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Question 1
Correct
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A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following an injury sustained during his weightlifting routine. He is an avid powerlifter and his training involves quick, forceful movements with heavy weights.
During the examination, the doctor observes weakness in knee flexion and some localized swelling in the knee area. The doctor suspects a possible detachment of the biceps femoris from its insertion site and requests an orthopedic consultation.
Can you identify the location of the insertion site for the long and short head of the biceps femoris?Your Answer: Head of the fibula
Explanation:The fibular head serves as the insertion point for both the long and short head of the biceps femoris muscle.
Muscle Insertion Site
Sartorius Medial surface of the proximal tibia
Rectus femoris Tibial tuberosity
Biceps femoris Fibular head
Semimembranosus Medial tibial condyle
PectineusThe Biceps Femoris Muscle
The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.
On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the name of the cells that make up the outermost layer of the retina and are first exposed to light?
Your Answer: Photoreceptors
Correct Answer: Ganglion cells
Explanation:The Retina and its Cell Types
The retina is composed of various types of cells, with the ganglion cell layer being the most superficial layer that is first exposed to light. Ganglion cells are the only neurons present in the retina, and they have an axon that extends centrally to form the optic nerve. These cells form synapses with bipolar cells, which are located deeper in the retina. Bipolar cells, in turn, synapse with photoreceptors, which are situated in the deepest layer of the retina. Supporting cells such as horizontal cells and amacrine cells are positioned between the other cells.
Photoreceptors play a crucial role in the retina by absorbing light and generating electrical impulses that travel through the optic nerve to the occipital lobe, where photographic images are created. The retina’s complex structure and the interactions between its various cell types enable us to see the world around us.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Histology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A couple in their early thirties visit the doctor's office as they have been attempting to conceive for the past year. They are currently 4 days pregnant without realizing it. At what stage is the fertilized tissue?
Your Answer: Trophoblast
Correct Answer: Morula
Explanation:When the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, it triggers a series of changes. Before this, the LH surge prompts the breakdown of the germinal vesicle that surrounds the enlarged nucleus, leading to the completion of meiosis and the formation of the first polar body. After fertilization, the pronuclei form, followed by zygote formation, rapid cleavage, compaction, and polarization.
Around day 5, the blastocyst is formed, and implantation typically occurs on days 5-6. On day 1, the fertilized egg (zygote) is produced, and by late day 1, it reaches the 2-cell stage. By early day 2, it is at the 4-cell stage, and by early day 3, it reaches the 8-cell stage. By late day 3, it has progressed to the 16-cell stage, and on day 4, the morula is formed. Finally, on day 5, the blastocyst is formed.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his physician with a gradual yellowing of his skin. During the examination, the physician observes jaundiced sclerae and palpates a round mass under the right costal margin, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The patient's abdomen is soft, non-tender, and not distended.
The physician orders a blood test, which reveals the following results:
- Bilirubin: 180 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 98 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 36 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT: 71 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 43 g/L (35 - 50)
What clinical sign is evident, and what is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Courvoisier's sign indicating likely cholecystitis
Correct Answer: Courvoisier's sign indicating biliary tract cancer
Explanation:If a patient has painless jaundice and a palpable gallbladder in the right upper quadrant, it is unlikely to be caused by gallstones and more likely to be a malignancy. This is known as Courvoisier’s sign, and the most common cancers associated with it are cholangiocarcinoma and adenocarcinoma of the pancreatic head.
Rovsing’s sign is a sign of acute appendicitis, where palpation of the left lower quadrant causes pain in the right lower quadrant.
Virchow’s sign is the presence of a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node, which is a sign of metastatic gastric cancer.
Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma
Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a serious medical condition that can be caused by primary sclerosing cholangitis. This disease is characterized by persistent biliary colic symptoms, which can be accompanied by anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. In some cases, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant may be present, which is known as the Courvoisier sign. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen.
