be affected due to deactivation while still in the womb. This can result in various features such as skin scarring, eye defects (including small eyes, cataracts, or chorioretinitis), and neurological defects (such as reduced IQ, abnormal sphincter function, and microcephaly).

      Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.

      The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.

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  • Question 38 - As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: X-Ray

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

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  • Question 39 - A 4-month-old infant presents with feeding difficulties, failure to thrive, and episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 4-month-old infant presents with feeding difficulties, failure to thrive, and episodes of bluish pale skin during crying or feeding. On examination, a harsh systolic ejection murmur is heard over the pulmonic area and left sternal border. A chest radiograph during birth was normal. A second radiograph at presentation shows a boot-shaped heart.
      What is the most likely embryological mechanism responsible for the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Congenital Heart Defects

      Congenital heart defects can arise from various mechanisms during fetal development. Understanding these mechanisms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.

      Anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum is responsible for the characteristic boot-shaped heart seen in tetralogy of Fallot. This condition is characterized by pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, and an overriding aorta.

      Transposition of the great vessels occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during development. Persistent truncus arteriosus results from the failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to divide.

      Infundibular stenosis is caused by underdevelopment of the conus arteriosus of the right ventricle. Sinus venosus atrial septal defects arise from incomplete absorption of the sinus venosus into the right atrium.

      By understanding the mechanisms behind these congenital heart defects, healthcare professionals can provide better care for affected individuals.

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  • Question 40 - A 24-hour old baby is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit due...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-hour old baby is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit due to tremors in his limbs, as observed by his nurse. He is also experiencing poor feeding, increased irritability, and excessive drowsiness. The baby was delivered via emergency caesarean section at 34 weeks due to reduced foetal movements and foetal bradycardia. The mother had an otherwise healthy pregnancy, but was taking lamotrigine for epilepsy. During the examination, the baby appeared larger than expected for his prematurity and exhibited visible arm tremors. Based on these symptoms, which aspect of the baby's medical history is most likely responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Maternal lamotrigine use

      Correct Answer: Prematurity

      Explanation:

      Prematurity is a significant risk factor for neonatal hypoglycaemia, which is characterized by autonomic symptoms such as irritability and jitteriness, as well as neuroglycopenic symptoms like drowsiness and poor feeding. This is because preterm infants have not yet developed the same glycogen reserve as term infants. Admission to the neonatal intensive care unit, delivery via emergency caesarean section, formula feeding, and maternal lamotrigine use are not independent risk factors for neonatal hypoglycaemia. While caesarean section may result in transient hypoglycaemia, it is not typically symptomatic due to the lack of catecholamine release present during vaginal delivery. Terbutaline use, on the other hand, may increase the risk of hypoglycaemia.

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

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  • Question 41 - The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old...

    Correct

    • The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old baby boy. He was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks gestation, weighing 3300 grams, and was in good condition. The antenatal scans were normal, and it was a low-risk pregnancy without family history of congenital disorders. During your examination, you observe a ventral urethral meatus while examining the external genitalia. What condition is commonly associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      What conditions are commonly associated with hypospadias in patients?

      Hypospadias is often an isolated abnormality in children, but it is important to consider the possibility of other malformations. Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) and inguinal hernias are conditions commonly associated with hypospadias. It is crucial to examine the groin and scrotum in children with hypospadias and ensure they have passed urine in the first 24 hours of life. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, renal agenesis, and Turner’s syndrome are not typically associated with hypospadias.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

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  • Question 42 - A 33-year-old woman comes to see her GP to talk about her pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman comes to see her GP to talk about her pregnancy. She has a history of asthma and is concerned about the possibility of her child developing asthma as well. She has been a smoker since she was 16 years old but has reduced her smoking to ten cigarettes a day since becoming pregnant.

      What steps can she take to minimize the risk of her baby developing asthma?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Tips for a Healthy Pregnancy: Avoiding Risks and Taking Folic Acid

      Pregnancy is a crucial time for both the mother and the developing baby. To ensure a healthy pregnancy, there are certain things that should be avoided and others that should be taken. Here are some tips for a healthy pregnancy:

      Stop smoking: Smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of stillbirth, premature labour, and low birth weight. Second-hand smoke can also increase the risk of sudden infant death syndrome and asthma in children. It is best for everyone to stop smoking, and support and advice can be obtained from GPs.

      Avoid alcohol: Alcohol can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause a range of developmental issues in the baby. It is best to avoid alcohol during pregnancy.

      Avoid caffeine: Caffeine can increase the risk of low birth weight and miscarriage. It is advised to reduce caffeine consumption as much as possible during pregnancy.

      Avoid eating peanuts: Contrary to previous advice, it is now considered safe for pregnant women to eat peanuts as long as they do not have a history of allergy themselves.

      Take folic acid: Folic acid is important in reducing the risk of neural tube defects in the developing baby. The standard dose is 400 μg daily, but a higher dose may be recommended for those with other risk factors.

      By following these tips, pregnant women can help ensure a healthy pregnancy and a healthy baby.

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  • Question 43 - A 3-year-old girl with meningococcal septicaemia has a cardiac arrest on the ward....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl with meningococcal septicaemia has a cardiac arrest on the ward. You are the first responder. After confirming the arrest and following the paediatric BLS protocol, what is the appropriate rate for chest compressions?

      Your Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute

      Explanation:

      The Paediatric Basic Life Support guideline of the UK Resuscitation Council mandates that chest compressions for children of all ages should be administered at a rate of 100-120 per minute, with a depth that depresses the sternum by at least one-third of the chest’s depth. Individuals without paediatric resuscitation training are advised to use the adult chest compression to rescue breaths ratio of 30:2, while those caring for children and trained to do so should use a ratio of 15:2. It is important to note that the initial danger-response-airway-breathing-circulation sequence must still be followed.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 44 - A 7-year-old boy presents to his GP with recurrent head lice. The GP...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to his GP with recurrent head lice. The GP notices that the child has had several attendances to the Emergency Department with asthma exacerbations, but has not attended an asthma review for several years and his inhalers have not been ordered for several months.
      When would a social services referral be indicated in the first instance?

      Your Answer: If you suspect a child is being maltreated or you feel the family could benefit from some extra support

      Explanation:

      When to Make a Referral to Social Services for Child Protection

      As a healthcare professional, it is important to know when to make a referral to social services for child protection. Here are some situations that require immediate action:

      1. Suspected maltreatment or need for extra support: If you suspect a child is being maltreated or you feel the family could benefit from some extra support, a referral must be made urgently to social services. Follow up within 48 hours with written confirmation.

      2. Immediate danger: If you feel a child needs to be removed from premises immediately for their safety, inform the police immediately. Once the child is considered to be in a place of safety, social services will be informed.

      3. Recent sexual assault: If the child has disclosed a recent sexual assault, they would need to be referred urgently for forensic examination. Following this, social services will be likely to be informed.

      4. Discussion with safeguarding lead: If you feel confident in your judgement, you do not have to seek advice from the safeguarding lead before every referral. If you suspect a child is at risk of harm, it is your responsibility to take action to ensure the child’s safety.

      5. Consent of parent and/or patient: Always try to gain consent from the parent or patient before making a referral to social services. If consent is refused, the referral can still be made, but it is important that the patient/parent is fully informed of your actions.