One of the main risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma is primary sclerosing cholangitis. This condition can cause inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, which can lead to the development of cancer over time. To detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis, doctors often use a blood test to measure CA 19-9 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You eagerly begin your second laparoscopic cholecystectomy and encounter unexpected difficulties with the anatomy of Calots triangle. While attempting to apply a haemostatic clip, you accidentally tear the cystic artery, resulting in profuse bleeding. What is the most probable source of this bleeding?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Correct Answer: Right hepatic artery
Explanation:The most frequent scenario is for the cystic artery to originate from the right hepatic artery, although there are known variations in the anatomy of the gallbladder’s blood supply.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man receives a blow to the side of his head with a baseball bat during a brawl. He is initially alert but later loses consciousness and passes away. An autopsy reveals the presence of an extradural hematoma. Which vessel is most likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Maxillary artery
Explanation:The most probable origin of the extradural haematoma in this scenario is the middle meningeal artery, which is a branch of the maxillary artery. It should be noted that the question specifically asks for the vessel that gives rise to the middle meningeal artery, and not the middle cerebral artery.
The Middle Meningeal Artery: Anatomy and Clinical Significance
The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It is the largest of the three arteries that supply the meninges, the outermost layer of the brain. The artery runs through the foramen spinosum and supplies the dura mater. It is located beneath the pterion, where the skull is thin, making it vulnerable to injury. Rupture of the artery can lead to an Extradural hematoma.
In the dry cranium, the middle meningeal artery creates a deep indentation in the calvarium. It is intimately associated with the auriculotemporal nerve, which wraps around the artery. This makes the two structures easily identifiable in the dissection of human cadavers and also easily damaged in surgery.
Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the middle meningeal artery is important for medical professionals, particularly those involved in neurosurgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of muscle cramps and constipation that have been present for a week. He appears to be in good health otherwise. Upon conducting a serum potassium test, you discover that his levels are below the normal range. Your next step is to determine the underlying cause of his hypokalaemia. Which of the following medical conditions is commonly linked to low potassium levels?
Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:Cushing’s syndrome is the correct answer as it causes excess cortisol which can exhibit mineralocorticoid activity and lead to hypokalaemia. The kidneys play a major role in maintaining potassium balance, but other factors such as insulin, catecholamines, and aldosterone also influence potassium levels. The other options listed (congenital adrenal hypoplasia, Addison’s, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis) all cause hyperkalaemia. Addison’s disease and adrenal hypoplasia result in mineralocorticoid deficiency, leading to hyperkalaemia. Acidosis and rhabdomyolysis also cause hyperkalaemia. Symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and rarely paralysis.
Causes of Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that can be caused by both endogenous and exogenous factors. However, it is important to note that exogenous causes, such as the use of glucocorticoid therapy, are more common than endogenous ones. The condition can be classified into two categories: ACTH dependent and ACTH independent causes.
ACTH dependent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include Cushing’s disease, which is caused by a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH and producing adrenal hyperplasia. Ectopic ACTH production, which is caused by small cell lung cancer, is another ACTH dependent cause. On the other hand, ACTH independent causes include iatrogenic factors such as steroid use, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, Carney complex, and micronodular adrenal dysplasia.
In some cases, a condition called Pseudo-Cushing’s can mimic Cushing’s syndrome. This is often caused by alcohol excess or severe depression and can cause false positive results in dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol tests. To differentiate between Cushing’s syndrome and Pseudo-Cushing’s, an insulin stress test may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 8
Correct
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Sarah, a 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her left big toe. Her first MTP joint is swollen, hot, and red. She is seen biting her nails and hitting her head against the wall. Her caregiver informs you that this is her usual behavior.
Upon joint aspiration, negative birefringent needle-shaped crystals are found. Sarah's medical history includes a learning disability, depression, and asthma. She takes sertraline for depression and frequently uses hydrocortisone cream for eczema. Sarah does not consume red meat and prefers a vegetable-based diet.
What factors predispose Sarah to this type of crystalline arthritis?Your Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Explanation:If an individual with learning difficulties and a history of gout exhibits self-mutilating behaviors such as head-banging or nail-biting, it may indicate the presence of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. However, risk factors for gout do not include sertraline, hydrocortisone, or asthma, but rather red meat consumption. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition caused by a deficiency in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) and is characterized by hyperuricemia, learning disability, self-mutilating behavior, gout, and renal failure.
Predisposing Factors for Gout
Gout is a type of synovitis caused by the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. This condition is triggered by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels exceeding 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.
Decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by various factors, including the use of diuretics, chronic kidney disease, and lead toxicity. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be triggered by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis.
In rare cases, gout can also be caused by genetic disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is characterized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) deficiency. This condition is x-linked recessive, which means it is only seen in boys. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with gout, renal failure, neurological deficits, learning difficulties, and self-mutilation.
It is worth noting that aspirin in low doses (75-150mg) is not believed to have a significant impact on plasma urate levels. Therefore, the British Society for Rheumatology recommends that it should be continued if necessary for cardiovascular prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a chronically infected right kidney is scheduled for a nephrectomy. If a posterior approach is taken to the hilum of the right kidney, which structure would be encountered first?
Your Answer: Ureter
Explanation:During a posterior approach, the ureter would be the first structure encountered at the hilum of the right kidney due to its posterior position.
Anatomy of the Renal Arteries
The renal arteries are blood vessels that supply the kidneys with oxygenated blood. They are direct branches off the aorta and enter the kidney at the hilum. The right renal artery is longer than the left renal artery. The renal vein, artery, and pelvis also enter the kidney at the hilum.
The right renal artery is related to the inferior vena cava, right renal vein, head of the pancreas, and descending part of the duodenum. On the other hand, the left renal artery is related to the left renal vein and tail of the pancreas.
In some cases, there may be accessory arteries, mainly on the left side. These arteries usually pierce the upper or lower part of the kidney instead of entering at the hilum.
Before reaching the hilum, each renal artery divides into four or five segmental branches that supply each pyramid and cortex. These segmental branches then divide within the sinus into lobar arteries. Each vessel also gives off small inferior suprarenal branches to the suprarenal gland, ureter, and surrounding tissue and muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old, recently-immigrated girl from Nigeria is referred to the hospital after presenting to her GP with a growth of the jaw. A number of investigations are performed, including a test for the Epstein-Barr virus which comes back positive. A biopsy is taken, which demonstrates a 'starry sky' appearance.
Based on the presented information and the probable diagnosis, which translocation is most likely involved?Your Answer: T(11:14)
Correct Answer: T(8:14)
Explanation:Understanding Burkitt’s Lymphoma
Burkitt’s lymphoma is a type of high-grade B-cell neoplasm that can occur in two major forms. The endemic or African form typically affects the maxilla or mandible, while the sporadic form is commonly found in the abdomen, particularly in patients with HIV. The development of Burkitt’s lymphoma is strongly associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8:14), and the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is also implicated in its development.
Microscopy findings of Burkitt’s lymphoma show a starry sky appearance, characterized by lymphocyte sheets interspersed with macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumor cells. Management of this condition involves chemotherapy, which can produce a rapid response but may also cause tumor lysis syndrome. To reduce the risk of this occurring, rasburicase, a recombinant version of urate oxidase, is often given before chemotherapy. Complications of tumor lysis syndrome include hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and acute renal failure.
In summary, Burkitt’s lymphoma is a serious condition that can occur in two major forms and is associated with c-myc gene translocation and the Epstein-Barr virus. Microscopy findings show a characteristic appearance, and management involves chemotherapy with the use of rasburicase to reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man who is on tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisolone for a previous kidney-transplant is planning to travel and seeks your advice on which vaccinations he can safely receive.
Which vaccine should be administered with caution to this patient?Your Answer: Pneumococcal
Correct Answer: Yellow fever
Explanation:Yellow fever and intranasal influenzae vaccines are live attenuated, while hepatitis A and rabies vaccines are inactivated. Yellow fever vaccine should be used with caution in immune-deficient patients.
Vaccinations: Types and Precautions
Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.
It is important to note that different types of influenzae vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.
In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man is having a radical nephrectomy performed through a posterior approach. What is the structure that is most likely to be encountered during the surgical procedure?
Your Answer: 9th rib
Correct Answer: 12th rib
Explanation:During a posterior approach, the kidneys may come across the 11th and 12th ribs which are located at the back. It is important to note that a potential complication of this surgery is the occurrence of a pneumothorax.