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  • Question 45 - A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain. The patient has normal secondary sexual characteristics on examination.
      What is the probable cause of her absence of menstrual periods?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cyclical abdominal pain and amenorrhoea, indicating a pathological delay in menarche rather than a normal physiological delay. A specialist should assess the patient, as an imperforate hymen may be present, causing obstruction of menstrual blood outflow. An ultrasound scan can confirm the presence of haematocolpos, and initial treatment involves using oral contraceptives to suppress menses and analgesia to manage pain until surgical correction and drainage of collected blood occurs. Congenital uterine deformities are associated with pelvic pain, abnormal bleeding, recurrent miscarriages, and premature delivery. Hyperprolactinaemia and hypothyroidism are less likely causes, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms such as headaches, galactorrhoea, breast pain, fatigue, constipation, weight gain, cold intolerance, muscle weakness, depression, or altered mental function.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 46 - You are participating in a morbidity and mortality meeting following the death of...

    Correct

    • You are participating in a morbidity and mortality meeting following the death of a patient on the 30th day after birth. The classification of the patient's death is being debated. What is the appropriate classification for this case?

      Your Answer: Neonatal death

      Explanation:

      Neonatal death is the term used to describe the death of a baby within the first 28 days of life. This classification is important for public health interventions and is a common topic in exams. Miscarriage, on the other hand, is defined as the death of a fetus before 24 weeks of gestation in the UK, or before 28 weeks globally. Puerperal death refers to the death of a mother within the first 6 weeks after giving birth. Perinatal death is a broader term that includes stillbirths and deaths within the first week of life, often resulting from obstetric events. Early neonatal death refers to death within the first week of life, while late neonatal death refers to death after 7 days but before 28 days of life.

      Perinatal Death Rates and Related Metrics

      Perinatal mortality rate is a measure of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths within seven days per 1,000 births after 24 weeks of gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. This figure is usually broken down into 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.

      Maternal mortality rate, on the other hand, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths during pregnancy, labor, and six weeks after delivery by the total number of maternities and multiplying the result by 1000. Meanwhile, the stillbirth rate is determined by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live and stillborn) and multiplying the result by 1000. Lastly, the neonatal death rate is computed by dividing the number of babies who died between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1000.

      These metrics are important in assessing the quality of perinatal care and identifying areas for improvement. By monitoring these rates, healthcare providers can work towards reducing perinatal deaths and improving maternal and neonatal outcomes.

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  • Question 47 - At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of...

    Correct

    • At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics occurring before?

      Your Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

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  • Question 48 - A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history of vomiting and regurgitation of non-bilious materials, mostly consisting of ingested milk. The vomiting has lately become projectile. On examination, an olive-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant, and a periodic wave of peristalsis is visible in the epigastric region. The neonate has puffy hands and feet and redundant skin in the neck. A systolic murmur is noted on the cardiac apex. Laboratory tests reveal hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tracheoesophageal fistula

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Neonate with Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis and Other Symptoms

      Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes gastric outlet obstruction and is more common in neonates with Turner syndrome. Other symptoms in this scenario include puffy hands and feet due to lymphoedema, redundant skin in the neck due to early resolution of cystic hygroma, and a systolic murmur likely caused by coarctation of the aorta. Non-bilious vomiting distinguishes pyloric stenosis from duodenal atresia.

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia presents with vomiting, hypoxia, and a scaphoid abdomen, but is not typically associated with chromosomal abnormalities.

      Down syndrome is characterized by flat and broad facies, epicanthal folds, simian creases, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

      Duodenal atresia is associated with Down syndrome and presents with bilious vomiting, while this scenario involves non-bilious vomiting.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula is associated with Down syndrome and VACTERL association, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

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  • Question 49 - A 7-month-old girl has been referred to you by the out of hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old girl has been referred to you by the out of hours GP. Her parents report a 24-hour history of increased work of breathing, coryzal symptoms, lethargy, and reduced oral intake. Upon examination, you observe fine inspiratory crackles and subcostal recessions. She has a fever of 38.1ºC and her oxygen saturations are 92% in air.

      What would be the most suitable next step to take?

      Your Answer: Admission for full septic screen

      Correct Answer: Admit for observation and oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      If your child is experiencing any of the following symptoms, seek medical attention immediately:

      – High fever (over 102°F or 39°C)
      – Severe dehydration (signs include dry mouth, sunken eyes, and decreased urine output)
      – Persistent severe respiratory distress, such as grunting, significant chest recession, or a respiratory rate exceeding 70 breaths per minute.

      It is important to ensure your child is drinking enough fluids to avoid dehydration.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 50 - A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been unwell with coryzal symptoms for two days and has fever. She has been eating a little less than usual but drinking plenty of fluids and having her normal amount of wet nappies. Her mother reports that she had an episode of being unresponsive and her limbs were jerking while in the waiting room that lasted about 30 seconds. On examination, following the episode, she is alert, without signs of focal neurology. Her temperature is 38.9 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time < 2 seconds. She has moist mucous membranes. There is no sign of increased work of breathing. Her chest is clear. She has cervical lymphadenopathy; her throat is red, but no exudate is present on her tonsils. She has clear, thick nasal discharge, and both her tympanic membranes are inflamed, but not bulging. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that the child can be managed safely at home?

      Your Answer: Seizure/convulsion lasted for < 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      When to Seek Urgent Medical Attention for Febrile Convulsions in Children

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in response to a high body temperature in children aged between six months and three years. While most febrile convulsions are harmless and do not require urgent medical attention, there are certain red flag features that parents should be aware of. If any of the following features are present, urgent hospital admission is necessary:

      – Children aged less than 18 months
      – Diagnostic uncertainty
      – Convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes
      – Focal features during the seizure
      – Recurrence of convulsion during the same illness or in the last 24 hours
      – Incomplete recovery one hour after the convulsion
      – No focus of infection identified
      – Examination findings suggesting a serious cause for fever such as pneumonia
      – Child currently taking antibiotics, with a clear bacterial focus of infection

      It is important to note that a first febrile convulsion in a child is also an indication for urgent hospital admission. If a child less than six months or over three years experiences a seizure not associated with fever, it may be due to an underlying neurological condition and require further specialist investigation. Parents should be aware of these red flag features and seek medical attention promptly if they are present.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 51 - A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents complaining of sudden onset right-sided groin pain and inability to bear weight after a fall. On examination, he has a decreased range of motion and an antalgic gait. His heart rate is 96 bpm, blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, BMI is 31 kg/m², and he is afebrile. What is the most probable finding on examination for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reduced internal rotation of the leg in flexion

      Explanation:

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) often results in a loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. This is likely the case for a boy with obesity aged between 10-15 years who is experiencing acute-onset right-sided groin pain and inability to weight bear following potential trauma. Attempting to internally rotate the leg while the hip is flexed would be limited in SCFE due to the anterior and external rotation of the femoral metaphysis. Therefore, reduced internal rotation of the leg in flexion is the correct option. Reduced external rotation of the leg in extension, reduced external rotation of the leg in flexion, and reduced internal rotation of the leg in extension are all incorrect options as they do not align with the typical presentation of SCFE.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 52 - A 6-year-old male is brought to his pediatrician by his father who is...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old male is brought to his pediatrician by his father who is worried that he may have an infection. He reports that for the past 5 days his son has been scratching his anal and genital area, especially at night. He has also noticed some 'white threads' in his son's stool which he is very concerned about.