Renal Anatomy: Understanding the Structure and Relations of the Kidneys
The kidneys are two bean-shaped organs located in a deep gutter alongside the vertebral bodies. They measure about 11cm long, 5cm wide, and 3 cm thick, with the left kidney usually positioned slightly higher than the right. The upper pole of both kidneys approximates with the 11th rib, while the lower border is usually alongside L3. The kidneys are surrounded by an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which contains pyramidal structures that terminate at the renal pelvis into the ureter. The renal sinus lies within the kidney and contains branches of the renal artery, tributaries of the renal vein, major and minor calyces, and fat.
The anatomical relations of the kidneys vary depending on the side. The right kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, and transversus abdominis, while the left kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, transversus abdominis, stomach, pancreas, spleen, and distal part of the small intestine. Each kidney and suprarenal gland is enclosed within a common layer of investing fascia, derived from the transversalis fascia, which is divided into anterior and posterior layers (Gerotas fascia).
At the renal hilum, the renal vein lies most anteriorly, followed by the renal artery (an end artery), and the ureter lies most posteriorly. Understanding the structure and relations of the kidneys is crucial in diagnosing and treating renal diseases and disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia at the age of 40 is prescribed risperidone. During their consultation with the doctor, they are informed that some of the potential side effects are caused by elevated levels of prolactin.
What is the mechanism behind this occurrence?Your Answer: Stimulation of serotonin activity
Correct Answer: Inhibition of dopamine activity
Explanation:Dopamine plays a crucial role in inhibiting the release of prolactin. As atypical antipsychotics like risperidone block dopamine activity, they can lead to increased levels of prolactin. While these drugs may also inhibit histamine and serotonin to varying degrees, it is the inhibition of dopamine that is directly linked to prolactin release. Stimulation of dopamine or serotonin activity would not interfere with prolactin release in the same way that dopamine inhibition does.
Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions
Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.
The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.
Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer visits the neurology clinic to receive the results of his recent brain MRI. He had been experiencing severe headaches for the past four months, which is unusual for him, and has had five episodes of vomiting in the past month. The MRI scan reveals a lesion in the lateral nucleus of the hypothalamus.
What other symptom is he likely to exhibit?Your Answer: Dysdiadochokinesia
Correct Answer: Anorexia
Explanation:Anorexia can result from lesions in the lateral nucleus of the hypothalamus.
It is likely that the patient in question has a metastatic lesion from her breast in the lateral nucleus of the hypothalamus. Stimulation of this area of the thalamus increases appetite, while a lesion can lead to anorexia.
Lesions in the posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus can cause poikilothermia. This region is responsible for regulating body temperature.
The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus produces oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone. Lesions in this area can result in diabetes insipidus.
Hyperphagia can be caused by lesions in the ventromedial nucleus of the thalamus. This region of the hypothalamus functions as the satiety center.
The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been referred to a dermatology clinic due to the presence of widespread flaccid superficial blisters and oral mucosal ulceration. He has no known history of coeliac disease. Upon biopsy, it was discovered that he has antibodies against the desmosomes that connect epithelial cells.
What is the underlying skin condition?Your Answer: Pemphigoid
Correct Answer: Pemphigus
Explanation:Pemphigus is a skin disorder caused by autoimmune reactions where IgG antibodies attack the desmosomes that connect the skin cells. This results in acantholysis, where the keratinocytes detach from each other. In contrast, pemphigoid is another autoimmune blistering skin disorder, but it is caused by IgG autoantibodies targeting the basement membrane instead of the desmosomes.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Correct
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An 82-year-old male patient visits their GP with a swollen and red knee joint that has been hot for the past 3 days. The patient has a medical history of diabetes and osteoarthritis, leading the GP to suspect septic arthritis. During the humoral response to an infection, what receptor is present on Helper T cells that allows them to interact with MHC II molecules on antigen-presenting cells to eliminate pathogens?
Your Answer: CD4
Explanation:Helper T cells express CD4, which interacts with MHC II molecules on antigen presenting cells. CD20 is present on B cells from late pro-B cells through memory cells, but not on early pro-B cells or plasma cells. CD8 is expressed on cytotoxic T cells and binds with MHC I molecules.
The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.
B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman complains of increasing shortness of breath in the past few months, especially when lying down at night. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and high blood pressure, which is managed with ramipril. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day. Her heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. An ECG reveals sinus rhythm and left ventricular hypertrophy. On physical examination, there are no heart murmurs, but there is wheezing throughout the chest and coarse crackles at both bases. She has pitting edema in both ankles. Her troponin T level is 0.01 (normal range <0.02). What is the diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Right heart failure
Correct Answer: Biventricular failure
Explanation:Diagnosis and Assessment of Biventricular Failure
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of both peripheral and pulmonary edema, indicating biventricular failure. The ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy, which is likely due to her long-standing hypertension. While she is at an increased risk for a myocardial infarction as a diabetic and smoker, her low troponin T levels suggest that this is not the immediate cause of her symptoms. However, it is important to rule out acute coronary syndromes in diabetics, as they may not experience pain.
Mitral stenosis, if present, would be accompanied by a diastolic murmur and left atrial hypertrophy. In severe cases, back-pressure can lead to pulmonary edema. Overall, a thorough assessment and diagnosis of biventricular failure is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Correct
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A woman visits her physician and undergoes lying and standing blood pressure tests. Upon standing, her baroreceptors sense reduced stretch, triggering the baroreceptor reflex. This results in a decrease in baroreceptor activity, leading to an elevation in sympathetic discharge.
What is the function of the neurotransmitter that is released?Your Answer: Noradrenaline binds to β 1 receptors in the SA node increasing depolarisation
Explanation:The binding of noradrenaline to β 1 receptors in the SA node is responsible for an increase in heart rate due to an increase in depolarisation in the pacemaker action potential, allowing for more frequent firing of action potentials. As the SA node is the pacemaker in a healthy individual, the predominant β receptor found in the heart, β 1, is the one that noradrenaline acts on more than β 2 and α 2 receptors. Therefore, the correct answer is that noradrenaline binds to β 1 receptors in the SA node.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following nerves is responsible for the motor innervation of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
Your Answer: Accessory nerve
Explanation:The accessory nerve provides the motor supply to the sternocleidomastoid, while the ansa cervicalis is responsible for supplying sensory information from the muscle.
The Sternocleidomastoid Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is a large muscle located in the neck that plays an important role in head and neck movement. It is named after its origin and insertion points, which are the sternum, clavicle, mastoid process, and occipital bone. The muscle is innervated by the spinal part of the accessory nerve and the anterior rami of C2 and C3, which provide proprioceptive feedback.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle has several actions, including extending the head at the atlanto-occipital joint and flexing the cervical vertebral column. It also serves as an accessory muscle of inspiration. When only one side of the muscle contracts, it can laterally flex the neck and rotate the head so that the face looks upward to the opposite side.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles, which are important landmarks for medical professionals. The anterior triangle contains several important structures, including the carotid artery, jugular vein, and thyroid gland. The posterior triangle contains the brachial plexus, accessory nerve, and several lymph nodes.
Overall, the sternocleidomastoid muscle is a crucial muscle for head and neck movement and plays an important role in the anatomy of the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. He recalls eating a beef burger at a barbecue 6 days ago, and other attendees have reported similar symptoms. The patient has not traveled abroad recently. Upon conducting a stool culture, the results show the presence of aerobic gram-negative rod bacteria. What is the most probable organism responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Escherichia coli, an aerobic gram-negative rod, is known to cause food poisoning when individuals consume undercooked beef. Campylobacter jejuni, Neisseria meningitidis, and Salmonella enterica are all incorrect answers as they are different types of bacteria and not associated with undercooked beef-related food poisoning.
Classification of Bacteria Made Easy
Bacteria are classified based on their shape, staining properties, and other characteristics. One way to simplify the classification process is to remember that Gram-positive cocci include staphylococci and streptococci, while Gram-negative cocci include Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. To categorize all bacteria, only a few Gram-positive rods or bacilli need to be memorized, which can be remembered using the mnemonic ABCD L: Actinomyces, Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), Clostridium, Diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae), and Listeria monocytogenes.
The remaining organisms are Gram-negative rods, such as Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Salmonella sp., Shigella sp., and Campylobacter jejuni. By keeping these classifications in mind, it becomes easier to identify and differentiate between different types of bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old female is seen by an ophthalmologist for a follow-up after being diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. The patient is asymptomatic and has 20/20 vision with glasses. During the examination, it is noted that the patient's intraocular pressure remains significantly elevated despite consistent use of a prostaglandin analogue. The decision is made to initiate treatment with timolol eye drops.