      What is the most suitable course of action based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Single dose of oral mebendazole for the entire household and hygiene advice

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis in this case is a threadworm infection, which commonly affects young children and can cause anal and vulval itching. Threadworms can be seen in faeces and appear as white thread-like pieces. The recommended first-line treatment for threadworm infection is a single dose of mebendazole, and it is advised that all members of the household receive treatment due to the high risk of transmission. In addition to medication, hygiene measures such as frequent hand-washing, washing of bedding and towels, and disinfecting surfaces should also be recommended. It is important to note that hygiene advice alone is not sufficient to eradicate the infection. Administering mebendazole to only the affected individual or for a prolonged period of time is also incorrect.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 53 - A 35-year-old woman attends an ultrasound scan at 36 weeks due to gestational...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman attends an ultrasound scan at 36 weeks due to gestational hypertension. This shows a breech presentation. She has a successful external cephalic version (ECV) at 37 weeks and her baby is born vaginally at 40+5 weeks. On the initial postnatal check, both Ortolani's and Barlow's tests are negative. Mums' blood pressure returns to normal after birth.
      What investigations will be necessary?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound hips of baby at 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      At 6 weeks, the mother will undergo a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with a glucose load of 75g.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 54 - A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age of 27, she had a short stature, a webbed neck and a broad, shield-like chest. She did not develop secondary sexual characteristics at the appropriate age. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders Affecting Sexual Development

      Turner Syndrome, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Klinefelter’s Syndrome, Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome, and 5-α Reductase Deficiency are genetic disorders that affect sexual development.

      Turner Syndrome is a condition where a woman is missing a whole or part of an X chromosome. This can cause delayed puberty, failure to develop normal secondary sexual characteristics, and cardiovascular abnormalities.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. This can cause ambiguous genitalia at birth and symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome in women, and hyperpigmentation in men.

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where men carry an extra X chromosome. This can cause tall stature, hypogonadism, gynaecomastia, and delayed motor and language development.

      Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is a condition where patients with a male karyotype fail to respond to androgen hormones and thus develop female external genitalia and characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.

      5-α Reductase Deficiency is a condition associated with an inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to abnormal sexual development and infertility.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 55 - A 16-year-old female visits her GP seeking to begin taking the contraceptive pill....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female visits her GP seeking to begin taking the contraceptive pill. The GP takes into account the Fraser Guidelines before approving the prescription. What is one of the requirements that must be met?

      Your Answer: It is in the young person's best interest to receive contraceptive advice with a relative or friend present

      Correct Answer: The young person's physical or mental health, or both, are likely to suffer if the contraceptive pill is not prescribed

      Explanation:

      If a young person is denied access to contraception, their physical and mental health may be negatively impacted. While it is not mandatory for them to inform their parents, it is recommended to encourage them to seek support from their parents. The age of 16 is not a requirement for the young person to stop having sex. While providing information leaflets is not a Fraser guideline, it can still be helpful for the young person. It is not necessary to have a relative or friend present when determining the best interests of the young person.

      Understanding the Fraser Guidelines for Consent to Treatment in Minors

      The Fraser guidelines are a set of criteria used to determine whether a minor under the age of 16 is competent to give consent for medical treatment, particularly in relation to contraception. To be considered competent, the young person must demonstrate an understanding of the healthcare professional’s advice and cannot be persuaded to inform or involve their parents in the decision-making process. Additionally, the young person must be likely to engage in sexual activity with or without contraception, and their physical or mental health is at risk without treatment. Ultimately, the decision to provide treatment without parental consent must be in the best interest of the young person. These guidelines are important in ensuring that minors have access to necessary medical care while also protecting their autonomy and privacy.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 56 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric emergency department by her father....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric emergency department by her father. She has been very fussy for the past 6 hours, crying out every 20 minutes, and her father suspects she is in pain. She has vomited twice during this time, and her father noticed a red jelly-like substance in her diaper 2 hours ago. The little girl is very uncooperative during examination and refuses to let anyone touch her abdomen. Her vital signs show a mild tachycardia, but no fever is present. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to determine the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is best diagnosed through ultrasound. Given the boy’s symptoms, an urgent abdominal ultrasound is necessary to rule out this condition. While a complete blood count may provide some general information, it is not specific to any particular diagnosis. An abdominal X-ray can confirm the presence of intestinal obstruction, but it cannot identify the underlying cause, which is crucial in this case. CT scans should generally be avoided in young children due to the high levels of radiation they emit.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of fevers, myalgia, and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of fevers, myalgia, and painful eyes that have been bothering her for the past two days. She recently returned from a trip to the Democratic Republic of the Congo, where she failed to comply with her anti-malarial medication due to gastrointestinal side effects. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 38.8ºC, and she displays clustered white lesions on her buccal mucosa and conjunctivitis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 58 - Fragile X is commonly associated with which of the following symptoms, except for:...

    Incorrect

    • Fragile X is commonly associated with which of the following symptoms, except for:

      Your Answer: Joint laxity

      Correct Answer: Small, firm testes

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 59 - As a doctor working on the paediatric ward, you encounter a 5-year-old patient...

    Correct

    • As a doctor working on the paediatric ward, you encounter a 5-year-old patient who has become unresponsive. You call for assistance from another doctor and proceed to open the patient's airway, but the child is not breathing. After giving five rescue breaths, the other doctor checks for a femoral pulse, which is not present. You decide to initiate CPR while waiting for further help to arrive.

      What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths and the recommended rate of chest compressions for this child?

      Your Answer: Chest compressions rate of 100-120/min, ratio of 15:2

      Explanation:

      For both infants and children, the correct rate for chest compressions during paediatric BLS is 100-120/min. A ratio of 15:2 should be used when there are two or more rescuers, while a ratio of 30:2 is used for lay rescuers. It is important to avoid compressions that are too fast, as rates of 120-150/min do not allow enough time for blood to return to the ventricles. Using only one hand, the pressure should be reduced, but the compression rate should remain the same. Rates of 80-100/min are incorrect as they do not provide sufficient blood flow to vital organs.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 60 - A 12-hour-old neonate is evaluated in the neonatal unit after a normal vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-hour-old neonate is evaluated in the neonatal unit after a normal vaginal delivery at 35 weeks' gestation. The mother reports no issues thus far. During the examination, a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur is heard, and a left subclavicular thrill is observed. The neonate has a large-volume collapsing pulse. An echocardiogram is performed, revealing the suspected defect but no other anomalies. What is the most suitable course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Give prostaglandin E1 to the neonate

      Correct Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the examination findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To close the PDA, indomethacin (or ibuprofen) should be given to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Giving prostaglandin E1 would have the opposite effect and maintain the patency of the duct, which is not necessary in this scenario. Simply observing the neonate over time is not appropriate, and routine or urgent surgical referrals are not needed at this stage. First-line management should be to try medical closure of the PDA using indomethacin, which is effective in most cases.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

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  • Question 61 - A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a barking cough. Their parent says they make a loud noise when they breathe in and their symptoms are worse at night. They have a temperature of 38.5 °C.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Inspiratory Stridor and Barking Cough

      Croup is a common respiratory illness in children under 2 years old, characterized by inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. Other symptoms include hoarseness, fever, and dyspnea, which are usually worse at night. The illness can last up to 7 days, with the first 24-48 hours being the most severe.

      Asthma, on the other hand, presents differently with wheezing and chest tightness, rather than inspiratory stridor. While shortness of breath, especially at night, is a common symptom, it does not account for the fever.