What is the main mode of action of timolol eye drops?Your Answer: Increases uveoscleral drainage
Correct Answer: Reduces aqueous production
Explanation:Timolol, a beta-blocker, is commonly used as a second-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma. It works by reducing the production of aqueous humor, which in turn lowers intraocular pressure. Mitotic agents like pilocarpine can cause pupil constriction and may be used in acute closed-angle glaucoma to increase space for aqueous drainage. However, this mechanism is not routinely used in open-angle glaucoma. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like acetazolamide can also reduce aqueous production but are taken orally and can cause systemic side effects. Increasing trabecular meshwork drainage is a mechanism used by drugs like pilocarpine, while increasing uveoscleral drainage is achieved by drugs like latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.
The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 23 years old male presents to the hospital with a complaint of reduced ability to flex his left elbow. The doctor observes a significant weakness in the flexion of his left elbow and supination of his forearm. Additionally, the patient reports experiencing a tingling sensation on his left lateral forearm.
Which nerve is most likely to be damaged in this case?Your Answer: Median nerve
Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The musculocutaneous nerve originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus and provides innervation to the bicep brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles in the upper arm. It then continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm. Damage to this nerve can result in the aforementioned symptoms.
The median nerve is responsible for innervating the anterior compartment of the forearm, but does not provide innervation to any muscles in the arm.
The ulnar nerve provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the forearm, as well as the intrinsic muscles of the hand (excluding the thenar muscles and two lateral lumbricals). It is commonly injured due to a fracture of the medial epicondyle.
The radial nerve innervates the tricep brachii and extensor muscles in the forearm, and provides sensory innervation to the majority of the posterior forearm and dorsal surface of the lateral three and a half digits. It is typically injured due to a midshaft humeral fracture.
The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway
The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A somatostatinoma patient with constantly elevated somatostatin levels experiences a significant decrease in the secretion of many endocrine hormones. Which hormone responsible for stimulating the pancreas and hepatic duct cells to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid is affected when S cells are not stimulated?
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin
Correct Answer: Secretin
Explanation:Secretin is the correct answer as it is produced by S cells in the upper small intestine and stimulates the pancreas and hepatic duct cells to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid. It also reduces gastric acid secretion and promotes the growth of pancreatic acinar cells. However, if there is a somatostatinoma present, there will be an excess of somatostatin which inhibits the production of secretin by S cells.
Cholecystokinin (CCK) is an incorrect answer as it is released by I-cells in the upper small intestine in response to fats and proteins. CCK stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to contract and secrete bile enzymes into the duodenum.
Gastrin is an incorrect answer as it is produced by G cells in the stomach and stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid into the stomach.
Ghrelin is an incorrect answer as it is released to stimulate hunger, particularly before meals.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with diplopia and headache. Imaging reveals acute hydrocephalus and a space occupying lesion in the base of the 4th ventricle. What type of cell proliferation would be expected on biopsy?
Your Answer: Oligodendrocytes
Correct Answer: Ependymal cells
Explanation:Childhood tumours of the central nervous system (CNS) frequently develop at the base of the 4th ventricle. Oligodendrocytes are accountable for creating the myelin sheath in the CNS. The formation of the blood-brain barrier is a crucial function of astrocytes. Schwann cells are responsible for creating the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system.
The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.
In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 25
Correct
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A consultant is speaking with the parents of a young adult who has recently been diagnosed with Huntington's disease. He informs them that not all individuals who inherit the gene mutation for Huntington's disease will develop the condition.
What is the consultant explaining to the parents?Your Answer: Incomplete penetrance
Explanation:Penetrance refers to the percentage of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and exhibit the related disease phenotype. Incomplete penetrance occurs when not all individuals who carry the disease-causing allele express the disease phenotype. Huntington’s disease is an example of a condition with incomplete penetrance. Epigenetic regulation, expressivity, and mosaicism are not related to penetrance.
Understanding Penetrance and Expressivity in Genetic Disorders
Penetrance and expressivity are two important concepts in genetics that help explain why individuals with the same gene mutation may exhibit different degrees of observable characteristics. Penetrance refers to the proportion of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and express the related disease phenotype. In contrast, expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual.