      Simple viral cough is a possible differential, but the absence of other systemic symptoms makes croup more likely.

      Whooping cough is not indicated by this history.

      Bronchiolitis usually presents less acutely, with difficulty feeding and general malaise during the incubation period, followed by dyspnea and wheezing. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 62 - A 9-year-old girl presents with symptoms of left knee pain. The pain has...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with symptoms of left knee pain. The pain has been present on most occasions for the past four months and the pain typically lasts for several hours at a time. On examination; she walks with an antalgic gait and has apparent left leg shortening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perthes Disease

      Explanation:

      Hip pain in the 10-14 year age group can have various causes, some of which may also result in knee pain. The most common disorder is transient synovitis of the hip, but it usually does not persist for more than 3 months. An osteosarcoma typically does not cause limb shortening unless there is a pathological fracture. While a slipped upper femoral epiphysis can lead to a similar presentation, it usually occurs later and in patients with different characteristics.

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

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  • Question 63 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of left groin pain and...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of left groin pain and a limp that has been gradually developing over the past 5 weeks. He has no medical or family history and his right leg is unaffected. Upon examination, there is a noticeable decrease in internal rotation of the left leg, but no swelling or warmth around the joints. The patient's vital signs are normal, and his height is in the 50th percentile while his weight is in the 95th percentile. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is more likely to occur in obese boys aged 10-15, as obesity is a risk factor for this condition. It is caused by a weakness in the proximal femoral growth plate, which can also be due to endocrine disorders or rapid growth. Loss of internal rotation of the affected leg is a common finding during examination. Perthes’ disease can also cause groin pain, but it typically affects children aged 4 to 8 years old. Being male and having a lower socioeconomic status are also risk factors for this condition. Septic arthritis is unlikely in this case as the child’s vital signs are normal, and it usually presents with a hot and swollen joint and systemic illness. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is usually detected during routine hip examinations in the first year of life, using Barlow/Ortolani tests and assessing hip abduction.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

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  • Question 64 - A baby boy is born after 29 weeks gestation. On day three, a...

    Incorrect

    • A baby boy is born after 29 weeks gestation. On day three, a routine examination reveals a continuous mechanical murmur and bounding femoral pulses. Echocardiography confirms a haemodynamically significant, isolated patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What should be the next step in managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Medical management - prostaglandin infusion

      Correct Answer: Medical management - cyclooxygenase inhibitor infusion

      Explanation:

      Management of Patent Ductus Arteriosus

      The ductus arteriosus is a fetal blood vessel that directs deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle directly into the descending aorta. After birth, the ductus should close within the first few days due to decreased prostaglandin levels and increased oxygen concentrations. Premature and low birth weight babies are at a higher risk of the ductus remaining open, which can lead to complications such as reduced blood supply to tissues, pressure overload of the pulmonary circulation, and volume overload of the systemic circulation.

      The decision to intervene and close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is based on the individual case and the severity of the condition. Medical management is usually the first step and involves administering a cyclooxygenase inhibitor to block prostaglandin synthesis and promote closure of the ductus. Conservative management may be an option for PDAs of little consequence, but even small PDAs pose long-term risks and may require intervention. Cardiac catheterisation is not appropriate in isolated PDA cases, and surgical management is reserved for those who fail medical management. Prostaglandin infusions may be used to keep the ductus patent in certain cardiac malformations that require a shunt for survival.

      Overall, the management of PDA is crucial in preventing complications and ensuring proper blood flow. The decision to intervene should be made on a case-by-case basis, with medical management being the usual first step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 65 - In a toddler, what symptoms are unlikely to be present in cases of...

    Correct

    • In a toddler, what symptoms are unlikely to be present in cases of cardiac failure?

      Your Answer: Ascites

      Explanation:

      Uncommon Clinical Features of Cardiac Failure in Infancy

      Ascites, or the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, is a rare occurrence in infants with cardiac failure. Additionally, there are several other uncommon clinical features that may be observed in these cases. Bibasal crackles, which are abnormal sounds heard during breathing, are not commonly present. Raised jugular venous pressure, which is an indication of increased pressure in the heart, is also not frequently seen. A third heart sound, which is an extra sound heard during a heartbeat, and pulsus alternans, which is a regular alternation of strong and weak pulses, are also uncommon in infants with cardiac failure. These features may be helpful in distinguishing cardiac failure from other conditions in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 66 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician due to frequent respiratory infections...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician due to frequent respiratory infections that have resulted in hospitalization. Her parents have also noticed a decrease in her weight from the 50th to the 25th percentile on the growth chart. She was born at term with a normal birth weight. During the physical examination, the pediatrician observes the presence of nasal polyps. What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Consideration of cystic fibrosis is warranted when a child experiences recurrent serious respiratory tract infections and weight loss, particularly if nasal polyps are present. While bronchiolitis may lead to hospitalisations and potential weight loss due to poor feeding, it is not associated with nasal polyps. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia typically affects premature infants with low birth weights and is not linked to nasal polyps. Neglect is not a factor in this scenario, and the presence of nasal polyps suggests an underlying medical condition.

      Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.

      It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 67 - A 10-year-old boy with severe haemophilia A is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with severe haemophilia A is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother due to a nosebleed that has been ongoing for over 30 minutes. He is currently receiving regular injections to manage his condition but is aware that further treatment may be necessary in the event of a significant bleed. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Recombinant factor IX

      Correct Answer: Recombinant factor VIII

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Haemophilia A: Recombinant Factor VIII and Desmopressin

      Haemophilia A is a genetic condition that results in a deficiency of clotting factor VIII. The severity of the condition varies depending on the level of factor VIII present. Patients with severe haemophilia A or a history of significant bleeds may receive prophylactic recombinant factor VIII to prevent recurrent bleeding and joint damage. In cases of acute bleeding, recombinant factor VIII can be used to stop the bleed. Desmopressin is an option for mild to moderate haemophilia A, but is not effective for severe cases or haemophilia B. Local measures can also be used to minimize bleeding, but the best option for a child with severe haemophilia A experiencing significant epistaxis is to treat with recombinant factor VIII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 68 - You are working at a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in...

    Incorrect

    • You are working at a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in her 10-year-old daughter who has developed new pustular, honey-coloured crusted lesions over her chin. She is systemically well with all observations in the normal range and no evidence of lymphadenopathy on examination. She has no allergies to any medications and is normally fit and well.
      You diagnose localised non-bullous impetigo.
      The daughter is due to go on a school trip to the Natural History Museum in London the following day and is extremely excited about this. The mother asks if she is allowed to go on this school trip.
      What is your management plan?

      Your Answer: Prescribe topical hydrogen peroxide 1% cream and reassure them that he can go on the school trip as soon as he has started using it

      Correct Answer: Prescribe topical hydrogen peroxide 1% cream and advise them that the child should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed

      Explanation:

      Referral or admission is not necessary for this straightforward primary care case, which can be treated with topical antibiotics (with the addition of oral antibiotics containing fusidic acid if resistance is suspected or confirmed). However, it is important to advise the patient that they should not return to school or attend their school trip until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment or until the lesions have crusted and healed.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 69 - A 2-year-old boy is presented to an urgent GP appointment with an acute...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old boy is presented to an urgent GP appointment with an acute limp. He has a runny nose but no fever. There is no reported injury. He is able to bear weight on the affected leg.
      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      A child under the age of 3 who presents with an acute limp requires urgent specialist assessment. This is because septic arthritis is more common than transient synovitis in this age group. A routine paediatric referral is not appropriate as the concern is ruling out septic arthritis, which requires urgent attention. An urgent X-ray or hip ultrasound scan is also not sufficient, as a comprehensive specialist examination is necessary to exclude serious pathology.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 70 - A 5-year-old girl is seen by the orthopaedic specialist after experiencing a worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is seen by the orthopaedic specialist after experiencing a worsening limp for 4 weeks. Her blood tests were normal, and x-rays revealed a hip joint effusion without any significant femoral head structural abnormalities. The doctor diagnosed her with Perthes' disease. What would be the most suitable initial management plan for this child?

      Your Answer: Pavlik harness

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      If Perthes’ disease is diagnosed in children under the age of 6 years and there is no significant collapse of the femoral head or gross structural abnormalities, observation is the recommended course of action. This involves regular x-rays, monitoring, and physiotherapy. The Pavlik harness, serial casting, and steroid injections are not appropriate treatments for this condition.

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      39
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  • Question 71 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have noticed swelling of the foreskin during urination and inability to retract it. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this condition?

      Your Answer: Referral to paediatric surgeons

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 6-months

      Explanation:

      Forcible retraction should be avoided in younger children with phimosis, as it can lead to scar formation. It is important to note that phimosis is normal in children under the age of 2 and typically resolves on its own over time. Therefore, there is no urgent need for referral to paediatrics or paediatric surgeons. While lubricant is not helpful in managing phimosis, topical steroids have been found to be beneficial.

      Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment

      Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment can be considered.

      It is important to note that parents should not attempt to forcibly retract the foreskin in young children. This can cause pain and scarring, and may not even be necessary. Instead, parents should focus on teaching their child good hygiene habits to prevent infections. If the child is experiencing recurrent infections or other symptoms, it may be time to seek medical treatment. By following these guidelines, parents can help their child manage phimosis and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 72 - A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia....

    Correct

    • A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia. The obstetrician pulled the child’s head downwards towards the floor to disengage the anterior shoulder from below the pubic bones. When the child is having a check-up prior to discharge, the paediatrician notes that the left upper limb is adducted and medially rotated, with extension at the elbow joint. When questioned, the mother admits that the child has not been moving it.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erb–Duchenne palsy due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Brachial Plexus Injuries: Causes and Symptoms

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the spinal cord and supplies the upper limb. Trauma to this network can result in various types of injuries, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the common types of brachial plexus injuries and their distinguishing features:

      Erb-Duchenne Palsy: This injury occurs due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, typically during obstructed labor or delivery. The affected muscles include those supplied by the musculocutaneous, radial, and axillary nerves, resulting in adduction and medial rotation of the arm, wrist drop, and sensory loss along the posterolateral aspect of the limb.

      Isolated Radial Nerve Injury: This type of injury is associated with paralysis of the wrist and digital extensors, as well as the triceps. However, medial rotation of the humerus is not affected.

      Klumpke’s Palsy: This injury is caused by trauma to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, often during difficult delivery or sudden upward stretching of the upper limb. It results in claw hand due to damage to T1, causing paralysis of the short muscles of the hand.

      Isolated Axillary Nerve Injury: With this type of injury, the wrist extensors function normally.

      Isolated Musculocutaneous Nerve Injury: This injury is not associated with wrist drop.

      In summary, understanding the specific symptoms associated with each type of brachial plexus injury can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 73 - A baby boy born 3 weeks ago has been experiencing persistent jaundice since...

    Incorrect

    • A baby boy born 3 weeks ago has been experiencing persistent jaundice since 72 hours after birth. His parents have observed that he is hesitant to breastfeed and his urine appears dark. During your examination, you confirm that the infant is jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. Upon reviewing his blood work, you find that he has conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. His serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and electrophoresis are normal, and the neonatal heel prick test conducted at birth was negative. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Oral ursodeoxycholic acid

      Correct Answer: Early surgical treatment

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is the primary cause of prolonged jaundice in this infant, which occurs due to an obstruction in the flow of bile within the extrahepatic biliary system. To confirm the diagnosis, bilirubin levels, liver function tests, and abdominal ultrasound are performed, while alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency and cystic fibrosis are excluded as differential diagnoses. The Kasai procedure, a surgical intervention, is the preferred treatment option to restore bile flow and prevent further hepatic damage. Postoperative management may involve IV antibiotics to manage complications such as ascending cholangitis, while ursodeoxycholic acid may be used to augment weight gain and decrease episodes of cholangitis. Optimizing feeds is also important, but not the primary management option in this case, as the heel prick test has excluded CF. Infusion of alpha-1 antitrypsin is not necessary, as the infant’s serum levels are normal.

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 74 - You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At...

    Incorrect

    • You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At 5 minutes, the baby's heart rate is 120 bpm, the baby is crying vigorously with active movement in all extremities. The baby is coughing and sneezing. The body is pink but the hands and feet are slightly blue and cool to the touch. Determine the APGAR score.

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 75 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain in his right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of injury or any other medical condition. Upon examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too tender to palpate completely. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion

      Explanation:

      Torsion: A Serious Condition to Consider

      A brief history of intense pain without any accompanying symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to be cautious not to disregard the possibility of torsion even if other symptoms are present, as there is only a small window of time for treatment. While a horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, it may not always be visible.

      Torsion is a severe condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This can lead to tissue death and, in severe cases, the loss of the testicle. Therefore, it is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of torsion and seek medical attention promptly. Remember, a short history of severe pain in the absence of other symptoms must be regarded as torsion, and a horizontal-lying testis is a classical finding, though not always seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 76 - A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty breathing, severe sore throat, and drooling of saliva. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Call the ear, nose and throat (ENT) surgeon/senior anaesthetist to secure her airway

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Epiglottitis: Prioritizing Airway Security

      Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to secure the patient’s airway. While medical therapies and investigations are important, the priority should be given to securing the airway via endo-/nasotracheal intubation or tracheostomy guided by a senior anaesthetist and ENT surgeon. Oral instrumentation is contraindicated until the airway has been secured. Lateral neck X-ray may be useful in diagnosing less acute presentations, but in this case, the child requires intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admission to an Intensive Therapy Unit/High-dependency Unit bed in the hospital. Intubating a child with acute epiglottitis can be challenging and should only be undertaken by an experienced anaesthetist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 77 - Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who was admitted with a fever and disseminated...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who was admitted with a fever and disseminated rash. She had not been previously vaccinated and was in contact with her 2-year-old cousin who had developed a fever and disseminated blisters and vesicles containing clear fluid. After 2 weeks, she began to have a fever and flu-like symptoms. Similar clear-fluid filled vesicles and blisters developed 3 days later and she was admitted for further observation.

      After 3 days of observation, Sarah noticed that one of the lesions on her thigh appeared to be red and becoming hot to touch. An area of skin approximately 3x3cm was erythematosus. The skin was marked and she was commenced on IV flucloxacillin. Over the coming 12 hours, the erythema around this lesion continued to spread. The pain around her leg increased in intensity, requiring morphine to take the edge off the pain. A blueish discolouration began to develop around the rash.

      What is the likely organism that has caused the complication?