There are several factors that can influence penetrance and expressivity, including modifier genes, environmental factors, and allelic variation. For example, some genetic disorders, such as retinoblastoma and Huntington’s disease, exhibit incomplete penetrance, meaning that not all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition. On the other hand, achondroplasia shows complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition.
Expressivity, on the other hand, describes the severity of the phenotype. Some genetic disorders, such as neurofibromatosis, exhibit a high level of expressivity, meaning that the phenotype is more severe in affected individuals. Understanding penetrance and expressivity is important in genetic counseling and can help predict the likelihood and severity of a genetic disorder in individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Correct
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A 79-year-old man presents to a heart failure clinic with worsening peripheral oedema and seeks advice on potential treatment options. The patient has a medical history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and chronic kidney disease. His current medication regimen includes ramipril, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and furosemide.
The patient's laboratory results show a sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 7.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), creatinine level of 132 µmol/L (55 - 120), and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 53 ml/min/1.73m2 (>60).
What adjustments should be made to the patient's furosemide treatment?Your Answer: Increase the dose
Explanation:To ensure sufficient concentration of loop diuretics within the tubules, patients with poor renal function may require increased doses. This is because loop diuretics, such as furosemide, work by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which reduces the absorption of NaCl. As these diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Therefore, increasing the dose can help achieve the desired concentration within the tubules. The other options, such as changing to amlodipine, keeping the dose the same, or stopping immediately, are not appropriate in this scenario.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Meckel's diverticulum. What embryological structure does it originate from?
Your Answer: Foregut
Correct Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct
Explanation:The Meckel’s diverticulum is a condition where the vitello-intestinal duct persists, and it is characterized by being 2 inches (5cm) long, located 2 feet (60 cm) from the ileocaecal valve, 2 times more common in men, and involving 2 tissue types.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A patient with compromised kidney function is given a new medication that is typically eliminated through renal excretion. What factors might impact the excretion of the medication?
Your Answer: Diffusivity across the basement membrane
Correct Answer: Diffusivity across the basement membrane and tubular secretion/reabsorption
Explanation:The clearance of a substance in the kidneys is influenced by two important factors: diffusivity across the basement membrane and tubular secretion/reabsorption. Additionally, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in generating a significant osmotic gradient, while the primary function of the collecting duct is to facilitate the reabsorption of water.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 33 weeks pregnant visits the clinic with a complaint of foot pain. The pain is mainly felt on the back of the sole of her foot and is most intense when she takes her first steps after getting out of bed in the morning. Upon examination, the area is tender to touch, and you suspect plantar fasciitis. While NSAIDs are a common treatment for this condition, you are aware that they are not recommended during pregnancy, particularly in the later stages. This is due to the potential risk of premature closure of the fetal vessel that connects which two major arteries?
Your Answer: Ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The correct answer is the ductus arteriosus, which connects the proximal descending aorta to the pulmonary artery, allowing blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs in utero. It closes at birth, forming the ligamentum arteriosum. A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) occurs when it fails to close. Prostaglandins play a role in maintaining a PDA, and NSAIDs can be used to treat it, but are avoided in pregnancy to prevent early closure.
The ductus venosus, also known as Arantius’ duct, connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, bypassing the liver in utero. It usually closes within the first week of life, forming the ligamentum venosum.
The foramen ovale is an opening in the atrial septum that allows blood to flow from the right to the left atrium in utero. It usually closes at birth, but a patent foramen ovale can occur if it fails to close.
The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus and closes within the first week of life, forming the round ligament of the liver.
The patient in the question is likely experiencing plantar fasciitis, which is caused by inflammation of the plantar fascia in the foot.
Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.
This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.
The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old sexually active female comes to the emergency department complaining of suprapubic pain, deep dyspareunia, and heavy and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. The Gynaecology team is consulted and performs a work-up for suspected pelvic inflammatory disease, including urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity, blood cultures, and a high vaginal swab. What organism is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:If Chlamydia trachomatis is not treated, PID may develop in a significant number of patients. This can lead to serious consequences such as infertility, chronic pain, and ectopic pregnancy caused by scarring.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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