      Your Answer: β- haemolytic Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox and Necrotizing Fasciitis

      Chickenpox can increase the risk of developing invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections, including necrotizing fasciitis. Symptoms of chickenpox include the development of fevers, blisters, and vesicles, which can be milder in children but cause significant morbidity in adults. If a rapidly evolving rash with significant pain out of proportion to the rash is observed, along with blueish discoloration of the skin, it could be indicative of necrotizing fasciitis. In such cases, immediate surgical review should be sought.

      Invasive group A Streptococcus is a β-haemolytic Streptococcus that is often the cause of necrotizing fasciitis in patients with chickenpox. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are initially used, with the choices tailored to bacterial sensitivities when known. Staphylococcus aureus can also cause necrotizing fasciitis, but it is more commonly associated with patients who have other underlying medical conditions like diabetes. Enterococcus faecalis is not known to cause skin infections and is often associated with infections like endocarditis. Streptococcus bovis is a gamma-haemolytic Streptococcus that is most often associated with colorectal cancer-associated endocarditis and is not associated with skin infections. Clostridium perfringens can cause necrotizing fasciitis and presents as gas gangrene, which is characterized by crepitus under the skin, a symptom not seen in chickenpox-related necrotizing fasciitis.

      Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.

      Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia

      Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 78 - What is the preferred investigation to detect renal scarring in a pediatric patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred investigation to detect renal scarring in a pediatric patient with vesicoureteral reflux?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Radionuclide scan using dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 79 - You assess a 6-year-old girl with cerebral palsy who is experiencing persistent spasticity...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 6-year-old girl with cerebral palsy who is experiencing persistent spasticity in her legs resulting in contractures and pain. After discussing with her mother, you discover that she is receiving regular physiotherapy, utilizing appropriate orthoses, and has previously attempted oral diazepam. What treatment option could be presented to potentially enhance her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: Baclofen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cerebral Palsy

      Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.

      Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.

      Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 80 - Sarah, a 12-year-old girl with Down's syndrome, visits her GP complaining of fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 12-year-old girl with Down's syndrome, visits her GP complaining of fatigue. What medical condition is commonly linked to Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism is commonly found in individuals with Down syndrome, while the risk of hyperthyroidism is also increased. Type-1 diabetes is more prevalent in those with Down syndrome, but there is no association with ADHD. Fragile X is linked to ADHD, and male breast cancer is not associated with Down syndrome but has been linked to Klinefelter’s syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 81 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history of limping on her left side. Her parents state that she has been healthy except for a recent cough and her daycare provider has not noticed any injuries. During the physical exam, the child appears uncomfortable and in pain, but has normal range of motion in her left hip. What is the best course of action for management at this point?

      Your Answer: Urgent hospital assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 3 presents with an acute limp, it is crucial to arrange urgent assessment in secondary care. This is because they are at a higher risk of septic arthritis and child maltreatment, according to Nice Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Additionally, the diagnosis of transient synovitis should be made with extreme caution after ruling out serious causes of limp, as it is rare in this age group. Urgent referral for assessment is recommended due to the difficulty in examining and identifying subtle clinical signs.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 82 - A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a rash that has developed. Upon further inquiry, the father explains that the rash started behind her ears two days ago and has since spread. Prior to the rash, the baby had a fever and cough. Although she is up to date with her vaccinations, the father has not yet scheduled her next appointment. During the examination, the baby appears irritable, has white spots in her mouth, and inflamed eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the potential risk for the baby?

      Your Answer: Otitis media

      Explanation:

      Otitis media is the most frequent complication that arises from measles, which typically presents with an initial prodrome of cough, coryza, and the appearance of white spots on the buccal mucosa known as koplik spots. The rash usually emerges between day 3 and 5, starting behind the ears and spreading down the body.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 83 - A 16-week-old infant is brought to the GP by their mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 16-week-old infant is brought to the GP by their mother due to regurgitation and vomiting after most feeds, ongoing diarrhea with significant amounts of mucous, and difficulty settling. The mother also reports that the infant often pulls their legs up to their chest during crying episodes. The infant was born at full term, had a healthy weight at birth, and is formula-fed. They have a history of eczema managed with emollients. What is the recommended next step in management?

      Your Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula

      Explanation:

      In case of mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance in a baby who is fed with formula, it is recommended to switch to an extensively hydrolyzed formula.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

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  • Question 84 - A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with poor muscle tone,...

    Correct

    • A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with poor muscle tone, gasping respirations, cyanosis, and a heart rate of 80 bpm. The child's APGAR score is 3 and is placed in the sniffing position for airway maintenance. However, there are no changes noted on reassessment. After positive pressure ventilation for 30 seconds, the child is now showing shallow respirations and a heart rate of 50 bpm. Chest compressions are initiated. What is the recommended compression: ventilation ratio for this child?

      Your Answer: 3:01

      Explanation:

      If a newborn is healthy, they will have good tone, be pink in color, and cry immediately after delivery. A healthy newborn’s heart rate should be between 120-150 bpm. However, if the infant has poor tone, is struggling to breathe, and has a low heart rate that is not improving, compressions are necessary. According to newborn resuscitation guidelines, compressions and ventilations should be administered at a 3:1 ratio. Therefore, the correct course of action in this scenario is to perform compressions.

      Newborn resuscitation involves a series of steps to ensure the baby’s survival. The first step is to dry the baby and maintain their body temperature. The next step is to assess the baby’s tone, respiratory rate, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, five inflation breaths should be given to open the lungs. After this, the baby’s chest movements should be reassessed. If the heart rate is not improving and is less than 60 beats per minute, compressions and ventilation breaths should be administered at a rate of 3:1.

      It is important to note that inflation breaths are different from ventilation breaths. The aim of inflation breaths is to sustain pressure to open the lungs, while ventilation breaths are used to provide oxygen to the baby’s body. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can increase the chances of a newborn’s survival and ensure that they receive the necessary care to thrive. Proper newborn resuscitation can make all the difference in a baby’s life, and it is crucial that healthcare professionals are trained in these techniques.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 85 - A 16-year-old boy visits his school counselor with his older brother. He reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy visits his school counselor with his older brother. He reveals that his stepfather has been physically abusing him for the past year.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Discuss the case with the safeguarding lead after the child has left

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently for a forensic examination

      Explanation:

      Urgent Actions to Take in Cases of Alleged Sexual Abuse

      In cases of alleged sexual abuse, it is crucial to take urgent actions to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. One of the most important steps is to refer the patient for a forensic examination by a qualified practitioner as soon as possible. This will enable the collection of any remaining evidence and prompt treatment for any physical effects of the assault. The patient should also be referred to social services and other support services that specialize in dealing with victims of sexual assault.

      It is essential to discuss the case with the safeguarding lead, but this discussion must take place while the patient is protected in a place of safety, rather than after she has returned home. It is also important to advise the patient that nothing can be done without her parent’s consent, but if she has capacity, she may not need parental consent. Encouraging her to speak to her parents for support is advisable if she does not feel this will put her at further risk.

      Advising the patient to self-present at the police station may discourage her from seeking further support. Instead, an appropriate referral should be made to ensure that the correct action is taken to protect the child’s safety. Performing a pelvic examination and swabs may cause distress to the patient, and it is best to have a fully qualified forensic examiner perform a thorough examination.

      In summary, taking urgent actions and following proper procedures is crucial in cases of alleged sexual abuse to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

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  • Question 86 - A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours. An ultrasound may be necessary to determine if this is a typical or atypical UTI. What is the most common indicator of an atypical UTI?

      Your Answer: Failure of complete recovery in 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Poor urine flow

      Explanation:

      If an infant under 6 months shows signs of an atypical UTI, it is important to schedule an ultrasound scan during their acute admission. Atypical UTI may be indicated by symptoms such as poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to appropriate antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. However, raised white blood cells alone do not necessarily indicate septicaemia, and abdominal pain is a common symptom of UTI but does not necessarily indicate an atypical UTI.

      Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 87 - You are scheduled to see a 12-year-old girl in your clinic. The booking...

    Correct

    • You are scheduled to see a 12-year-old girl in your clinic. The booking notes indicate that her mother is worried about her daughter's growth compared to her peers. Before the appointment, you quickly review the patient's medical records. The patient's past medical history includes asthma, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and being born prematurely at 35 weeks. The patient is taking methylphenidate, a beclomethasone inhaler during the winter months, and a salbutamol inhaler. The patient's family history shows that both parents are of average height, and a blood test conducted a year ago revealed borderline low ferritin levels. What is the most relevant information for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      The most important information in the patient’s records is that he is taking methylphenidate for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, which can lead to stunted growth. Therefore, his height and weight should be monitored every six months. Although corticosteroid inhalers like beclomethasone can also cause growth reduction in children who use them regularly, this is less likely to be relevant in this case since the patient only uses it intermittently. The patient’s blood test results indicating borderline low ferritin levels may suggest a poor diet, which could potentially affect growth, but this was a while ago and limits any conclusions that can be drawn. While familial height can be helpful, it is not as significant as the patient’s medication history, especially since both parents have average heights.

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

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  • Question 88 - Should all infants undergo hearing screening by their health visitor as part of...

    Correct

    • Should all infants undergo hearing screening by their health visitor as part of the 'Infant Hearing Screening Programme'? And if the results are abnormal, what is the next hearing test they will have?

      Your Answer: Auditory Brainstem Response test as a newborn/infant

      Explanation:

      When a newborn baby’s hearing test at birth shows an abnormal result, they are recommended to undergo an auditory brainstem response test as a newborn or infant. Prior to being discharged from the hospital, all newborns should have an acoustic emission test, which involves placing a soft earpiece in the baby’s ear and playing quiet clicking sounds to detect inner ear responses. If this test yields abnormal results, the auditory brainstem response test is conducted using three sensors placed on the baby’s head and neck, along with soft headphones to play sounds and analyze the brain and hearing nerve responses. At 6-9 months of age, a distraction test is performed, and most areas in the UK conduct pure tone audiometry at school entry.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 89 - A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section 10 weeks ago. She has also scheduled her baby's first set of routine immunizations for today. She inquires about the MenB vaccine and when it is typically administered. Can you provide this information?

      Your Answer: At 2, 3 and 4 months of age

      Correct Answer: At 2, 4 and 12-13 months

      Explanation:

      The MenB vaccine is administered at 2, 4, and 12-13 months and has been included in the routine vaccination schedule in the UK, making it the first country to do so. The vaccine is given at 2 and 4 months, with a booster at 12 months, replacing the MenC vaccine that was previously given at 3 months. Additionally, individuals with certain long-term health conditions, such as asplenia or splenic dysfunction, sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, and complement disorders, are recommended to receive the MenB vaccine due to their increased risk of complications from meningococcal disease. It is important to note that the vaccine does not contain live bacteria and therefore cannot cause meningococcal disease.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 90 - A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother reports that the baby has vomited several times, but has been content during feedings. The baby appears visibly dehydrated and a small lump is detected in the abdominal area during examination. What arterial blood gas results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Low bicarbonate, hypochloraemia, hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Elevated bicarbonate, hypochloraemia, hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The typical result of pyloric stenosis is the development of alkalosis with low levels of chloride and potassium.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

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  • Question 91 - A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at...

    Correct

    • A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at 39 weeks gestation is brought to the hospital with complaints of bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. He has not passed meconium yet.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Delayed passage or failure to pass meconium is a typical indication of Hirschsprung’s disease, which often manifests shortly after birth. Other symptoms include a swollen belly, vomiting of bile, fatigue, and dehydration. This condition is more prevalent in males and is linked to Down’s syndrome.

      Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.

      In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.

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  • Question 92 - A 1-month-old infant begins to turn blue and becomes tachypnoeic 10 minutes after...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-month-old infant begins to turn blue and becomes tachypnoeic 10 minutes after feeding. They are administered 100% oxygen for 20 minutes and an arterial blood gas is performed.

      pH 7.40 7.36 - 7.42
      PaO2 11.5 kPa 10.0 - 12.5
      PaCO2 5.8 kPa 5.1 - 5.6

      On auscultation, the infant has no murmur but a loud single S2. On palpation, there is a prominent ventricular pulse.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      The oxygen level is below 15 kPa, indicating a cyanotic heart defect. The most likely defect to present soon after birth is transposition of the great arteries, which is consistent with the examination findings. Pulmonary valve stenosis may also cause cyanosis if the lesion is large enough and is associated with Noonan syndrome. It produces a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic heart defect but typically presents between 1 and 6 months of age. It is characterized by a loud ejection systolic murmur that is most prominent at the left upper sternal edge and radiates to the axillae.

      Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.

      The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.

      To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.

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  • Question 93 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary tract infection (UTI) that was treated in the community. He was born at term and has been healthy throughout infancy, without previous history of UTI. There is no significant family history. The child's development is appropriate for his age and there have been no concerns about his growth. The antibiotics took effect after 4 days and he is currently doing well. Physical examination, including vital signs, is unremarkable. The child's height and weight are both at the 50th percentile. The microbiology results confirm a UTI caused by Enterococcus. What is the most suitable imaging approach that should have been taken/ordered?

      Your Answer: Urgent USS followed by DMSA; perform MCUG also if significant abnormality on USS

      Correct Answer: Urgent USS during the acute infection with routine DMSA and MCUG

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Imaging in Atypical UTIs in Children

      When a child presents with an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI), imaging is necessary to identify any structural abnormalities in the urinary tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines provide recommendations for imaging based on the age of the child and the severity of the infection.

      For children under 6 months of age with an atypical UTI, an urgent ultrasound scan (USS) is required during the acute infection. Once the infection has resolved, a routine dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan and a micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) are performed 4-6 months later.

      For children older than 6 months with recurrent UTIs, a routine USS and DMSA scan plus MCUG are recommended. However, for children aged 6 months to 3 years with an atypical UTI, an urgent USS followed by a routine DMSA is sufficient. An MCUG is only performed if there is any dilation identified on USS, poor urine flow, family history of vesico-ureteric reflux, or a non-E. coli infection.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate imaging and management of atypical UTIs in children.

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  • Question 94 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to their GP due to family concerns over...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to their GP due to family concerns over the child's development. They were born at term via vaginal delivery, without complications. The child is otherwise well, without past medical history.
      What developmental milestone would be most anticipated in this child?

      Your Answer: Pass objects from one hand to another

      Explanation:

      A 6-month-old boy was brought to the GP by his family who were concerned about his development. The GP tested his developmental milestones and found that he was able to hold objects with palmar grasp and pass objects from one hand to another. However, the child was not yet able to build a tower of 2 bricks, have a good pincer grip, or show a hand preference, which are expected milestones for older children. The GP reassured the family that the child’s development was within the normal range for his age.

      Developmental Milestones for Fine Motor and Vision Skills

      Fine motor and vision skills are important developmental milestones for infants and young children. These skills are crucial for their physical and cognitive development. The following tables provide a summary of the major milestones for fine motor and vision skills.

      At three months, infants can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow objects up to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They are visually insatiable, looking around in every direction.

      At nine months, infants can point with their finger and demonstrate an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have developed a good pincer grip and can bang toys together and stack bricks.

      As children grow older, their fine motor skills continue to develop. By 15 months, they can build a tower of two blocks, and by 18 months, they can build a tower of three blocks. By two years old, they can build a tower of six blocks, and by three years old, they can build a tower of nine blocks. They also begin to draw, starting with circular scribbles at 18 months and progressing to copying vertical lines at two years old, circles at three years old, crosses at four years old, and squares and triangles at five years old.

      In addition to fine motor skills, children’s vision skills also develop over time. At 15 months, they can look at a book and pat the pages. By 18 months, they can turn several pages at a time, and by two years old, they can turn one page at a time.

      It is important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. Overall, these developmental milestones for fine motor and vision skills are important indicators of a child’s growth and development.

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  • Question 95 - A father brings his 20-month-old son to your GP clinic. The child has...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 20-month-old son to your GP clinic. The child has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past 2 days. Yesterday night, he developed a barking cough and a mild fever of 37.8º. Upon examination, there is mild stridor when moving around, but no visible recessions. The chest sounds clear with good air entry on both sides. The temperature remains at 37.8º today, but all other observations are normal. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Give a stat dose of dexamethasone 150 micrograms/kg PO

      Explanation:

      For a child with croup, the first step is to determine the severity of the illness. Mild croup is characterized by occasional barking cough without stridor at rest, no or mild recessions, and a well-looking child. Moderate croup involves frequent barking cough and stridor at rest, recessions at rest, and no distress. Severe croup is marked by prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, marked recessions, distress, agitation or lethargy, and tachycardia. In this case, the child has mild croup and does not require hospital admission. Nebulized adrenaline and a salbutamol inhaler are not necessary as the child is not distressed and does not have wheeze. Antibiotics are not effective for croup as it is a viral illness. However, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) can be taken immediately to ease symptoms and reduce the likelihood of reattendance or hospital admission.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 96 - A 10-year-old boy is the shortest in his class, measuring only 125 cm....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is the shortest in his class, measuring only 125 cm. His parents are worried about his growth. His last three recorded heights have been between the 0.4th and 2nd centile. His mother is 160 cm tall and his father is 175 cm tall. He has no other health issues.

      What could be the probable reason for his short stature?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Familial Short Stature in Children

      Children who have short parents and are otherwise healthy may have familial short stature. This means that their height and weight fall within the expected range based on their parents’ heights, and growth charts can be used to predict their adult height. In the case of a girl with familial short stature, her predicted adult height would be 154 cm, which falls within the mid-parental range of heights. Delayed puberty would cause a failure to gain height at the beginning of puberty and crossing of height centiles, while inadequate nutrition would cause crossing of both height and weight centiles. Low birth weight can also cause short stature in children, but in the absence of any other history, familial short stature is the most likely explanation. Precocious puberty, on the other hand, causes children to be tall for their age at the onset of puberty, not short.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 97 - A doctor is performing a routine check on a 6-month-old baby and finds...

    Correct

    • A doctor is performing a routine check on a 6-month-old baby and finds that the hips are positive for Barlow and Ortolani tests. What is the most probable situation for this child?

      Your Answer: Female

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip is more likely to occur in females. Positive Barlow and Ortolani tests are indicative of DDH. High birth weight, breech presentation, and oligohydramnios are risk factors for DDH, while C-section birth is not a relevant factor.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 98 - A mother presents with her 3-month-old baby boy to ask advice about his...

    Correct

    • A mother presents with her 3-month-old baby boy to ask advice about his failed newborn hearing screening. Further tests were normal; however, she has been advised to seek medical advice if she has any concerns about his hearing in the future. Which one of the following would warrant referral for a further hearing test?

      Your Answer: Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones for Language Acquisition in Children

      Language acquisition is an important developmental milestone in children. Here are some key markers to look out for:

      – Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old: If a baby is not babbling or imitating sounds by this age, it could be a sign of a social, cognitive, speech, or hearing problem. A full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.

      – Putting two words together by the age of 18 months old: By this age, a child should be using 50+ words and be able to put two words together. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.

      – More than 200 spoken words by the age of two years: A 30-month-old child should be using 200+ words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.

      – Not responding to his own name by the age of six months old: By the age of one year, a child should respond to their own name. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.

      – Speaking 6-20 words by the age of one year: By the age of one, a child should be using 6-20 words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.

      It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are any concerns. Early intervention can make a significant difference in a child’s language acquisition and overall development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 99 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a 2-day history of a non-productive cough. Her father denies any recent viral illness.
      On examination, the patient has no accessory muscle usage and is afebrile. On auscultation, she is noted to have a left-sided wheeze without crepitations. The patient has been developing normally and has never had any respiratory problems before. She has no significant past medical or family history. Her immunisation records are up to date.
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Respiratory Symptoms

      When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of a short duration of non-productive cough, an audible wheeze, and unilateral wheeze on auscultation, an inhaled foreign body should be considered as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses include croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia, and asthma.

      Croup, caused by a virus such as the parainfluenza virus, is characterized by a barking-seal-like cough and may be accompanied by stridor. Bronchiolitis, on the other hand, typically follows a coryzal period of cough and/or cold and causes respiratory distress as evidenced by accessory muscle usage, nasal flare, and tachypnea. It is also characterized by widespread inspiratory crepitations.

      Pneumonia should also be included in the differential diagnosis, but the lack of respiratory distress and fever, as well as the absence of a productive cough, make it less likely. Asthma, which is rarely diagnosed in children of this age, would present with sudden onset respiratory distress and widespread wheezing.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and clinical findings is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 100 - The pediatrician is asked to review a 4 hour old term baby by...

    Incorrect

    • The pediatrician is asked to review a 4 hour old term baby by the nurse. The mother had no antenatal concerns and was not on any medication during pregnancy. The baby has not yet latched to the breast and appears lethargic. A heel prick blood sugar test was done and the result was as follows:
      Glucose 2.5 mmol/L (4.0-5.9)

      Upon examination, the baby was easily rousable and had a good suck. He had normal tone and cardiovascular examination was unremarkable. However, he had not passed urine or opened his bowels yet.

      What should be the first step in the pediatrician's management plan for this baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask the breastfeeding support team to come and support mum and baby with attempting a further feed now

      Explanation:

      It is common for newborns to experience transient hypoglycemia in the first few hours after birth. If a mother wishes to breastfeed, she should be provided with support and guidance on proper latching techniques and encouraged to engage in skin-to-skin contact with her baby. If the baby is having difficulty feeding, the mother can be taught how to hand express and provide colostrum through alternative methods. Blood glucose levels should be monitored before and after each feeding, without more than three hours between feeds. If the baby is asymptomatic, buccal glucose can be administered in conjunction with a feeding plan. However, if the baby has not yet had a feed and is mildly hypoglycemic, action should be taken and blood sugar levels should be checked again prior to the next feeding. It is important to provide mothers with information and support to encourage breastfeeding, rather than immediately suggesting formula feeding for a well, asymptomatic term baby. These guidelines are based on the BAPM Framework for Practice’s Identification and Management of Neonatal Hypoglycemia in the Full Term Infant (2017).

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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